I&C Technician

Exam Practice 1

1. Identify the specific type of instrument calibration error shown in this graph below?

a. Zero error
b. Hysteresis error
c. Linearity error
d. Span error
Ans. C

2. In this liquid process identify the condition that could cause pressure gauge A to
register a greater pressure than pressure gauge B?

a. high rate of flow from left to right (top to bottom through the vessel)
b. extremely dense liquid
c. high rate of flow from right to left (bottom to top through the vessel)
d. Liquid boiling inside the vessel
Ans. A

3. What would a decade box be used for?

A) To check for volts
B) To simulate volts
C) To simulate resistance
D) To measure resistance

Ans: C
4. What is the proper procedure & care for a lanyard which has been deployed?
A) Inspect for cracks or tears & return to storage
B) Inspect for cracks or tears, document as used & return to storage
C) Document as used & return to storage
D) Cut up and dispose

Ans: D

5. A configuration change needs to be completed to a DCS program, how would this

be done to assure back up for records. Using a laptop computer and proper cabling.
A) Connect laptop, make copy of program, make changes, download changes to
process, verify changes, save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.
B) Connect laptop, make changes, download changes to process, verify changes,
save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.
C) Connect laptop, make copy of program, make changes, download changes to
process, save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop
D) Connect laptop, put all loops on manual, make copy of program, make changes,
download changes to process, verify changes, save changes to master disc,
disconnect laptop.

Ans: C

6. A butterfly valve appears to be having no effect on the process. The actuator is

stroking the valve fully & valve stem is moving. What can be done to fix this problem?
A) Recalibrate the valve
B) Increase the air pressure
C) Change the actuator
D) Repair the shear pin

Ans: D

7. A control valve , with I/P is not responding to controller signal How could the
calibration & operation of this valve be field checked? Assuming all approvals have been
obtained.
A) Ensure proper air pressure, remove control signal wires, connect a signal simulator
to the input of the VP, verify operation at 0-100% through major intervals.
B) Ensure proper air pressure, connect a signal simulator to the input of the 1/1’, verify
operation at 0-100% through major intervals.
C) Ensure proper air pressure, connect a signal simulator to output of the VP, verify
operation at 0-100% through major intervals.
D) Ensure maximum air pressure, remove control signal wires, connect a signal
simulator to output of the UP, verify operation at 0-100% through major intervals.

Ans: A
8. During a calibration check it was found that a valve with an electronic actuator is
hunting in certain positions. What can be done to fix this?
A) Replace the current simulator
B) Fix the loose connections
C) Clean the slide wire
D) Adjust the air pressure

Ans: C

9. How would a 4-20 ma control signal be connected from a valve to a DCS?

A) Connect the valve output to an A0 connection, configure the A0 block to connect to
the controller input.
B) Connect the valve output to an AI connection, configure the AI block to the
controller input.
C) Connect the valve input to an A0 connection, configure the A0 block to connect to
the controller output.
D) Connect the valve input to an AI connection, configure the AI block to connect to the
controller output.

Ans: C

10. A value on a DCS graphics screen is reading consistently wrong when compared to
all the verified input information in the group display. What is a likely cause of this error?
A) Update time is too slow
B) Calibration of input is wrong
C) Wrong data point on graphic
D) Wrong DCS O/S revision

Ans: C

11. Referring to the loop drawing for the Boiler Drum level, assuming all was working
fine on auto and LT-2A lost power. (Controller does not have fail-last configuration)
A) LV-2A would go full open
B) LV-ZA would go full closed
C) fi-2A would give full output
D) FT-2A would give zero output

Ans: A

12. A control system was found to be erratic & jumpy. The results were the same on
manual or automatic. What should be done to correct the problem?
A) Blow down the impulse lines
B) Put the controller on manual
C) Adjust the gain
D) Check the calibration

Ans: A

13. A new pressure control loop is being commissioned. All wire & loop checks have
been confirmed. On manual the output will properly open the valve to fill the vessel &
increase the pressure as required. While on Automatic: With a set point of 25% the
pressure eventually drains to zero and the valve ramps closed. What need to be done to
fix this problem?
A) Calibrate the pressure transmitter
B) Increase the gain
C) Decease the gain
D) Reverse the controller

Ans: D

14. A digital valve controller has failed, what is another device which could be used
temporarily to replace the DVC and still have the actuator respond to the PLC signals:
A) Flow meter
B) I/P converter
C) P/I converter
D) RTD/I converter

Ans: B

15. Referring to the water pit drawing: If the air to the bubbler was shut off, what would
happen?
A) Level would read high
B) Level control valve would open
C) Level valve would close
D) Solenoid valve would close

Ans: C

16. A variable speed drive is calibrated: 4-20 ma input = 80Hz to 0 Hz output. The
control signal to the drive is 16 ma. What would be the measured frequency from the
drive?
A) 60Hz
B) 20Hz
C) 10Hz
D) 42Hz

Ans: B

17. A new thermocouple was installed into an ambient temperature process and read
20 Deg C, when checked on the recorder. When the process was restarted and began
heating the temperature reading gradually drifted down to the bottom of the scale of the
recorder. What needs to be done?
A) Reverse the wires at the thermocouple
B) Replace the thermocouple
C) Calibrate the recorder
D) Replace the Thermocouple lead wire

Ans: A

18. How would the single point operation of an in-line nuclear density meter need to be
verified?
A) A manometer
B) A spectrometer
C) An mv meter
D) A hydrometer
Ans: D

19. During calibration of a Carbon Monoxide monitor, it is found that the response is
getting much slower than normal and the span adjustment is all the way to the high end.
What should be done?
A) Nothing if calibration is fine.
B) Increase sample rate, until response improves
C) Replace chemical cell and recalibrate
D) Adjust zero up & move span down to bring in range.

