@DIBSBSS PHYSICS QUESTIONS 2016, E.

DODOLA IFA BORU SPECIAL

BOARDING SECONDARY SCHOOL
PHYSICS ALARMING QUESTIONS
FOR GRADE (9-11)
AY, 2024 E.C
Set By: JEMAL ABDA (MSc)

የጥያቄዎች መልስ መጨረሻ ላይ አለላችሁ ።

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@DIBSBSS PHYSICS QUESTIONS 2016, E. C

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS ACCORDINGLY

1. X = 3YZ2 find dimensions of Y in (MKSA) system, if X and Z are the dimensions of capacity and magnetic field
respectively
A. [M –3L –2T – 4A –1] C) [M –3L –2T 4A 4 ]
B. [ML– 2] D) [M –3L – 2T 8A 4 ]
2. If Q denote the charge on the plate of a capacitor of capacitance C then the dimensional formula for is
2 2 2 –2
A. [L M T] C. [L MT ]
2
B. [LMT ] D. [L2M2T 2]
3. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions which mathematical operation given below is physically
meaningful? A. A/B B. A + B C. A – B D. A = B
4. Wavelength of ray of light is 0.00006 m. It is equal to:
A. 6 microns B) 60 microns C) 600 microns m D) 0.6 microns m
5. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are
A. torque and work
B. momentum and Planck’s constant
C. stress and Young’s modulus
D. speed and (m0 e0 ) –1/2
6. The unit of impulse is the same as that of A. energy B. power C. momentum D. velocity
7. SI unit of permittivity is A) C2m2N–2 B) C–1m2N–2 C) C2m2N2 D) C2m–2N–1
8. The dimensions of 0 E 2 ( 0= permittivity of free space and E = electric field) are
A. MLT–1 B) ML2T –2 C) ML–1T –2 D) ML2T –1 E) MLT-2
9. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions?
1. Energy density
2. Refractive index
3. Dielectric constant
4. Young’s modulus
5. Magnetic field
A. 2 and 4 C. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 5 D. 1 and 5
10. Young’s modulus of a material has the same unit as that of
A. Pressure B. strain C. compressibility D. force
11. Of the following quantities, which one has dimensions different from the remaining three?
A. Energy per unit volume C. Product of voltage and charge per unit volume
B. Force per unit area D. Angular momentum
12. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
A. Pressure-Barometer C) Temperature-Thermometer
B. Relative density-Pyrometer D) Earthquake-Seismograph
13. The magnitude of any physical quantity
A. depends on the method of measurement
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B. does not depend on the method of measurement

C. is more in SI system than in CGS system
D. directly proportional to the fundamental units of mass, length and time
14. In S = a + bt + ct2, S is measured in metres and t in seconds. The unit of c is: A) ms–2 B) m C) ms–1 D) None
15. If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in terms of significant figures is
A) 38.4 B) 38.3937 C) 38.394 D ) 38.39
16. If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B = (a) 4.431 cm (b) 4.43 cm (c) 4.4 cm (d) 4 cm
17. The number of significant figures in all the given numbers 25.12, 2009, 4.156 and 1.217 × 10 –4 is
A. 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
18. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3are
A. 5, 1, 2 C. 5, 5, 2
B. 5, 1, 5 D. 4, 4, 2
19. The resistance R = , where V = (100 ± 5)volts and I = (10 ± 0.2)amperes. What is the total error in R ?
A. 5% B) 7% C) 5.2% D) 5 % 2
20. If the displacement of a particle is (2t2 + t + 5) meter then, what will be acc. at t = 5 second?
A. 21 m/s2 B) 20 m/s2 C) 4 m/s2 D) 10 m/s2
21. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time ‘t’are given by x = t3 and y = t3 . The speed of the particle at
time ‘t’ is given by
A. 3t√ C. t2√
B. 3t2√ D. √
th
22. If a car covers of the total distance with V1 speed and th distance with V2 then average speed is
A. √ B. C. D.
23. A particle moves along x-axis as x = 4 (t – 2) + a (t – 2)2. Which of the following is true?
A. The initial velocity of particle is 4 C) The particle is at origin at t = 0
B. The acceleration of particle is 2a D) None of these
24. The displacement x of a particle varies with time according to the relation X = ( ). Then select the false
alternative.
A. At b t = , the displacement of the particle is nearly ( )
B. The velocity and acceleration of the particle at t = 0 are a and –ab respectively
C. The particle cannot go beyond x =
D. The particle will not come back to its starting point at t
25. A stone falls freely from rest from a height h and it travels a distance in the last second. The value of h is
A. 145 m B. 100 m C. 122.5 m D. 200 m
26. The unit of percentage error is
A. Same as that of physical quantity
B. Different from that of physical quantity
C. Percentage error is unitless
D. Errors have got their own units which are different from that of physical quantity measured
27. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. The error in the calculated value of its volume is

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A) 1% B) 3% C) 5% D) 7%
28. A boat is moving with a velocity 3i +4j with respect to ground. The water in the river is moving with a velocity – 3i-4j
with respect to ground. The relative velocity of the boat with respect to water is
A) 8j B) -6i-8j C) 6i+8j D) 5√ i
29. What is the name of the following prefix represent 1018, 1015, 10-21, 10-24, respectively?
A. quintillion, quadrillion, sextillionth, septillionth C. quadrillion, quintillion, , sextillionth, septillionth
B. septillionth, sextillionth, Quintillion, quadrillion, D. quintillion, quadrillion, septillionth, sextillionth
30. Which of the following are the collections of derived quantities?
A. length, time, temperature, mass, density
B. speed, velocity, volume, density, area
C. force, acceleration, volume, area, time
D. pressure, speed, velocity, temperature, momentum
31. What is the correct SF of 4.57 ?
A. 1. B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
32. What is the dimension of a = ? A. LT-1 B. LT2 C. LT-2 D. L2 T-2
33. Which type of error makes your measurement every time below or every time above the true value?
A. Random error B. systematic error C. both the random and systematic error d. parallax error
34. A special example of systematic error is called
A. Parallax error B. zero error C. random error d. none of these
35. If the tail of vector B is placed at the tip of A and the tail of C is placed at the tip of B, the sum of the three vectors is
drawn from the
A) Tail of A to tip of B C) Tail of B to tip of C
B) Tail of A to tip of C D) Tip of C to tail of B
36. Which quantities decrease as sound travels from water to air
A) speed and frequency B) frequency and wavelength C) wavelength and speed D) only frequency
37. Which of the following is not a vector quantity? A. velocity B. force C. momentum D. density
38. The resultant of 4N and 3N cannot be
A. 5N B. 1N C. 7N. D. 12N
39. Two forces are 6N, north and 6N, east. What is the direction of these two vectors?
A) 45 B. 30 C. 60 D. 90
40. If the magnitude of the sum and difference of two vectors are equal, then two vectors are:
A. In the same direction B. in opposite direction C. Perpendicular D. neither parallel nor perpendicular
41. Two vectors are said to be equal if
A) they have the equal magnitude and opposite direction C) they have unequal magnitude and the same direction
B) they have the equal magnitude and the same direction D) they are perpendicular
42. What is the horizontal component of the displacement 8m at angle from +x-axis?
A) 4√ m B. 4m c. 2m. D. 1m
43. Which one of the following is the collection of physical quantities?
A. Mass, speed, fear, force, pressure C. energy, work, love, momentum, force
B. Time, temperature, length, velocity D. hope, love, fear, hate, desire
44. Which of the following is not the symbol of dimension of fundamental quantity?
A. N B. L C. M D. L2

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45. The dimension of frequency is: A. B. C. D.

46. Which of the following is taken as a fundamental unit in both MKS and English metric system?
A. Kilogram B. foot C. Pound D. Second
47. What is the name of symbol represents ? A. yotta- B. exa- C. peta- D. atto-
48. Which represents the decreasing order of prefixes?
A. femto, atto, zepto, yocto C. femto, zepto, atto, yocto
B.yocto, zepto, atto,femto D. femto, atto, yocto, zepto
49. What is the dimension of Energy? A. ML2 T2 B. M C. M D. M
50. Which of the following pair of quantities have the same dimension?
A. Area and volume B. length and area C. velocity and acceleration D. distance and displacement
51. All are correct about the significant figure EXCEPT:
A. All none zero numbers are significant C. Zero/es between two non-zero numbers are significant
B.All zeroes are significant D. Zero in 1.20 is significant
52. In which of the following number all zeroes are not significant? A. 0.020 B. 0.00202 C. 0.2000 D. 0.0002
53. What is the correct significant figure of the result of 2.34 12.432? A. 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
54. Assume the accepted value and measured values of the acceleration due to gravity are 9.812m/s2 and 9.82 m/s2
respectively. What is the absolute error of acceleration due to gravity?
A. 0.0080 B. 0.080 C. 0.80 D. 0.800
55. Based on the above question, what is the relative error with correct significant figure?
A. 0.82 B. 8.2 C. 0.00082 D. 8.15
56. One of the following statement is not correct:
A. Accuracy is the degree of the closeness of measured value to the true value
B. Precision increase as uncertainty increase
C. Accuracy describes how well we eliminate the systematic error
D. Precision decrease as uncertainty increase
57. A type of vector that represents the position of a body related to another is?
A. Collinear vector B. coplanar vector C. position vector D. Unit vector
58. What is the unit vector in the direction of vector A = 3i+4j?
A. B. C. D.
59. What is the value of linear velocity, if ⃗ = 3i + 4j+k and if = 5i - 6j+ 6k
A. 6i - 2j+ 3k B) 6i-2j+8k C) 4i-13j+6k D) -18i-13j+12k
60. Two vectors are given as A=5i+4j and B= 2i+3j. What will be the value of vector C, such that C=3A-2B?
A. 11i+6j B. 11i-6j C. -11i-6j D. 19i+18j
61. If | ⃗|=√ ⃗ , then the value of | ⃗ | is
A. ( )1/2 B) A+B C) ( √ )1/2 D) ( )1/2
√
62. The vector ⃗ =ai+aj +3k and ⃗ = ai-2j -k are perpendicular to each other. The positive value of a is
A) 3 B) 4 C) 9 D) 13
63. A particle moves from position (3i+2j-6k) to 14i + 13j 9k due to a uniform force of F (4i + j +3k) N. If the displacement
in meters then work done will be: A) 100J B) 200 J C) 300 J D) 250 J
64. Two forces = 5i + 10j -20k and = 10i -5j -15k act on a single point. The angle between ⃗⃗⃗ and ⃗⃗⃗⃗ r is nearly
⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
A) 30° B) 45° C) 60° D) 90°
65. With respect to a rectangular Cartesian coordinate system, three vectors are expressed as = 4i – j, ⃗ i j = -3i+2j and
= -k where i, j, k are unit vectors, along the X, Y and Z-axis respectively. The unit vectors ⃗⃗ along the direction of
sum of these vector is
A) (i+j-k) B) (i+j-k) C) (i-j+k) D) (i+j+k)
√ √ √

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⃗⃗ = 2i + j+ k and ⃗⃗ = i + j+ k are two vectors. Based on this answer the following

66. The unit vector perpendicular to ⃗⃗ is: A) B) C) D)
√ √
67. The unit vector parallel to ⃗⃗ is A) B) C) D)
√ √ √ √
68. The unit vector perpendicular to ⃗⃗ is: A) B) C) D)
√ √
69. What is the maximum resultant of 3N and 4N? A. 12N B. 5N C. 7N D. 1N
70. Based on the above question,Which of the Following can be the resultant of two forces if they are at angle of 60 to
each other?
A. 6.1N B. 7N C. 3.6 D. A and C
71. What is the magnitude of vector D= 3i-3j? A. 3√2 B. 6 C. 2√ D. 3
72. What are the horizontal and vertical components of the vector of magnitude 4N at angle of 30 from the horizontal
respectively? A. 2N, 2√3N B. 2√3N, 2N C. 2N, 2N D. 4N.2N E. 2N,4N
73. What is the magnitude and direction of vector 2i+2j respectively?
A. 2√ N, B. 2N, C. 2N, D. 2√ N,
74. Suppose vector C= A+B, Such that A= i+2j and B=2i+2j. What is the magnitude of vector C?
A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3

75. Two vectors are given as A = [ ] and B =[ ], then what is vector D, such that D = A+2B?

A. [ ] B. [ ] C. [ ] D. [ ]

76. Which of the following vectors are collinear vectors from the figure shown in the figure below?

A. B C D

A. A and B B. A and C C. B and C D. C and D

77. Which one of the following is the collection of physical quantities?
A. Mass, speed, fear, force, pressure C. energy, work, love, momentum, force
B. Time, temperature, length, velocity D. hope, love, fear, hate, desire
78. Resolve the force F=4N at angle from positive horizontal
79. Show that the if two vectors are parallel and the same direction the angle between them is 0 (Hint: use
parallelogram method)
80. If the angle between two vectors a and b is and two vectors are neither parallel nor perpendicular, then show
that the magnitude of a – b is given as; C=√ (Hint: use parallelogram method)
81. Bona goes to school (12m , ) to the north of east and (10m,30 ) to the north of west, then find:
a) the components of displacements
b) the components of the sum of displacements
c) the direction of the resultant of the sum of two displacements
82. Let two vectors are a= 6N at angle =30 from +x-axis and b=8N at angle =60 from +x axis. Determine
A. Vector = a+b
B. +
C. 3a-2b

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D. The unit vectors in the direction of a

E. the magnitude and direction of +
83. If the magnitude of two vectors A-B is twice of the magnitude of A+B, and both vectors have magnitude equals to
one, then find the angle between A and B?
84. The process of science began with:
A. Hypothesis B. Finding the pre-existence knowledge C. Asking Question D. Designing Experiment
85. Which of the following is the correct order of the scientific methods?
A. Asking question hypothesis designing experiment finding background
B. Asking question finding back ground hypothesis designing experiment
C. Finding back ground Asking question designing experiment hypothesis
D. Asking question finding back ground designing experiment hypothesis
86. What is the dimension of acceleration? A. ML B. L C. D. L
87. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
A. velocity B. speed C. force D. acceleration
88. What is the name of prefix represents ?A. quintillion B. quintillionth C. quadrillion D. quadrillionth
89. Which of the following is the basic unit? A. m/s B. N C. D. second
90. exa- is the international prefix represents: A. B. C. D.
91. Which is the correct increasing order of the prefix?
A. atto-, femto-, nano-, pico- D. atto-, nano-, femto-, pico-
B. atto-, femto-, pico-, nano- C. atto-, pico-, nano-, femto-
92. Which of the following number has six significant figures?
A. 6.666 m B. 1.2136 km C. 1.00101kg D. 9.1191
93. Which of the following pair of quantities have the same dimension?
A. Force and Pressure C. Speed and velocity B. Mass and density D. Force and Energy
94. What is the dimension of ?( p is pressure)
A. M B. M C. M
95. Which of the following is not the dimension of fundamental physical quantity? A. T B. L C. D. N
96. What is the dimension of represent (v is speed)? A. Force B. Pressure C. power D. Area
97. One of the following is different quantity from the other? A. mass B. time C. force D. love
98. Which of the following is not correctly matched with its dimension?
A. [ ]= B. * + =M C. [ ] =M D. [ ]=M
99. What is the dimension of frequency? T-1
100. A vector quantity is described by
A. Magnitude only B. direction only C. both magnitude and direction D. none of the above
101. Which of the following is the collection of the vector quantities?
A. Velocity, force, acceleration, distance
B. Force, pressure, displacement, acceleration due gravity
C. Displacement, speed, torque, momentum, force
D. Displacement, velocity, acceleration, time, momentum
102. A symbol for a vector quantity can be represented by
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A. a capital letter C. a bold letter

B. a letter with an arrow on the head D. all of the above
103. Which of the following cannot describe the direction?
A. Up B. Down C. Left D. none
104. The angle between two collinear vectors can be: A. 90 B. 0 C. 180 D. B and C
105. The addition of two vectors is minimum if two vectors are
A. in the same direction C. perpendicular
B. in opposite direction D. neither parallel nor perpendicular
106. Two vectors are equal in magnitude. If the magnitude of the sum of these vectors is half of the magnitude of the
difference between two vectors, then what is the angle between two vectors?
A. 45 B. 30 C. 127 D. 60 E. none
Based on the diagram given below answer Q68& Q69

3m

4m

107. The magnitude of the vector is

A. 7m B. 1m C. 5m D. 12m
108. What is the direction of the vector?
A. 37 B. 53 C. 45 D. 73
109. What are the horizontal and vertical components of the force F= 14N at angle from +x-axis respectively?
(Use: 0.8 0.6)
A. 8.4N, 11.2N B.11.2N, 8.4N C. 4.2N, 5.5N D. 5.5N, 4.2N
Suppose two vectors are given as A= (4, 5) m and B= (3, 4) m. Based on this information answer the following two
questions.
110. What is the direction of vector A-B? A) 90 B. 60 C. 45 D. 30 E. none
111. Based on the above question, what is the magnitude of the vector A-B?
A. 1m B. 2m C. √ D. none of these
112. What is the unit vector in the direction of the vector (A-B)?
A. B C. D. E. none
√ √
113. What are the direction of vector A and B separately?
A. 53 , 51 B. 39 , 37 C. 51 53 D. 37
114. If A = 2i− j and B = 4i+3j, find k and l such that kA + lB = 2i − 6j.
A. K=3,l=-1 B. K=-3, l= 1 C. k=-3,l=-1 D. k=3, l=1
115. Based the figure shown below, calculate
A. the vector components of A and B
B. A+B
C. the magnitude and direction of A+B D) 2A-3B

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A=4N 60

30 B=6N

116. Which of the following quantity not describes the quantitative of a substance?
A. Length B. mass C. love E. weight
117. All are non-physical quantity EXCEPT: A. Love B. hate C. hope D. mass
118. Which of the following is indefinite quantity? A. Height B. mass C. time D. fear
119. A non-physical quantity is always expressed in terms of a numerical value (magnitude) and a unit A. False B. True
120. One of the following is not fundamental (basic) physical quantity?
A. Area B. Length C. Temperature D. Time
121. Which of the following is the collection of the derived physical quantities?
A. Speed, velocity, time, area, volume
B. Speed, velocity, force, acceleration, volume
C. Speed, velocity, force, acceleration, mass
D. Speed, velocity, force, acceleration, temperature
122. What is the dimensional analysis of ρgh?
A. ML-2 T-2 B. ML-1 T-1 C. ML-1 T-2 D. ML-2 T-1 E. none of these
3
123. What is the correct dimensional analysis of ?
A. ML-1 B. M2L-1 C. L-3 D. M-3 E. L3
124. What is the dimension of mc2?
A. 1,2,and -2 in mass, length, and time respectively C. 1,-1,and 2 in mass, length, and time respectively
B. 1,1 and -2 in mass, length and time respectively D. 1,-2,and -1 in mass, length and time respectively
125. What is the name of the prefix represents 10-21 in word? A. Septillion B. Sextillion C. Septillionth D. Sextillionth
126. The correct scientific notation of 820 000 000 000W using prefix?
A. 8200MW B. 8.02TW C. 820GW D. 8.02MW E. none
127. Which statement is not correct about the significant figure?
A. All zeros between none zero digits are significant
B. All non-zero figures are significant
C. Zeros to the right of a decimal point but to the left of a non-zero figure are significant
D. Zeros to the right of the decimal point and following a non-zero figure are significant
128. What is the number of significant figure of 67.0010? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D.7
129. One of the following numbers has no three significant figures? A. 0.00100 B. 1.01 C. 1.12 D. 0.020
130. What is the correct significant figure of 0.9m+0.21m? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. unknown
131. Evaluate 2.0 What is the result with correct significant figure? A. 0.498 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. 0.50
132. Which of the following cannot be the source of error?
A. Measuring device B. measuring procedure C. measuring quantity D. none
133. Which of the following statement is not correct about error?
A. error can be reduced in measurement
B. error can be eliminate totally in measurement
C. we can reduce the error by redesigning the measuring device
D. we can reduce the error by making several measurements and averaging them
134. Which one of the following is not physical quantity?
A. Speed B. Energy C. Hope D. distance

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135. The correct scientific notation of 820 000 000 000W using prefix?
A. 8200MW B. 8.02TW C. 0.82TW D. 8.02MW E. none
136. One of the following numbers has no three significant figures?
A. 0.100100 B. 1.01 C. 1.12 D. 0.0120
137. Suppose the mass of an object is 10.0kg. Your friend measure this mass repeatedly for five round he got the mass of
this object is 2.7kg, then this measurement can be:
A. Accurate, not precise B. precise, not accurate C. Accurate and precise D. not precise and not accurate
138. Based on the above question, if your second friend measure the mass of an object is to be 3.5kg, then what is the
relative error with correct significant figure? A. 0.648 B. 6.5 C. 0.64 D. 0.65 E.0.6
139. The sum of two vectors is maximum if two vectors are:
A. Parallel and opposite direction C. perpendicular
B. Parallel and in the same direction D. neither parallel nor perpendicular
140. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces
A. cannot be predicted
B. are equal to each other
C. are equal to each other in magnitude
D. are not equal to each other in magnitude
141. What are the vertical and horizontal components of the force F= 14N at angle from +x-axis respectively?
(Use: 0.8 0.6)
A. 8N, 11N B.11N, 8N C. 4N, 5N D. 5N, 4N
Two vectors are given as shown in the figure shown below
30 60

