THE UNIVERSITY OF ZAMBIA

SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY

PTM4310 PARASITOLOGY TEST 1

DATE: 7th April 2021 TIME: 1 HOUR

INSTRUCTIONS
The paper consists of ONLY one sections
CHOOSE ONE BEST ANSWER BY CIRCLING THE
CORRESPONDING LETTER
1) In relation to Malaria:-
A. Only One sexual stage malaria life cycle occurs in humans
B. Formation of gametocytes coincides with fever spiking
C. Gametocytes are the cause of the sweating stage
D. Mostly red blood cells with inmature forms are detected on thick smears
E. Cyanotic lips are seen in sweating stage of pathophysiology of fever

2) True concerning Leishmaniasis

A. Leishmania tropica has no visceral manifestation
B. Leishmania aethiopica caused by Lutzomyia
C. New world cutaneous has spleenmegaly
D. Specie is of no importance when considering treatment
E. Leishmania donovani is only found in new world

3) Correct statement
A. Zoonoses is transmission of animal to animal
B. Metazoonoses has both a vertebrate and invertebrate host
C. Intermediate host is where the adult form of the parasite occurs.
D. A bite is considered as percutaneous transmission pathway.
E. Transmissive is considered person to person

4) It is true concerning Apicomplexas:

A. Humans can be intermediate hosts
B. They have female adults as morphological stages
C. Never cause infection in the brain
D. Always needs an arthropod for transmission to occur
E. Is only effective as an ectoparasite

5) Enterobius vermicularis can be best described as: - A. Commensal (non-

pathogenic) type of relationship with humans
B. Requiring an intermediate host
C. Auto infection is a mode of infection
D Requiring a vector for transmission
E. It is also known as a whipworm

6) An example of direct effects of the Ascaris lumbricoides adult worms:

A. Difficulty in breathing
B. Haemoglobin ingestion
C. Bleeding ulcers
D.Deprivation of nutrients
E. Continuous coughing
7) The truth concerning Toxoplasma gondii:-
A. Bradizoits are evidence of acute stage in humans
B. Infective stages/forms to unborn baby are Oocysts
C. Oocyts affects (infective) both definitive and intermediate hosts
D. Commonest route of human infection is by ingestion of oocysts
E. Taquizoits can be seen on a blood slide

8) The folowing are true with regards Classic Hookworm’s Dieasea

A. Wakana Disease is due to orally transmitted Hookworm parasites
B. The first phase is mainly only fever
C. The adult is found in subcutáneaus tissue
D. Last phase is represented by lung related symptoms
E. The chronic stage main and most important symptom is abdominal pains

9) The correct statement concerning Cryptosporidiosis:-

A. Only Immune-compromised individual get infected
B. Merozoites are the infective form/stage of Cryptosporidiosis
C Diarrhoea of up to month is suggestive of an immuno-compromised person
D. Is considered as chronic disease
E. Tendency of more vomiting than diarrhoea

10) This is correct regarding Strongyloidiasis:-

A. Transmission can be through ingestion of mature eggs
B. Causes severe Anaemia
C. Disseminated Strongyloidiasis is mostly due to inadequate treatmeent
D. Hyperinfection is caused by L3 filariform
E. Never presents as linear urticarial lesions

11) With respect to Plasmodium falciparum

A. Homozygote sickle cell anaemia will be protected
B. IgG from Mother to new baby will confer protection for 5 years
C. Presence of duffy blood group factor will make no difference
D. HBAS are likely to have severe malaria
E. Presence of Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase will implies lower frequency

12) rue concerning Achantamoeba: -

A. An immunocompromised individual is likely to have encephalitis
B. Only one specie can infect humans
C. Wearing a mask is protective
D. Has 3 morphological forms/stages
E. An obligate Parasite
13) The true statement concerning Cryptosporidiosis:
A.Multiple exposure is protective
B.The causative parasite affects both the large and small intestine
C.Infection is limited to the small intestine
D.The infection is strictly seasonal
E.Humans are intermediate hosts

14) True concerning Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

A. Never has cutaneous manifestations
B. One drug can treat all clincal stages
C. A vaccine is available
D. Are extracellular protozoas seen on blood slide
E. Never affects animals

15) The recommended use of antimalarial drugs:-

A. Primaquine is first line in malaria in first pregnancy
B. Sulphadoxin Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is 1st line in simple malaria
C. Artesunate is 1st line in complicated malaria
D. Artemisinine +Lumefantrine is first line in 3rd trimester pregnancy
E. E Quinine is first line in 2nd trimester pregnancy simple malaria

16) True about Ascariasis: -

A.Allergic reactions can be due to the either larvae or adult worm
B.Larvea are more routinely diagmosed in stool
C. Adults live in the large itestine
D. Female adult worms lays live larvae
E. Internal autoinfection is due to low immunity