Ans: C

20. A differential pressure transmitter is connected to the side of a closed water/slurry

vessel to measure level. The high pressure leg of the transmitter has been plugging up.
What can be done to help this?
A) Add an air purge to the low side
B) Add an air purge to the high side
C) Add a water purge to the low side
D) Add a water purge to the high side

Ans: D

21. How would a vibration sensor calibration be checked?

A) Shaker table & mv meter
B) HART calibrator & current source
C) Rotary calibrator & ohm meter
D) Power supply & ma meter

Ans: A

22. A mag flow meter is measuring a flow rate of79 L/min. The meter is calibrated for 50
to 150 L/min. The measured ma output is 8.64 ma: What needs to be done?
A) Adjust the zero
B) Adjust the span
C) Adjust both zero & span
D) No adjustment required
Ans: D

23. A proximity sensor is being used as a speed sensor. Set up to read a split gear with
48 teeth. How many pulses would be detected/second with a rotation of 300 RPM?
A) 240
B) 14400
C) 720
D) 480

Ans: A
24. A process temperature, monitored with a thermocouple starts spiking from normal to
the “ambient” and back within a second. This is found to be an occasional problem. What
should be done to correct this problem?
A) Fix the broken wire at the thermocouple
B) Repair the shorted connection at the input card
C) Allow process to stabilize
D) Replace the burnt out thermocouple

Ans: B

25. The DCS reading from a pressure transmitter installed on 21250 pound steam line,
calibrated for 0-400 pounds, suddenly drops to zero. What should be checked first?
A) 24 VDC power to transmitter
B) If control is on auto
C) Impulse line to transmitter
D) DCS is scanning

Ans: A

26. Level on an open slurry tank is being monitored using a bubble pipe and level
transmitter. The tank is regularly at 25% to 50% full and has been confirmed to be normal.
The level reading is zero %. What needs to be done?
A) Turn on the purge air
B) Calibrate the transmitter
C) Clean out the bubble pipe
D) Fill the tank

Ans: A

27. Diagram “A” is a descriptive diagram of a measuring device. What is this used to
measure:
A) Pressure
B) Flow
C) Position
D) Temperature

Ans: C

28. Using an optical sensor & a rotating disc to measure speed. Some of the reflectors
have become dirty, what would be indicated.
A) Normal speed
B) Slower speed
C) Faster speed
D) No speed at all

Ans: B

29. A differential pressure reading FT251 has been reading a straight line at 0.0 % on
the DCS for the past four hours. Operations assures you that the flow is changing & should
be reading around 25%. What can be done as quick check to see if the transmitter and
input is responding to process change?
A) Isolate the transmitter & vent at the manifold to see if the DCS signal goes to zero
B) Disconnect the 24 V & see if the transmitter goes to zero
C) Slowly bleed the high side and reading should go upscale
D) Slowly bleed the low side and reading should go upscale

Ans: D

30. Regarding this diagram, the positioner receives feedback from?

A) The piston position

B) The air signal
C) The travel indicator
D) The piston rotation

Ans: A

31. What is the best way to tune a cascade control system?

A) Tune the secondary controller first, then the primary, with the secondary controller
tuned to be faster than the primary.
B) Tune the primary controller first then the secondary, with the secondary controller
tuned to be slower than the primary
C) Time the primary controller first, then the secondary, with the secondary controller
tuned to be faster than the primary.
D) Tune the secondary controller first, then the primary, with the primary controller
tuned to be faster than the primary.

Ans: A
32. A temperature control system to a reactor using both steam for heating and chilled
water for cooling, uses one controller with split range valves.
-The steam valve is ranges 12 ma (closed) to 20 ma (open)
-The water valve is ranged 4 ma (open) to I2 ma (closed)
With a controller output of 14 ma what position would the valves be found?
-0%= closed, 100% = open
A) Water 100%, steam 50%
B) Water 0%, steam 60%
C) Water 0 %, steam 25%
D) Water 62%, steam 100%

Ans: C

33. A temperature control system to a reactor using both steam for heating and chilled
water for cooling, uses one controller with split range valves.
-The steam valve is ranges 12 ma (closed) to 20 ma (open)
-The water valve is ranged 4 ma (open) to 12 ma (closed)
On maximum controller signal, what position would you find the valves?
A) Steam 100 %, water 100%
B) Steam 100 %, water 0%
C) Steam 0%, water 0%
D) Steam 0%, water 100%

Ans: B

34. A DCS network card is addressed using binary dip switches. The address is 23,
which switch configuration would need to be set?
A) 01001001
B) 00101011
C) 01010010
D) 00010111

Ans: D

35. A PLC program is using an address in binary 10110111. What would the switches
on the car be set at using HEX?
A) 7A
B) 57
C) B7
D) A7

Ans: C

36. A control valve (4ma closed, 12 ma open) is 375% open, what would be the measured
ma signal to this valve?
A) 7.0
B) 6.0
C) 10.0
D) 5.2

Ans: A

37. A DCS has an unused AI channel set up for a 2 wire transmitter, (meaning nothing
is connected to it). What would have to be done if the two terminals from this channel were
shorted?
A) Change fuse
B) Reset controller
C) Nothing
D) Replace I/O board

Ans: A

38. A Two tower air dryer is not equalizing pressure before switching towers causing a very
loud air discharge sound each time the towers switch from tower A to tower B. What
should be done to fix this problem?
A) Increase the cycle time of the dryer
B) Repair the check valves
C) Replace the desiccant
D) Change the secondary filter

Ans: B

39. Where would a typical process alarm Annunciator panel be mounted?

A) Alarm windows top of panel, horn under floor, acknowledge buttons at arm level
B) Alarm windows at 3 ft. above floor, born under floor, acknowledge buttons at arm
level
C) Alarm windows just above site level, horn at head level from of panel, acknowledge
buttons at arm level
D) Alarm windows middle of panel, horn at head level from of panel, acknowledge
buttons just inside the door

Ans: C

40. A new PH probe is being put away for storage. What needs to be considered for the
longevity of the probe’?
A) Probe tip must be open to room air and kept cold
B) Probe up must be immersed in liquid and stored in room temperature
C) Probe up must be immersed in liquid and stored in a refrigerated area
D) Probe tip must be open to room air and kept warm

Ans: C
41. A process gas analyzer’s sample lines are showing a buildup of sulfur. What is the
suggested maintenance for this problem?
A) Rod out sample lines throughout die whole length
B) Blow back lines using steam
C) Blow back lines using instrument air
D) Blow back lines using water

Ans: B

42. A frequency converter calibrated 0-6000 Hz in and 4—20ma output , an output of

12.53 ma. What would be the input frequency to the converter in Hz?
A) 3000
B) 3757
C) 2857
D) 3198

Ans: D

43. A digital communicator has been connected to read a transmitters parameters.

What are the 2 earliest and important parameters which can be read?
A) Serial number, range
B) Range, alarm limits
C) Tag, range
D) Location, alarm limits

Ans: C

44. How could an unknown RTD type be confirmed using an adjustable temperature
source for range and calibration.
A) An ohm meter at sensing leads & resistance tables
B) An ohm meter at compensation leads & resistance tables
C) A mille-volt meter at sensing leads & millivolt tables
D) A mille-volt meter compensation leads & temperature tables

Ans: A

45. A pyrometer reading has been drifting lower over the past 10 days, what can be
done to fix the problem?
A) Calibrate the DCS input
B) Clean the lens
C) Adjust the signal gain
D) Change the pyrometer

Ans: B
46. An orifice plate connected to a Pneumatic Delta Pressure transmitter is indicating
25% of differential range. What would be the expected transmitter output?
A) 5%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 50%