F1 = 4N F2=6N

Based on the figure shown above, answer the following four questions: (use:
√
)
142. What are the vector components of F1? A. 2i+2√ j B. 2√ i+2j C. 2√ i-2j D. 2i-2√ j
143. What is the horizontal component of F2? A. 3i B. -3i C. 3√ i D. -3√ i
144. What is F1 +F2? A. (2√ -3)i +(3√ +2)j B. (2√ -3)i - (3√ +2)j C. (2√ +3)i +(3√ +2)j D. none of these
145. Find F1 -2F2? A. (2√ +6)i +(6√ -2)j B. (2√ -6)i - (6√ -2)j C. (-2√ -6)i +(6√ -2)j D. none of these
146. Suppose the accepted gravity is g=9.8m/s2. Your friend measure that g=9.8067, then what are the absolute and
relative error respectively? A.0.067, 0.0068 B. 0.0067, 6.8 C. 0.0067, 0.00068 D. none
147. Random error:
A. Is error with bias or pattern
B. Is error with no bias or pattern
C. Makes your measurement every time below the true value or every time above the true value
D. Can be reduced by redesigning the measuring device
148. If ⃗ +⃗⃗ = ⃗ and |A| = |B| = √3 and |C| = 3, then what is the angle between A and B?
A. 0 B. 30 C. 60 D. 90
149. What vector must be added to i+2j and 3i+2j to give a unit vector along the y-axis?
A. -4i-3j B. 4i+3j C. 4i-3j D. -4i
150. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5i + 0.8j + ck , the value of c is A) 1 B) √ C) √ D) 0.39
151. A body is thrown upwards and it reaches its maximum height. At that position:

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A. Its acceleration is minimum

B. Both Its velocity and acceleration are zero
C. Its velocity is zero but its acceleration is not zero
D. Its velocity is zero and its acceleration is the acceleration due to gravity
152. With what speed must a ball be thrown vertically upward in order to reach a maximum height of 2m?
A. 400m/s B. 2√ 0m/s C. 10√ m/s D. 200m/s
153. Which of the following cannot be change, when a particle is moving with uniform along a horizontal straight line?
A. acceleration B. distance C. velocity d. displacement
154. Which of the following cannot be an example of motion in one dimension?
A. Freely falling C. a car moving around a curve
B. Motion along a straight line D. an object thrown vertically upward
155. Which of the following physical quantity of a particle moving cannot be zero?
A. Velocity B. acceleration C. displacement D. distance
156. One of the hollowing is not the scalar quantity: A. work B. distance C. speed D. force
157. On the moon, the acceleration due to gravity is . How long would it take an object to fall 100m at the surface
2
of the moon? (g=10m/s ) A. 11sec B. 10sec C. 5sec D. 2sec
158. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of displacement?
A. It has both magnitude and direction C. It is always positive
B. It can be represented geometrically D. Its magnitude is equal to the shortest distance b/n two points
159. The distance through which a body falls in the nth second is h. The distance through which it falls in the next
second is A. h B. h + C. h – g D. h + g
160. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a velocity 3u. The height
of the tower is A) B) C) D)
161. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 500 m/s and a bomb released from it, strikes the ground in 10
sec. Angle at which it strikes the ground wil be (g = 10 m/s2 )
A. tan-1( ) C. tan–1 (1)

B. tan( ) D. tan–1 (5)

162. Which of the following decreases in motion along a straight line with constant retardation?
A. Distance B. acceleration C. Velocity D. displacement
163. Two particles start from rest simultaneously and are equally accelerated. Throughout the motion, the relative
velocity of one with respect to other is
A. Zero
B. Non-zero and directed parallel to acceleration
C. Non-zero and directed opposite to acceleration
D. Directed perpendicular to the acceleration
164. If a velocity of a particle is zero, the acceleration of the particle can be non-zero:
A. true B. false C. unknown
165. If a stone is dropped from a bridge and it hits the water 2sec later, how high is the bridge?(g=10m/s2)
A. 10m B. 20m C. 30m D. 40m

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166. Based on the above equation,what is the speed of a stone when it hits the ground?
A. 10m/s B. 20m/s C. 30m/s D. 40m/s
167. Suppose someone is dropped a ball from a certain height above the Earth’s surface. If another ball is
simultaneously released freely from the same height above the surface of the moon, which one ball takes a long time
to arrive at the bottom?
A. A ball on the Earth‘s surface C. Both takes the same time
B. A ball on the moon’s surface D. Unknown
168. A body accelerates uniformly from 16m/s to 20m/s while covering a distance of 72m. What is the time taken to
cover this distance? A. 1sec B. 2sec C. 3sec D. 4sec
169. Based on the above, what is the acceleration of a body? A. 1m/s2 B. 2m/s2 C. 3m/s2 D. 4m/s2
170. The relative velocity of body A related to body B moving in the same direction is 4m/s. When these two bodies
are moving in opposite direction the relative velocity b/n them is 6m/s. What are the velocities of individual bodies in
m/s? A) -1, 5 B. 1, -5 C. -1, -5 D. 5, 1
171. A stone is flung down from the top of a cliff with a velocity of 6m/s and reach the bottom in 3sec. How high is
the cliff in meter? (g=10m/s2) A. 45 B. 63 C. 6 D. 3
172. Based on the above question, what is the velocity of a stone when it reaches the ground?
A. 0m/s B. 6m/s C. 18m/s D. 36m/s
173. Two bodies are moving at speeds 6m/s and 8m/s along a straight line. What is the average speed of these two
bodies? A) 2m/s B. 7m/s C. 10m/s D. 14m/s
174. A particle is moving such that its position coordinate (x, y) are:
(2m, 3m) at time t = 0 (6m,
7m) at time t = 2 s and
(13m, 14m) at time t = 5s.
Average velocity vector (V av) from t = 0 to t = 5s is :
A. (13i + 14j) C. 2(i + j)
B. (i + j) D. (i + j)

175. A particle moves along x-axis as x = 4 (t – 2) + a (t – 2)2.Which of the following is true?

A) The initial velocity of particle is 4 C) The particle is at origin at t = 0
B) The acceleration of particle is 2a D) None of these
176. A projectile is given an initial velocity of (i+2j) m/s, where i is along the ground and j is along the vertical. If g = 10
m/s2 , the equation of its trajectory is :
A. y = x – 5x2 C. 4y = 2x – 5x2
B. y = 2x – 5x2 D. 4y = 2x – 25x2
177. A particle is projected with a velocity v such that its range on the horizontal plane is twice the greatest height
attained by it. The range of the projectile is (where g is acceleration due to gravity)
A. B. C. D.
√
178. Initial velocity with which a body is projected is 10 m/sec and angle of projection is 60°. Find the range R
√
A. m B. m C. 5√ m D. m

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179. The position vectors of points A, B, C and D are A = 3i +4 j +5k , B = 4i +5j + 6k, C = 7i +9j +3k and D = 4i +6j then
the displacement vectors AB and CD are
A. perpendicular B. parallel C. antiparallel D. inclined at an angle of 60°
180. The position of a particle moving along the x-axis at certain times is given below

Which of the following describes the motion correctly?

A. Uniform, accelerated C. Non-uniform, accelerated
B. Uniform, decelerated D. There is not enough data for generalization
181. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t, x = a +b , where a, b, and are positive constants.
The velocity of the particle will
A. Go on decreasing with time
B. Be independent of and
C. Drop to zero when =
D. Go on increasing with time
182. If a particle travels a linear distance at speed v1 and comes back along the same track at speed v2 .
1. Its average speed is arithmetic mean (v1 + v2 )/2
2. Its average speed is harmonic mean 2 v1 v2 /(v1 + v2 )
3. Its average speed is geometric mean (V1 +V2)/2
4. Its average velocity is zero
183. Which of the following velocity versus time describes the motion of the body thrown downward
V V V V
A. t B. t C. t D. t

184. The slope of velocity versus time for a body moving uniform motion is
A. Positive B. negative C. zero D. Unknown
185. When a body is thrown downward which one of the following is not true?
A. Acceleration is equals to positive acceleration due to gravity C. Initial velocity may not be zero
B. Velocity increase D. None of these
186. The velocity versus time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is plotted as shown below.
V(m/s)
30 (20,30)

0 t(s)
20

What is the distance travelled in time interval b/n 0 and 20 seconds?

A. 600m B. 300m C. 400m D. 200m

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187. A ball at rest on the building of height h dropped and hits the ground at time t. Which can be the expression of
time t when it hits the ground? (g=10m/s2)
A. B. C. √ D.
188. A ball is dropped and hits the ground at speed of 14m/s. What is the height will the ball reach?
A. 9.8m B. 4.5m C. 9m D. 19m
189. The angular displacement of a particle is given by = t+ t2 , where and are constant and 1 rad/sec,
1.5 rad/sec2 respectively . The angular velocity at time, t = 2 sec will be (in rad/sec) : (A) 1 B) 5 C) 3 D) 4
190. The angular velocity of a particle is given by = 1.5 t – 3t2 + 2, the time when its angular acceleration decreases
to be zero will be - A) 25 sec B) 0.25 sec C) 12 sec D) 1.2 sec
191. A body whose mass 6 kg is acted upon by two forces 1= (8i+ 10j) N and 1= (4i+ 8j)N. The acceleration produced
will be (in m/s2 ): A) ( 3i+2j) B) 12i+8j C) D) 2i+3j
192. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks shown in figure is and the table is smooth. What
maximum horizontal force F can be applied to the block of mass M so that the blocks move together?

A. g (M + m) B) g (M – m) C) 2 g (M + m) D) g (M + 2m)
193. A block having mass M slides down the planned at angle of 30o at an acceleration of . What is the value of
√ √ √
coefficient of kinetic friction? A. B. C. D.
√
194. Which of the following physical quantity cannot be negative?
A. Velocity B. acceleration C. displacement D. distance
195. Two cars of unequal masses use similar tyres. If they are moving at the same initial speed, the minimum stopping
distance –
A) is smaller for the heavier car C) is same for both cars
B) is smaller for the lighter car D) depends on the volume of the car
196. Which of the following factors cannot affect the buoyant force?
A. Base area of the fluid container B. Density of the fluid C. Gravity on Earth D. Volume of the container
197. Which of the following is true about the pressure?
A. The pressure is double if the force exerted and the area doubled
B. The pressure is double if the force exerted is halved and the area doubled
C. The pressure is double if the force exerted is doubled and the area halved
D. The pressure is double if the force exerted is quadrupled and the area doubled
198. In which of the following atmosphere layers all living things exists?
A. Troposphere B. Thermosphere C. Stratosphere D. Exosphere
199. What is the fluid pressure in the water at depth of 10cm? (ρw =1 g/ , g = 10m/s2 )
A. 1Pa B. 1KPa C. 100KPa D. 10KPa E. none
200. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure?
A. N/m2 B. Pa C. kg/ ms2 D. none of these
201. What is the relative density of solid metal cube has an edge length of 2cm and a mass of 0.216kg? ( =1000kg/m3 )
A. 2.7 B. 0. 27 C. 27 D. 270

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202. One of the following statements is not true?

A. The air pressure increase as altitude decrease
B. The fluid pressure decrease as depth in the liquid decrease
C. Pressure is a scalar quantity
D. Shape of the container cannot affect the fluid density
203. Which one of the following is not the application of atmospheric pressure?
A. Siphon B. vacuum cleaner C. syringe D. rubber sucker E. none of these
204. The height of mercury in an open barometer is 69cm. The height of another fluid in the same barometer is 176cm,
what is the density of the fluid?( ρmer =136 g/ , g = 10m/s2)
A. 533.2 g/ B. 53.32 g/ C. 5.332 g/ D. 5332 g/ E. none of these
205. What is the total pressure exerts on a man swimming in the water at depth of 3m? (ρw =103 kg/ , Pat = 101kPa, g
= 10m/s2 ) A. 131KPa B. 131Pa C. 13.1Kpa D. 13.1Pa
206. A house has a flat roof measuring 8m x12m. Calculate the total force that the atmosphere exerts from outside if the
atmospheric pressure exerted on it is 102Pa?
A. 800N B. 1200N C. 960N D. 9600N E. none of these
207. A hydraulic system is used to lift a 2000kg vehicle in an auto garage. If the vehicle sits on a piston of area 0.5m 2,
and a force is applied to a piston of area 0.03m2, what is the force that must be applied to lift the vehicle?
A. 12N B. 120N C. 1200N C. 12000N
208. The floatation and sinking of a body is depends on:
A. Weight of a body C. Density of a body
B. Size of buoyant force D. All of the above
209. A rectangular block with dimensions of 20cmx40cmx10cm and mass of 50kg rests on a table. What are the
maximum and minimum pressures exerted on the table by the block respectively?
A. 25kPa, 6.25kPa B. 25kPa, 12.5kPa C. 12.5kPa, 6.25kPa D. none
210. A body weighs 86N in air and 60N when it is immersed wholly in water. What is the relative density of a body to
water?
A. B. C. D. E. none of these
211. The weight of a 2kg object immersed in water is 15N. If the weight of the same object when immersed in another
liquid is 18N. What is the density of the other liquid?( ρw =1000kg/ , g = 10m/s2 )
A. 400 kg/ B. 40 kg/ C. 4 kg/ D. 1 kg/
212. An open cylinder of base area of 0.5m2 is filled with water to a height of 0.2m. What force is exerted on the bottom
5
of the cylinder? ( Pat = 1.01 Pa)
5
A. 1.03 N B. 3 N C. 5.15 4
N D. 4.9 4
N
213. A students find that a certain block whose mass is 8.1kg in air has mass of 5.1kg when immersed in water. What is
the density of block in air? (ρw =1000kg/ , g = 10m/s2)
A. 2.7 kg/m3 B. 2.7 10-3 kg/m3 C. 2.7 103 kg/m3 D. 2.7 104 kg/m3
214. A cubical block of a wood (ρ =0.75g/ ) floats in water (ρ =1g/ . What fraction of the block is above the
surface of water? A. B. C. D.
215. A device used to measure a gauge pressure is:
A. Manometer B. Barometer C. thermometer D. Pressure gauge
216. Suppose the pressure gauge reads -55kPa. What is the system pressure? (101.3kPa)
A. 46.3kPa below atmosphere pressure C. 56.3kPa below atmosphere pressure
B. 46.3kPa above atmosphere pressure D. 56.3kPa above atmosphere pressure

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217. Which of the following statement is not true?

A. Temperature is the average kinetic energy of particles of a substance
B. The change in internal energy of isolated system is constant
C. The heat can flow spontaneously from a colder body to hotter boy
D. Two bodies of different temperatures in thermal contact have the same temperature at thermal equilibrium
218. “ If two bodies separately in thermal equilibrium with the third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with
each other” this statement is the:
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics C. Second law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics D. Third law of thermodynamics
219. If the change in heat energy is zero, the internal energy of the system is equal to:
A. The change in work done on the system C. the change in the work done by the system
B. Zero D. A and C
220. What is the temperature of 167 in Kelvin scale? A. 45K B. 75K C. 348K D. 318
221. A thermodynamic system undergoes a process in which its internal energy decreases by 500J. At the same time, 220
J of work is done on the system. What is the change in heat energy?
A. 720J B. -720J C. 280J D. -280J
222. Based on the above question; the heat energy is
A. flow out of the system B. flow into the system C. either flow into or out of the system D. unknown
223. Suppose the coefficients of the linear expansion, coefficients of the area expansion, and coefficients of the volume
expansion of a solid are , and respectively. Compute

A. B. C. D.
224. The volume of coefficient of expansion of a liquid is 7times the volume of coefficient of expansion of a vessel. What
is the ratio coefficient of real and apparent expansion? A. B. C. D. 7 E. none of these
225. How much energy is required to change the temperature of 2kg of copper from 25 to 325 ? ( ccup = 420J/kg
A. 252 J B. 252 KJ C. 2.52kJ D. 0.252kJ
226. Suppose a woman does 500J of work on the system while a 9500J of heat transfer occurs into the environment in the
process. Which of the following is true about her internal energy?
A. Decrease B. increase C. remains constant D. zero
227. Based on the above question, what is the internal energy of a woman? A. 900 J B. -900 J C. 1000 J D. 10kJ
BASED ON THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION ANSWER the following four questions
A glass vessel is exactly filled with a 2000cm3 of water at temperature of 30 . Assume that the coefficient of linear
expansion of vessel and coefficient of volume expansion of the water are 3.3 10-6 / and 2.07 10-4/ respectively.
228. What is the coefficient of apparent expansion?
A. 1.971 10-4/ B. 19.71 10-4/ C. 0.1971 10-4/ D. 1.971 10-6/
229. What is the apparent volume expansion of water at temperature of 40 ?
A. 39.42 cm3 B. 394.2 cm3 C. 3.942 cm3 D. none
230. What is the real volume expansion of water at temperature of 40 ?
A. 41.0 cm3 B. 410.0 cm3 C. 0.41 cm3 D. 4.1 cm3
231. One of the following is not true about the force:
A. Force can change the direction of the motion C. Force is a push or pull of an object
B. Force cannot be negative D. Force can change the shape of an object
232. Which of the following fundamental force is a pure attractive force?
A. Gravitational Force B. Electromagnetic force C. Strong Nuclear Force D. Weak Nuclear Force

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233. When a force acts on a body of mass of 16kg initially travelling at 2m/s it accelerates a body to 4m/s in 4
seconds. What is the force act on a body? A. 4N B. 8N C. 16N D. 32N
234. A box is on the floor, and you are pulling it to the right. What is the reaction force to this action?
A. The normal force pushing up on the box C. The box pulling you to the left
B. Gravity pulling the box down D. All of these are correct
235. 


states for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
is the law of inertia
236. 
 
237. 


238. Which one of the Newton’s laws of motion explains what effect force on objects?
A. Newton’s First Law C. Newton’s second Law
B. Newton’s Third Law D. The law of action and reaction
239. When a force acts on a body of mass of 16kg initially travelling at 2m/s it accelerates a body to 4m/s in 4
seconds. What is the force act on a body? A. 4N B. 8N C. 16N D. 32N
240. The Strongest fundamental Force is:
A. Gravitational Force
B. The force Holds the proton and neutron together in the nuclei
C. The force between two charges
D. The force between two magnets
241. How much bigger is the acceleration of the 4 kg cart compared to the acceleration of the
1kg cart?
A. The acceleration of the 4 kg cart is the same as the acceleration of the 1 kg cart.
B. The acceleration of the 4 kg cart is 1/2 the acceleration of the 1 kg cart
C. The acceleration of the 4 kg cart is 4 times smaller than the acceleration of the 1 kg cart.
D. The acceleration of the 4 kg cart is 4 times larger than the acceleration of the 1 kg cart.
242. 

243. 

 
244. 
 
245.  

 
246. 
 
247. 
 
 
248. 
 
249. 

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 
250. 
           
251. 
 
 
252. The work done by the force F exerts on a body displaces a body the distances is maximum if the value of is
A. 0 B. 1 C. -1 D. 2
253. The graph of the constant force against the distance is
A. Parabola B. a straight horizontal line C. a straight slopped line D. Parallel to the vertical axis
254. What is the work done by the force F = (3i+2j) N if the distance is 3m in y-axis?
A. 3J B. 9J C. 6J D. 2J
255. A bullet A has twice the mass of a bullet B. If both are fired so that they have the same speed, which has more
kinetic energy?
A. Bullet A B. Bullet B C. they have the same kinetic energy D. Unknown
256. Based on the above question, What is the ratio of the kinetic energy of the first bullet to the second bullet?
A. ½ B. 2 C. 4 D. ¼
257. If the speed of a particle is doubled, what happen to its kinetic energy?
A. Doubled B. tripled C. four times D. halved
258. What is the power required for a force of 100N applied to move a body at a speed of 2m/s over free friction
surface? A. 2W B. 20W C. 200W D. 2000W
259. Which of the following gas is a powerful gas of a greenhouse?
A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. Carbon monoxide D. Sulfur dioxide
260. Of the following electric power generation, which has the largest generation capacity?
A. Gilgel Gibe III B. Tekeze C. Tana Belas D. Genale – Dewa
261. Which of the following is NOT the purpose of the simple machine?
A. Changing the direction of applied force C. decreasing the speed of applied force
B. Increasing the distance of applied force D. transferring the force from one place to another
262. What is the VR is an inclined plane that form angle of 30 from the horizontal?
A. ½ B. ¼ C. 4 D. 2
263. A 0.09kg arrow is fired horizontally. The bowstring exerts an average force of 80N on the arrow over a distance of
0.9m. With what speed does the arrow leave the bow?
A. 40m/s B. 4m/s C. 400m/s D. 16m/s
264. The efficiency of certain machine is 85%. What work input is supplied into this machine to get 1700J of work
output? A) 2,000J B. 2KJ C. 20KJ D. A and B E. none of these
265. A lever of 2m long is used to pull out a stone. If the load is 25cm away from the fulcrum, what is the VR of this
lever? A) 0.14 B. 7 C. 8 0.125
266. The MA of a machine is 4. What effort will be applied to raise 24kg water from a well?
A. 6N B. 0.2N C. 60N D. 0.6N
267. An inclined plane is used to raise the load to a height of 6m through a distance (slope) of 10m. What is the
IMA of an inclined plane? ( k = 0.5): A. 2/5 B. 3/5 C. 5/2 D. 5/3
268. Based on the above question,What is the AMA of the inclined plane? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. none of these
269. If an efficiency of a certain machine is equal to one, the machine is
A. Force multiplier B. Speed multiplier C. a real machine D. an ideal machine

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270. A force of magnitude 5N acts on a 2kg body moving initially in the direction of force with a speed 4m/s. Over
what distance must the force act in order to change the body‟s speed to 6m/s?
A. 4m B. 3m C. 2m D. 1m
271. A 50N force is applied horizontally to 10kg block which is initially at rest. After travelling 8m, the speed of the
block is 5m/s. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction?
A. 32/11 B. 11/32 C. ½ D. 11/16 E. none
272. The force on a wire inside a magnetic field increase when
A. the current is increased C. length of wire is increase
B. Strength of magnetic field increases D. all of the above
273. Which of the statement is CORRECT?
A. the current increase in parallel combination of resistors
B. the voltage increase in parallel combination of resistors
C. the current increase in series combination of resistors
D. the equivalent resistance in series combination of resistors is less an individual resistances
274. A charged q coulomb moves in a circle at n revolutions per second and the radius of the circle is r meter, then
magnetic field at the center of the circle is
A. NA-1m-1 C. NA-1m-1
B. NA-1m-1 D. NA-1m-1
275. The orbital speed of electron orbiting around the nucleus in a circular orbit of radius 5 m is 1.1 m/s.
Then the magnetic dipole moment of an electron is
A. 1.6 Am2 B. 5.3 Am2 C. 8.8 Am2 D. 8.8 Am2
276. A solenoid of length 0.4m and having 500 turns of wire carries a current of 3A. A thin coil having 10 turns of wire
and of radius 0.01m carries a current of 0.4A. What is the torque required to hold the coil in the middle of the
solenoid with its axis perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid?
A. 5.92 Nm B. 0.1592Nm C. 3.7 Nm D. 0.137Nm
277. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels on a circular path of a radius r that is perpendicular to a
magnetic field B. The time taken by the particle to complete one revolution is
A. B. C. D.