17) The true statement concerning Apicomplexas:

A. Only has sexual reproduction in human hosts
B. They are only transmitted orally
C. They never have larvae morphological forms
D. They only have gastrointestinal manifestions
E. Vectors are always intermediate host

18) With respect to Hookworms the statement below is correct: -

A. New world adults are usually found in the lungs
B. New World Hookworm lays more eggs than the old world hookworm
C. Can be transmitted by ingestion of eggs
D Untreated old World Hookworm is likely to cause disease over 2 decades
F. Old World Hookworm is likely to cause more severe disease

19) The correct statement concerning Malaria: -

 A. There are 2 pathogensis mechanism that occur in Plasmodium falciparum
B. Complicated malaria can only manifests in 2nd episode of malaria infection
C. Erythrocytic pathogenesis only occurs in malaria falciparum
D. Hypnozoits are also seen in falciparum malaria
E. There only 2 pathogenesis mechanism that can occur in vivax malaria

20) True concerning Trichomona vaginalis

A. Men are never infectious
B. An HIV female is more likely to have a reinfection
C. The asymptomatic partner does not requires treatment
D. Both cysts and trohozoits can be isolated in vaginal secretion
E. Urine specimen for diagnosis is only used for male patients

21) Toxoplasmosis can be prevented by which one;

A. Banning the use of human manure in vegetable gardens
B. Screening blood for transfusion
C. Avoiding walking bare footed especially during the rainy season
D. Underfive years of age receiving vaccination against the disease
E. Ensuring your dogs are vaccinated

22) his is true concerning Entamoeba histolytica:-

A. Absence Trophozoits the clincal manifestations will be worse
B. Lung abscess is due to larvae morpholgical forms
C. Infection is mainly by inhalation
D. Liver abscess is a primary site
E. Cysts are more likely to be isolated more in chronic cases

23) The recommended use of the antimalarial drugs:-

A. Artemisinine +Lumefantrine is first line in severe/complicated malaria
B. Sulphadoxin Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) destroys Hypozoits
C. Quinine is first line in simple malaria in male adults
D. Artesunate is reserved mainly for use in malaria during pregnancy
E. Primaquine is used in prophylaxis by travellers

24) The correct statement concerning Trypanasoma cruzi :-

A. Treatment of choice is Suramin
B. Diagnosis is by done using stool specimen of the patient
C. It is a condition of an acute nature
D. The intermediate host is a blackfly
E. Infective forms are found in faeces of the vector

25) The sequentially correct segment of the life cycle Plasmodium falciparum
 A. Shizoite, zygote gametocyte, oocyst ookinete, sporozoite,
B. Oocyst, trophozoite ookinete, hypnozoite, zygote, sporozoite,
C. Sporozoite ,gametocyte, merozoite, oocyst, trophozoite, ,
D. Gametocyst zygote Hypnozoit ookinete, oocyst, sporozoite,
E. Ringform, mature trophozoite, schizoit, merozoite, gametocyte

26) Patient with a diagnosis of Simple Malaria can present clinically with:-
A. Convulsions plus fever
B. Very dehydrated with bloody diarrhoea
C. Confusion plus fever
D. Vomiting plus fever
E. Anaemic plus fever

27) True concerning Enterobius vermicularis : -

A. Infection mainly causes anaemia
B. Adult worms often are vomited
C. Drug of choice is Albendazole
D. Eggs are barrel shaped
E. Eggs can be found under the finger nails

28) When using Malaria Rapid Diagnostic Tests, the truth is: -
A. They are gold standard tests for malaria diagnosis in Zambia
B. Cannot be used for follow-up during treatment
C. Can only detect high parasitemia
D. Can demonstrate severity of the malaria infection
E. Can not be done if fever has stopped

29) n Strongyloidiasis:-
A. Freeliving adults are only females
B. Filariform larvae feeds on bacteria
C. Snails are the intermediate hosts
D. Eggs are less likely isolated than rhabidiform L1 in stool specimen
E . Rhabidiform L1 is directly responsible for the Internal autoinfection

30) True regarding Cystoisospora belli :

A. Freshly passed stool is immediately infectious
B. Has no extra intestinal presentation
C. It causes congenital malformations
D. Presents as bloody stool
E. It is a metazoa parasite
31) The true statement in relation to Malaria:-
A. Asymptomatic malaria positive patients do not need treatment
B. People in endemic areas never have severe/complicated malaria
C. Low parasitemia patients never presents with severity/complicated malaria
D. Pregnant women only take prophylaxis during the first pregnancy
E. An expectant mother takes malaria prophylaxis in 2nd and 3rd trimester