Ans: C

47. An orifice plate connected to a Pneumatic Delta Pressure transmitter is indicating

25% of differential range. What is the expected flow rate?
A) 5%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 50%

Ans: D

48. What is the order of operation to isolate a D/P transmitter & a manifold on a steam
line?
A) Close high, open low, open equalizer
B) Close high, open equalizer, close low
C) Open equalizer, close low, close high
D) Open high, open equalizer, close low

Ans: B

49. How would an electronic delta/P transmitter be installed into an existing orifice
plate on a steam line?
A) Low side upstream, high side downstream, at elevation of pipe
B) Low side upstream, high side downstream, below elevation of pipe
C) Low side downstream, high side upstream, below elevation of pipe
D) Low side downstream, high side upstream, at elevation of pipe

Ans: D

50. A level transmitter is connected to an open liquid tank with an SG of 1.21.

-The operating level of the process is measured at 150 In WC to 450 In WC.
-That is 150 Inches of tank level = 4 ma and 20 ma = 450 inches of level.
What would the transmitter be calibrated to if the transmitter was located 10 inches from
the bottom of the tank?
A) 169 in wc to 532 in wc
B) 150in wc to 450 in wc
C) 140 in wc to 440 in wc
D) 181 in wc to 181 in wc
Ans: A

51. A pressure transmitter installed to measure steam is located below the steam
header. What needs to be considered as part of the calibration?
A) The transmitter will read slower because of the impulse line
B) The transmitter will read higher because of the impulse line
C) The transmitter will read lower because of the impulse line
D) The transmitter will read faster because of the impulse line

Ans: B

52. A temperature transmitter converting ~50 deg C to 300 deg C, with an output of
-10V to +10 V: What would be the expected output at 76 Deg C.
A) -3.6
B) -2.8
C) +2.5
D) +7.5

Ans: B

53. An open tank of water has a pressure gauge located at the bottom. The gage reads
15 PSI. What is the height of water in the tank above the gage?
A) Less than one foot
B) More than 30 feet
C) Less than 20 feet
D) More than 50 feet

Ans: B

54. A stack pressure transmitter, ranged 0-2 In WC, needs to be calibrated. What
would be the best choice to confirm the input pressure during calibration?
A) Well manometer
B) Mercury manometer
C) 0-2 PSI test gage
D) Incline manometer

Ans: D

55. A standard 4-20 ma D/P transmitter is to be installed into a vacuum process which
calibrated at -5 PSI to 5 PSI, what would this transmitter output read when the transmitter
has both high & low side vented to atmosphere?
A) 4.00 ma
B) 8.00 ma
C) 20.00ma
D) 12.00 ma
Ans: D

56. The reading across a primary fuse of a 120/24 transformer reads 120 volts. What
needs to be done next?
A) Replace transformer
B) Nothing everything is fine
C) Reset breaker
D) Replace fuse

Ans: D

57. What is the first step when very fine metallic particles have been found in a
hydraulic system oil?
A) Replace oil filters
B) Replace oil
C) Increase oil pressure
D) Replace servo valve

Ans: A

58. A pneumatic positioner is constantly giving full output. Manually moving the flapper
does not have any effect. What needs to be done?
A) reduce the air supply
B) replace the flapper
C) clean the nozzle
D) replace the valve

Ans: C

59. When are the oilers replaced in an instrument air system?

A) When drier efficiency drops
B) Not used
C) When oil gets low
D) When tools start to stick

Ans: B

60. An as-found reading of a linear temperature transmitter ranged 0-100 Deg C,

displayed 13.5 ma with an input of 50 Deg C and 4.00 ma with an input of zero deg C.
What is the next step of this calibration?
A) Tag as good and put away
B) Adjust the zero up
C) Adjust the span up
D) Adjust the span down

Ans: D
61. An electronic input to a system is a 4-20 mA signal. The input is wired through a
250 ohm resistor. (1-5 volts). To change the input to a 10-50 ma signal, what would the
new value of the resistor be in ohms?
A) 100
B) 2500
C) 4000
D) 250

Ans: A

62. Referring to this drawing, what is the correct method to perform a zero calibration?

A) Close SV9, open SV1 & SV2, close SV4, and adjust sample flow
B) Open SV2, open SV4 & SV9, and adjust sample flow
C) Close SV9, open SVI & SV2, close SV8, and adjust sample flow
D) Close SV4, open SV3 & SV2, and adjust sample flow

Ans: D

63. Referring to drawing above, how would the samples be purged?

A) Close SV10, open SV9, open SV3
B) Close SV10, open SV8, open SV 3
C) Close SV4, open SV8, open SV 3
D) Close SV4, open SV9, open SV 3

Ans: A

64. Referring to water pit drawing: What type of valve would be required to directly
replace the level valve?
A) Sliding stem with electronic actuator
B) Double acting globe with electronic actuator
C) Rotating ball with electro-pneumatic actuator
D) Rotating ball with pneumatic-pneumatic actuator
Ans: C

65. A two pair cable is being installed from a transmitter to a DCS, where would the
shield be connected?
A) Both field ends & tape back DCS end
B) Field ends and DCS end
C) Shields are not connect at either end
D) DCS end, tape back field end

Ans: D

66. What is the relative comparison of a PH reading of 9 compared to a PH reading of

8? The PH 9 would be?
A) More acidic by a factor of 1
B) More basic by a factor of 1
C) More acidic by a factor of 10
D) More basic by a factor of 10

Ans: D

67. A PH analyzer probe calibrated 0-14 = 4-20 ma, is immersed in clean water. What
should the approximate output be in ma?
A) 4.00
B) 11.97
C) 8.62
D) 19.98

Ans: B

68. What is a brief description of a pH calibration: After loop has been put on manual.
Proper order of operations: using 4pH & 10 pH buffer solutions
A) Clean electrode, test & adjust to 4 pH, rinse electrode, test & adjust to 10pH, clean
electrode, test & adjust using a grab sample.
B) Clean electrode, test and adjust using a grab sample, clean electrode test & adjust
to 4 pH, rinse electrode, test & adjust to 10pH, clean electrode
C) Test & adjust using a grab sample, clean electrode test & adjust to 4 pH, rinse
electrode, test & adjust to 10pH, clean electrode
D) Test & adjust to 4 pH, rinse electrode, test & adjust to 10pH, clean electrode, test
and adjust using a grab sample.