278. Which of the following units denotes the dimension of ? A. B. Weber C. Henry D.
279. The magnetic moment of a current loop is given by unit: A). A B). Am2 C). Am-1 D). Am-2
280. A Proton moving at 106 m/s through a magnetic field of 4.0T experiences a magnetic force of magnitude 3.2 10-13N
What is the angle between the proton‘s velocity and the field? ( qproton = 1.6 10-19C)
A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90
281. If the speed of the proton is 2x m/s, Assume that B = 3T and the mass of proton is 1.67x kg. What is the
magnetic force exerted on proton? ( qproton = 1.6 10-19C)
A. 1.0x N B. 1.0x N C. 9.6 N D. 9.6 N
282. Based on the above question, What is the radius of the path followed by the proton in the field?
A. 0.696cm B. 0.696mm C. 0.696dm 0.0696mm E. none of these
283. The magnetic flux through a coil of 2000turns changes from 0.05Wb to 0.07Wb in 2s. What is the induced emf?
A) 2V B. 20V C. 200V D. 2000V

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284. Which of the following is not true?

A. Electric motor is converts electric energy to mechanical energy
B. Transformer is used to transfers electrical energy from one circuit to another
C. Generator is used to converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
D. Step up transformer is used to decrease voltage
285. A 10cm and 20cm rectangular wire of 10turns having a resistance of 20Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.8T. If
the magnetic field decreases to zero in 0.4s. What will be the current in the loop?
A. 4 10-2A B. 8 10-3A C. 1.6 10-2A D. 2 10-2A
286. The magnetic field at the center of a solenoid carrying a current of 4A is 0.01T. What will be the magnetic field at
the same point if the current in the solenoid is 8A? A. 0.02T B. 0.03T C. 0.04T D. 0.015T
287. What is the change in magnetic flux through a 60turn, 12mH coil when the current in the coil changes by 15mA?
A) 3 10-7Wb B. 3 10-6Wb C. 3 10-5Wb D. 3 10-8Wb
288. “The induced current must be in such a direction that it produces a magnetic force which opposes the force causing
the motion”. This is: A. Faraday’s law B. Lenz’s law C. Newton’s law D. Coulomb’s law
289. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Direct current is constant in magnitude and varies in direction with time
B. Direct current is varies in magnitude and constant in direction with time
C. Alternative current is constant in magnitude and direction with time
D. Alternative current is varies in magnitude and direction with time
290. A rectangular coil with 200 turns is 5cm high and 4cm wide when the coil is placed in magnetic field of 0.35T, its
maximum torque is 0.56Nm. What is the current in the coil?
A. 6A B. 4A C. 2A D. 1A E. none of these
291. Which of the following factor cannot affect the magnetic field at a point perpendicular to the center of a long
straight wire?
A. The current flows through the wire C. The permeability of the medium
B. The perpendicular distance from the wire D. None of these
292. “The magnitude of induced emf is proportional to the rate change of magnetic flux” This is
A) Lenz’s law B. Coulomb’s law C. Newton’s third law D. Faraday’s law
293. The magnetic force exerted on a current carrying wire not depends on
A) Current flowing through the wire C. Magnetic field strength
B) Length of the wire D. Mass of wire carrying current
294. A transformer has 400 turns in its primary coil and 200 turns in its secondary. If the primary draws 5A at 100V,
what is the output voltage? A. 25V B. 50V C. 100V D. 75V
295. Based on the above question, If the efficiency of transformer is 80%,then the current in a secondary coil is
A. 8A B. 6A C. 4A D. 10A
296. Under what condition a magnetic force experienced on a charge placed in a magnetic field is maximum?
A. When it moves parallel to the field C. When it moves at angle of 60 to field
B. When it moves perpendicular to field D. When it moves at angle of 30 to field
297. Two long parallel wires are separated by 60cm and carry currents I1 = 15A and I2 = 9A in the same direction. What
is the magnitude of the force per unit length on each wire? ( 0 = 4 10-7 Tm/A)
-6 -5 7 -7
A. 4.5 N/m B. 4.5 N/m C. 4.5 N/m D. 4.5 N/ m

Natural Science Department Page 17

@DIBSBSS PHYSICS QUESTIONS 2016, E. C

298. Based on the above question, what is the magnitude of the magnetic field strength midway between wires?
-6 -6 -6 -7
A. 1.0 T B. 6.0 T C. 4.0 T D. 1.0 T
299. An emf of 12V is induced in a coil when the current in it changes from 4A to 6A in 3seconds. What is the self-
inductance of the coil? A. 18H B. 1.8H C. 36H D. 3.6H
300. An alternating current generator contains 100 square loops of conducting wire with side lengths 10cm, the ends of
which form terminals. The sides of the loops with the same lengths as each other are parallel to each other. The loops
rotate at 25 revolutions per second within a 150mT uniform magnetic field. What is the maximum induced emf across
the terminals? A) 2.4V B. 240V C. 24V D. 12V
301. Which of the following is not correct about the induced emf?
A) as the relative movement b/n the magnet and the induced emf also increases
B) as the magnetic field strength increase the induced emf also increases
C) as the number of turns increase the induced emf also increases
D) as the area of the rectangular wire increase the induced emf decreases
302. A ball is thrown in such a way that its initial vertical and horizontal components of velocity are 40 m/s and 20 m/s,
respectively. Estimate the total time of flight and the distance the ball is from its starting point when it lands.
303. At which angle of projection will the maximum range of projectile be obtained?
304. At which angle of projection will the maximum height of projectile be obtained?
305. At what angle of projection will the range of projectile be twice the maximum height it raises?
306. At what angle of projection will the range of projectile be equal to the maximum height it raises?
307. At what angle of projection will the range of projectile be quadrupled that of the maximum height it rises?
308. Explain why an object that moves round a complete circle will have an angular displacement of 2π radians but a
tangential displacement of 0 m.
309. What object experiences uniform circular motion?
A) A car speeding up as it turns left C) A car slowing down as it crests a tall hill
B) A car traveling around a curve at a constant D) A car traveling down the road at a constant
speed speed
310. What is the force that causes centripetal acceleration when a car goes around a curve?
A. Friction B. Gravity C) Normal D) Tension
311. You are moving a ball in a circle using 72 N of centripetal force. What would the force be if you doubled the
radius of the circle?
312. A test car moves at a constant speed around a circular track. If the car is 48.2 m from the track's center and has
a centripetal acceleration of 8.05 m/s2, what is the car's tangential speed?
Calculate the mass of an object if it took 20 N to rotate it in a circle with a radius of 2meters with a velocity of 4
m/s
313. The net force acting on the object that rotates with a constant speed in a circular path is:
A. zero B. directed towards the center C. Directed away from the center D. Tangent to the circle
314. Determine the magnitude of the force of attraction between Mercury and the Sun.
They are approximately 5.8 × 1010m apart. The mass of Mercury is about 3.3 × 1023 kg and the mass of the Sun is
about 2 × 1030 kg. G is 6.65 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2.
A. Calculate the value of g at 1000 m above the surface of the Earth. The radius of the Earth is 6400 km.
B. Describe the period, position and function of a geostationary satellite.
315. A 5000 kg satellite is orbiting at a speed of 2000 m/s around Mars, which has a mass of 6.37 x 1023 kg.
A) The orbital radius at which it is orbiting.
B) The period of this satellites motion.
C) The frequency of this satellite’s motion.

Natural Science Department Page 18

 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

D) The magnitude and direction of the centripetal force.

316. What is the orbiting speed of a satellite moving uniformly in a circular path at a height above the earth of:
A. 5000 km? b) 10,000 km? c) 20,000 km?
317. A man shoots a gun horizontally and hits his target 500m away him 4seconds later.
A. At what height above the target should he aim in order to hit his target exactly?
B. What was the velocity of the muzzle?
318. An air plane flying at a speed of 400m/s drops a ball at height of 4500m above the ground. What is the speed of the
ball at the instant it strikes the ground? A. 300m/s B. 400m/s C. 500m/s D. 700m/s
319. For a particle projected at an angle of 45 , what will be the ratio of its range to the maximum height?
320. With what speed must an anti- aircraft be shot vertically upward in order to reach a maximum height of 200?m
321. Two bodies are projected so as to reach the same distance from the point of projection ona horizontal surface.
The maximum height reached by one exceeds the other by the amount equal to half the sum of the heights by
them. Determine the angles of projections.
322. Figure 1.8EU shows when a basketball player makes a shot exactly into the basket with an initial velocity of (v0) 10
m/s and did his target 0.9second later. Assume that the angle at which the ball is shot is 370.
a) What is the effective horizontal distance (L) to make that shot?
b) What is the effective vertical distance (h) travelled by the ball?
c) What is the vertical component of the ball’s velocity just when it is in the basket?
v L h
d) What is the magnitude of its velocity just when it is in the basket?
323. A man-made satellite takes 28 days to orbit the earth.
A. Using Kepler’s 3rd Law, find the satellite’s orbital radius. Figure1.1EU:Inc
B. Find the satellites altitude above the earth’s surface, using the radius of the earth given above.
324. A motor cyclist initially travelling at a constant speed tries to jump a 10m wide valley at an angle 150
to the horizontal.
A. With what minimum speed must he leave the edge of the valley in order to jump the valley?
B. What maximum height does the cyclist rise to jump exactly the width of the valley?

Figure 1.2EU:

325. Determine the orbital velocity and period for the International Space Station (ISS) if the ISS orbit is 4.0x10 2km
above the Earth’s surface. The radius of the Earth is about 6400km.
326. Which of the following statement is not TRUE?
A. Cell is a small unit that converts chemical energy into electrical energy
B. If the resistors are combined in series, they have the same voltage
C. The total resistance of a series combination of resistors is larger than an individual resistance of resistors
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 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

D. Electricity is the study of the charge at rest and the electron in motion
E. All of the above
327. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT
A. Current electricity is the study of the flow of current C. Electrodynamics is the study of the electron at rest
B. Static electricity is the study of the charge at rest D. emf is pump the current to flow through the circuit
328. For the combination of the cells in series:
A. The total emf is equal to emf of an individual emf of cell C. The total emf is less than an individual emf of cells
B.The total emf is the sum of an individual emf of cells D. A and C
329. Which unit is equivalent to ‘Ampere second’ unit? A. Volts B. Watts C. Weber D. Coulombs
330. All of the following factors affect the resistance of resistors EXCEPT:
A. The length of the wire C. The change of temperature of the wire
B. The cross sectional area of the wire D. None of the these
331. If both the length and the cross sectional area of the wire are doubled, then the resistance of the wire:
A. Doubled B. Quadrupled C. Halved D. Unchanged
332. Which of the following formula is not used to calculate the electrical power?
A. IR B. I2R C VI D. V2/R
333. Three resistors of equal resistances are combined in circuit. Which of the following cannot be the equivalent
resistance of this combination? A. 3R B. C. D. E.
334. Suppose a resistor is connected to a constant to a voltage supply. When will the current in the resistor decrease?
A. When the length of resistor increased C. When the cross sectional area of the resistor increased
B. When the length of resistor reduced D. When the resistance is decreased
335. The correct way of connecting an ammeter and a voltmeter in circuit?
A. Both connected in series with resistor C. Ammeter in series and voltmeter in parallel with resistor
B. Both connected in parallel with resistor D. Ammeter in parallel and voltmeter in series with resistor
336. Resistance of a conductor is doubled keeping the voltage constant. The rate generation of heat will
A. Become one fourth B. be halved C. be doubled D. become four time
337. What increased when the resistors are connected in series?
A. Current B. Voltage C. resistance D. both current and voltage E. none of the above
338. A battery has an emf of 3V and internal resistance of 1Ω. What current will it give if it is connected to a circuit of
4Ω? A) A B. A C. A D. A
339. An electric bulb rated for 500W at 100V is used in a circuit having a 200V supply. The resistance R that must be put
in a series with a bulb, so that the bulb draws 500W is: A) 18Ω B. 36Ω C. 40Ω D. 20Ω E. none
340. The resistance of a wire of uniform diameter 2d and 2l is R. The resistance of another wire of the same material but
diameter of and length 2l will be: A. 64R B. 32R C. 24R D. 12R E. None of these
341. Three equal resistors are given. How many different combinations can be made from them?
A. Four B. Three C. two D. five
342. A metal sphere having an excess of +5 elementary charges has a net electric charge of
A) 1.6 × 10-19 C B) 8.0 × 10-19 C C) 5.0 × 100 C D) 3.2 × 1019 C
343. When a rubber rod is rubbed with fur, the rod becomes negatively charged due to the transfer of
A) electrons to the fur B) protons to the fur C) electrons to the rod D) protons to the rod

20
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

344. Which magnitude of charge could not be found on an object?

A) -0.8 10-19C B) -1.6 10-19C C) +1.6 10-19C D) 3.2 10-19C
345. How many electrons must be removed from a neutral object to leave a net charge of +0.50μC?
A) 3.1 1012 B) 3.1 1013 C) 3.1 1011 D) 3.10 1014 E) none
346. Which graph best represents the relationship between the magnitude of the electric field strength, E,
around a point charge and the distance, r, from the point charge?

347. Which diagram represents the electric field between two oppositely charged conducting spheres?

348. If the charge on one of two small charged spheres is doubled while the distance between them remains
the same, the electrostatic force between the point sources will be
A) halved B) doubled C) tripled D) unchanged
349. The force that these two spheres exert upon each other is

A) 9.0 109N B) 5.4 102N C) 3.0 10-8N D) 2.7 102N

350. Which one of the following factors cannot affect the electrostatic force?
A. The magnitude of two charges C. The electric field strength
B. The distance between charges D. None of these
351. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below which represents an electron being
projected between two oppositely charged parallel plates.

A) Into the page B) out of the page C) to the left D) to the right
352. How much work is required to move an electron through a potential difference of 3.00 volts?
A) 5.33 10-20J B) 3.00J C) 4.80 10-19J D) 1.88 1019J
353. A volt is defined as: A) joule/coulomb B) joule/second C) coulomb/second D) joule-second/coulomb
354. The graph below represents the relationship between the potential difference across a metal conductor and
the current through the conductor at a constant temperature. What is the resistance of the conductor?
21
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. 1 ohm B) 0.01 ohm C) 0.1 ohm D) 10 ohms

355. In the circuit diagram below, what are the correct readings of voltmeters V1 and V2?

A. V1 reads 2.0 V and V2 reads 4.0 V C) V1 reads 3.0 V and V2 reads 3.0 V
B. V1 reads 4.0 V and V2 reads 2.0 V D) V1 reads 6.0 V and V2 reads 6.0 V
356. If the diameter of a wire were to increase, its electrical resistance would
A. Decrease B) increase C) remain the same
357. The electrical resistance of a metal wire could be decreased by
A. increasing its temperature B) increasing its diameter C) increasing its length
358. As the temperature of a coil of copper wire increases, its electrical resistance
A. decreases B) increases C) remains the same
359. Which change decreases the resistance of a piece of copper wire?
A. increasing the wire’s length C) decreasing the wire’s temperature
B. increasing the wire’s resistivity D) decreasing the wire’s diameter
360. Which graph best represents the relationship between the electrical power and the current in a resistor
that obeys Ohms Law?

361. The diagram below represents currents in a segment of an electric circuit. What is the reading of ammeter A?
A. 1A B) 2A C) 3A D) 4A

22
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

362. Ammeters A1, A2 and A3 are placed in a circuit as shown below. What is the reading on ammeter A3?
A. 1A B) 2A C) 3A D) 5A

0
363. A galvanometer with a resistance of 36Ω is converted into an ammeter using a shunt resistance of 4Ω. What fraction
of the total current passes to the current through the galvanometer? A) 10 B) C) 8 D) E) none
364. An electrical appliance draws 9.0 amperes of current when connected to a 120-volt source of potential
difference. What is the total amount of power dissipated by this appliance?
A. 108W B) 1.08KW C) 1080W D) B and C E. none
365. The potential difference across a 100ohm resistor is 4.0 volts. What is the power dissipated in the resistor?
A. 0.16W B) 1.6W C) 0.0016W D) 16W
366. A 150-watt light bulb is brighter than a 60.-watt light bulb when both are operating at a potential
difference of 110 volts. Compared to the resistance of and the current drawn by the 150-watt light bulb, the 60.-
watt light bulb has
A. less resistance and draws more current C) more resistance and draws more current
B. less resistance and draws less current D) more resistance and draws less current
367. In the diagram shown, how many amperes is the reading of ammeter A?
A. 5A B) 2A C) 3A D) 7A

368. A 3 and 6Ω resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected with a 4Ω resistor and a 12V
battery in a series. What is the current through 3 ? A. A B. 2A C. A D. A E. none
369. Based on the above question, what is the total current flow through the circuit? A. A B. 2A C. A D. A
370. How many times will the total resistance of ‘n’ identical resistors be increased if the parallel arrangement is
changed to a series? A. n times B. n2 times C. √ times D. n3 times
371. A battery has an emf of 24V and an internal resistance of 2Ω. When an external 6Ω resistor is connected across
the terminals of the battery, the P.d between the terminals will be: A. 3V C. 6V C. 12V D. 18V. E. none
372. Two resistors, A and B are connected in a series with battery. The resistance of A is twice that of B. Which resistor
dissipates more power? A. resistor A B. resistor B C. both dissipate equal power D. unknown
373. The resistance of a wire changes by 0.4Ω when its temperature is raised from 20 to 50 . What will be the
change in the resistance of the same wire at a temperature of 80 ? A. 0.2Ω B. 0.4Ω C. 0.6Ω D. 0.8Ω

23
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 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

374. What increased when the resistors are connected in parallel?

A. Voltage B. Resistance C. Both resistance and voltage D. None of the above
375. A battery has an emf of 3V and an internal resistance of 2Ω. What current will it give if it is connected to a circuit of
4 ? A. 0.5A B. 1.7A C. 2A D. 6A
376. If the resistance of a conductor is 100Ω at 20 and 116 at 60 , what is its temperature coefficient?
A. 4 K-1 B. 4 K-1 C. 4 K-1 D. 4 K-1
377. A wire 4mm in diameter transfers a charge of 960C in 80min. If there are 5.8 1028free electrons per cubic meter.
What is the current flowing? A. 0.2A B. 0.02A C. 20A D. 0.002A
378. Based on the question, what is the drift velocity of electrons?
A. 1.7 106m/s B. 1.7 10-6m/s C. 17.1 106m/s D. 1.7 10-7m/s
379. A stove that draws 10A current from 220v line is used for 5hrs. If the electrical company demands 20cents per
kilowatt-hour, what is the cost of the electrical energy consumed? A. 2birr and 20cents B. 55cents C. 1birr and
10cent D. 1birr
380. Which of the following symbol is the symbol of the cell?

A. B. C. D.
381. Each of the resistors in the diagram has a resistance of 2 Ω. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?