32) This definition is correct :-

A. Reservoir host is never affected by the infection
B. Regarding Mutualism both are harmed
C. Commensalism is an association where none benefit nor harmed
D. Facultative Parasite only lives one mode of life
E. Obligate Parasite is never dependent

33) With respect to Malaria

A. Immunopathies can occur in only falciparum species
B. Cerebral malaria is caused by all the species
C. Sporogony is an asexual process that occurs in humans
D. Hepatic (exo-erythrocytic) stage is non- pathological
E. Quartan malaria is caused by Plasmodium ovale

34) True concerning Naegleria fowleri: -

A. Immunity status is not the main determinate of severity
B. Most cases are asymptomatic
C. Many cysts can be found in the brain
D. Flagellate form is the infective form
E. Cysts can be isolated in the Cerebral Spinal Fluid

35) With respect to Malaria diagnosis:-

A. Thin smear is easier to prepare than thick and is routinely used
B. Thick smear is best used for specie identification
C. Counting trophozoits against WBC is done in thin smear Parasitemia count
D. Thick smear is used only after the thin smear fails to demonstrate the parasite
E. Thick smear is routinely used in malaria follow-up in Zambia

36) True concerning Cytoadherence :-

A. Cytokines promotes the process
B. Histidine Rich Protein is found on the endothelia wall
C. Clarifies presence of Coma
D. Due to it gametocytes are not seen in peripheral blood
E. Cause of Cerebral Malaria presenting clinically in 3 species of malaria infection
37) Correct concerning the Human African Trypanosomiasis causing parasites:-
A. T. rhodesiense takes long to reach 2nd stage
B. T. gambiense tends to be endemic
C. T. rhodesiense never invades lympnodes
D. T. gambiense causes Chagas disease
E. T. rhodesiense causes romana sign

38) The following are true concerning physiopathology of fever in malaria

A. Temperature returns to normal during Cold Stage
B. Hot Stage can indicate end of Shizogony
C. Vasoconstriction occurs durng Sweating Stage
D. Sweatng is common during Cold Stage
E. Hot Stage patient is the last stage

39) The correct statement concerning Cryptosporidiosis:-

A. More of type 11 Meronts cause more enterocyst being damaged
B. Less merozoites are released from type 1 Meronts
C. Type 11 Meronts ensures another schizogony to occur
D. Absence of Type 11 Meronts implies no oocysts will be found in stool
E. Type 1 Meronts play a direct role in internal autoinfection

40) Quinine is recommended to treat:-

A. Simple malaria case of 1st trimester pregnant woman
B. Simple malaria case of an eight year old as 1st line
C. An adult patient to get rid of gametocytes
D. Simple malaria in a less than 5kg as 1st line
E. For prophylaxis against malaria
 THE UNIVERSITY OF ZAMBIA
SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY

PTM4310 PARASITOLOGY TEST 1

2022

TIME: 1 HOUR 30 MIN

INSTRUCTIONS

The paper consists of four sections, section A, B ,C and D

Section A: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER BY MAKING A CIRCLE ON THE CHOSEN ANSWER

Section B: ANSWER TRUE (T) OR FALSE (F) BESIDE THE STEMS— Negative marking of 0.25
applies to every wrong answer. Write your COMPUTER NUMBER on every page

Section C : 3 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS 5 Marks Each Answer All.

Section D : TWO LONG STRUCTURED QUESTIONS 10 Marks Each Answer All

SECTION A : 20 QUESTIONS CHOOSE ONE BEST ANSWER - NO NEGATIVE
MARKING

1. The diagnosis of this parasite involves the use of cellophane tape to recover the eggs in the
perianal region:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Hookworm
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. Strongyloides stercoralis

2. Which one can be transmitted by Leishmania Tropica:

A. Visceral Leishmaniasis
B. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
D. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis
E. Chagas's disease

3.The pathogenesis of Giardia lamblia is due to

A. Cysts
B. Trophozoites
C. Precysts
D. Oocysts

E. Eflagella

4. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct except:

A. Ascaris lumbricoides is one of the largest nematode
B. Ascaris lumbricoides can cause pneumonia
C. Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Ascaris lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs
E. Adult worms live in the small intestines

5. Mechanical burrowing into the intestinal mucosa is associated with:

A. Trichomonas hominis
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas tenax
D. Balantidium coli
E. Entamoeba gingivalis

6. Which statement applies to Balantidium coli:

 A. Larvae invades mucosa
B. Lives in the small intestines X
C. There is cellular infiltration of ulcers
D. Transmission is through insect bite
E. Only trophozoites can be passed in formed stool

7. Which parasite does not show systemic circulation

A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Hookworm
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. None of the above

8.The true statement concerning Cryptosporidiosis:

A. Second infection is less severe
B. The causative parasite needs to mature in a few days
C. The small intestine is one of the habitants
D. The infection is strictly seasonal
E. Humans are intermediate hosts