Ans: A

69. What does a shear force constancy sensor look like?

A) Two probes with a narrow gap
B) One probe with a detector in the end
C) A spring loaded paddle
D) A containment cell which the sample flows through
Ans: C

70. How would a shear force consistency sensor be bench calibrated?

A) Using a test gas and zero with air
B) Compare to a grab sample and adjust
C) Using calculated weights
D) Using a push rod and micrometer

Ans: C

71. Regarding this diagram, what is PCV-11?

A) A manual pressure controller

B) A self-contained pressure control valve
C) A pneumatic control valve
D) An automatic flow control

Ans: B

72. Regarding diagram above, what is TV-15?

A) An electronic valve, fail closed, low signal to close
B) An electro pneumatic valve, fail closed, high signal to close
C) An electronic valve, fail open, low signal to close
D) An electro pneumatic valve, fail closed, low signal to close

Ans: D

73. Regarding the above diagram again, when the steam source shuts down, what
would we eventually find?
A) PCV11 would be closed, TV 15 open
B) PCV11 would be open, TV 15 open
C) PCV 11 would be open, TV 15 closed
D) PCV11 would be closed, TV 15 closed

Ans: B

74. How could the relative humidity in a room be calculated?

A) Using a sling psychrometer find wet bulb temperature & dry bulb temperature, find
where the numbers intersect on a psychometric chart & read the relative humidity
B) Using a digital thermometer find wet bulb temperature & dry bulb temperature, find
where the numbers intersect on a psychometric chart & read the relative humidity
C) Using a sling psychrometer find wet bulb temperature & dry bulb temperature, find
where the numbers intersect on a humidity/temperature chart & read the relative
humidity.
D) Using a digital thermometer find wet bulb temperature & dry bulb temperature, find
where the numbers intersect on a relative humidity chart & read the relative
humidity

Ans: A

75. A PLC network has 5 operator interface stations. Communications to one of the
stations is lost, yet the other 4 are all sending and receiving data fine. Where would be the
first place to check?
A) The highway controller
B) PLC control card
C) PLC Ethernet card
D) Workstation Ethernet connection

Ans: D

76. In an industrial process plant where would an area Carbon Monoxide alarm be
installed?
A) Where people are normally working
B) Near the truck doors
C) In the corner of the area
D) As low as possible

Ans: A
77. A control valve is fitted with an actuator & electronic positioner. The valve fails
closed on loss of air. The positioner is calibrated 4ma open, 20 ma closed. What position
would you find the valve with loss of ma signal?
A) Fully open
B) Fully closed
C) As was before loss of signal
D) Depends on flow

Ans: A

78. A new smart positioner has just been installed on an actuator/valve. During a
operation check using a 4-20 ma signal, the valve goes either full open or full closed
regardless of the ma signal. What is the most likely problem?
A) Low air signal
B) Wrong positioner type
C) Loose feedback arm
D) Actuator needs adjusting

Ans: C

79. The Digital Valve controller, also known as an electronic positioner, gives an
pneumatic output to a valve. How would this be installed on a valve? After mounting DVC
on valve ….
A) Connect air supply to valve, control air signal to DVC & power supply to PLC
B) Connect air supply to DVC, control air signal to valve & ma signal to DVC output
C) Connect water lines to valve, air supply to DVC & ma signal to actuator
D) Connect air supply to DVC, control air signal to valve & ma signal to DVC input.

Ans: D

80. A reverse acting positioner installed on a fail closed valve has an input of 6.25 ma,
what position would the valve be in?
A) 14%
B) 50%
C) 86%
D) 92%

Ans: C

81. While checking the signal from a RTD/I converter it is found to work 100% while on
the bench. Once installed, the field calibrated output only goes to 88.2%. What needs to
be considered as part of the problem?
A) Input temperature is too low
B) Signal wires are too short
C) RTD is wrong type
D) Signal wires are too long
Ans: D

82. A plug valve was found to be leaking when closed. the spring tension was increased
to close tighter, the leak decreased significantly but did not stop. What is the next course
of action?
A) Calibrate the positioner
B) Adjust the spring tighter
C) Repair the seat & plug
D) Repair the diaphragm

Ans: C

83. A 4-20 ma input from a 4 wire, transmitter will be connected to a system see
drawing DCS input. This input will be connected to Channel 7. What terminal numbers
would this connection be?
A) 1 and 2
B) 14 and 15
C) 13 and 14
D) 5 and 6

Ans: C

84. You are trying to heat a water tank to 80 deg C, which has a volume of 10m3. The
water tank has a constant calculated load of 8000 wat1s. (due to water flowing through the
tank). The tank is heated with a 5000 watt heater. The tank temperature is presently 30
deg. What will the temperature be in 24 hours?
A) At set point & heater on
B) Below set point & heater off
C) At set point & heater off
D) Below set point & heater on

Ans: D

85. A pneumatic/pneumatic valve positioner has stopped operating properly. The

actuator & control signal feeding the positioner are line. What can be done in an
emergency to get back close to working order?
A) Replace the I/P
B) Replace the positioner
C) Open the positioner by-pass
D) Increase the gain

Ans: C

86. A new pneumatic positioner has been installed on an actuator which both are
separately pre-checked as working fine. This is an air-to open valve, direct acting. When
the supply air was mined on, the valve went fill open. Input control signal was 3PSI
What is the most likely problem with the installation?
A) Input diaphragm is reversed
B) Output lines are reversed
C) Working the way it should be
D) Wrong valve for the application

Ans: B

87. A PLC analog input card, scaled for l280O counts to 64000 counts, is connected to
3 Linear flow signal of0~200 gal/hour. The flow rate is 150 gal/hour.
What would the measured counts be?
A) 49300
B) 25600
C) 48000
D) 51200

Ans: D

88. What equipment would be used to bench calibrate A P/I converter 3-15PSI / 4-20
ma?
A) A calibrated ma source, air supply, pressure gauge
B) DC power supply, milli-amp meter, pressure calibrator
C) Dead weight tester, voltmeter, pressure calibrator
D) Pressure calibrator, milli-volt meter, pressure gauge

Ans: B

89. An existing pneumatic valve is being fitted with an I/P to allow interface to a new
DCS system being installed. The area in question is considered an explosion hazard.
For best control and safest operation how this would be installed?
Cost is not a consideration.
A) Mount I/P in operator control room and tie into existing air line
B) Mount I/P as close as possible to valve, connect ma signal to an intrinsic barrier.
C) Mount I/P in an NEMA 4 enclosure as close as possible to valve
D) Mount I/P in DCS panel room and tie into existing air line

Ans: B

90. What is the procedure to bench test a smart D/P flow meter?
A) Connect Pressure signal to input, power supply, & ma meter & HART communicator
in series with the output.
B) Hart communicator will not work unless there is a minimum 250 ohm load resistor
on signal line. Connect in Parallel with device.
C) Hart communicator will not work unless there is a minimum 250 ohm load resistor
on signal line. Connect in series with device.
D) Connect Pressure signal to input, power supply, & ma meter & HART communicator
in parallel with the output.