A. 20Ω B. Ω C. Ω D. Ω
382. Which of the following is not true about projectile motion at angle from the horizontal axis?
A. The time of flight is greatest when angle of projection is 90 C. The horizontal velocity is constant
B. The vertical velocity is constant D. The range is maximum at angle of projection of 45
383. Which of the following is/are example of projectile motion?
A. An object dropped from rest
B. An object that is thrown vertically upward,
C. An object which is thrown upward at an angle to the horizontal
D. None of the above
384. The force on a wire inside a magnetic field increase when
A) the current is increased C. length of wire is increase
B) Strength of magnetic field increases D. all of the above
385. The angle between the electric field lines and equipotential lines is: A. 0 B. C. D. 60
386. By what factor the capacitances of the parallel plate capacitor change if both the area and the distance between the
plates are doubled? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 E. none of these
387. Two point charges Q1and Q2 are 10cm apart and Q1=4Q2. At what distance between the charges the net electric field
will be zero?
A. r1 = 10cm, r2 = cm C. r1 = cm, r2 =
B. r1 = cm, r2 = 10cm D. r1 = cm, r2 = cm
388. How many numbers of electrons are required to carry 4C of charge?
A. 2.5x 1019 electrons C. 2.5x 1020 electrons
B. 2.5x 1018 electrons D. 2.5x 1021 electrons

24
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

389. What is the force between two protons at a distance of 2.0 mm?
-23 -23 -23 -23
A. 5.76 N B. 0.576 N C. 11.5 N D. 0.115 N
390. IF Electric potential at a point 3m from a certain positive charge is 45V, what force would be exerted on a charge of
4 10-9C placed at this point? A. 1.6 10-9N B. 0.6 10-9N C. 6 10-9N D. 6 10-8N
391. Which one of the following charging process does not require the direct contact of the charged and neutral bodies?
A. rubbing B. induction C. conduction D. none of these
392. What is the net force on charge q3 from the figure shown below? ( Use: q3 = q2 = q1 = 4C)

A. √ 109N B. 109N C. 25 109N D. 16 109N

393. Suppose three charges q1 = +4C, q2 = +2C and q3= -8C arranged as shown in the figure below.

q1_____________ q2______________ q3
2m 4m

What is the net force acts on q2 by two charges? (k=9 109Nm2 /C2)
A. 9GN, West B. 27 N, West C. 18GN, East D. 27GN, East E. none of these
394. An electron acquires a kinetic energy of 9.6 10-17 J as it moves from one point to another under the action of an
electric field. What is the potential difference between the points? ( qe = 1.6 10-16 C, me = 9.1 10-31 Kg)
A) 6000V B. 600V C. 60V D. 6V
395. What will be the ratio of electric fields if the distance is doubled? A. 1:4 B: 1:2 C.2:1 D. 1:1
396. What is the net electric force on the charge -2q as shown in the figure below? ( q= 1C, k=9 109Nm2 /C2)

A. 2√ N B. √ N C. 2 N D. N
397. By what factor must the distance from a point charge must be change in order to double the electric field strength?
A. B. C. D. √ E. A and C
√ √
398. Two positive point charges attract each other with force of 0.4N when their separation is 0.5m.what force do they
exert on each other when their separation is 1m? A. 1N B. 10N C. 0.1N D. 0.2N
399. How much work is required to carry a charge of 12mC from one point (A) to another point (B) when the potential
difference between the two points is 500V? A. 0.6J B. 6J C. 60J D. 600J

25
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

400. A parallel-plate capacitor has a plate area of 0.2 m2 and a plate separation of 0.1 mm. If the charge on each plate
has a magnitude of 4 × 10−6 C, what is the potential difference across the plates?( = 8.85 F/m). A. 226V
B. 2.26V C. 22.6V D. 0.226V E. none of these
401. You want to make a 5.0 μF capacitor. For the dielectric you use waxed paper of thickness 0.4 mm and ε = 7.1 ×
10−12 F/m. What area plates will be required? A. 2.82m2 B. 28.2 m2 C. 0.282 m2 D. 282 m2
402. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of 12 F. If the distance between the plates is tripled, keeping all other
quantities constant, what is the new capacitance of the capacitor?
A. 6F B. 4F C. 3F D. 12F
Based on the figure shown below answer Q19- Q24

403. What is the equivalent capacitance of the circuit? A. 9 F B. 6 F C. F D. 3 F

404. What is the charge stored in the circuit? A. 60 C B. 120 C C. C D. 450 C
405. What is the charge stored in 6 F? A. 120 C B. 60 C C. C D. 360 C
406. What is the voltage across 6 F? A. 9V B. 6 C. D. 3 (BONUS)
407. One of the 3.0 μF capacitors is replaced by one of an unknown value. The total capacitance of the system is 4.0μF.
What is the capacitance of the unknown capacitor? A. 9 F B. 6 F C. F D. 3 F
408. What is the total energy stored in the system? A. 5.4 10 J B. 5.4 10 J C. 5.4 10-6J D. 5.4 10-4J
-5 -3

409. Based on the figure shown below the charge moves in the electric field.

Between which two points the work done is zero? A) A and C B) C and G C) D and H D) C and D
410. Based on figure under Q25, which one of the following is true about electric potential?
A. VA>VB B. VC>VG C. VG>VH D. VC<VG
411. The work done per unit charge moved from one point to another defines:
A. Electric Potential Energy C. Electric Field Strength
B. Potential Difference D. Electrostatic Force
412. Which of the following factor does not affect the capacitance of capacitor?
A. The area of plates C. the dielectric b/n plates
B. The distance b/n plates D. none of these

26
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

413. The potential deference between two points is 100V. A particle with a charge of 2C is transported from one of these
points to the other. What is the magnitude of the work done?
A. 200J B. 100J C. 50J D. 20J
414. What is the capacitance of a capacitor that should be connected with two other capacitors having capacitance of 4 F
and 8 F all in series to produce an effective capacitance of F?
A. 24 F B. 12 F C. 6 F D. 4 F
415. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. The lines of equipotential are perpendicular to electric field lines
B. In radial field, lines of equipotential move away as distance increase from the charge
C. The electric field lines around a positive point charge is radially inward
D. In uniform field, electric field lines are equidistance
416. Which relation is not correct? A. E B. V C. F D. V
417. The siemen is the SI unit of A. resistivity B. Resistance C. Conductivity D. conductance
418. What is the equivalent capacitance between point A and B of the system shown below?
A

B A) F B) 12.8 F C. 45.75 F D. F
419. The total capacitance of two capacitors combined in parallel is 4 C. When they are combined in series the equivalent
capacitance is C. What are the values of two capacitances?
A. 3 C, 1 C B. 2 C, 2 C C. 3 C, 4 C D. 4 C,3 C
420. An air- filled parallel- plate capacitor has a capacitor of 1pF. The plate separation is then doubled and a wax
dielectric is inserted, completely filling the space between the plates. As a result, the capacitance becomes 2pF. What is
the dielectric constant of the wax?( is the permittivity of free space)
A. 2 B. 4 C. D. E. none of these
421. Which of the statement is CORRECT?
A. the current increase in parallel combination of resistors
B. the voltage increase in parallel combination of resistors
C. the current increase in series combination of resistors
D. the equivalent resistance in series combination of resistors is less an individual resistances
422. A charged q coulomb moves in a circle at n revolutions per second and the radius of the circle is r meter, then
magnetic field at the center of the circle is
A. NA-1m-1 C. NA-1m-1
B. NA-1m-1 D. NA-1m-1
423. The orbital speed of electron orbiting around the nucleus in a circular orbit of radius 5 m is 1.1 m/s.
Then the magnetic dipole moment of an electron is

27
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. 1.6 Am2 B. 5.3 Am2 C. 8.8 Am2 D. 8.8 Am2

424. A solenoid of length 0.4m and having 500 turns of wire carries a current of 3A. A thin coil having 10 turns of
wire and of radius 0.01m carries a current of 0.4A. What is the torque required to hold the coil in the middle of
the solenoid with its axis perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid?
A. 5.92 Nm B. 0.1592Nm C. 3.7 Nm D. 0.137Nm
425. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels on a circular path of a radius r that is perpendicular to a magnetic
field B. The time taken by the particle to complete one revolution is
A. B. C. D.
426. Weber is the unit of
A. Magnetic susceptibility B. intensity of magnetization C. magnetic flux D. magnetic permeability
427. Which of the following units denotes the dimension of ?

A. B. Weber C. Henry D.
428. The magnetic moment of a current loop is given by unit : A). A B). Am2 C). Am-1 D). Am-2
429. A Proton moving at 106 m/s through a magnetic field of 4.0T experiences a magnetic force of magnitude
3.2x N. What is the angle between the proton„s velocity and the field? ( qproton = 1.6 10-19C)
A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90
430. If the speed of the proton is 2x m/s, Assume that B = 3T and the mass of proton is 1.67x kg. What is the
magnetic force exerted on proton? ( qproton = 1.6 10-19C)
A. 1.0x N B. 1.0x N C. 9.6 N D. 9.6 N
431. Based on the above question What is the radius of the path followed by the proton in the field?
A. 0.696cm B. 0.696mm C. 0.696dm D. 0.0696mm E. none of these
432. The magnetic flux through a coil of 2000turns changes from 0.05Wb to 0.07Wb in 2s. What is the induced emf?
A. 2V B. 20V C. 200V D. 2000V
433. Which of the following is not true?
A. Electric motor is converts electric energy to mechanical energy
B. Transformer is used to transfers electrical energy from one circuit to another
C. Generator is used to converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
D. Step up transformer is used to decrease voltage
434. A 10cm and 20cm rectangular wire of 10turns having a resistance of 20Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.8T. If
the magnetic field decreases to zero in 0.4s. What will be the current in the loop?
A. 4 10-2A B. 8 10-3A C. 1.6 10-2A D. 2 10-2A
435. The magnetic field at the center of a solenoid carrying a current of 4A is 0.01T. What will be the magnetic field at
the same point if the current in the solenoid is 8A? A. 0.02T B. 0.03T C. 0.04T D. 0.015T
436. What is the change in magnetic flux through a 60turn, 12mH coil when the current in the coil changes by 15mA?
A. 3 10-7Wb B. 3 10-6Wb C. 3 10-5Wb D. 3 10-8Wb
437. “The induced current must be in such a direction that it produces a magnetic force which opposes the force causing
the motion”. This is: A. Faraday‟s law B. Lenz‟s law C. Newton‟s law D. Coulomb‟s law
438. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Direct current is constant in magnitude and varies in direction with time
B. Direct current is varies in magnitude and constant in direction with time
C. Alternative current is constant in magnitude and direction with time
28
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

D. Alternative current is varies in magnitude and direction with time

439. A rectangular coil with 200 turns is 5cm high and 4cm wide when the coil is placed in magnetic field of 0.35T, its
maximum torque is 0.56Nm. What is the current in the coil?
A. 6A B. 4A C. 2A D. 1A E. none of these
440. Which of the following factor cannot affect the magnetic field at a point perpendicular to the center of a long
straight wire?
A. The current flows through the wire C. The permeability of the medium
B. The perpendicular distance from the wire D. None of these
441. “The magnitude of induced emf is proportional to the rate change of magnetic flux” This is
A. Lenz‟s law B. Coulomb‟s law C. Newton‟s third law D. Faraday‟s law
442. The magnetic force exerted on a current carrying wire not depends on
A. Current flowing through the wire C. Magnetic field strength
B. Length of the wire D. Mass of wire carrying current
443. A transformer has 400 turns in its primary coil and 200 turns in its secondary. If the primary draws 5A at 100V,
what is the output voltage? A. 25V B. 50V C. 100V D. 75V
444. Based on the above question, If the efficiency of transformer is 80%,then the current in a secondary coil is
A. 8A B. 6A C. 4A D. 10A
445. Under what condition a magnetic force experienced on a charge placed in a magnetic field is maximum?
A. When it moves parallel to the field C. When it moves at angle of 60 to field
B. When it moves perpendicular to field D. When it moves at angle of 30 to field
446. Two long parallel wires are separated by 60cm and carry currents I1 = 15A and I2 = 9A in the same direction. What
is the magnitude of the force per unit length on each wire? ( 0 = 4 10-7 Tm/A)
-6 -5 7 -7
A. 4.5 N/m B. 4.5 N/m C. 4.5 N/m D. 4.5 N/ m
447. Based on the above question, what is the magnitude of the magnetic field strength midway between wires?
-6 -6 -6 -7
A. 1.0 T B. 6.0 T C. 4.0 T D. 1.0 T
448. An emf of 12V is induced in a coil when the current in it changes from 4A to 6A in 3seconds. What is the self-
inductance of the coil? A. 18H B. 1.8H C. 36H D. 3.6H
449. An alternating current generator contains 100 square loops of conducting wire with side lengths 10cm, the ends of
which form terminals. The sides of the loops with the same lengths as each other are parallel to each other. The loops
rotate at 25 revolutions per second within a 150mT uniform magnetic field. What is the maximum induced emf across
the terminals?
A. 2.4V B. 240V C. 24V D. 12V
450. Which of the following is not correct about the induced emf?
A. as the relative movement b/n the magnet and the induced emf also increases
B. as the magnetic field strength increase the induced emf also increases
C. as the number of turns increase the induced emf also increases
D. as the area of the rectangular wire increase the induced emf decreases
451. A projectile motion is a motion in air without motive force by the influence of force of gravity
A. False B. True
452. Which of the following motion can be accelerated motion?
A. A ball thrown vertically down ward C. A planet moves around the sun
B. A ball thrown vertically up ward D. All of the above
453. What is the horizontal acceleration for an object project at angle from the horizontal with initial velocity u?

29
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. ax = B. ax = 9.8m/s2 C. zero D. -9.8m/s2

454. What is the direction of a body projected with initial velocity U = (i+j) m/s?
A. ) B. C. 45 D. 60 E. A and C
455. The initial velocity of a body projected is given as U = (3i+4j) m/s. What are the maximum height and the range of
a body in meter respectively? (g=10m/s2) A). 0.8, 2.4 B). 2.4, 0. C). 8, 24 D). 24,8 E. none
456. Based on the above question, what is the total time of flight? A. 0.2s B. 0.4s C. 0.6s D. 0.8s
457. The total time of flight and the range of a body projected are related by the equation gT 2 = . What is the angle of
projection? A. B. C. ) D. E. none of these
458. The range of a cannon ball fired from the laboratory table is equal to times the height of the table. What is the
direction of the velocity vector of the projectile as it strikes the ground?
A. 45 from the horizontal B. 53 from the horizontal C. 6 from the horizontal D. 3 from the horizontal
459. Uniform circular motion describes the motion of a body traversing a circular path at:
A. constant velocity B. constant angular velocity C. constant linear speed only D. A and B
460. What is the centripetal acceleration of a body moves with speed of 4m/s around a circular path of radius 2m?
A. 8m/s2 B. 4m/s2 C. 2m/s2 D. 1m/s2
461. What will be happened to centripetal acceleration if both the tangential speed and radius are doubled?
A. doubled B. halved C. 16times D. 4times
462. What is the ratio of range to maximum height of a body projected at angle of 30 from horizontal?(g=10m/s2)
A. 4:1 B. 4√ : 1 C. 3:2√ D. 1:4 E. none of these
463. You are moving a ball in a circle using 72 N of centripetal force. What would the force be if the radius of the circle
is halved? A. 144N B. 36N C. 18N D. 9N
464. The inward force necessary to maintain uniform circular motion or necessary to keep an object moving along a
circular path is: A. Weight B. Centripetal force C. nuclear force D. magnetic force
465. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The force between two bodies of mass m1 and m2 is attractive force
B. Tangential acceleration and centripetal acceleration are perpendicular to each other
C. Angular acceleration, angular velocity and angular displacement are positive in counterclockwise direction
D. All of the above
466. What is the force that causes centripetal acceleration when a car goes around a curve?
A. Friction B. Gravity C. Normal D. Tension
467. What is the gravitational field strength at a distance twice the radius of Earth above the surface of the Earth?( use:
g=10m/s2, R=6400km, G = 6.67x10-11Nm2/kg2, M= 6 kg)
2 2 2 2
A. 10m/s B. 5m/s C. 2.5m/s D. 1.75m/s E. none of these
468. Which one of the following does not affect the gravitational field strength?
A. The mass of a body C. The mass of the planet
B. The height of the body above the surface of the Earth D. All of the above
469. What is the magnitude of the force of attraction between Mercury and the Sun? They are approximately
6× 1010 m apart. The mass of Mercury is about 3.0 × 1023 kg and the mass of the Sun is about 2 × 1030 kg.
(G = 6.65 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2. A.1.2 N B. 1.2 N C. 1.1 N D. 6.65 N E. none
470. Which of the following has the lowest escape velocity? A. Jupiter B. Earth C. Mercury D. Pluto
471. What would be the angular speed of earth, so that bodies lying on equator may experience weightlessness? (g =
10m/s2 and radius of earth = 6400 km)
A) 1.25 × 10–3 rad/sec
B) 1.25 × 10–2 rad/sec
C) 1.25 × 10–4 rad/sec
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 PHYSICS QUESTIONS
th
472. What will be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon if its radius is the radius of the earth and
th
its mass is the mass of the earth? A) B) C) D)
473. The gravitational force between two objects that are 2 m apart is 3.2N. If the mass of one object is 60kg,
what is the mass of the other object? A. 0.32kg B. 32kg C. 16kg D. 8kg E. none
474. What is the orbiting speed of a satellite moving uniformly in a circular path at a height above the earth of
5000km?( G = 6.67x10-11Nm2/kg2, M= 6 kg) A. 59km/s B. 5.9 m/s C. 5,900km/s D. 5.9m/s
475. The first man-made Earth’s satellite launched in space is known as:
A. Explorer I B. Sputnik I C. Moon D. A and B
476. If the range is doubled the maximum height of a projectile, then is____
A. B. C. D.
477. Which of the following is the largest, when the height attained by the projection is the greatest?
A. Time of flight B. Angle of projection C. range D. horizontal component of velocity
478. The range of projectile when launched at angle is the same as when launched at angle . What is the value of ?
A. 30 B. 60 C. 15 D. 45
479. At which angle of projection will the maximum height of projectile be obtained? A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90
480. What object experiences uniform circular motion?
A) A car speeding up as it turns left
B) A car traveling around a curve at a constant speed
C) A car slowing down as it crests a tall hill
D) A car traveling down the road at a constant speed
481. You are moving a ball in a circle using 72 N of centripetal force. What would the force be if you doubled the radius
of the circle? A. 144N B. 36N C. 18N D. 9N
482. The net force acting on the object that rotates with a constant speed in a circular path is:
A. zero B. directed towards the center C. Directed away from the center D. Tangent to the circle
483. At perihelion, the gravitational potential energy of Pluto in its orbit has
A) its maximum value C) the same value as at every other point in the orbit
B) its minimum value D) value which depends on sense of rotation
484. At perihelion, the mechanical energy of Pluto’s orbit has
A) its maximum value C) the same value as at every other point in the orbit
B) its minimum value D) value which depends on sense of rotation
485. As Pluto moves from the perihelion to the aphelion, the work done by gravitational pull of Sun on Pluto is
A) is zero B) is positive C) is negative D) depends on sense of rotation
486. A satellite of mass m and speed v orbits the Earth at a distance r from the center of the Earth. The gravitational field
strength due to the Earth at the satellite is equal to.
A. v/r b) v2/r c) mv/r d) mv2/r
487. If the period of revolution of an artificial satellite just above the earth be T second and the density of earth be ,
kg/m3 then (G = 6.67 × 10–11 m3 /kg. s2 )
A. T2 is a universal constant
B. T2 varies with time
C. T2 =

31
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

D. Both (a) and (c)

488. Gas escapes from the surface of a planet because it acquires an escape velocity. The escape velocity will depend on
which of the following factors:
1 ) Mass of the planet
2 ) Radius of the planet
3 ) Mass of the particle escaping
4 ) Temperature of the planet
489. For a particle projected at an angle of 45 , what will be the ratio of its range to the maximum height?
A. 1 : 4 B. 2:1 C. 1:3 D. 4:1
490. With what speed must an anti- aircraft be shot vertically upward in order to reach a maximum height of 2000m?
A. 2000m/s B. 200m/s C. 20m/s D. 2m/s E. none
491. A satellite is in orbit 35600 km above the surface of the Earth. Its angular velocity is 7.27 x 10 -5 rad/s. What is the
velocity of the satellite? (The radius of the Earth is 6400 km.)
A. 3,053m/s B. 353m/s C. 3530m/s D. 35m/s
492. A block of metal is lying on the floor of a bus. The maximum acceleration which can be given to the bus so that the
block may remain at rest, will be - A) µg B) µ/g C) µ2g D) µg2
493. A solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder all of the same mass and made up of same material are allowed to roll down
(from rest) on an inclined plane, then
A) Solid sphere reaches the bottom first
B) Solid sphere reaches the bottom late
C) Disc will reach the bottom first
D) All of them reach the bottom at the same time
A uniform solid cylinder of mass 2m and radius R rolls on a rough inclined plane with its axis perpendicular to the
line of the greatest slope. System is released from rest and as the cylinder rolls it winds up a light string which
passes over a light pulley. Based on this information answer the following three questions

494. The acceleration of block of mass m is

A. g (1- ) C. g (1- )
B. g (1- ) D. g (1 +sin )
495. The tension in the string is –
A) ( )mg B) ( )mg C) ( )mg D) (1- )mg
496. The frictional force acting on the cylinder is-
A) (1- )mg B) ( ) C) ( ) D) ( )
497. The stopping distance for a vehicle of mass M moving with a speed v along a level road, will be - (µ is the coefficient
of friction between tyres and the road)

32
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. B) C) D)
498. The centre of mass m of a triangle shown in figure has coordinates.( hint cm = )

A. x= ,y= B) x = , y = C) x = ,y= D) x = ,y=

499. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively along same direction.
Then the velocity of their centre of mass will be A) 8.1 m/s B) 7.3 m/s C) 6.4 m/s D) 5.3 m/s
500. Two bodies of different masses of 2 kg and 4 kg are moving with velocities 20 m/s and 10 m/s towards each other
due to mutual gravitational attraction. What is the velocity of their centre of mass?
A) 5 m/s B) 6 m/s C) 8 m/s D) Zero
501. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are kept as shown in figure, touching each other, with their centres on a
straight line. If their centres are marked P, Q, R respectively, the distance of centre of mass of the system from P is
A) B) C) D)

502. Two rigid bodies A and B rotate with rotational kinetic energies EA and EB respectively. The moments of inertia of A
and B about the axis of rotation are IA and IB respectively. If IA = and EA = 100 EB , the ratio of angular momentum
(LA) of A to the angular momentum (LB) of B is A) 25 B) 5/4 C) 5 D) 1/4
503. A body is acted upon by a force = -i + 2j + 3k. The work done by the force in displacing it from (0,0,0) to (0,0,4m)
will be - A) 12 J B) 10 J C) 8 J D) 6 J
504. The work done in pulling a body of mass 5 kg along an inclined plane (angle 60 ) with coefficient of friction 0.2
through 2 m, will be - A) 98.08 J B) 94.08 J C) 90.08 J D) 91.08 J
505. Conservation of linear momentum is equivalent to-
A. Newton's second law of motion C. Newton's third law of motion
B. Newton's first law of motion D. Conservation of angular momentum.
506. The work done by a person in carrying a box of mass 10 kg through a vertical height of 10 m is 4900 J. The mass of
the person is ( g = 9.8m/s2) - A) 60 kg B) 50 kg C) 40 kg D) 130 kg
507. Three point masses m1 , m2 , m3 are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of length 'a'. The moment of
inertia of the system about an axis along the altitude of the triangle passing through m1 , is
A) (m2 + m3) B) (m1 + m2 + m3 )a2 C) (m1 + m2 ) D) (m2 + m3 ) a2
508. According to the theorem of parallel axes I = Icm+Mx2, the graph between I and x will be

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 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

509. A wheel rotates with a constant acceleration of 2.0 radian/ sec2. It the wheel starts from rest, the number of
revolutions it makes in the first ten seconds will be approximately A) 8 B) 16 C) 24 D) 32
510. A constant torque of 31.4 N.m is exerted on a pivoted wheel. If angular acceleration of wheel is 4 rad/s2, then the
moment of inertia of the wheel is A) 2.5 kgm2 B) 2.5 kgm2 C) 4.5 kgm2 D) 5.5 kgm2
511. Which of the following planetary law is also referred to as period law?
A. Newton’s third law C. kepler,s third law
B. Newton’s first law D. Kepler’s second law
512. Which types of magnets remain magnetized even without the influence of the external magnetic field for a long
time? A) Temporary magnet B. Permanent magnet C. Electromagnet D. Temporary magnet and Electromagnet
513. The coefficient of static friction between a block of mass m and an inclined plane is s = 0.3. What can be the
maximum angle q of the inclined plane with the horizontal so that the block does not slip on the plane?
A. tan–1 (0.1) B) tan–1 (0.2) C) tan–1 (0.3) D) tan–1 (0.4)
514. It is easier to pull a body than to push, because –
A) the coefficient of friction is more in pushing than that in pulling
B) the friction force is more in pushing than that in pulling
C) the body does not move forward when pushed
D) None of these
515. Which one is NOT the property of magnet?
A. A freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in the North-South direction.
B. There is the magnet of mono pole
C. Magnets attract ferromagnetic materials
D. The magnetic force of a magnet is stronger
516. If the tangential speed and radius of the circle are doubled, by what factor does the centripetal acceleration change?
A) 2 B. 4 C. D.
517. What is the centripetal force acts on a body of 20kg moves with speed of 2m/s around a circle of radius 2m?
A) 20N B. 40N C. 80N D. 60N
518. Which of the following factor does not affect the moment of inertia?
A. mass of a body B. size of a body C. shape of a body D. center of mass
519. Which one of the following objects (solid sphere, hollow sphere, and disc) of the same mass and radius has largest
moment of inertia?
A. disc B. hollow sphere C. Solid sphere D. unknown
520. Which one of the following is the counter of torque in rotational motion?