9. True concerning Nematodes

A. They have an incomplete GTI
B. They are unicellular parasites
C. They can be transmitted per-cutaneous
D. They have as morphological forms trophozoites
E. They are protozoa
10. With respect to some Malaria diagnosis
A. Counting trophozoits against WBC is done in thin smear Parasitemia count
B. Thick smear is best used for specie identification
C. Thick smear is routinely used in malaria follow up in endemic areas
D. Thick smear is used only after the thin smear fails to demonstrate the parasite
E. Thin smear is easier to prepare than thick and is routinely used

11. The following factors are true concerning Naegleria fowleri

A. A It is transmitted by a vector
B. The trophozoites can be detected in Cerebral Spinal Fluid
C. Flagellates are the infective stage
D. It is an opportunistic parasite
E. Cystic forms can be found in the CSF

12. This can be the chronic phase of American Trypanosomiasis:

 A. Winterbottom sign
B. Romana's sign and conjunctivitisK
C. Chancre
D. Megaesophagus and megacolon

E. Sleeping Stage

13. The following parasites has been reported to cause septicemia:

A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Ascaris lumbricoides.
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Trichnella spiralis

14. Correct Leishmania infection manifestation is:-

A. Leishmania tropica causes disseminated lesions always
B. Leishmania aethiopica causes shallow ulcers
C. Leishmania .braziliensis braziliensis has visceral manifestation
D. Leishmania Mexicana mexicana causes Chicle ulcers
E. Leishmania peruvian causes

15. Treatment is indicated for one of the following parasites:

A. Trichomonas tenax
B. Trichomonas hominis
C. ChilomastiX mesnili
D. Entamoeba coli
E. Balantidium coli

16. The truth concerning Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

A. Chancre is in the late stage of the disease
B. Diagnosis can be confirmed using lympnode aspirate
C. Causes American Trypansomiasis
D. Trophozoits are seen in stool specimen
E. Suramin is the drug of choice to treat it's early disease stage
17. The correct statement concerning Cryptosporidiosis:
A. Infection is limited to a few weeks
B. Merozoites are the infective form/stage of
Cryptosporidiosis
C. Tendency of more vomiting than diarrhoea
D. Only Immune-compromised individual get
infected
 E. Diarrhoea can get bloody with severer
infection

18. This is true about Cestodes:

A. A The have no gut
B. They are unsegmented
C. They never have intermediate hosts
D. They have separate male adult and separate female adult
E. They are unicellular organisms

19. True concerning Achantamoeba: -

A. Mostly immunocompromised individuals tend to have CNS
involvement
B. Only one specie can infect humans
C. It is an obligate amoeba
D. Has 3 morphological forms/stages
E. Immune-competent individuals are less likely to get Keratitis

20. The recommended use of antimalarial drugs:

A. Sulphadoxin Pyrimethamine is 2nd line in simple
malaria
B. Artesunate is for simple malaria in adults
C. Artemisinine +Lumefantrine is first line in 2nd trimester pregnancy
D. Quinine is first line in simple malaria
E. Primaquine is first line in malaria in pregnancy

21. Which one is a pathogenic intestinal parasite

A. Trichomona hominis

B. Entamoeba coli
C. Endolimax nana
D. Dientamoeba fragils
E. Trichomona vaginalis

22. The following statements are correct, except:

A. Giardia lamblia inhabits the small intestines
B. Trichomonas hominis inhabits the intestines
C. Trichomonas vaginalis is an invasive parasite
D. Trichomonas vaginalis infection is usually asymptomatic in men
E. Chilomastix mesnili is pathogenic
23. Patient with a diagnosis of Simple Malaria can present clinically with:-
A. Convulsions plus fever
B. Very dehydrated with bloody diarrhoea
C. Confusion plus fever
D. Vomiting plus fever
E. Anaemic plus fever

24. Quinine is used as first line treatment for:

A. A Under-five years old with Simple Malaria
B. In Simple Malaria in first trimester of pregnanc
C. In Simple Malaria in Adult women
D. In Simple Malaria in older children
E. In malaria prophylaxis

25. With respect to the Malaria species most common in Zambia which statement is true?
A. Presence of Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase will implies lower frequency
B. HBAS are likely to have severe malaria
C. Presence of duffy blood group factor increases risk of its infection
D. Homozygote sickle cell anaemia tend to have severe malaria
E. lgG from Mother to new baby will confer protection for 5 years

26. The sequentially correct segment of a Malaria life cycle is:

A. Shizoite, zygote gametocyte, oocyst ookinete, sporozoite
B. Oocyst, trophozoite ookinete, hypnozoite, zygote, sporozoite
C. Mature trophozoite, schizoit, merozoite, gametocyte, zygote
D. Gametocyst zygote Hypnozoit ookinete, oocyst, sporozoite
E. ESporozoite ,gametocyte, merozoite, oocyst, trophozoite