Ans: B

91. A new SCADA system has been installed and initialized and the network goes
down, what needs to be checked?
A) Node address, cables & terminating resistors of SCADA system
B) UPS, network fiber cable & HMI configuration
C) DCS configuration, tenninating resistors of SCADA system
D) HMI configuration and revision, bit parity protocols

Ans: B

92. A DCS controller is reading data from all internal I/O, but not receiving or sending
data to any remote controllers, what is the most likely cause?
A) Highway controller
B) HMI server
C) Back plain
D) RS232 cable

Ans: A

93. A DCS display is reading 75 PSI, the gage beside the PT is reading 50 PSI. The
250 ohm input resistor gives a voltage drop of 3 volts. The input range is 0-100 PSI. What
needs to be done?
A) Recalibrate transmitter
B) Change the resistor
C) Recalibrate analog input card
D) Re-Range the DCS

Ans: C

94. Sixteen digital inputs need to be installed to a PLC: They are fed from 4 separate
110 Vac breakers. The digital input cards can handle up to 8 inputs each. What is the
minimum number of DI cards required to meet this configuration?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Ans: C

95. The output line of a pneumatic controller has been cut, what will happen first?
A) Valve will close
B) Set point = maximum
C) PV will increase
D) Set point = zero

Ans: A

96. A 4-20ma/4-20 ma square root extractor has an input of 30 %, what would the
output be in %?
A) 90.1%
B) 5.47%
C) 9.9%
D) 54.7%

Ans: D

97. What would the ma signal be into the square root extractor 4~20ma/4-20ma with an
output of 70.7%
A) 15.31
B) 5.34
C) 16.00
D) 12.00

Ans: D

98. A direct acting controller is connected to a direct acting valve. What will an increase
in set point result in first?
A) Error will stay the same
B) Output increase
C) Process variable decrease
D) Output decrease

Ans: D

99. How would a stand-alone electronic controller be installed into a metal panel
structure?
A) Insert controller into opening, use mounting hardware to fix front of controller to
metal panel. Connect output signal to valve. Connect feedback signal to PV input.
Connect 110vac power.
B) Insert controller into opening, connect output signal to flow meter, connect feedback
signal to valve, connect l10vac power.
C) Insert controller into opening, use mounting hardware to fix front of controller to
metal panel. Connect output signal to flow meter. Connect feedback signal to valve.
Connect 110vac power.
D) Insert controller into opening, Solder controller faceplate to enclosure. Connect
output signal to valve. Connect feedback signal to PV input. Connect 1l0vac power.
Ans: A

100. A digital pressure transmitter capable of reading 0-40 inches of WC /4-20 ma, is
subjected to an input of 20 PSI, what will the output be?
A) 20.8
B) 12.00
C) 20.00
D) 4.00

Ans: A

101. A valve with actuator & positioner is being checked for calibration. Results as
follows:
Input valve
0% = 0%
25 %= 25%
50%= 50%
55 %=50%
57%=50%
75%=75%
100%=100%
What is the most likely problem?
A) Drifting calibrator
B) Low air supply
C) Leaking diaphragm
D) Dead spot on cam

Ans: D

102. A bench set check is being done on a pneumatic spring return actuator. It was
found that the direction of the failure action was reversed to what was required. What is
the most reasonable fix?
A) Disassemble and reverse the actions of the springs
B) Replace actuator & install new one
C) Add a positioner with direction selection
D) Reverse air lines to actuator

Ans: A

103. What is the proper sequence used to isolate the control valve, to be removed for a
short time of maintenance, without shutting down the process?
A) Close A, open B, close F, close E
B) Close B, open B, close F, open E
C) Open B, close E, close F, open I
D) Open B, close E, open F, close I
Ans: C

104. A pneumatic positioner which has zero and span adjustments needs to be setup.
How would this calibration be done?
A) Adjust zero for minimum travel, adjust linearity for 100% travel and adjust span for
50%, set feedback arm to 62.5% at 50% travel
B) Adjust zero for minimum travel, adjust linearity for 100% travel and adjust span for
50%, set feedback arm to 50% at 50% travel
C) Adjust zero for minimum travel, adjust linearity for 75% travel and adjust span for
100 %, set feedback arm to 90 deg angles at 50% travel
D) Set valve to 50%, adjust feedback arm to 90 deg angles, adjust zero to minimum
travel, adjust span to maximum travel

Ans: D

105. A reflectivity position sensor is starting to exhibit random false detection of objects.
What can be done to fix this problem?
A) Increase the light source
B) Clean the reflector
C) Fix the alignment
D) Replace the sensor

Ans: B

106. A PLC input from a photo detector is showing a part in-position all the time. The
photo detector has been replaced and problem still exists. The input indicator on the PLC
card is “on”. What would repair this?
A) Reset the program
B) Another new photo cell
C) Fix the broken wire
D) Fix the shorted wire

Ans: D

107. An output signal from an electronic transmitter of 0 mA might indicate the correct
answer from which of the following?
a. range adjustment of the transmitter is needed.
b. No adjustment is needed.
c. process should be scaled back.
d. transmitter is malfunctioning.
Ans. D

108. In which of the following does pneumatics have a special advantage?

a. environment
b. high temperature
c. high pressure
d. explosive
Ans. C

109. Complex numbers are used in AC circuit analysis primarily to represent which of the
following?
a. Bandwidth and harmonic content
b. Power
c. Frequency
d. Amplitude and phase shift
Ans. D

110. Oscilloscopes can be used to do what from which of the following?

a. view the shape of voltage waveforms.
b. measure voltage over a period of time.
c. measure resistance.
d. both a and b
Ans. D

111. When using an ammeter to measure current, which of the following is correct?
a. open circuit and connect the meter in series between the two open ends.
b. open circuit at the positive and negative terminals of the battery.
c. open circuit at one point and connect the meter to one end.
d. connect meter across the battery or load.
Ans. A
Amp meters are placed in series with a working circuit to measure current.