34
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. Angular momentum B. Moment of inertia C. Angular impulse D. Force

521. What is the angular speed of a car rounding a circular path of radius 10m travelling at 144km/hr?
A. 4rad/s B. 40rad/s C. 2rad/s D. 20rad/s
522. In rotational motion, if a particle rotates with constant angular velocity then angular acceleration of a particle is:
A. Maximum B. minimum C. rate change of angular acceleration D. zero
523. Which one of the following is dimensionless unit? A. rad/s B. rad/s2 C. rad D. Nm
524. What is the value 3 rad in degree? A. 180 B. 360 C. 270 D. 540 E. none
525. Which of the following type of motion of planet cause day and night on Earth?
A. Rotational motion C. Both circular and rotational motion
B. Circular motion D. None of these
526. What is the angular displacement of a body moves about arc length of 4m in 2sec around a circle of radius 2m?
A. 2rad B. 4rad C. 6rad D. 8rad
527. What is the resultant acceleration of a body rotating at centripetal acceleration of 3m/s2 and tangential
acceleration of 4m/s2 about axis of rotation?
A. 1m/s2 B. 2 m/s2 C. 7 m/s2 D. 5 m/s2
528. What is the angular distance travelled when the final angular velocity is 20 rad/s, the angular acceleration is 2
rad/s2 and the time of motion is 5s? A. 50rad B. 125rad C. 100rad D. 75rad
529. A satellite is in orbit 35600 km above the surface of the Earth. Its angular velocity is 7.27 x 10-5 rad/s. What is the
velocity of the satellite? (The radius of the Earth is 6400 km.)
A. 3,053m/s B. 353m/s C. 3530m/s D. 35m/s
530. Two forces of equal magnitude of F act at the ends of a uniform beam of length ‘L’ in down ward direction. What is
the net torque at the center and at one end of the beam respectively?
A. LF, zero B. Zero, C. Zero, LF D. LF,
531. One of the following cannot be the unit of electric field strength?
A. N/C B. V/m C. kgms-2C-1 D. N/m2
532. All are correct about charge EXCEPT:
A. Proton carry positive charge C. Charge is not conserved
B. Like charge repel each other D. Electron carry negative charge
533. What is the angular velocity of a rotating disk if its KE and moment of inertia are 200J and 0.25kgm2, respectively?
A. 2rad/s B. 200rad/s C. 4rad/s D. 40rad/s
534. The leaves of a positively charged electroscope diverge more when an object is brought near the knob of the
electroscope. What do you conclude from this?
A. An object is negatively charged
B. An object is neutral
C. An object is positively charged
D. The charge on an object is opposite to the charge electroscope
535. Which of the following is true about the universal gravitational force Fg and electrostatics force Fc?
A. Both forces are pure attractive forces
B. Both are inversely proportional to the separation distance
C. Fg cannot be negative, but Fc can be negative

35
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

D. All of the above

536. Suppose three charges q1 = +4C, q2 = -2C and q3= +6C arranged as shown in the figure below.
q1_____________ q2______________ q3
2cm 4cm

What is the net force acts on q2 by two charges? (k=9 109Nm2 /C2)
A. 11.25TN B. 248TN C. 24.8TN D. 112.5TN E. none of these
537. Which of the following factors does not affect the rotational kinetic energy?
A. Moment of inertia B. Mass of a body C. Angular speed D. none of these
538. A bicycle tire of radius 0.40 m and mass 1.5 kg is rotating at 80rad/s. What torque is necessary to stop the tire in
2s? A. 9.6Nm B. 4.3Nm C. 19.2Nm D. 2.4Nm
539. At what angle between the force and diplacement from the axis of rotation the torque is minimum?
A. 180 B. 30 C. 0 D. 90 E. A and C
540. How big a force wills a charge of +2C experienced placed in an electric field of strength 18N/C?
A. 9N B. 36N C. 6N D. 4.5N
541. What is the electric field strength at a point 20cm away from a point charge of 2 10-10 C?(k=9 109Nm2 /C2 )
A. 45N/C B. 450N/C C. 4.5N/C D. 0.45N/C E. none of these
542. Two positive point charges attract each other with force of 0.4N when their separation is 0.5m. What force do they
exert on each other when their separation is 1m?
A. 1N B. 2N C. 0.1N D. 0.2N E. 0.8N
543. Two point charges, one of 3.0 C and the other of 2.0 C are placed 5.0 m apart. What is the force which acts between
them? (k= 9.0 × 109 N m2 /C2)
A) 2.2GN B. 0.22GN C. 22GN D. 220GN
544. All are the example of ferromagnetic materials EXCEPT
A. Iron B. Nickel C. Cobalt D. Zinc
545. Which of the following types of magnets need electric current flow through the solenoid to be magnetized?
A. Permanent magnet B. Electromagnet C. Temporary magnet D. Unknown
546. One of the following is NOT TRUE about the magnetic field lines:
A. Magnetic field lines never cross or intersect each other
B. Magnetic field lines leave the North Pole of the magnet and enter the South Pole outside the magnet
C. Magnetic field lines run from South Pole to North Pole inside the magnet to make a closed loop
D. None of these
547. Magnetic field can be produced by:
A. A magnet itself B. A current carrying wires C. An electric current and a moving charge. D. All of these
548. Which of the following is true about the right-hand rule (RHR), regarding to the direction of convectional current,
magnetic field, and force?
A. Thumb finger indicates the flow of the convectional current
B.Your index finger in the direction of the magnetic field
C. Your middle finger will point in the direction of the resulting magnetic force
D. All of the above

36
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

549. If a charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field with its velocity at some arbitrary angle with respect to
magnetic field, then its path is: A. Curve B. Straight line C. Helix path D. Elliptical
550. A Proton moving at 4x m/s through a magnetic field of 2.0T experiences a magnetic force of magnitude 8.0x
N. What is the angle between the proton‘s velocity and the field?( qproton = 1.6 10-19)
A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90 ………………….( = 38.9 )
551. A particle of mass ‘m’ is moves through the magnetic field B. At what angle between the velocity of a particle and
the magnetic field lines the force acts on a particle is maximum? A. 180 B. 90 C. 60 D. 0
552. Which of the following CANNOT affect the magnitude of magnetic force?
A. The magnitude of the magnetic field strength C. The mass of moving particle
B. The length of current carrying wire D. The current flowing through the wire
553. If the speed of the proton is 2x m/s, the magnitude of magnetic force is 1.2 T and the mass of proton is 1.67x
kg. What are the maximum and minimum magnetic forces exerted on the proton respectively?
A. 4.0 1022N, 0N B. 4.0 1022N, 2.0 1022N C. 4.0 10-22N, 0N D. 4.0 10-22N, 2.0 10-22N E. (4.0 10-14N,
0N)
554. A 4cm long wire carrying a current of 8A experiences a force of 2.4x N when it lies at angle of 30 to a uniform
magnetic field. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field strength?
A. 1.5T B. 0.15T C. 0.0375T D. 0.015T E. none
555. One of the following factors CANNOT affect the magnetic field strength:
A. The length of current carrying wire
B. The current flowing through a straight current carrying wire
C. The radius of the circular loop
D. the perpendicular distance at a point from a current carrying straight wire
E. None of these
556. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. Magnetic field is scalar while magnetic flux is vector C. Both magnetic field and magnetic flux are vector
B. Magnetic field is vector while magnetic flux is scalar D. Both magnetic field and magnetic force are Scalar
557. Which of the following is not equals to the unit of magnetic flux?
A. Vs B. C. AΩs D.
558. A uniform magnetic field of strength 1.2T is passing through a 3cm by 4cm rectangular current carrying coil. What
will be the magnetic flux through the rectangular coil if it is held with its face at angle of 60 to magnetic field?
A. 7.2 10-4 Wb B. 14.4 10-4 Wb C. 3.6 10-4 Wb D. 7.2 104 Wb
559. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the core of 800 turns solenoid of length 4.0 m carrying a current of
2.0A if the permeability of material inserted in solenoid is 1400?
A. 5.6 10-5T B. 5.0 10-5T C. 5.6 105T D. 5.0 105T
560. Which of the following is not used to calculate magnetic field?
A. B. C. D. nI
561. What will be happen to magnetic field at the center of circular loop if its radius is doubled and the magnitude
current sent into it is unchanged? A. doubled B. becomes times C. becomes times

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 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

562. A circular coil of wire of radius 5cm has 20 turns and carries a current of 2A. The coil lies in a magnetic field of
magnitude 0.50T that is directed parallel to the plane of the coil. What is the magnetic dipole movement of the coil?
A. 0.314Am2 B. 3.14Am2 C. 31.4Am2 D. 0.0314Am2 E. none
563. Based on the above question, what is the torque on the coil? A. 0.314Nm B. 0.628Nm C. 0.157Nm D. 0.0157Nm
564. The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point P 40cm from the center of the wire due to the current in the
-6
direction in the conductor is found to be 8 T. What current is flowing in the wire? ( 0 = 4 10-7 Tm/A )
A. 16A B. 1.6A C. 0.16A D. 0.016A
565. Two long parallel wires are separated by 60cm and carry currents I1 = 15A and I2 = 9A as shown below.
What is the magnitude of the force per unit length on each wire? ( 0 = 4 10-7 Tm/A)
I1
-6 -5 7 -7
A. 4.5 N/m B. 4.5 N/m C. 4.5 N/m D. 4.5 N/ m

60cm

I2

566. Based on the above question, what is the magnitude of the magnetic field strength midway between wires?
-6 -6 -6 -7
A. 1.0 T B. 6.0 T C. 4.0 T D. 1.0 T
-19 7
567. A long straight wire carries a current of 25A. An electron (1.6 C) travelling with speed of 1.0 m/s is 10cm
from the wire. What magnetic force acts on the electron when the velocity of the electron is directed towards the
wire and directed parallel to the wire respectively?
-17 -17 -18 -18
A. 8.0 N, 0N B. 0N, 8.0 N C. 4.0 N, 0N D. 0N, 4.0 N E. none
568. A current of 7.2A flows across a circular loop of radius 3cm. what is the magnetic field strength at each center of the
loop? ( 0= 4 10-7 Tm/A). A. 4.8 -5
T B. 4.8 -5
T C. 4.8 -6
T D. 48 -5
T
569. is the unit of: A. magnetic field B. magnetic field intensity C. magnetic flux D. A and B E. B and C
570. A magnetic field:
A. always exerts a force on a charged particle
B. never exerts a force on a charged particle
C. exerts a force if the charged particle is moving across the magnetic field lines
D. exerts a force if the charged particle is moving along the magnetic field lines
571. When the current through the wire is tripled, what will be the magnitude of magnetic field strength of a long
straight current carrying conductor? A. becomes 3times B. becomes times C. becomes 6times D. becomes
times
572. What must be done to increase the magnetic field strength of a current carrying coil(solenoid)?
A. Passing more current C. Decreasing the length of the coil
B. Increasing the number of windings D. All of these
573. By what factor does the magnetic field of a current carrying solenoid change when we double the current in the
coil?
A. B. C. 4 D. 2
574. Under what condition a charge placed in a magnetic field experiences no magnetic force?

38
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. When it moves parallel to the field C. when it moves at angle of 60 to field

B. When it moves perpendicular to field D. when it moves at angle of 30 to field
575. A circular coil of wire 10cm in diameter has 80tirns and carriers a current is 15A. The coil placed in a region where
the magnetic field 0.8T. What is the maximum torque on the coil?
A. 24 Nm B. 2.4 Nm C. 0.24 Nm D. 24 Nm
576. A coil of wire with 400turns each of area 50cm2 and carrying current of 5A is placed in 80mT magnetic field. If the
line perpendicular to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 30 to the magnetic field. What is the magnetic dipole of
moment of the coil? A. 10Am2 B. 0.1 Am2 C. 1Am2 D. 0.01 Am2
577. Based on the above question, what is the torque on the coil? A. 0.5Nm B. 5Nm C. 0.4Nm D. 4Nm E. none
578. The magnetic field strength at the center of solenoid is
A. Uniform B. zero C. minimum D. unknown
579. Which of the following a vacuum tube device has the lowest voltage on the anode?
A. Diode B. Cathode ray C. Transistor D. X-ray tube
580. Which of the following device used as an amplifier and rectifier?
A. X-ray tube B. Cathode ray oscilloscope C. Thermistor D. Diode
581. A diode is forward biased when the p-type junction of the diode is connected to the:-
A) N-type junction of the diode C) negative terminal of the voltage
B) positive terminal of the voltage D) Light Emitted Diode
582. What is the frequency of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum whose wavelength is 6 10-6m?
A) 5x1015Hz B) 5x1014HZ C) 7x1015Hz D) 9x1016Hz
583. Light is an electromagnetic wave. Its speed in vacuum is given by the expression
A. √ B. √ C. √ D. √

584. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength? A) -rays B) -rays C) -rays D) X -rays
585. Which of the following has the highest wavelength? A) X-Ray B) Gamma ray C) Radio wave D) ultraviolet ray
586. Which of the following pair of Electromagnetic waves has the lowest and highest energy respectively?
A) Gamma ray and X-Ray C) radio wave and Gamma ray
B) Radio wave and micro wave D) X-Ray and ultraviolet ray
587. Choose the wrong statement for E.M. wave. They-
A. are transverse C. are produced by accelerated charges
B. travel in vacuum with the speed of light D. travel with same speed in all medium
588. Which of the following waves have minimum frequency?
A. Microwaves B. Audible waves C. Ultrasonic waves D. Radiowaves
589. If v , x and m represent the wavelength of visible light, x-rays and microwaves respectively, then
A. m > x > v C. v > m > x
B. m > v > x D. v > x > m
590. Which of the following is correct increasing order of the wavelength of visible light colors?
A) Red-Orange-Yellow-Green-Blue C) Violet- indigo-Blue-Green-Yellow
B) Violet-Indigo-Orange-Red-green D) Blue-Green-Yellow-Orange-Red
591. Which of the following is CORREC about the permeability?

39
 A. r is the permeability of medium C. is permeability of free space
B. 0 is permeability of material D. is permeability of material
592. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance‘d’ are carrying identical current I each. The magnitude of the
force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is
A. B. C. D.
593. Figure 6.1.10b shows the trace on a CRO made by a 150 Hz signal. What is the frequency of the signal in Figure
6.1.10a? A) 33.3Hz B) 75Hz C) 450Hz D) 30Hz

594. Which of the following statement is correct?

A) At low temperatures, pure semiconductors behaves as insulators
B) At low temperature, pure semiconductors behaves as conductors
C) As the temperature increase the conductivity of a conductor increase
D) Silicon is a doped semiconductor
595. When Arsenic is added to a silicon then:
A. P-type semiconductor is formed C) The majority charge carrier is hole
B. The minority charge carrier is electrons D) The majority charge carrier is electrons
596. One of the following statement is incorrect:
A. Forward bias P-n junction there is the current flow
C. Forward bias P-n junction the width of depletion layer increases.
D. Reverse biased p-n junction the width of depletion layer increases
E. Reverse bias P-n junction there is no the current flow
597. Which of the following is the symbol of Thermistor?

A. B) C) D)

598. In doping semiconductor which one of the following is Acceptor?

A. Phosphorus B) Arsenic C) Boron D) Antimony
599. A wave of constant wavelength diffracts as it passes through an opening in a barrier. As the size of the opening is
increased, what would happen to the diffraction effects?
A. Increased B) decrease C) remains constant D) Unknown
600. The rate of emission of electrons emitted per second from the surface of hot metal is affected by:-
A. the temperature of the heated metal C) the type of metal
B. the surface area of the heated metal D) All of the above
601. Suppose the sensitivity on the CRO is set to 4.5V/cm and the spot of light on its screen is deflected by 5cm when
unknown P.d is connected to it. What is the P.d of the unknown source?
A. 0.9V B) 22V C. 2.25V D. 9V
602. A flexible optical instrument that medical doctors (physicians) use to see the internal parts of their patient
without surgery? A) Microscope B) Telescope C) Fiber optics D) Stethoscope
603. The light wave cannot be behaving one of the following behaviors of the wave?
A. Diffraction B) Refraction C) Reflection D) none of these
604. One of the following is incorrect about the image formed by a concave mirror?
A. When an object placed at center of curvature a real image formed
B. When an object placed at focus point a real image formed
C. When an object placed between a focus point and mirror a virtual image formed
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

D. When an object placed at infinity a real image formed

605. A wave is diffracted as it passes through an opening in a barrier. The amount of diffraction that the wave
undergoes depends on both the _______________.
A. amplitude and frequency of the incident wave
B. wavelength and speed of the incident wave
C. wavelength of the incident wave and the size of the opening
606. amplitude of the incident wave and the size of the opening
607. For a certain transistor a change in base current from10μ A to 60μA produces a change in collector current from
5mA to 25mA. What is the current amplification factor of this transistor?
A. 300 B) 400 C) 500 D) 600

The graph shown below represents a trace of an AC signal on the screen of a cathode ray oscilloscope.
If the controls are setting as:-
Sensitivity 5v/cm
Time base 4ms/cm
Each square represents 1cm by 1cm
(Question # 23, 24, and 25 refer to the graph)

608. What is the peak-to -peak voltage of the signal? A) 12V B) 10V C) 20V D) 15V
609. What is the frequency of the signal? A) 62.5Hz B) 1.6x10-2Hz C) 320Hz D) 625H
610. What is the period of the signal? A) 0.16s B) 1.6x10-2s C) 320s D) 62.5s
611. When an object is placed between 2F1 and F1, the image formed by a diverging lens is:
A. a real, erect and smaller in size C) a virtual, upright, larger in size
B. a virtual, inverted, and smaller in size D) a virtual, upright, smaller in size
612. A source of light 6cm high is located 60cm from a diverging mirror of focal length 20cm. What is the position,
and type of the image?
A. a real image at 15cm from a mirror C) a real image at 20cm from a mirror
B. a virtual image at 15cm from a mirror D) a real image at 60cm from the mirror
613. Based on the above question, what is the size of image? A) 3cm B) 1.5cm C) 2cm D) 0.6cm
614. How far should a pencil be held from a concave mirror to form an image at one-half the distance of the pencil
from the mirror? Assume that the radius of the mirror is 40cm.
A. 20cm B) 30cm C) 60cm D) 10cm
615. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 45° to the vertical onto a solution of a glass of syrup in water. If the beam
is refracted to 30° to the vertical, what is the index of refraction of the syrup solution?
A. 2 B) √ C) D) E) none
√

41
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

616. Based on the above question, suppose the light is red, with wavelength 633 nm in a vacuum what is the
frequency?
A) 5 1014 Hz B) 5 1015 Hz C) 5 1017 Hz D) 5 1021 Hz
617. Based the above questions, what is the speed of light in solution?
A) 1.4 108 m/s B) 2.1 108 m/s C) 2.1 107 m/s D) 1.4 107 m/s
618. Light can travel from air into water. Some possible paths for the light ray in the water are shown in Figure below.
Which path will the light most likely follow?