27. This is true about Trematodes:

A. They all have a complete G
B. They are metazoa
C. Can be segmented
D. All trematodes are hermaphrodites
E. They use flagellates to move

28. In describing pathophysiology of fever in Malaria the correct description is:

A. A Cyanotic lips are seen in Cold Stage of pathophysiology of
fever
B. Massive sweating in the Hot Stage
C. Headache and vomiting are the mostly experienced in the Sweating Stage
D. Shivering is mostly seen in the Sweating Stage
E. The temperature is highest in the Cold Stage
29. Which vector transmits Leishmaniasis
A. Glossina
B. Sand fly
C. Mosquito
D. Triatomine
E. Blackfiy

30. True concerning Ascaris lumbricoides EXCEPT

A. It is found in the lumen of the small intestine
B. B Lays infective eggs which are passed out in the stool
C. It is transmitted via faecal oral route
D. Adults can cause ectopic migration
E. Sucks human blood

SECTION B

MCQS TRUE OR FALSE — Negative Marking Applies - 0.25 marks for every wrong
Answer

1. The patient passes mostly eggs in his stool in the following:

__ A. Ascaris lumbricoides infection.
__ B. Trichuirs trichuira
__ C. Strongyloides stercoralis
__ D. A and C are correct
__ E. None of the above

2. The truth concerning Toxoplasmosis:-

__ A. Bradizoits are evidence of acute stage in humans
__ B. Infective stages/forms to unborn baby aye bradizoits
__ C. Oocyts affects (infective) both definitive and intermediate hosts
__ D. Human infection is by ingestion of oocysts is mare rare
__ E. Taquizoits presence on blood slide is the routine mode of diagnosis

3. This is true concerning Entamoeba histolytica:-

__ A. The fewer the trophozoites in the GIT implies more diarrhoea
__ B. Lung abscess is due to larvae forms
__ C. Infection is mainly by inhalatio
__ D. Liver abscess is a primary site
 __ E. Cysts seen more in chronic cases

SECTION C : 3 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS - 5 Marks Each - ANSWER ALL

1.Concerning Trypanosoma brucei rhodesense provide answers to the following:- (5 marks)

i. The subkingdom and phylum it belongs (1 mark)
ii. List ALL it's morphological forms/stages (3 marks)
iii. State ONE laboratory test performed routinely to detect it (1 mark)

2.Concerning Trichuris trichuira -answer the following:- (5 marks)

i. The subkingdom and phylum it belongs (1 mark)
ii. List it's morphological forms/stages (1.5 marks)
iii. One cardinal clinical diagnostic symptom/sign (1.5 marks)
iv. Drug of choice (1 mark)

3.List (full names) FOUR (4) parasites that are opportunistic parasites plus infective form/stage
of each. (5 marks)

SECTION D
TWO LONG ANSWER STRUCTURED QUESTIONS (10 Marks Each) Answer All

1. In rural Zambia, malaria prevalence is still quite high which the National Malaria Centre
has over the years has achieved a reduction in transmission levels. However, there was an
increase of cases during the year 2020, most probably due to the health sector resources being
overwhelmed with the COVID -19 pandemic. Hypothetically we could say in a rural town
there was an increase of complicated malaria case and Paulo Nfuti a 12 years old male was
found with Malaria with SEVERE ANEMIA. Taking thi into account answer the following:-

i. (Mention ONE parasite (full names) most likely responsible for Paul Nfuti's malaria
episode (attack). (2 marks)
ii. List ONLY all the possible pathogenesis mechanisms that can be caused by the
malaria parasite you have mentioned above. (3 marks)
iii. Select the ONE pathogenesis mechanism that could have caused Malaria with
SEVERE ANAEMIA and BRIEFLY EXPLAIN the mechanism mentioning 4 facts. (5
marks)

2. You are the resident doctor at a rural hospital conducting an antenatal clinic. A 24 year
old woman with an 8 weeks pregnancy confirmed by scan presents to you with
palpitations and dizziness. You order a full blood count and results show SLHb,
SLMCV, S&MCH and VMCHC. (MALARIA TEST IS NEGATIVE). A diagnosis of
anaemia is made caused by a Nematode. (No Malaria). Taking this into account answer
the following:-

i. Name the two parasites notorious for causing the above (2 marks).
ii. What laboratory test will you order to confirm the cause of the anaemia? (1 mark)
iii. What is the mode of infection and the infective form of the parasite? (2 marks)
iv. Illustrate the life cycle of the parasite (5 marks)
 THE UNIVERSITY OF ZAMBIA
SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY
PTM4310/3520- PARASITOLOGY TEST 1

