1.1 Consumer Theory
1.1 Consumer Theory
- The rate a consumer is willing to substitute one good for another along an indifference curve
−M U x
- Slope of the indifference curve: ie the differential of the x over the differential of y
MU y
- Negative as downward sloping
MUx
- MRS is the positive
MU y
- Usually the slope becomes gentler as x increases. When very little x you are willing to give up
far more of y.
- When 2 goods are perfect substitutes then indifference curve is straight line
- When perfect complements we have L shaped curves, need equal of both
- In between we have downward sloping curves with diminishing MRS
Budget constraint
- Once we have our model of preferences we now need to know the set of goods the
consumer can afford. Budget constraint
- Consumers are usually price takers and therefore this will be a straight line
- (if consumer buys different units at different prices this wouldn’t be straight eg quantity
discounts)
Utility maximisation
- Choose the point where the highest indifference curve is tangent to the budget constraint
line
- Where M is the total budget
- At the point they meet the gradients
−Px
equal so -MRS =
Py
Px
- So MRS =
Py
-
- we use the Langragian multiplier to show and solve this
- L = U(x,y) + λ(M-Pxx -Pyy)
- We now do + λ and then the budget minus the prices (same as other way round)
Using the Lagrange multiplier to solve a condition
subject to a constraint. We find the first
derivatives in terms of x and y.
- Then find the ratio of y to x, and then using the derivative of the constraint find the solutions
Demand Curves
-
- Red dotted line is the hypothetical budget line at the new prices. B would be the bundle
purely due to change in prices, if income did not improve at all as a result
- From B to C is purely income effect
∆Q P ∆Q
- where will just be the coefficient of the p value and p/q is the p value we are
∆P Q ∆P
given and the q that comes out from using that p
- At high price levels demand is more elastic – a fall in price causes increases in demand more
than proportionally.
- At low prices demand is more inelastic, a fall in price has little impact
- Effect on the quantity demanded of good i when the price of good j increases.
- If the demand of i rises when the price of j increases this is a positive cross price elasticity
and if the demand for i falls when the price of j rises this is negative cross price elasticity
- If goods are substitutes then they will have a positive cross price elasticity. As one becomes
more expensive the demand for the substitute increases
- If goods are complements then they will have negative cross price demand. As one becomes
more expensive we will also demand less of the other.
- It’s the percentage change in quantity demanded of i divided by the corresponding
percentage change in the price of good j
∆ Q px ∆Q
At a point, this will be where is the coefficient of the price which is changing Px and
∆ Px Q ∆ Px
px/Q is the given price of the good changing price over the quantity for that specific price
Income Elasticity
- When elasticity exceeds 1 the good is a luxury good, necessities like food have a lower
elasticity
- When we decomposed the price effect into income and substitution we created a
hypothetical point which was the budget constraint at the new prices, but compensated to
return to the original utility. (ignore income effect). Shows substitution effect
Compensating variation.
-
- Alternatively we could use the old prices, but have an income change equivalent to the
change in utility.
Equivalent variation
-
- First way shows new prices but at old income, second shows old prices at new income.
Either way rules out income change
-
- Here is a way to understand the difference between the 2.
- Compensating variation: how much the difference in income is needed to maintain the same
utility as the original
- Equivalent variation: how different the income could be to maintain the new utility level but
at the original prices.
- Because we are dealing with a price increase of a normal good, the CV>EV
- If we had a price decrease or an inferior good then this would be the opposite
- Change in consumer surplus – calculate the differences between consumer surplus at the
original price and the new price
- But because of presence of income effect this may not be accurate. Rather we have:
- Compensating Variation (CV) CV is the amount of money that must be given to a consumer
to offset the harm from a price increase, i.e. to keep the consumer on the original
indifference curve before the price increase.
- Equivalent Variation (EV) EV is the amount of money that must be taken away from a
consumer to cause as much harm as the price increase. In this case, we keep the price at its
original level (before the rise) but take away income to keep the consumer on the
indifference curve reached after the price rise.
- So using the functions we just did the maths with. Suppose the original prices are (1,1) and
the income is 100
- Then price of x increases to 2
M M
- At initial prices u* = at new price its
2 2 √2
M +CV M
- CV is the extra income that restores the original utility at the new prices so =
2 √2 2
- So solving we get CV = M(√ 2-1) using M = 100 CV is 41.42
- EV is the change in income which at the original prices will leave us on the same utility as
M M −EV
after the price change so =
2 √2 2
( √ 2−1)M
- Solving we get EV = using M = 100 this gives 29.29
√2
- Since this is a price rise and a normal good EV<CV
- For a price rise in a normal good EV<∆CS<CV
- For a price rise in an inferior good CV<∆CS<EV
-
-
-
-
- For CV set the OG utility function (where we use the demand functions in the utility
function) equal to the new one where we add a CV to ensure they are the same at the new
price level. Here the new price is lower so we must remove the CV to get back to equal
utility
Labour Supply
-
- This is then like a classic optimisation case with 2 goods, C0 and C1. The price of C0 is 1 and
1
the price of C1 is ie any spending done in C1 is ‘cheaper’
1+ r
- The optimal point will satisfy the MRS = gradient of budget line
MU C 0
- So =(1+ r)
MU C 1
- If the optimal bundle is C0 = Y0 and C1 = Y1 then the consumer isn’t a borrower or a saver
- If C0 > Y0 and C1 <Y1 then this consumer is a borrower, borrowing in year 0 and therefore
spending less in year 1
- If C0 < Y0 and C1 >Y1 then this consumer is a saver, saving from year 0 to spend in year 1
- A change in interest rates will change the intertemporal bundle:
- A raise in interest shifts up the budget line (would be more to spend in Y 1)
- For a borrower: Y0<C0
- Substitution effect: higher interest rates means immediate consumption more costly, will
therefore move towards saving more, lower C0
- Income effect: higher interest rate means that borrowed money worth is less as Y 1 incomes
will be discounted more heavily, so overall income worth less, so should spend less lower C 0
- Both affects in the same direction so direction of change unambiguous, higher interest rates
mean less borrowing
- For a saver: Y0>C0
- Substitution effect: higher interest rates mean that spending now is more costly (higher
interest rates on saved money) should save more
- Income effect: higher interest rate raises overall income and therefore consumption
(including in Y0) increases, so C0 increases
- Ambiguous as to which way the total effect on saving goes.