A. B B) A C) E D) C E) D
619. A ray of light in water (nw= 4/3) in incident upon at a plate of glass (ng =3/2) at an angle of 45 . What is the sine
√ √ √
angle of refraction into the glass? A) B) C) D. E. none of these
620. Figure 6.1.13a shows a reading of 1.5 V. Give the values displayed in b, c and d.

621. An arsenic atom is about the same size as a silicon atom. Silicon has four electrons in its outer shell, arsenic has
five. Explain how these two facts enable us to dope a silicon crystal with small numbers of arsenic atoms, and this
makes it conduct much better. Why do we call it an n-type semiconductor?
622. What do you mean by minority and majority carriers?
623. What is intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductor?
624. What is n-type semiconductor?
625. List some semiconductor devices.
626. How are diodes used in rectification process?
627. Consider a 0.6V diode is connected in series to a 30 resistor as shown in circuit below.

42
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

628. Suppose the sensitivity on the CRO is set to 4.5v/cm and the spot of light on its screen is deflected by 5cm when
unknown P.d is connected to it. What is the P.d of the unknown source?
629. The diagram in Fig6.3.25 below shows a trace on the screen of a CRO when a signal is applied across the Y-
plates. What type of signal is applied across the Y-plate and what is the condition of time-base?
A/ Alternative current, switched off C/ Alternative current, switched on
B/ Direct current, switched off D/ Direct current, switched on

630. In a p-n junction formation, Arsenic is described as donor impurity because _____________.
A/ it increases in the number of positive holes into the silicon lattice.
B/ it releases or provides free electrons into the silicon lattice
C/ it charges the crystal negatively
D/ it charges the crystal positively
631. In a p-n junction formation, Boron is described as Acceptor impurity because _____________.
A/ it increases in the number of positive holes into the silicon lattice.
B/ it releases or provides free electrons into the silicon lattice
C/ it charges the crystal negatively
D/ it charges the crystal positively
632. A battery is connected to the y terminals of an oscilloscope and the spot deflects 3 cm vertically. The sensitivity of
the oscilloscope is set at 1 V/cm. What is the p.d. across the battery?
633. The input of a logic gate may be either a ‗0„ or a ‗1„. Explain what that means.
634. a) Name the type of logic gate shown in a Figure a.
b) Write down its truth table.
c) Show that when its two inputs are joined together as in Figure b it will act as a NOT gate.

43
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 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

635. The following figures show the symbol and nomenclature for n-p-n transistor. Which numbers represent emitter
and base, respectively?

636. The collector current of a transistor used as an amplifier changes from 6mA to 24mA as the base current changes
from 10 µA to 50 µA. What is the current amplification factor of the transistor?
637. The following diagram shows the logic gates. If the inputs at points A, B, C and D are all 0, what will be the
outputs at points E and F respectively?

638. The truth table for the NAND gate is shown below. What are the missing outputs M and N?

44
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

639. When does a NOR get have a high output?

640. What is the objective of adding impurity atoms to a pure semiconductor crystal?
641. The emission of conduction electrons from the hot metal in a diode value is known________________
642. A 12V peak value of an alternate voltage source is connected to they-plates of a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO).
It gives the following graph.

The same CRO shows the following graph for unknown alternate voltage source connected to y-plates of CRO.

643. The sensitivity of a CRO is set as 12v/cm and it„s the time base setting is 1.25ms/cm.
Find the:
a) Peak voltage c) Frequency of the AC signal given below.
b) Peak-to-peak voltage. Each square is 1cm by 1cm

644. Which one of the following devices is referred to as a rectifier?

A) Transistor B) Capacitor C) Diode D) CRO
645. A P-type semiconductor can be formed when one of the following situations is satisfied?
A) Adding a controlled amount of trivalent atoms to a pure semiconductor
B) Doping or adding impurities to Intrinsic Semiconductor.
C) Adding a controlled amount of pentavalent atoms to Intrinsic Semiconductor.
D) Adding a controlled amount of trivalent atoms to Extrinsic Semiconductor.
646. A diode is forward biased when the p-type junction of the diode is connected to the:-

45
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A) N-type junction of the diode C) negative terminal of the voltage

B) positive terminal of the voltage D) Light Emitted Diode
647. An N-type semiconductor material is a type of material which is made by __________.
A) adding donor impurity to a silicon atom C) adding acceptor impurity to a silicon atom
B) adding trivalent atoms to a silicon atom D) adding quadravalent atom to a silicon atom
648. What is the frequency of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum whose wavelength is 10-7m?
A) 8x1015Hz C) 7x1015Hz
B) 5x1014HZ D) 9x1016Hz
649. Which one of the following symbols does represent a junction transistor that is formed by joining a P-type
between two N-type materials?

650. The transfer characteristics of a transistor means a plot of

A. input voltage versus input current
B. output voltage versus output current
C. output voltage versus input voltage
D. Input current versus output current.
651. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding a p–n junction diode?
A. When the p-type section is connected to the positive terminal and the n-type section to the negative
terminal of the battery the diode is called forward biased
B. When the p-type section is connected to the negative terminal and the n-type section to the positive
terminal of the battery the diode is said to be reverse biased
C. When the diode is in reverse biased mode a forward current flows
D. When the diode is in forward biased mode a forward current flows.
652. A Zener diode operates on which of the following bias?
A. Forward bias B. Reverse bias C. Both forward and reverse bias. D. No biasing is required for it.
653. The transfer characteristics of a transistor mean a plot of (a) input voltage versus input current (b) output voltage
versus output current. (c) output voltage versus input voltage (d) input current versus output current
654. An LED operates under which biasing condition?
A. Forward bias C. Can operate both in forward and reverse bias
B. Reverse bias D. No biasing is require
655. How are the currents flowing in the emitter, base and the collector related to each other?
A. Ic = Ib + Ie C. Ib = Ie + Ic
B. Ie = Ib + Ic D. Ie = Ic – Ib
656. Which device is used to measure the potential difference between two points of a conductor in the laboratory?
46
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. Voltmeter B. Ammeter C. Potentiometer D. Galvanometer

657. The bases of a transistor is _____________ doped region. A) heavily B) moderately C) lightly D) none of the
above
658. In a p-n-p transistor, the charge carriers are: A) acceptors ions C) free electrons B) donors ions D) holes
659. In a bipolar junction transistor, current is generated due to the flow of _____________
A) Electrons B) protons C) Electrons and Holes D) Electrons and Protons
660. The collector of a transistor is __________________doped region. A) heavily B) moderately C) lightly D) a none
661. The rate of emission of electrons emitted per second from the surface of hot metal is affected by:-
A) the temperature of the heated metal C) the type of metal
B) the surface area of the heated metal D) All of the above
662. In the diagram shown below a single diode is connected between a transformer and resistor. If the primary coil
of the transformer is connected to AC source, what will be the output signal?

663. The graph shown below represents a trace of an AC signal on the screen of a cathode ray oscilloscope. If the
controls are setting as:- Sensitivity 5v/cm Time base 4ms/cm Each square represents 1cm by 1cm (Question # 38
and 39 refer to the graph)

664. What is the peak-to -peak voltage of the signal? A) 12v B) 10v C) 20v D) 15v
665. What is the frequency of the signal? A) 62.5Hz B) 1.6x10-2Hz C) 320Hz D) 625Hz
666. Which one of the following logic gates gives an output exactly the opposite of AND gate?
A) NOR gate B) NOT gate C) NAND gate D) Inverter
667. The following diagram shows the combination of logic gates.

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 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A) off, on B) on, on C) on, off D) off, off

668. _____________ is an optical phenomenon that creates the illusion of water and results from the refraction of
light through a non-uniform medium. It is commonly observed on sunny days when driving down a roadway.
A) Diffraction B) A rainbow C) A mirage D) Refraction
669. The maximum magnetic field strength of an electromagnetic field is 5 × T. What is the maximum electric
field strength if the wave is traveling in a medium in which the speed of the wave is 0.75C?( C= 3 × m/s)
A) 1,125 N/C B) 2.2× C) 4.5× D) 4.5× E. none of these
670. Which of the following electromagnetic wave is used in communication?
A) Radio wave B) micro wave C) X-ray D) All except C
671. Which of the following behavior of the light cannot be explained based on the ray model?
A) Reflection B) Refraction C) Diffraction D) the bending of the light as it travels from one medium to another
672. What is the lateral displacement of a light when the incidence angle exceeded angle of refraction by 45 through
a medium of thickness 2cm?
A) B) C) D) E. none of these
673. If the refractive indices of water and another medium are 4/3 and 8/5 respectively, what is the critical angle?
A) B) C) D)
674. In the circuit given below, a diode is connected in parallel to the 6 resistor an 18V battery. What amount of
current will be drawn from the battery? A) 3A C) 6A B) 2A D) none of the above

675. For a certain transistor a change in base current from10 A to 60A produces a change in collector current from
5mA to 25mA. What is the current amplification factor of this transistor? A) 300 B) 400 C) 500 D) 600
676. What is the relationship between speed, frequency and wavelength for a transverse wave?
677. What is the frequency of an X-ray with a wavelength of 1 × 10−10 m?
678. What is the range of frequencies of visible light?
679. Two microwave frequencies are authorized for use in microwave ovens: 900Hz and 2560Hz.
a) Calculate the wavelength of each.
b) Which frequency would produce smaller hot spots in foods due to interference effect?
680. What is the wavelength of 100MHz radio waves used in an MRI unit?
681. What is the wavelength of the 190nm ultraviolet radiation used in laser eye surgery?
682. Which of the following has the highest wavelength? A/ X-Ray B/ Gamma ray C/ infrared ray D/ ultraviolet ray\

48
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

683. To observe diffraction the size of an obstacle should be ___________.

A. of the same order as wavelength B) much larger than the wavelength D) exactly equal
684. A wave of constant wavelength diffracts as it passes through an opening in a barrier. As the size of the opening
is increased, what would happen to the diffraction effects?
A. Increased B. decrease C. remains constant
685. This image depicts which one of the following wave behavior?
A. Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Interference

686. The diagram shows a series of wave fronts approaching an opening in a barrier. Point P is located on the
opposite side of the barrier. The wave fronts reach point P as a result of________________.

687. An object is 10 cm from a plane mirror. The angle of incidence on a plane mirror is 35°. Draw a diagram to show
the situation and work out: A) the angle of reflection B) the position of the virtual image
688. Find the number of images formed by two mutually perpendiculr– A) 3 B) 4 C) 1 D) 2
689. A girl stands at a distance 30cm from the mirror. She is able to see her erect image but of height of actual
height. The mirror will be:
A. Plane mirror B. concave mirror C. convex mirror D. plane convex mirror
690. An object of length 1cm is placed at a distance of 15cm from a concave mirror of local length 10cm. The nature
and size of image are
A. Real, inverted, 1cm B. real, inverted, 2cm C. virtual, erect, 0.5cm D. virtual, erect, 1cm
691. The light reflected by a plane mirror will not form image. Select two statements which are correct
1. If the rays incident on the mirror are diverging
2. Under no circumstances
3. If the object is real
4. If the rays incident on the mirror are converging
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct B. 2 and 4 are correct C. 1 and 2 are correct D. 1 and 3 are correct
692. Which of the following form(S) a virtual and erect image for all positions the object?
1. Convex lens 3. Convex mirror
2. Concave lens 4. Concave mirror
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct B. 2 and 3 are correct C. 1 and 2 are correct D. 1 and 3 are correct

49
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

693. Find the position and nature of the image formed by the concave and convex mirrors in Figure 7.2.3Q using:
a) the mirror equation
b) a ray tracing method.

694. Describe the nature of image formed by a converging mirror when the object is placed:
A. At the infinity
B. Beyond the center of curvature
C. At the center of curvature
D. Between the center of curvature and principal focus
E. At the principal focus
F. Between the principal focus and pole
695. A source of light 6cm high is located 60cm from a concave mirror of focal length 20cm. Find the position, nature
an size of the image.
696. Find the refractive index of a material where the angle of incidence is 56° and the angle of refraction is 34°.
697. Identify the conditions necessary for total internal reflection to occur.
698. The wavelength of a certain source of radiation is increased to 2. If the index of refraction was originally
measured to be 1.5, what will it be when the wavelength is doubled?
699. A source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 495 nm in air. When the light passes through a liquid, its
wavelength reduces to 434 nm. What is the liquid‘s index of refraction?
700. The speed of light in a certain glass is 1.8  10 8 m s-1. What is the refractive index of the glass?
701. The refractive index of diamond is 2.4. What is the speed of light in diamond?
702. In case of refraction, if the angle of incidence and angle of refraction are 45 and 30 respectively, then what
is the angle of deviation? A/ 75 B/ 15 C/ 7.5 D/ 37.5
703. The height of an object is 5 cm and the height of its image in a concave mirror is 25 cm high. What is the
magnification of the image?
704. Use the thin lens equation to find the focal length of a convex lens where the object is 4 cm from the lens and
the image is 6 cm from the lens.

50
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

705. How far should a pencil be held from a convex mirror to form an image one-half the size of the pencil? Assume
that the radius of the mirror is 40cm.
706. Concave mirror has a focal length of 52cm. How far away from it should be erect and twice its actual size?
707. A certain mirror is placed 4m away from an object produces an erect image enlarged 3times.
a) Is the mirror a diverging or a converging mirror?
b) What is the radius of the mirror?
708. An object 3cm tall is placed halfway b/n the focal point and the center of curvature of a concave mirror. If R=
40cm, determine the nature, size and location of the image formed.
709. An object is placed 50cm in front of a convex mirror. The image is one-fifth of the object size. What is the
focal length of the mirror?
710. A candle of height 10cm is placed in front of a concave mirror whose focal length is20cm. Where the image
formed and what is its nature?
711. An object is on the optical axis of a spherical mirror, 60 mm away from the center of the mirror. The
magnification produced by the mirror is −0.25.Find the image distance and focal length of the mirror.
712. A concave mirror has a focal length of 25 mm. An object is on the principal axis of the mirror at 15 mm away
from the center of the mirror. Find the image distance.
713. An object is on the optical axis of a spherical mirror at 60 mm away from its center. The image of the object is
30 mm from the center, on the same side of the mirror as the object. Find the focal length of the mirror.
714. The diagram shows light rays coming from a point on an object and being reflected by a concave mirror to
form an image. The magnification of the image is 3 times as large as the object.
a) How far is the image from the mirror?
b) What is the distance between the image and the object?
715. An object is placed in front of a diverging mirror at 75 mm away from the center of the mirror. The focal
length of the mirror is 25mm. Find the image distance. What is the magnification produced by the mirror?
716. What is the value of the unknown angle (theta) in the following diagram, Figure 7.2.5Q?

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717. An object is placed 20 cm from a concave mirror with a focal point of 15 cm. Where will the image be located?
718. An object is placed 20 cm from a convex mirror with a focal point of 15 cm. Where will the image be located?
719. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 30° to the vertical onto a solution of a glass of syrup in water. If the beam
is refracted to 20° to the vertical,
(a) What is the index of refraction of the syrup solution? Suppose the light is red, with wavelength 633 nm in a
vacuum.
Find its
51
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

(b) wavelength,
(c) frequency, and
(d) Speed in the solution.
720. A ray of light in water (nw= 1.33) in incident upon at a plate of glass (ng =1.5) at an angle of 45 . What is the
angle of refraction into the glass?

721. Light traveling in a medium of index of refraction n1 is incident on another medium having an index of
refraction n2. Under which of the following conditions can total internal reflection occur at the interface of the two
media?
(a) When the indices of refraction have the relation n2 > n1.
(b) When the indices of refraction have the relation n1 > n2.
(c) When light travels slower in the second medium than in the first
(d) When the angle of incidence is less than the critical angle
722. The refractive index changes with the colour of the light leading to dispersion. If the refractive index for blue
light in a certain glass is 1.639 and for red light is 1.621, calculate the angle between the rays if they were both
incident at 53 .
723. A source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 495 nm in air. When the light passes through a liquid, its
wavelength reduces to 434 nm. What is the liquid„s index of refraction?
724. Carbon disulfide (n =1.63) is poured into a container made of crown glass (n = 1.52). What is the critical angle
for total internal reflection of a light ray in the liquid when it is incident on the liquid-to-glass surface?
725. A convex lens of focal length 20cm and a concave lens of focal length of 30cm are placed 10cm apart. Suppose
an object is placed in front of the convex lens at 50cm behind its focal point.
i) Determine the image distance formed by the
a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
ii) Find the magnification of each lens and the total magnification
726. Prove that the lateral displacement (d) in Figure 7.2.8Q can be calculated from

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727. A plate of glass (n = 1.5) is placed over a coin on a table. The coin appears to be 3cm below the top of the glass
plate. What is the thickness of the glass plate?
728. A wave is diffracted as it passes through an opening in a barrier. The amount of diffraction that the wave
undergoes depends on both the _______________.
A) amplitude and frequency of the incident wave
B) wavelength and speed of the incident wave
C) wavelength of the incident wave and the size of the opening
D) amplitude of the incident wave and the size of the opening
729. Parallel wave fronts incident on an opening in a barrier are diffracted. For which combination of wavelength
and size of opening will diffraction effects be greatest? A) short wavelength and narrow opening C) short
wavelength and wide opening B) long wavelength and narrow opening D) long wavelength and wide opening
730. Which one of the following is most essential for observing diffraction of light________.
A. monochromatic light (b) white light c) a very narrow slit or obstacle (d) two coherent sources
731. Constructive interference occurs when two waves are___________. A) out of phase B) in phase C) zero
amplitude
732. Destructive interference occurs when two waves are___________. A) out of phase B) in phase C) zero amplitude
733. Two waves with phase difference 180° have resultant of amplitude___________
A. one C. greater than the amplitude of any one of the two waves
B. zero D. less than the amplitude of any one of the two waves
734. Interference of light is evidence that ___________________. A) the speed of light is very large C) light is a
transverse wave B) light is electromagnetic in character D) light is a wave phenomenon
735. When a light wave enters into a medium of different optical density_____________ .
A) its speed and frequency change C) its speed, frequency, and wavelength change
B) its frequency and wavelength change D) its speed and wavelength change
736. Calculate the critical angle for a) water (n = 1.33) b) diamond (n = 2.42)
737. The index of refraction for water is about 4/3. What happens to light when it travels from air into water? c is the
speed of light in vacuum.
(a) Its speed increases to c, and its frequency decreases.
(b) Its speed decreases to c, and its wavelength decreases by a factor of 3/4.
(c) Its speed decreases to c, and its wavelength increases by a factor of 4/3.
(d) Its speed decreases to c, and its frequency increases by a factor of 4/3.
738. A real image is __________________.
A/ produced by virtual rays and can be projected on a screen
B/ produced by real rays and cannot be projected on a screen
C/ produced by virtual images and cannot be projected on a screen
D/ produced by real rays and can be projected on a screen
739. Which of the statement is correct?
A. For all ways of heat transfer, a material medium is necessary
B. In conduction and convection, heat transfer is brought by the motion of matter
C. In conduction and radiation, heat transfer occurs without the motion of matter
D. Heat is transferred to Earth from the sun mainly by convection
740. The rate of cooling of two different liquids put in exactly similar calorimeters and kept in identical surrounding
are the same if:

53
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. the masses of the liquids are the same

B. Different volumes of liquids at the same temperature are taken
C. Equal masses of the liquids at the same temperature
D. Equal volumes of liquids at the same temperature are taken
741. Cooking the food, which of the following type of utensil is most suitable?
A. High specific heat and low conductivity
B. High specific heat and high
C. low specific heat and high conductivity conductivity
D. low specific heat and low conductivity
742. The temperature of a gas is most closely related to
A. The kinetic energy of translation of its molecules
B. The size of its molecules
C. The potential energy of the molecules
D. The energy of its molecules
743. Which types of heat transferrin system does not need medium?
A. Conduction B) convection C) Radiation D) none of these
744. Which one of the following is a factor on which specific heat capacity of a conductor depends?
A. Heat B) Substance C) Mass D) Temperature
745. The SI unit of heat capacity is: A) J/Kg B) J/K C) C -1 D) K-1
746. When you are taking a bath, how many kilogram of hot water at 48 must you mix with cold water at 12 so that
the temperature of bath is 36? The total mass of water (hot plus cold) is 90kg. A) 40Kg B) 50Kg C) 60Kg D) 20Kg
747. A refrigerator converts 500g of water at 0 into ice. What amount of heat is extracted from the water?(Lf = 3.36
105 J/kg) A) 168000J B) 16800J C) 1.68J D) 1.68Kj
748. When a substance change from gas to liquid state, which one of the following is occurs? A) Heat is absorbed by
the substance C) the temperature of the substance increases B) Heat is given off by the substance D) none of the
above
749. What is the heat energy required to increase the temperature of 10Kg ice from -5 to 5 ( Cice = 2100J/kg k,
Lf=334000J/Kg, Cwater=4200J/kg k) A) 3655J B) 36550J C) 365500J D) 3655000J
750. If the coefficient of linear expansion of a solid is 0.00009, its coefficient of volume expansion is; A) 0.00027 B)
0.00027 C) 0.018 D) 0.27
751. Metals are good conductors of heat because A) They contain free electrons C) Their atoms collide frequently B)
They are relatively far apart D) They have reflecting surface
752. What is the ratio of the coefficient of linear expansion to coefficient of volume expansion?
A. 1:2 B) 1: 3 C) 1:4 D) 3:1
753. Which of the following substance cannot undergo sublimation process?
A. Benzoate B) dry ice C) Sodium chloride D) ice