DATE: 23RD JULY, 2023 TIME: 1 HOUR

INSTRUCTIONS
The paper consists of two sections, section A and B

Section A CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER BY MAKING A CIRCLE ON THE CHOSEN

ANSWER

Section B ANSWER TRUE (T) OR FALSE (F) BESIDE THE STEMS

— Negative marking of 0.25 applies to every wrong answer. Write your COMPUTER
NUMBER on every page
SECTION A: CHOOSE ONE BEST ANSWER BY CYCLING AROUND THE CHOSEN
ANSWER OR LETTER

1.The following statements about free living amoebas is correct

A. All free living amoeba are opportunistic pathogens
B. Naegleria fowleri is not opportunist
C. They cause intestinal disease
D. None of the above is correct

2. Shivering, a characteristic symptom of malaria, occurs when

A. sporozoites enter the blood
B. metacryptozoites are liberated from the liver cells
C. merozoites are liberated from RBC with toxin
D. Schizonts are formed in the RBC

3. The trophozoite of Plasmodium lives in

A. Erythrocytes of man
B. liver cells
C. stomach of mosquito
D. blood plasma

4. The disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi is

A. sleeping sickness
B. Bchaga's disease
C. kala azar
D. oriental sore

5. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is

A. Sporozoite
B. minuta form
C. mature cyst
D. trophic form

6. Sporogony of malaria parasite occurs in

A. liver of man
B. RBC of man
C. stomach wall of mosquito
D. salivary glands of mosquito

7. Entamoeba differs from other Amoeba in not having

A. Nucleus
B. Pseudopodia
C. Ectoplasm
D. contractile vacuole
8. Mild tertian malaria is caused by
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium malariae

9. Amoeba secretes digestive enzymes to hydrolyse

A. Starch
B. Sugar
C. Proteins
D. All of these and fats

10. Ingestion of some water with food in Amoeba takes place by the process of
A. Endosmosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. None of these

11. Sleeping sickness in man is caused by Trypanosoma by the bite of the infective
A. A female Tsetse fly
B. male Tsetse fly 4
C. both male and female Tsetse flies
D. D male and female aedes mosquito

12. The catabolic wastes in Amoeba consist of

A. Water and CO2
B. Water, CO2 and minerals
C. Water, CO2, minerals and urea
D. All of the above

13. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, man is the

A. primary host
B. intermediate host
C. secondary host
D. alternative host

14. Locomotory organelles in the parasitic protozoa of class sporozoa are

A. Cilia
A. Flagella
B. Pseudopodia
C. Absent
15. The schizogony cycle of Plasmodium takes place in
A. Alimentary canal of mosquito
B. Liver of man
C. Liver and RBC of man
D. RBC of man

16. Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness in man when it finally involves

A. Liver
B. Blood
C. Brain
D. cerebro-spinal fluid

17. Incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is about

A. 6-8 weeks
B. 10-12 days
C. 15-20 days
D. 20-40 days

18. Amoebiasis is caused by

A. Entamoeba coli and dispar
B. Entantöeba dispar
C. Entamoeba histolytica.
D. Entamoeba gingivalis

19. Trypanosoma gambiense inhabits the human body in the

A. Blood
B. Lymph
C. blood and cerebrospinal fluid
D. cerebrospinal fluid

20. Malaria is a disease transmitted by the bite of

A. male Culex
B. female Culex
C. male Anopheles
D. female Anopheles

21. Mapacrine and Paludrine drugs are used for

A. Malaria
B. Amoebiasis
C. Tapeworms
D. Ascariasis
22. Benign tertian malaria is caused by
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. P. malariae
D. P. ovale

23. The pseudopodia are formed in Amoeba

A. when it comes in contact with food particles.
B. by movement of surrounding water
C. by exchange of salts with the medium
D. by sol-gel transformation of cytoplasm

24. The oriental sores in human skin are caused by

A. Leishmania tropica
B. Phlebotomus
C. Balantidium
D. Leishmania donovani

25. Trypanosoma shows the phenomenon of

A. Amorphism
B. Dimorphism
C. Trimorphism
D. Polymorphism

SECTION B: ANSWER TRUE (T) OR FALSE (F) BESIDE THE STEMS- NEGATIVE
MARKING OF 0.25 APPLIES TO EVERY WRONG ANSWER

26. The following symptoms are associated with giardiasis.

__ A. Tumour mass
__ B. Jaundice due to obstruction of gallbladder
__ C. Shortening of villi
__ D. Duodenal irritation
__ E. Loss of appetite