112. What must a complete test plan for system integration testing includes which of the
following?
a. Multiple test cases for each mode of operation.
b. Comments for the application programmer.
c. At least five test cases for each test.
d. Expected results for each test case.
Ans. C

113. What is the best repeatability and resolution with temperature measurement from
which of the following?
a. Capillary system.
b. Resistance temperature detector (RTD).
c. Dial thermometer.
d. Thermocouple.
Ans. B

114. The valve that closes when the flow in a pipe line is reversed is the?
a. gate
b. check
c. butterfly
d. relief
Ans. B

115. All valves cause some degree of flow loss due to friction even in the full-open
position. Which type of valve causes the greatest reduction in flow even when the valve
is open?
a. gate
b. globe
c. plug valve
d. swing check valve
Ans. B

116. Calculate the kinetic energy of an object moving at a speed of 15 meters per
second, having a mass of 40 kilograms, is the correct answer given below?
a. 7,000 joules
b. 500 joules
c. 4,500 joules
d. 3,250 joules
Ans. C

117. The latent heat of vaporization for water is which of the following given?
a. less than the latent heat of fusion
b. greater than the melting point
c. greater than the latent heat of fusion
d. less than the specific heat
Ans. C

118. Which of the following calculations is correct of the voltage between test point B and
ground in this circuit?

a. 10 volts
b. 16 volts
c. 18 volts
d. 12 volts
Ans. B
119. Which of the following describes a communications cable that has a characteristic
impedance of 75 ohms?
a. cable should be terminated with a resistance equal to 37.5 ohms
b. cable’s conductor-to-conductor resistance is 75 ohms
c. cable’s end-to-end resistance is 75 ohms
d. cable appears to a pulse signal as a 75 ohm load
Ans. D

120. Which of the following can cause an excessive voltage drop?

a. Too much insulation on the wire.
b. Excessively large size wires.
c. Excessive resistance in any part of the circuit.
d. short bypassing the load being tested.
Ans. C
Electrons will give up voltage as heat to get past the resistance.

121. Which of the following would be a possible cause of an open circuit?

a. corroded connection.
b. loose component mount.
c. pin pushed out of a connector.
d. All of the above.
Ans. D

122. Which procedure will correct the occasional discharge from a reduced pressure
principle backflow preventer when the water pressure fluctuates?
a. Install a swing check valve downstream of the RP.
b. Install a swing check valve upstream of the RP.
c. Put in a stronger check valve spring upstream of the RP.
d. Restrict the water flow to the RP by using a globe valve.
Ans. B

123. Which of the following pump voltages will provide more energy efficiency?
a. 220 line voltage.
b. 240 static voltage.
c. 110 line voltage.
d. 120 static voltage.
Ans. A

124. What is the minimum distance a portable ladder is to extend above a work platform?
a. 36”
b. 28”
c. 12”
d. 24”
Ans. A
125. 3-phase electrical systems are favored over single-phase systems for power
distribution because of which of the following given below?
a. Single-phase electric motors are more rugged
b. 3-phase systems are easier to understand
c. expensive to convert everything to single phase
d. More power may be transmitted using less copper wire
Ans. D

126. An AC induction motor works on the principle of which of the following?

a. A rotating magnetic field
b. Magnetic hysteresis
c. Lorentz force
d. Voltage stepped up through mutual induction
Ans. A

127. Which of the following are DC motors are used in industry?

a. low maintenance is necessary
b. motor’s speed must remain constant
c. motor must tolerate constant vibration
d. superior low-speed torque is needed
Ans. D

128. Which of the following is P-type semiconductor materials are made to be the way
they are due to doping?
a. trivalent
b. intrinsic
c. pentavalent
d. nonvalent
Ans. A

129. Terminals designed to be fitted together and used in matching pairs are designated
as which of the following?
a. polarized and non-polarized.
b. terminal and lug.
c. male and female.
d. terminal and connector.
Ans. C
The male plug has male terminal pins and the female plug has female terminal pins.

130. Before a regulator is attached to a cylinder valve?

a. valve should be opened slightly and immediately closed
b. valve should be “cracked” wide open,
c. valve should be opened ¼ turn
Ans. A

131. A Reduced Pressure Principle Backflow Preventer is required when?

a. boiler feed water is thermally treated.
b. boiler feed water is from a potable source.
c. boiler feed water is from lakes or rivers.
d. boiler feed water supply is rainwater.
Ans. B

132. On a “Globe Valve”, where should the pressure enter?

a. Under the seat.
b. Depends on the desired action if the disc or plug becomes detached from the stem.(fail
open or fail closed)
c. Over the seat.
d. None of the above
Ans. B

133. What is the explosive mixture range of acetylene gas in air?

a. 2.0% - 98%.
b. 3.0% - 93%.
c. 3.5% - 95%.
d. 2.5% - 80%.
And. D

134. The two’s complement of the binary number 11001111 is which of the following?
a. 00110000
b. 11110011
c. 11010000
d. 00110001
Ans. D

135. Switch de-bouncing is a technique used for the purpose of which for the following?
a. Extending the operating life of a switch
b. Filtering noise
c. Canceling the effects of vibration
d. Eliminating false switching events
Ans. D

136. Which of the following must poses in order for a control loop to work well under a
wide range of conditions?
a. Negative feedback
b. Calibration drift
c. very expensive transmitter
d. Hysteresis
Ans. D

137. If the process pressure is 1000 psi and 250°C, which of the following valve ratings
could be used when installing a control valve on a steam process?
a. Valve rating 1000 psi, 150°C
b. Valve rating 500 psi, 500°C
c. Valve rating 1000 psi, 500°C
d. Valve rating 2000 psi, 100°C
Ans. C

138. What is the capacity in gallons of a water storage tank that measures 30” in
diameter by 80” in length?
a. 244 gallons
b. 2440 gallons
c. 644 gallons
d. 1021 gallons
Ans. A

139. What is the symbol on the drawing below represent?

a. Flanged tee outlet away from you.

b. Flanged tee outlet towards you.
c. Screwed tee outlet towards you.
d. Screwed tee side outlet away from you.
Ans. D

140. When would WHMIS require the use of a workplace label?

a. When the instructions for use are missing.
b. When a controlled product is shipped from the manufacturer.
c. When a controlled product is transferred from its’ original container.
d. When the MSDS is missing from a controlled product.
Ans. C

141. What code governs the construction and testing of this line on a 12" carbon steel
pipe is carrying naphtha from a distillation column to a storage tank?
a. ANSI/ASME B 31.1
b. ANSI/ASME B 31.3
c. ANSI/ASME Section VIII
d. CSA Z662
Ans. B

142. What is the most common analog signal standard for industrial process instruments
from which of the following?
a. 0 to 5 amps AC
b. 10 to 50 milliamps DC
c. 0 to 10 volts
d. 4 to 20 milliamps DC
Ans. D
143. Which of the following does a set-point refer to in a process controller?
a. production quota for each work day
b. maximum value for the low-alarm point
c. minimum value for the high-alarm point
d. target value for the measured variable
Ans. D

144. Which of the following parameters are the most important for calibrating a turbine
flow-meter?
a. K-factor and frequency.
b. Strouhal number and Reynolds number.
c. Universal viscosity curve.
d. K-factor and Reynolds number.
Ans. A