Based on the following diagram shown below, answer the following three questions

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754. At what temperature and pressure can the solid, liquid and vapor phases of CO2 coexist in equilibrium?
A. 310C, 72.9atm B) -78.5 C, 1atm C) -56.70C, 5.1atm D) -56.7 oC, 72.9atm
755. What are the critical temperature and pressure for CO2?
A. 310C, 72.9atm B) -78.50C, 1atm C) -56.70C, 5.1atm D) -56.70C, 72.9atm
756. At what temperature does carbon dioxide undergoes change in state at standard pressure?
A. 31oC B) -78.5oC C) -56.7oC D) between -56.7 oC and 310C
757. At 20.0, the length of a sheet of steel is 100.0 cm and the width is 50.0 cm. If the coefficient of linear expansion
of steel is 0.000011/C, determine the change in area and the final area at 100.0.
A. 0.088,0.5088 B) 0.00088,0.50088 C) 0.0088, 0.50088 D) 0.0088, 0.5088
758. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass vessel is 153 10-6/ and in the steel vessel is
144 10-6/ . If for steel is 12 10-6/ , then that of glass is ( =( +( )
-6 -6 -6 -6
A. 9 10 / B) 6 10 / C) 36 10 / D) 27 10 /
759. Which of the following is NOT correct about the properties of charge?
A) Unlike charges attract each other C) neutron carry positive charge
B) Charge is conserved D) charge is quantized
760. What is the amount of charge one electron carry? A) 1.6 1016C B) 1.6 10-16C C) 1.6 10-19C D) 1.6 1019C
761. How many protons the charges of 4 C carry?
A) 6.4 10-13protons B) 0.04 10-13protons C) 2.5 1013protons D) 2.5 10-13protons
762. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
A) Electric field is a vector quantity C) Current density is a scalar quantity
B) Potential difference is a scalar quantity D) the force between two charge is either attractive or repulsive
763. One of the following statement is FALSE:
A) The force between two charge is inversely proportional to the distance between the charges
B) The electric field strength is inversely proportional to the square of the distance
C) The potential difference is inversely proportional to the distance
D) The potential difference of charge moves perpendicular to the electric field line is zero
764. Which of the following is NOT true about the electric field lines?
A) They never cross over each other
B) They are drawn radially out ward from negative charge and radially in ward to a positive charge
C) They are equidistance between two parallel plates
D) The electric field is stronger at point at where they are closer to each other
765. A branch of electricity study about the properties of charge at rest is;
A) Electrodynamics B) Electrostatics C) Electromagnetism D) Electronics

55
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

766. A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q1 and Q2 and they are placed at a distance R from each other. The
maximum force of repulsion between them will occur, when
A. Q2 = , Q1 = Q - C) Q2 = , Q1 =
B. Q2 = , Q1 = Q- D) Q2 = , Q1 =
767. Point charge q1 = +1 C and q2 = -2 C are kept at points x = 0 and x = 6 respectively. Electrical potential will be
zero at points A) x = 2 and x = 9 B) x = 1 and x = 5 C) x = 4 and x =12 D) x = -2 and x = 2
768. When the separation between two charges is increased, the electric potential energy of the charges
A. increases B) decreases C) remains the same D) may increase or decrease
769. A positive charge is moved from a low potential point A to high potential point B. Then the electric potential
energy of the system
A. increases B) decreases C) will remain the same D) nothing definite can be predicted
770. The resultant capacitance of given circut is
A. 3C B) 2C C) C D)

771. Two dielectric slabs of constant K1 and K2 have been filled in between the plates of a capacitor as shown below.
What will be the capacitance of the capacitor? ( hint two capacitances are in series)
A. C) ( )
B.
C. ( ) D) ( )

772. In the electric field of a point charge q , a certain charge is carried from point A to B, C, D and E. Then the work
done by electric force is

A. least along the path AB C. zero along all the paths AB,AC, AD and AE
B. least along the path AD D. least along AE
773. Three charges Q, + q and +q are placed at the vertices of right-angled isosceles triangle as shown in the figure. The
net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is equal to

56
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A. B) C) -2q D) +q
√ √
774. How much work is required to move an electron through a potential difference of 3.00 volts?
A. 5.33 10-20J B) 3.00J C) 4.80 10-19J D) 1.88 1019J
775. As shown in the figure, charges +q and -q are placed at the vertices B and C of an isosceles triangle. The potential at
the vertex is: A) B) zero C) D)
√ √ √

776. The equivalent resistance of three resistors of the same resistances is maximum if
A) Two resistors combined in series to each other and parallel to the third resistor
B) Two resistors combined in parallel to each other and series to the third resistor
C) The resistors combined in series to each other
D) Two resistors combined in parallel to each other
777. Which of the following cannot be the equivalent resistance of three resistors of the same resistances?
A) B) R C) R D) 3R E)
778. How many electric circuits can be formed from three resistors of resistances? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
779. If the distance of the interest point from a point charge is doubled then, the electric field strength becomes
A) 2times B) times C) 4times D) times
780. Which of the following relation of the units is valid? A) = B) = C) = D) =
–8 –8
781. Two charges 3 × 10 C and –2 × 10 C are located 15 cm apart. At what point on the line joining the two charges is
the electric potential zero?
A) = 6cm and = 9cm B) = 7cm and = 8cm C) = 5cm and = 10cm D) = 4cm and = 11cm
782. One of the following relation of physical quantities is not correct: A) V B) E C) F D) F
783. What is the electric field at point N from the figure shown below?
A) Maximum B) C) zero D) unknown

784. Which of the following is not true about the electric field strength?
A) It is uniform between parallel plates C) It is depends on the distance of a point charges from positive test
charge
B) It is strongest between two unlike charges D) It is strongest between two like charges

57
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

785. A rectangle of base 2cm and height 3cm lies in the xy-plane. Find the electric flux through the rectangle for the
electric field vectors, ⃗ = (3j+4 ̂ ) N/C? A) 18 Nm2/C B) 24Nm2/C C) 42Nm2/C D) 12 Nm2/C
786. Based on the above equation, what is the angle between the area vector and electric field?
A) 60 B) 30 C) 53 D) 37
787. If V is the potential difference between points A and B in the figure and all three resistors have the resistance R, what
is the current at point A?

A) B) C) D)

A B

788. Two point charges 10pC and -2pC are separated by a distance of 1.0cm. What is the potential mid-way between
them?
A) 14.4mV B) 1.44V C) 14.4V D) 1.44mV
789. What is the net electric field strength at point P in the system shown below in N/C?

A) 2000 ̂ B) -26000 ̂ C) 4000 ̂ D) -4000 ̂

790. Two charges +3μC and +12μC are 1 m apart. What is the magnitude and direction of the net force on a +2μC charge
when placed halfway between the two? A) 0.648N, left B) 0.648N,right C) 1.1N,left D) 1.1N,right E) none of
these
791. How can three resistors with R1 = 2 , R2 = 3 and R3 = 6 be connected to give an equivalent resistance of 4Ω?
A) R1 and R2 parallel to each other and series to R3 C) R2 and R3 parallel to each other and series to R1
B) R1 and R2 in a series to each other and parallel to R3 D) R1 and R3 parallel to each other and series with R2
Based on the following information answer Q(24-26)
A copper wire 8mm in a diameter transfer a charge of 540C in 1hr. If copper wire contains 6 1028free electrons
per meter cube,
792. What is the current flow in the wire? A) 1.5A B) 15A C) 150A D) 0.15A
793. What is the current density? A) 2.98 A/m2 B) 29.8 A/m2 C) 0.2985 A/m2 D) 2980 A/m2 E) 298 A/m2
794. The drift velocity of the electrons in the wire is; A) 3.1 10-17m/s B) 0.92 10-29m/s C) 92.0 10-29m/s D) 3.1 10-
19
m/s m/s
795. The force between two charges is 1.5N. What would be the force if the distance between the charges is increased
to five times its original? A) 0.06N B) 0.6N C) 0.03N D) 0.3N
796. The equivalent resistance of two resistors R and 2R when they are connected in parallel is 8Ω what is the
equivalent resistance of these two resistors when they are connected in series? A) 24 Ω B) 36Ω C) 18Ω D) 12Ω
797. For resistors connected in series, the total resistance is smaller than the resistance of the resistor with the largest
resistance, but for resistors connected in parallel, the total resistance is larger than the resistance of the resistor with
the smallest resistance.

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A) True B) False C) Unknown

798. What are the smallest and largest resistances you can obtain by connecting 3Ω, 4Ω, and 6Ω resistor together
respectively?
A) Ω, 13 Ω B) Ω, 13 Ω C) 13Ω, Ω D) Ω, 13 Ω
799. In the following fig. the ratio of current in 3Ω and 1Ω resistances is–
A. B. C) 1 D) 2

800. The resultant resistance between the points A and B in the following fig. will be –
A. 4 Ω B. 8 Ω C. 6 Ω D. 2 Ω

801. The figure below shows currents in a part of electric circuit. The current i is
A. 1.7A B. 3.7A C. 1.3A D. 1A

802. A voltmeter can measure up to 25 volt and its resistance is 1000 Ω. The resistance required to add with voltmeter
to measure up to 250 volt will be- A) 9000 Ω B) 1000 Ω C) 2500 Ω D) 900 Ω
803. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is A) Zero B) Very low C) Very large D) Infinite
804. What is the direction of current density?
A) The same to the direction of electric field C) opposite to the direction of the force exerted on the test
charge
B) Opposite to the direction of electric field D) cannot be determined
805. Which of the following physical quantity is not vector? A) Current density B) area vector C) potential d/c D)
electric field
806. Which one of the following is not true about the properties of charge?
A) Like charges repel each other C) Two positive charges attract each other
B) Unlike charges attract each other D) Electric charge is always conserved
807. How many protons can be formed from 4C charge?
A) 2.5 1019 B) 6.4 1019 C) 2.0 1018 D) 4.0 1018 E) none
808. How many electrons must be removed from a neutral object to leave a net charge of +0.50μC?
A) 3.1 1012 B) 3.1 1013 C) 3.1 1011 D) 3.1.0 1014 E) none
809. Two identical conducting spheres are charged to +Q and -3Q and separated by a distance r. The attractive force
between the spheres is F. The two spheres are brought in brief contact and then moved to the original positions. If
the new electrostatic force between the spheres is F’, which of the following is true?
A) F’ = F B) F’ = 3F C) F’ = F D) F’ = 9F
810. “The force between two charges is directly proportional to the product of the magnitude of charges and inversely
proportional to the square of the separation distance between them”. This
A) Newton’s universal law B) Newton’s third law of motion C) kepler’s third law D) Coulomb’s law
59
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

811. Four positive Q charges are arranged at the corners of a square as shown on the diagram. What is the direction of
the net force on the test charge q placed at the center of the square?
A) B) C) D) the net force is zero

812. Which one of the following is not true?

A) Electrostatics force is either attractive or repulsive
B) Gravitational force is either attractive or repulsive
C) The force between two like charges is repulsive force
D) The force between two positive charges is repulsive force
813. Compare and construct the gravitational force and electrostatic force
814. Two electrons are separated by a distance r. Which of the following statements is correct? Select two answers:
A) There is an attractive electrostatic force between the electrons
B) There is a repulsive electrostatic force between the electrons
C) The gravitational force between the electrons much greater than electrostatic force
D) The electrostatic force is much greater that gravitational force
815. The force between two charge is doubled the distance between two charges become:
A) 2 times B) √ times C) times D) 4 times
√
816. Three positive charges with an equal charge of Q are located at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side r. What
is the direction of the net force on charge C due to charges A and B?

A) B) C) D)

817. Based on the above figure, what is the magnitude of net force acts on charge at C?
√ √
A) B) C) D) E) none of these
818. Two the same charges of 4nC are at 2cm far apart. What is the electrostatic force between two charges? (K=
9.0X109Nm2/C2)
A) 3.6 10-4N,attractive B) 3.6 10-4N,repulsive C) 3.6 10-14N,attractive D) 3.6 10-13N,repulsive
819. Which one of the following factors cannot affect the electrostatic force?
A) The magnitude of two charges C) The electric field strength
B) The distance between charges D) None of these
820. Four Q charges are arranged at the corners of a square as shown on the diagram. What is the magnitude of the net
force on the test charge q placed at the center of the square?

60
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

√ √
A) B) C) D)

821. Two charges +3μC and +12μC are fixed 1 m apart, with the second one to the right. What is the magnitude and
direction of the net force on a −2 μC charge when placed halfway between them?
A) 0.644N, to the left B) 0.644N, to the right C) 1.1N,to the left D) 1.1N, to the right E) none of these
822. Each of two small spheres is positively charged and combined charge is 4x10 -8C. What is the charge on each sphere
if they are repelled with a force of 27x10 -5N? The centers of the sphere are 0.1m apart.
A) 3x10 -8C and 10 -8C C) 2x10 -8C and 10 -8C
B) 2x10 -8C and 1x10 -8C D) both have the same 3x10 -8C
823. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 10µF. If the distance between the plates is halved, keeping all other
quantities constant, then what is the new capacitance of the capacitor? A) 0.2 µF B) 5 µF C) 10 µF D) 20 µF
824. Which of the following statement is true about a positively charge conductor? Select two answers:
A. The electric field inside increases linearly from the center
B. The electric field inside is zero
C. The electric field lines are parallel to the surface of the conductor
D. The electric filed lines are perpendicular to the surface of the conductor
825. A charge Q is placed at origin as shown in the figure below. An electric charge Q is placed at the origin. If the
magnitude of the electric field at point A is E, what is the magnitude of the electric field at point B?
A) 4E B) 2E C) D)

826. An electron is projected with a velocity of 8x10 6m/s into a uniform magnetic field of 9.1x10 -4T perpendicular to the
to the direction of the field. What is the radius of the path of the electron?
A) 5x10 -2m B) 4x10 -2m C) 5x10 -3m D) 4x10 -3m
827. When switch S is thrown to the left in the figure shown below, the plates of the capacitor C1 acquire a potential
difference Vo. C2 and C3 are initially uncharged. The switch is now thrown to the right. What are the final charges q1
on the capacitor C1?

61
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

828. An ion accelerated through a potential difference of 115 V experiences an increase in kinetic energy of 7.37 10 -17
J. What is the charge on the ion? A) 6.41 x 10-19C B) 4.51 x 10-15 C C) 2.32 x 10-15C D D) 2 x 10-21 C
829. Two different capacitors of capacitance C1 = 2µF and C2 = 3µF are connected in series across a 120 V supply line.
The charged capacitors are disconnected from the line and from each other and reconnected with terminals of like
sign together. What will be the final charge on C1 and C2, respectively? (EUEE: 2006)
A. 57.6 µC and 86.4 µC C. 144 µC across each
B. 115.2 µC and 127.8 µC D. 288 µC across each
830. Which one of the following changes to parallel plate capacitor would not increase energy stored in the capacitor at a
fixed voltage across the plates? (EUEE: 2005)
A) Increasing the area of the plates C) Decreasing the charges on the plates
B) Increasing the dielectric constant D) increasing the distance b/n the plates
831. A capacitor made parallel plates is charged by connecting it to a battery. The distance between the plates is much
less than the surface area of each plate. After fully charged if the plates are disconnected from the battery and then
pulled apart a little, what will happen to the total stored energy, the electric field, and the potential difference
between the plates? (EUEE: 2006)
A) The electric field between the plates increases.
B) The potential difference between the plates decreases.
C) The total energy stored in the capacitor increases.
D) The electric field, the potential difference and the stored energy remain the same.
832. A small radio receiver uses a battery that delivers a constant current of 25mA for 3 hours. Calculate the total charge
delivered by the battery? (EUEE: 2006) A) 1080000C B) 270000C C) 540C D) 270C
833. Two like charges of value q are fixed at and as shown in the figure below. If a test charge is released at y = b, which
path will it follow? (EUEE: 2011)

A. It stays at y= b C) Along a line Y=- x+b

B. Along a line Y=- x+b D) A long y-axis
834. A parallel plate capacitor with plate’s area A and plate’s separation d stores a charge Q when a potential difference
V is kept between the plates. Then the region between the plates is completely filled with a dielectric material of
dielectric constant. If E denotes the electric field between the plates, the energy density stored by the capacitor is
(EUEE: 2013/14)
A. U = B) U = C) U = D) U =
835. A conducting sphere is charged with a negative charge –Q. Which statement about the charge distribution is
correct?
A) Charge is concentrated at the center of the sphere
B) Charge is concentrated at the bottom part of the sphere
C) Charge is evenly distributed throughout the volume of the sphere
D) Charge is evenly distributed on the surface of the sphere

62
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

836. A positive charge of 1.0 x 10-4 C is on the negatively charge plate of a parallel plate capacitor as shown below.

If the potential (V) on the top plate is + 10,000 V and that of the bottom plate is – 10,000 V, how much work (W) is
required to move charge from the bottom to the plate? (EUEE: 2008) A) 2 J B) 1 J C) Zero D) 2 x 104 J
837. What is the potential (V) at a distance of 10 m from charge of +5 C? (EUEE: 2008)
A) -4.45 x 109 V B) -0.5 V C) +4.45 x109 V D) +0.5 V
838. A capacitor of 12µF capacitance can be fully charged after it is connected between potential differences of 9 V. How
much electrical energy is used in charging the capacitor? (EUEE: 2010)
A) 4.86 x 10-4 J B) 54 x 10-4 J C) 1 x 10-3 J D) 9.72 x 10-4 J
839. When a potential difference of 150 V is applied to the plate of a parallel-plate capacitor, the plates carry a surface
charge density of 30 n C/cm2. What is the spacing between the plates?
A) 2.24µm B) 5.32µm C) 12.24µm D) 4.42µm
840. A small object of mass m carries a q and is suspended by a thread between the vertical plates of a parallel-plate
capacitor. The plate separation is d. If the thread makes an angle ϴ with the vertical, what is the potential difference
between the plates? (EUEE: 2004).

841. Three the same charges of +4C are located at the corners of equilateral triangle of sides of 2cm. what is the net force
on the third charges? A) 3.6 1013N, B) 1.8 1013N C) 6.24 1013N D) 6.24 1014N E) none of these
842. Two parallel conducting plates are charged with equal and opposite charges. Which statement is true about the
magnitude of the electric field?
A) Greater at point A C) Greater at point C
B) Greater at point B D) The same at points B, C, D and zero at point A

843. Based on the following figure shown below answer the following two questions

63
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

An electric charge Q is placed at the origin. A charge q is placed at point B and the force on charge q due to charge Q
is F. What is the force on charge q if charge q is moved to point A? A) 4F B) 2F C) F/4 D) F/2
844. An electric charge Q is placed at the origin. A charge q is placed at point A and the force on charge q due to charge Q
is F. What is the force on charge q if charge q is moved to point C? A) 9F B) 3F C) F/9 D) F/3
845. Two charged objects with an equal charge of Q, separated by a distance r attract each other with a certain force. If
the charges on both objects are doubled and the separation is halved, the force between them is:
A) 4 times greater C) 4 times less
B) 2 times greater D) 16 times greater
846. What are the smallest and largest resistances you can obtain by connecting 3Ω, 4Ω, and 6Ω resistor together
respectively?
A. Ω, 13 Ω B) Ω, 13 Ω C) 13Ω, Ω D) Ω, 13 Ω
847. The equivalent resistance of two resistors R and 2R when they are connected in parallel is 8Ω what is the equivalent
resistance of these two resistors when they are connected in series? A) 24 Ω B) 36Ω C) 18Ω D) 12Ω
848. Two isolated charges, +2q and -5q, are 2 centimeters apart. If F is the magnitude of the force acting on charge -5q,
what are the magnitude and direction of the force acting on charge +2q?
A) (1/2) F Toward charge -5q C) F Toward charge -5q
B) 2 F Away from charge -5q D) F Away from charge -5q
849. A point charge Q1 = +4.0 µC is placed at point x = -2 m. A second charge Q2 is placed at point x = +3 m. The net
electric field at the origin is zero. What is the magnitude and sign of charge Q2?
A. 9.0 µC (A) Positive C. 3.0 µC (C) Positive
B. 6.0 µC (B) Positive D. 9.0 µC (D) Negative
850. Two positive charges of magnitude 2.4 x 10-9 C and 1.6 x 10-9 C are separated in air by a distance of 2cm. how
much electrostatic potential is produced by the two charges at midway between them? (EUEE: 2009)
A) 3.6 kV B) 0.72 kV C) 2.16 kV D) 1.44 Kv
851. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 10µF. if the distance between the plates is halved, keeping all other
quantities constant, and then what is the new capacitance of the capacitor? (EUEE: 2009)
A) 0.2µF B) 5µF C) 10µF D) 20µF
852. What is the direction of current density?
A) The same to the direction of electric field C) opposite to the direction of the force exerted on the test charge
B) Opposite to the direction of electric field D) cannot be determined
A copper wire 8mm in a diameter transfer a charge of 540C in 1hr. If copper wire contains 6 1028free electrons per
meter cube, Based on this information answer the following three questions
853. What is the current flow in the wire? A) 1.5A B) 15A C) 150A D) 0.15A
854. What is the current density? A) 2.98 A/m2 B) 29.8 A/m2 C) 0.2985 A/m2 D) 2980 A/m2 E) 298 A/m2
855. The drift velocity of the electrons in the wire is;
A) 3.1 10-17m/s B) 0.92 10-29m/s C) 92.0 10-29m/s D) 3.1 1019m/s
856. The force between two charges is 1.5N. What would be the force if the distance between the charges is increased
to five times its original? A) 0.06N B) 0.6N C) 0.03N D) 0.3N

64
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

857. Which of the following is not true about the electric field strength?
A. It is uniform between parallel plates
B. It is depends on the distance of a point charges from positive test charge
C. It is strongest between two unlike charges
D. It is strongest between two like charges
858. A rectangle of base 2cm and height 3cm lies in the xy-plane. Find the electric flux through the rectangle for the
electric field vectors, ⃗ = (3j+4 ̂ ) N/C? A) 18 Nm2/C B) 24Nm2/C C) 42Nm2/C D) 12 Nm2/C
859. Based on the above equation, what is the angle between the area vector and electric field?
A. 60 B) 30 C) 53 D) 37
860. Two point charges 10pC and -2pC are separated by a distance of 1.0cm. What is the potential mid-way between
them?
A) 14.4mV B) 1.44V C) 14.4V D) 1.44mV
861. The equivalent resistance of three resistors of the same resistances is maximum if
A) Two resistors combined in series to each other and parallel to the third resistor
B) Two resistors combined in parallel to each other and series to the third resistor
C) The resistors combined in series to each other
D) Two resistors combined in parallel to each other
862. Which of the following cannot be the equivalent resistance of three resistors of the same resistances?
A) B) R C) R D) 3R E)
863. If the distance of the interest point from a point charge is doubled then, the electric field strength becomes
A) 2times B) times C) 4times D) times
864. Which of the following physical quantity is not vector? A) Current density B) area vector C) potential d/c D) electric
field
865. Four resistors of R1= 2Ω, R2= 3Ω, R3 =4Ω, and R4 = 6 Ω are connected with source of 24V in the figure below.
A) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the circuit
B) Find the current flows through R4

866. Which of the following is not correct?

A) Two equipotential surfaces never intersect each other
B) The equipotential lines of a uniform field are parallel to each other
C) the equipotential lines of a point charge are concentric sphere
D) No work is required to move a charge along an equipotential line
E) None of these
867. An ammeter to measure the current flow through the circuit is connected in:
A) a series to the resistor C) either series or parallel to the resistor
B) a parallel to the resistor D) neither parallel nor series to the resistor
868. A voltmeter to measure the current flow through the circuit is connected in:
A) a series to the resistor C) either series or parallel to the resistor

65
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

B) a parallel to the resistor D) neither parallel nor series to the resistor

869. A galvanometer of full-scale deflection 10mA is to be converted into a 10A. If its coil has a resistance of 50 Ω, what
value shunt must be fitted? A) 5 B) 0.5Ω C) 0.05Ω D) 0.005Ω
870. A galvanometer has a resistance of 40 Ω and is of 3 mA full scale deflection. How would you modify it to a 0 − 10 V
voltmeter?
A) 1960Ω B) 1.960Ω C) 19.60Ω D) 196Ω
871. Which of the following is the use of potentiometer
A) to measure the emf of a given cell C) to compare the emf of different cells
B) to measure the internal resistance of a cell D) All of these
872. Which of the following is correct condition of balanced Wheatstone bridge from the following diagram?