27. Giardia lamblia.

__ A. The dorsal surface is concave
__ B. The sucking disc is an organelle of attachment
__ C. The trophozoite stage is characterized by sexual reproduction
__ D. Trophozoites multiply by transverse binary fission
__ E. Giardia infection can lead to lactate deficiency
28. The following statements are correct about Trichomonas vaginalis, except.
__ A. Characterized by jerky motility
__ B. Feeds on bacteria
__ C. Reproduce by transverse binary fission
__ D. is an obligatory parasite
__ E. Exists in two morphological forms

29. Cryptosporidium parvum is associated with the following.

__ A. Transmission is by oral-faecal route
__ B. Ingestion of oocysts with two sporocysts
__ C. Coccidiosis: Chronic diarrhoea, mucus secretion
__ D. Acute diarrhoea watery, secretory, and bloodless
__ E. Associated with malabsorption

30. The true statements regarding protozoa, except.

__ A. Clardia spp. Have now been isolated from a wide range of mammals
__ B. Trophozoites and cysts exist in all protozoa
__ C. undergo longitudinal binary fission
__ D. Cysts are disease agents
__ E. Trophozoites are infectious agents

31. Regarding Trichomonas vaginalis.

__ A. Possess hydrogenosomes capable of making proteins
__ B. The cystic stage is passed in semen
__ C. Feed on bacteria and sloughed off epithelial cells present in the reproductive tract
__ D. No o interaction between the parasite and other sexually transmitted organisms
__ E. Infection during pregnancy is often associated with poor outcomes such as premature
delivery and below average weight

32. The following apply to malaria infection.

__ A. Plasmodium vivax - benign tertian malaria

__ B. Plasmodium falciparum- malignant tertian malaria
__ C. Plasmodium ovale - benign quartan malaria
__ D. Plasmodium malariae - benign tertian malarial
__ E. Plasmodium knowlesi-monkey derived malaria

33. Isospora belli :-

__ A. Habitat is the intestinal mucosa
__ B. Transmission is by ingestion of mature oocysts with four sporozoites
__ C. Pathogenesis is associated with shortened microvilli
__ D. Associated with weight loss, malaise, dehydration, watery diarrhoea
__ E. Sporocysts shed from oocysts
34. Which statements are true about helminths worms?
__ A. Taenia solium also known as unarmed tapeworm of man
__ B. Enterobius vermicularis is associated with vaginal discharge in females aged 14-45
__ C. Trichuris trichiura egg is barrel shaped with mucus plug at one pole
__ D. Trichinella spiralis is a soil transmitted helminth
__ E. Helminthes worms are unicellular

35. Habitat of the following parasites.

__ A. Entamoeba histolytica - Large intestines
__ B. Giardia lamblia Large intestines
__ C. Trichomonas vaginalis-Fallopian tubes
__ D. Balantidium coli- Small intestines
__ E. Cryptsporidium parvum - Intestinal epithelium

36. The following statements are applicable to Enterobius vermicularis.

__ A. Transmission through fingers-direct anus to mouth, bedclothes, underwear and airborne
__ B. Eggs round elongated and compressed laterally
__ C. Enterobius vermicularis is monaxenous and soil transmitted helminthes
__ D. Eggs are released in the intestines
__ E. Humans get infected by ingesting infective cysts

37. Which of the following statements are correct?

__ A. Far Adult worms of Trichuris trichtura live in the small intestines
__ B. The Adullt worms of Enterobius vermicularis live in the duodenum
__ C. Adult worms of Ascaris lumbricoides live in the small intestines
__ D. Adult tapeworm of Taenia solium lives in the large intestines
__ E. Taenia solium adult tapeworm is also known as armed tapeworm of man

38. Trichuris trichiura infection is associated with.

__ A. Wondering worms
__ B. Tooth grinding
__ C. Loeffler's syndrome
__ D. Rectal prolapse
__ E. Characteristic barrel-shaped eggs

39. The following statements pertain to helminths.

__ A. Nematodes are also called roundworms
__ B. Trematodes belong to nemahelminthes
__ C. Soil transmitted helminthes include: Ascaris lumbricoides and Enterobius
__ D. Transmission is by ingestion of mature infectious egg, larva and oocysts
__ E. Adult worm is cylindrical, bilaterally unsymmetrical
40. Cestodes.
__ A. Have flat of fleshy, leaf-like unsegmented bodies
__ B. Without anus
__ C. Alimentary canal is present but incomplete
__ D. Head carries suckers and some have hooks
__ E. Are viviparous

41. With respect to malaria.

__ A. Band form only exist in Plasmodium vivax
__ B. Cytoadherence occurs only in Plasmodium falciparum
__ C. Relapse of malaria infection occur in all species
__ D. Plísmodium vivax is prevalent in West Africa
__ E. Products of exflagellation are female gametes

42. With regards to Giardia infection symptoms.

__ A. Few people are non-symptomatic
__ B. Djarrhoea has a characteristic foul smell that is probably not related to fact that infection
interferes with absorption of fats
__ C. Acute infection is self-limiting with blood diarrhoea
__ D. Stool is voluminous and non-greasy
__ E. Bloating and flatulence is seen