145. When installing two pressure reducing valves in series, what is the recommended
spacing between the valves?
a. 8ft
b. 10ft
c. 11ft
d. 7ft
Ans. B

146. When installing a 400 mm carbon steel high pressure steam main, what is the
diameter of the drip leg required at the end of the main?
a. 200mm
b. 150mm
c. 250mm
d. 175mm
Ans. A

147. The error tolerance of +/- 0.5% is what amount for a 4-20 mA instrument signal
given from the following below?
a. +/- 0.02 mA
b. +/- 0.8 mA
c. +/- 0.9 mA
d. +/- 0.08 mA
Ans. D

148. What is the expected output if the input pressure is 235 PSIG when a pressure
transmitter has a calibrated measurement range of 200 to 300 PSIG, and an output
range of 4-20 mA?
a. 9.6 mA
b. 3.8 mA
c. 17.5 mA
d. 6.4 mA
Ans. A

149. What is used to calibrate the maximum range value of a blade type mechanical
consistency transmitter from which of the following?
a. Feedback unit.
b. Test weight.
c. Force bar.
d. Fulcrum.
Ans. B

150. What is the correct procedure to correct this issue during the completion of a punch
list, the engineer has sent out a revision on torque values for all flanges on the pipeline.
All torque values are lower than originally specified?
a. Loosen flanges and re-torque to specified value.
b. Replace gaskets and re-torque to specified value.
c. Leave flanges torqued at the higher value.
d. Send the engineer an RFI for clarification.
Ans. B

151. When filling a pipeline for hydrostatic testing, how should the vent and drain valves
be positioned?
a. Vents open and drains are open.
b. Vents closed and drains open.
c. Vents closed and drains closed.
d. Vents open and drains closed.
Ans. D

152. Which of the following is the correct answer by calculating the hydrostatic pressure
at the bottom of a vessel holding 12 vertical feet of liquid with a density of 50 lb/ft3?
a. 18.867 PSI
b. 14.98 PSI
c. 5.202 PSI
d. 4.167 PSI
Ans. D

153. Identify the thermocouple type with the highest temperature limit from which of the
following?
a. Type S
b. Type H
c. Type G
d. Type J
Ans. A

154. When the pH increases from 3 to 4, what change occurs in a medium?

a. becomes 10 times more base.
b. becomes 100 times more acidic.
c. becomes 100 times more base.
d. becomes 10 times more acidic.
Ans. A

155. Which of the following does the symbol below represent?

a. Flange going away.

b. Tee coming toward you.
c. Top of a valve.
d. Tee going away.
Ans. D

156. Which of the following types of materials is not allowed inside a boiler according to
ASME Section I?
a. aluminum
b. stainless steel
c. galvanized steel
d. carbon steel
Ans. C

157. Which of the following symbols is a controller located behind a panel?

Ans. B

158. Which of the following is correct when you convert a temperature measurement of
520o F into Kelvin?
a. 872.12 K
b. 799.6 K
c. 544.30 K
d. 520.10 K
Ans. C
159. When the reference junction is the same temperature as the measurement junction
in a thermocouple circuit, which of the following is the output voltage (measured by the
sensing instrument)?
a. Reverse polarity
b. Unreliable
c. Noisy
d. Zero
Ans. D

160. What installation provisions are necessary to maintain a reliable operation with a
local alarm panel is to be installed in a dusty location where temperatures periodically
exceed 50ºC. The panel electronics must not exceed 45ºC?
a. dust-proof enclosure with CSA approval.
b. water-proof enclosure rated to a class 1 zone 1 location.
c. Mount the enclosure lower than normal where temperature is lower.
d. dust-proof enclosure, with a cooling unit or purged air supply.
Ans. D

161. Electronic transmitters typically send out signals in the range from which of the
following?
a. 2-15 mA
b. 1-20 mA
c. 4-20 mA
d. 10-40 mA
Ans. C

162. What is the cracking pressure on a check valve?

a. 2 psi
b. 3 to 5 psi
c. 9 psi
d. Above 9 psi
Ans. B

163. Which of the following describes the meaning of cavitation?

a. pump outlet line is oversized
b. pump is installed in a flooded application
c. incomplete filling of the pumping chamber
d. pump can’t handle the load
Ans. C

164. Flow-measuring elements is inherently linear and requires no signal

characterization (e.g. sqaure-root extraction) anywhere in the loop from which of the
following?
a. Orifice plate
b. Venturi
c. Turbine
d. Target
Ans. C

165. Bernoulli’s Equation is a mathematical expression of from which of the following?

a. Vertical height and pressure for a static fluid
b. Fluid density and compressibility in a restriction
c. The ratio of kinetic to viscous forces in a flow stream
d. Potential and kinetic energies in a flow stream
Ans. D

166. When checking a normally open relay with four terminals and an ohmmeter, no
continuity will be shown between two terminals and the other two terminals will show
which of the following answers given below?
a. Roughly2000 ohms.
b. Resistance somewhere between 40ohms and 120 ohms.
c. Perfect continuity (0 ohms).
d. No continuity.
Ans. B

167. Which of the following given types of directional control valve center holds a load
and dumps fluid back to tank?
a. tandem center
b. all ports closed
c. all ports open
d. floating center
Ans. A

168. Which of the following given is the correct method to choose hydraulic tubing?
a. Surface finish, OD, material
b. Material, OD, wall thickness
c. ID, Wall thickness, flexibility
d. OD, ID, Wall thickness
Ans. B

169. The pH of a liquid solution is a measure of which of the following?

a. Hydroxyl ion molarity
b. Dissolved salt content
c. Hydrogen ion activity
d. Electrical conductivity
Ans. C

170. If a pH value is less than 7.0, it means that the solution is which of the following?
a. Acidic
b. Conductive
c. Alkaline
d. Caustic
Ans. A

171. In the order from left to right, the correct images of the four control valve types
shown below?

a. Diaphragm, Gate, Disc, Globe

b. Ball, Disc, Butterfly, Globe
c. Globe, Butterfly, Disc, Ball
d. Ball, Gate, Butterfly, Plug
Ans. D

172. When all accessories are turned off, the current (Parasitic) drain on the battery
should be which of the following?
a. under 100 milli-amperes.
b. under 35 milli-amperes.
c. zero.
d. under 3 amperes.
Ans. B

173. In a pneumatic drawing, what does an equilateral triangle represent?

a. Direction of fluid flow
b. Air pressure is adjustable
c. Variable fluid pressure
d. GPM rating of the compressor
Ans. A

174. During operation, what causes air pressure in a receiver to frequently increases and
decreases?
a. MPRV setting
b. Faulty unloading valve
c. Over heating
d. Blocked inlet filter
Ans. B

175. Why do dual-ported globe valves typically enjoy the following advantage over
single-ported globe valves?
a. Tighter shut-off
b. Easier disassembly and maintenance
c. Less actuating force required
d. Longer service life
Ans. C

176. Which of the following causes cavitation in a control valve?

a. vibration in the piping
b. process noise
c. Von Karman effect
d. pressure recovery
Ans. D

177. What does one cycle per which of the following equal to one hertz?
a. second.
b. revolution.
c. minute.
d. any of the above.
Ans. A
Each A/C sine-wave is one cycle or hertz.