A) = B) = C) = D) =
873. Five resistors are connected as shown in the diagram. The equivalent resistance between A and B is
A. 6Ω B. 9 Ω C. 12 Ω D. 15 Ω

874. The amount of light emitted is by bulb is measured by:

A) Lumens B) joules C) watts D) amperes
875. Four bulbs are connected in the circuit as shown in the figure below. Which is bulb is the brightest?

A) Bulb A B) Bulb B C) Bulb C D) Bulb D

876. Kirchhoff’s junction rule is the consequence of the law of conservation of_________________
877. Kirchhoff’s loop rule is the consequence of the law of conservation of____________________
878. A galvanometer with a resistance of 36Ω is converted into an ammeter using a shunt resistance of 4Ω. What fraction
of the total current passes to the current through the galvanometer? A) 10 B) C) 8 D) E) none
879. For the network of capacitors shown in the figure below, determine
A) the equivalent capacitance______________________________
B) the charge stored on each capacitor_______________________
C) the voltage across each capacitor_________________________
D) the energy stored in each capacitors______________________
E) the total energy stored in the circuit______________________

66
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

880. Calculate the equivalent capacitance between points A and B for the circuit shown in the figure below.

881. Calculate the currents I1, I2,and I3

882. Following the chart depicts the ISO standard for each color in the resistor

Given the following resistor as the color of the first three bands in order are: green, blue and yellow, the last band
(the tolerance) is silver. What is the numerical value of this resistor?
A) 56KΩ 10 B) 560KΩ 10 C) 5.6KΩ 10 D) 5600KΩ 10 E) none
883. Given the following resistor as the color of the first three bands in order are: blue, yellow, and green, the last band
(the tolerance) is gold. What is the numerical value of this resistor?

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 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A) 6400KΩ 5 B) 640KΩ 10 C) 64KΩ 10 D) 6.4KΩ 10 E) none

884. Given the following resistor as the color of the first three bands in order are: yellow, red and orange, the last band
(the tolerance) is silver. What is the numerical value of this resistor?
A) 42KΩ 10 B) 420KΩ 10 C) 4.2KΩ 10 D) 4200KΩ 10 E) none
885. What are the colors and tolerance of a resistor represented by the numerical value as 24KΩ 10%?
A) red, orange, blue and gold C) yellow, orange, red and silver
B) red, yellow, orange and silver D) red, yellow, orange and gold
886. The size of atom is approximately ______ A) 10 m B) 10 m C) 10-15m D) 10-9m
-9 -10

887. Which of the following nuclear radiations has the highest penetration power?
A) Alpha radiation B) Beta radiation C) gamma radiation D) A and B
888. What is the radius of Aluminum ? ( Ro = 1.2fm)
A) 1.2fm B) 0.4fm C) 3.6fm D) 2.4fm E) none of these
889. Nuclear radius of 168O is 3 × 10–15 m. Find the density of nuclear matter.(1amu = 1.66 10-27kg)
A. 7.5 × 1017 kg m–3 B) 5.7 × 1017 kg m–3 C) 2.3 × 1017 kg m–3 D) 1.66 × 1017 kg m–3
890. What is the fraction of the volume of carbon-12 atom to its volume of nucleus?
A) 12 B) 1.2 C) D) E) none of these
891. Who was discovered nucleus? A) Rutherford B) James Chadwick C) Albert Einstein
892. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Nucleus discovered by Rutherford D. The modern atomic theory was began by J. Dalton
B. Proton discovered by Rutherford E. All of the above
C. Neutron discovered by J. Chadwick
893. The nuclear energy required to separate an atomic nucleus completely into its constituent protons and neutrons
is_________
894. The copper atom has the form . (mp = 1.00728u, mn = 1.00867)
A) What is the mass defect of copper nucleus? _______________
B) What is the binding energy of copper nucleus? _____________
C) What is the binding energy per nucleon in copper? __________
895. The atom of most stable nuclei is the nucleus of __________________ atom ( iron-56)
896. In the disintegration chain of
X→ . What are the value of z and A respectively?
A) 91,234 B) 92,236 C) 90,234 D) 88, 232
897. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay as shown
A A1→ A2 A3 A4 .If the mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 respectively, then these numbers
for A3 are
A) 174,71 B) 180,70 C) 172, 67 D) 170, 69 E) none of these
898. Which one of the following radiation can be stopped by a paper or skin?
A) Beta radiation B) alpha radiation C) Gamma radiation D) Both alpha and beta radiations
899. Which of the following is not correct?
A) Gamma radiation has the least ionization power and highest penetration power
B) Beta radiation has moderate ionization and penetration power
C) Alpha radiation has the highest ionization power and least penetration power
D) Gamma radiation can be stopped by paper
900. Which force is responsible for nuclear radiation?
A) Weak nuclear force B) strong nuclear force C) electrostatics force D) electromagnetic force
901. The responsible force holds the nucleons together inside nucleus is

68
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

A) Strong nuclear force B) weak nuclear force C) electromagnetic force D) electrostatics force
902. The nuclear energy cannot be measured in: A) Joules B) megaelectron volt C) atomic energy unit D) Becquerel
903. The binding energy per nucleon is minimum in: A) B) C) D)
904. The binding energy per nucleon for will be, if the mass of IS 7.0163 a.m.u.
A. 5.6 MeV B. 39.25 MeV C. 1 MeV D. zero
905. Which of the following is not correct about the isotopes?
A) They have the same number of protons but different number of neutrons
B) They have the same chemical properties
C) They have equal number of neutrons and different number of protons
D) None of the above
906. The field of physics that studies atomic nuclei and their constituents and interactions that hold them together is
A) Laser physics B) solid physics C) Nuclear physics D) Quantum physics
907. The binding energy per nucleon of most stable nucleus is approximately:
A) 8.8MeV B) 8eV C) 8KeV D) 8GeV
908. Maximum penetrating power is that of A) -rays B) -rays C) -rays D) X-rays
909. – Particles, - particles and -particles are all having same energy. Their penetrating power in a given medium in
increasing order will be:
A. , C.
B. , D. ,
910. In atom having mass M, atomic number Z and mass number A, mass defect is given by:
A) M.A.Z B) M(A-Z) C) [ ] D) [ ]
911. If the binding energy for deuterium is 2.23MeV then mass defect in amu is
A) 0.0024 B) 0.0012 C) -0.0012 D) 0.0036
912. If M (A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus Z A X, proton and neutron respectively in units of u ( 1u =
931.5 MeV/c2 ) and BE represents its bonding energy in MeV, then
A) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn –BE/c2 C) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE
B) M (A, Z) = ZMp + ( A–Z) Mn + BE D) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z)Mn + BE/c2
16 –15
913. Nuclear radius of 8O is 3 × 10 m. Find the density of nuclear matter.
A) 7.5 × 1017 kg m–3 B) 5.7 × 1017 kg m–3 C) 2.3 × 1017 kg m–3 D) 1.66 × 1017 kg m–3
914. In the nuclear decay given below:
A A A-4 A-4
ZX Z+1 Y Z-1B Z-1B
The particles emitted in the sequence are
A) , , C) , ,
B) , , D) , ,
915. Which of the following is mode of radioactive decay?
A) Positron emission B) Electron capture C) Alpha decay D) Fusion
916. Which one of the following processes is not related to radioactive disintegration?
A) Positron emission B) Electron emission C) -decay D) Nuclear fusion
917. If a nucleus emits an -particle and the resultant nucleus emits a particle, then the atomic number and mass
numbers of the final nucleus will be
A) Z-2, A-4 B) Z-1, A-4 C) Z-3, A-4 D) Z,A-2
918. Which of the following is correct?
A) + B) + C) + D) none of these
919. Which one of the following nuclei is most unstable?
A) Uranium-238 B) iron-56 C) Uranium-235 D) oxygen-16

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920. What is the binding energy of hydrogen atom in MeV? (Use mp = 1.00728u, mn = 1.00867)
A) 6.8 B) 3.4 C) 1.7 D) 4.8
921. Consider the decay of radium-226 atom into an alpha particle and radon-222. Then, what is the mass defect of the
reaction
Mass of radium -226 atom = 226.0256 u
Mass of radon - 222 atom = 222.0715 u
Mass of helium - 4 atom = 4.0026 u
A. 0.0053 u B) 0.0083 u C) 0.083 u D) None
922. If mass equivalent to one mass of proton is completely converted into energy then determine the energy
produced?( c = 3 × 108m/s)
A. 931.49 MeV B. 731.49 MeV C. 911.49 MeV D. 431.49 MeV
923. If the binding energy of deuterium is 2.23 MeV, then the mass defect will be- (in a.m.u.)
A. 0.0024 B. – 0.0024 C. – 0.0012 D. 0.0012
924. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei and is approximately –
A. 6 : 10 B. 13 : 52 C. 40 : 177 D. 14 : 73
925. The radius of the 30Zn64 nucleus is nearly (in fm)- A) 1.2 B) 2.4 C) 3.7 D) 4.8
926. How many electrons, protons, and neutrons are there in a nucleus of atomic number 11 and mass number 24?
A. 11, 12, 13 B. 11, 11, 13 C. 12, 11, 13 D. 11, 13, 12
927. Of the following four elements, 16O, 18O, 18F and 20Ne. Which are isotopes?
A) 18O and 18F B) 16O and 18F C) 18F and 20Ne D) 16O and 18O
928. The damages of nuclear radiations depends on:
A) the type of radiation D) the Characteristics of the exposed person
B) the sensitivity of the affected tissues and organs E) all of the above
C) the manner and length of time exposed
929. Half-life of 210Bi is 5 days. If we start with 50,000 atoms of this isotope, the number of atoms left over after 10 days
is A) 5,000 B) 25,000 C) 12,500 D) 20,000
930. Radioactivity decay constant for radium is 1.07 10-4 per year. Then its half-life period will be?
A) 2520 years B) 6476 years C) 7000years D) 8099 years
931. For the radioactive decays of tritium with a sample of 46g and half- life of 7 108years. What is the amount of mass
undecayed nuclei___________
932. The half-life of radium is 3.5days. What fraction of the sample remains undecayed to the original nuclei after 14
days? A) B) C) D)
933. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 1 hour. What fraction of sample of this isotope left after
A) 3years________________ (2-26,298)
B) 1day__________________ ( 2-24)
C) 3days_________________( 2-72)
934. What is the activity of a sample 100millions atoms of carbon-14 the decay constant = 3.84 10-12per second.
(3.84 10-4)
935. If the radioactive decay constant of radium is 1.17 10-4 per year, then it’s half-life period is approximately
A) 2520 yrs B) 7010 yrs C) 5923 yrs D) 8900 yrs
936. What are the value of Z and A in the following reaction?
+ + +2
A) Z = 38, A = 95 C) Z = 38, A = 96

70
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

B) Z= 38, A= 94 D) Z= 38, A = 93
937. Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them
A. increases with mass number at high mass number
B. decreases with mass number at high mass number
C. increases with mass number at low mass numbers
D. decreases with mass number at low mass numbers
938. Half life of is 5 days. If we start with 50,000 atoms of this isotope, the number of atoms left over after 10
days is A) 5,000 B) 25,000 C) 12,500 D) 20,000
939. Which of the following are not examples of nuclear fusion?
1. Formation of Ba and Kr from U235
2. Formation of Pu – 235 from U–235
3. Formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen
4. Formation of He from H
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct D. 1 and 3 are correct
940. If in an old sample of wood of 10g the decay rate is 30 decays per minute, the age of the wood is
A. 50 years B. 1000 years C. 13310 years D. 15300 years
941.

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71
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

ANSWERS
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A
11. D 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. A 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. B
31. C 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. C 37. D 38. D 39. A 40. C
41. B 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. C 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. D
51. B 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. D 56. B 57. C 58. B 59. D 60. A
61. D 62. A 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. B 69. C 70. D
71. A 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. B 76. C 77. B 78. Fx = 2i N 79. 80.
Fy = 2√ j N
81. 82. 83. 84. C 85. B 86. D 87. B 88. C 89. D 90. D
91. B 92. C 93. C 94. B 95. C 96. A 97. D 98. B 99. T-1 100. C

101. B 102. D 103. D 104. D 105. B 106. C 107. C 108. D 109. A 110. C
111. C 112. B 113. C 114. A 115. ….. 116. C 117. D 118. D 119. A 120. A

121. B 122. C 123. E 124. A 125. D 126. C 127. C 128. C 129. D 130. B
131. D 132. D 133. B 134. C 135. C 136. D 137. A 138. B/D 139. B 140. B
141. C 142. B 143. B 144. B 145. A 146. B 147. B 148. C 149. A 150. B
151. C 152. B 153. C 154. C 155. D 156. D 157. A 158. C 159. D 160. B
161. A 162. C 163. A 164. A 165. B 166. B 167. B 168. D 169. A 170. D
171. B 172. D 173. B 174. D 175. B 176. B 177. A 178. D 179. B 180. C
181. D 182. 2 &4 183. B 184. C 185. D 186. B 187. C 188. A 189. D 190. B

191. D 192. A 193. B 194. D 195. C 196. A 197. D 198. A 199. B 200. D
201. C 202. C 203. E 204. B 205. A 206. D 207. C 208. D 209. A 210. B
211. C 212. A 213. C 214. D 215. D 216. A 217. B 218. A 219. D 220. C
221. B 222. A 223. B 224. A 225. B 226. A 227. B 228. A 229. C 230. D
231. B 232. A 233. B 234. C 235. D 236. A 237. B 238. A 239. B 240. B
241. C 242. B 243. B 244. E 245. B 246. B 247. B 248. B 249. A 250. A
251. B 252. B 253. B 254. C 255. A 256. B 257. C 258. C 259. B 260. A
261. C 262. D 263. A 264. A 265. B 266. C 267. 268. 269. D 270. C
271. B 272. D 273. A 274. B 275. C 276. 277. D 278. C 279. B 280. A
281. C 282. B 283. B 284. D 285. D 286. A 287. B 288. B 289. D 290. B

291. D 292. D 293. D 294. 295. C 296. B 297. B 298. C 299. A 300. C
B
301. D 302. 303. 304. 305. 306. 307. 308. 309. B 310. D
311. 312. 313. 314. 315. 316. 317. 318. C 319. 320.
321. 322. 323. 324. 325. 326. E 327. C 328. B 329. D 330. D
331. C 332. A 333. B 334. A 335. C 336. C 337. B 338. C 339. B 340. A
341. A 342. B 343. C 344. A 345. B 346. D 347. C 348. B 349. D 350. D
351. C 352. C 353. A 354. D 355. D 356. A 357. B 358. B 359. C 360. D

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361. B 362. A 363. B 364. C 365. A 366. D 367. C 368. A 369. B 370. B
371. D 372. A 373. D 374. A 375. A 376. B 377. A 378. B 379. A 380.
381. C 382. B 383. C 384. D 385. B 386. A 387. C 388. A 389. A 390. D
391. B 392. A 393. D 394. B 395. A 396. A 397. A 398. C 399. B 400. A
401. D 402. B 403. D 404. C 405. C 406. D (bonus) 407. A 408. A 409. D 410. B
411. B 412. D 413. A 414. B 415. C 416. D 417. C 418. A 419. A 420. B
421. A 422. B 423. C 424. 425. D 426. C 427. C 428. B 429. A 430. C
431. 432. 433. 434. 435. 436. 437. 438. 439. 440.
441. 442. 443. 444. 445. 446. 447. 448. 449. 450.
451. 452. 453. 454. 455. 456. 457. 458. 459. 460.
461. 462. 463. 464. 465. 466. 467. 468. 469. 470.
471. 472. 473. 474. 475. 476. 477. 478. 479. 480.
481. 482. 483. 484. 485. 486. 487. 488. 489. 490.

491. 492. 493. 494. 495. 496. 497. 498. 499. 500.
501. 502. 503. 504. 505. 506. 507. 508. 509. 510.
511. 512. 513. 514. 515. 516. 517. 518. 519. 520.
521. 522. 523. 524. 525. 526. 527. 528. 529. 530.
531. 532. 533. 534. 535. 536. 537. 538. 539. 540.
541. 542. 543. 544. 545. 546. 547. 548. 549. 550.
551. 552. 553. 554. 555. 556. 557. 558. 559. 560.
561. 562. 563. 564. 565. 566. 567. 568. 569. 570.
571. 572. 573. 574. 575. 576. 577. 578. 579. 580.
581. 582. 583. 584. 585. 586. 587. 588. 589. 590.

591. 592. 593. 594. 595. 596. 597. 598. 599. 600.
601. 602. 603. 604. 605. 606. 607. 608. 609. 610.
611. 612. 613. 614. 615. 616. 617. 618. 619. 620.
621. 622. 623. 624. 625. 626. 627. 628. 629. 630.
631. 632. 633. 634. 635. 636. 637. 638. 639. 640.
641. 642. 643. 644. 645. 646. 647. 648. 649. 650.
651. 652. 653. 654. 655. 656. 657. 658. 659. 660.
661. 662. 663. 664. 665. 666. 667. 668. 669. 670.
671. 672. 673. 674. 675. 676. 677. 678. 679. 680.
681. 682. 683. 684. 685. 686. 687. 688. 689. 690.

691. 692. 693. 694. 695. 696. 697. 698. 699. 700.
701. 702. 703. 704. 705. 706. 707. 708. 709. 710.
711. 712. 713. 714. 715. 716. 717. 718. 719. 720.
721. 722. 723. 724. 725. 726. 727. 728. 729. 730.
731. 732. 733. 734. 735. 736. 737. 738. 739. 740.
741. 742. 743. 744. 745. 746. 747. 748. 749. 750.
751. 752. 753. 754. 755. 756. 757. 758. 759. 760.
761. 762. 763. 764. 765. 766. 767. 768. 769. 770.
771. 772. 773. 774. 775. 776. 777. 778. 779. 780.

73
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS

781. 782. 783. 784. 785. 786. 787. 788. 789. 790.

791. 792. 793. 794. 795. 796. 797. 798. 799. 800.
801. 802. 803. 804. 805. 806. 807. 808. 809. 810.
811. 812. 813. 814. 815. 816. 817. 818. 819. 820.
821. 822. 823. 824. 825. 826. 827. 828. 829. 830.
831. 832. 833. 834. 835. 836. 837. 838. 839. 840.
841. 842. 843. 844. 845. 846. 847. 848. 849. 850.
851. 852. 853. 854. 855. 856. 857. 858. 859. 860.
861. 862. 863. 864. 865. 866. 867. 868. 869. 870.
871. 872. 873. 874. 875. 876. 877. 878. 879. 880.
881. 882. 883. 884. 885. 886. 887. 888. 889. 890.

891. 892. 893. 894. 895. 896. 897. 898. 899. 900.
901. 902. 903. 904. 905. 906. 907. 908. 909. 910.
911. 912. 913. 914. 915. 916. 917. 918. 919. 920.
921. 922. 923. 924. 925. 926. 927. 928. 929. 930.
931. 932. 933. 934. 935. 936. 937. 938. 939. 940.
941. 942. 943. 944. 945. 946. 947. 948. 949. 950.
951. 952. 953. 954. 955. 956. 957. 958. 959. 960.
961. 962. 963. 964. 965. 966. 967. 968. 969. 970.
971. 972. 973. 974. 975. 976. 977. 978. 979. 980.
981. 982. 983. 984. 985. 986. 987. 988. 989. 990.

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