43. Giardia life cycle.

__ A. If is an indirect life cycle
__ B. Excystation occurs in the large intestines
__ C. Two trophozoites hatch from one cyst
__ D. Infection is acquired by ingestion of a mature cyst with t two nuclei
__ E. During encystation, axonemes retract, cytoplasm condenses, and thin tough hyaline wall
is destroyed

44. The following Trichomonads can cause infections in humans.

__ A. Trichomonas hominis
__ B. Trichomonas tenax
__ C. Balantidium coli
__ D. Trichomonas vaginalis
__ E. Pentatrichomonas homins

45. Trichomonas vaginalis.

__ A. Reproduces by transverse binary fission
__ B. Undergoes the simplest type of life cycle involving a cyst and trophozoite
__ C. Inanimate transmission is possible
__ D. It is an invasive parasite
__ E. PID is one of the complications seen in women
46. Trichomoniasis is associated with the following, except.
__ A. Dyspareunia
__ B. Malodourous smell
__ C. Non-purulent vaginal discharge concurrent with Candida albicans
__ D. Prostatitis and superficial penile ulceration
__ E. Irritation inside the penis with mild discharge

47. The following species of Cryptosporidium can cause infection in the following.
__ A. C.muris -cats
__ B. C.cans -dogs
__ C. C.felis -guinea pig
__ D. C.felis -cattle
__ E. C.parvum -cats and humans

48.The following statements are true about Isospora belli, except.

__ A. Causes diarrhoea in hurmans that is frequently associated with persons suffering from
AIDs
__ B. Complete their life cycle in two hosts
__ C. Infection is acquired by ingestion of oocyst containing sporoblasts
__ D. In serious infections it can result in the loss of large area of the gut lining and allow
secondary invasion by gut microbes
__ E. For Transmission is therefore passive, by faecal-oral contamination

49. With respect to Cryptosporidium parvum infection.

__ A. Cryptosporidiosis is a diarrhoeal disease of humans and many other mammals as well as
amphibia, repitiles and birds
__ B. Oocyst with two sporocysts
__ C. The life cycle is monoxenous
__ D. 90% of thin-walled oocysts cause auto-infection
__ E. Type-1 meront release 8 sporozoites

50. Babeşia is.

__ A. A tick-transmitted protozoan parasite of both domestic and wild animals
__ B. Inhabits red blood cells and platelets
__ C. Produce pigment
__ D. Display various morphological shapes and sizes
__ E. Can be transmitted through blood transfusion
 PTM 4310 CA 2: TERM 2 SESSION 2020/21

Wednesday, 8th Sept 2021 2 Hours Maximum marks 160

COMPUTER NUMBER ;

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This CA consists of a variety of questions, each with marks as stated.

2. All the questions must be answered

3. Use a pen, and make your writing legibly and very clear to avoid losing marks,

4. Write your Computer Identification Number clearly IN THE SPACES PROVIDED ON EACH ANSWER PAGE; NOT your
NAME.
C1: Laboratory diagnosis of syphilis utilizes Treponemal and non Treponemal tests. Using short notes.
answer the following questions:
a. Name one Treponemal and one non Treponemal test
b. Mention 3 differences between Treponemal and non-Treponemal Tests
Q2: Concerning whooping cough
a. What are the stages of the disease
b . Mention one major manifestation of each stage
List 4 complications that may arise from this disease
03: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common causative agent of nosocomial infections.
a. Mention 2 ways by which a person can acquire this organism in the hospital
12 Marks)
b. List 4 virulence factors of the organism
Mention one effect of each virulence factor above
Q4: Concerning Clostridia
a. Name two medically important species of bacteria under the genus Clostridia
Mention one disease caused by each species above
26. The Fungal world has a lot of interesting insights.
In what two (2) forms does fungi exist? 14 Marks]
B) What three (5) structural make-up qualifies fungi to be Eukaryotic
ii) Fungi have complex Carbohydrate Cell Wall that consist of three (3) Polysaccharide elements, name
these three (3) polysaccharides
27. MYCOSES, usually classified by the body area affected as well as the type of infection induced. Based
on this, we have four (4) classes of Mycoses
List these four(4) classes
1) Which of these classes represents True Pathogens
Wrote short notes to explain the following
Fungal Dimorphism, with examples
1) Fungal tissue damage varies with each species and organ involved, but typically is due to three
factors. List these factors.
29 List the five (5) methods used in fungal diagnosts
Why is mycoses treatment getierally a challerige?
List 5 ways by which a person can acquire botulism
Q5: Syphilis occurs in 4 stages distinguished by unique signs and symptoms.
For each stage, mention two signs and symptoms