178. Which of the following given describes polarity?

a. Resistance of the wires
b. method of ground clamp fastening
c. Direction of current flow
d. Amount of volts
Ans. C

179. What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?
a. Resistance
b. Capacitance
c. Voltage
d. Current
Ans. D

180. If a pilot orifice is plugged, what will be the probable outcome?

a. Valve will shuttle back and forth
b. Valve will not open
c. Seals will wear out quickly
d. Valve will move past its home position
Ans. B

181. Which of the following is the main function of a sequencing valve?

a. controls the speed of a cylinder
b. allows one operation to occur before another
c. regulates air assistance to the pistons
d. dumps excessive pressure from a system
Ans. B

182. What is the very first thing you should do if you are the first to witness or discover
an accident on the job site?
a. Seek the assistance of the nearest co-worker
b. Provide first-aid to the victim
c. Alert professional emergency responders
d. Report the incident to your supervisor
Ans. C

183. The purpose of a cartridge-style respirator is to perform which of the following?

a. Enhance your personal appearance for maximum social appeal
b. Provide a pure oxygen breathing environment where there is insufficient oxygen in the
air
c. Convert exhaled carbon dioxide back into oxygen for re-breathing
d. Reduce the concentration of particulates in the air you breathe
Ans. D

184. Which of the following symptoms indicates heat stroke?

a. Dizziness, vomiting, cold skin, profuse sweating
b. Hot and dry skin, inability to drink, vomiting, confusion
c. Sudden affinity for country-western music
d. Cold and clammy skin, thirst, vomiting, confusion
Ans. B

185. Which of the following causes an Arc blast?

a. Failure to lock-out and tag-out electrical breakers
b. Radio frequency emissions from high-power transmitters
c. Discharge of high electrical current through open air
d. Poor contact within electrical wire splices
Ans. C

186. Which procedure would ensure equipment and personal safety when removing a
129 V DC explosion-proof instrument from service?
a. Inform operations, lockout and tag, open breaker, isolate from process.
b. Lockout and tag, inform operations, open breaker, isolate from process.
c. Lockout and tag, isolate from process, open breaker, inform operations.
d. Inform operations, isolate from process, open breaker, lockout and tag.
Ans. D

187. Which of the following is the most efficient type of compressor?

a. Multi stage
b. Single stage
c. Reciprocating
d. Single acting
Ans. A

188. Which of the following is the normal atmospheric pressure at sea level?
a. 14.7
b. 14.7 psia
c. 14.7 psig
d. 14.7 psi
Ans. D

189. The sine function is defined as ratio of side lengths to which of the following?
a. Adjacent divided by opposite
b. Opposite divided by adjacent
c. Opposite divided by hypotenuse
d. Adjacent divided by hypotenuse
Ans. C

190. What is the most probable cause of a 60 Hz reading being detected on the output
signal of an induction-type speed sensor after replacing the speed-sensing probe?
a. terminals are corroded.
b. polarity is reversed.
c. sensor is out of alignment.
d. shielding has not been properly grounded.
Ans. D

191. Which of the following given are three good electrical conductors?
a. Copper, aluminum, paper
b. Gold, silver, wood
c. Gold, silver, aluminum
d. Copper, gold, mica
Ans. C

192. Which of the following given are four good electrical insulators?
a. Glass, air, plastic, porcelain
b. Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon
c. Paper, glass, air, aluminum
d. Glass, wood, copper, porcelain
Ans. A

193. A chemical reaction that requires a net input of energy is called which of the
following?
a. Ectomorphic
b. Catalytic
c. Spontaneous
d. Endothermic
Ans. D

194. Which of the following is the correct answer given if the voltage dropped across
resistor R3 in this circuit?
a. 7.8 volts
b. 3.0 volts
c. 8.6 volts
d. 14.4 volts
Ans. B

195. Which types of transducers can be used to measure displacement or motion from
which of the following given?
a. LVDTs, piezoelectric, and variable resistance.
b. Variable resistance, and thermoelectric.
c. LVDTs, variable resistance, and thermoelectric.
d. Thermoelectric, LVDTs, and sonic.
Ans. A

196. A loop diagram usually includes all of the information indicated below, except for
which of the following?
a. Indication of the interrelation to other instrumentation loops, including overrides,
interlocks, cascaded set points, shutdowns, and safety circuits.
b. Conduit size and material in which the wires are run for the loop.
c. Wire numbers for all wires and terminal numbers for all connections depicted in the loop
diagram.
d. Tag numbers of instruments connected to the loop as shown on the P&IDs and depicted
by the loop diagram.
Ans. B

197. Which of the following flow measurement devices does not require square root
extraction?
a. Venturi flow meter
b. Orifice plate
c. Magnetic flow meter
d. Pitot tube
Ans. C

198. Proper grounding of electrical devices is important for all of the following given
below reasons, except for?
a. Over-current protection
b. Electrical noise reduction
c. Heat dissipation
d. Safety
Ans. C

199. Variable frequency drives are popular in industry for electric motor control because
of which of the following answers given below?
a. make the motor run quieter
b. cost less than an across-the-line starter
c. increase the available horsepower from a motor
d. potentially save energy
Ans. D

200. What condition in the hydraulic system causes these detrimental occurrences while
inspecting a hydraulic system? It is noted that formation of sludge, carbon or other
deposits are clogging openings, causing valves and pistons to stick or leak and giving
poor lubrication to moving parts?
a. Exposure to excessive heat and pressure.
b. Bacterial contamination.
c. Contact with oxygen absorbed in the receiver tank.
d. Excess water.
Ans. A
I&C Technician
Exam Practice 2

1. Identify the controller’s proper action in the event that the thermocouple suddenly
detects a drop in process temperature:

(A) Move the control valve further closed

(B) Re-calibrate the temperature transmitter
(C) Move the control valve further open
(D) Completely open the control valve
(E) Hold the control valve’s position steady
Ans:A
________________________________________________________________________
2. The following P&ID shows a/an _______________ control strategy:

(A) Adaptive gain

(B) Ratio
(C) Model predictive
(D) Feedforward
(E) Cascade
Ans:E
______________________________________________________________________
3. When removing a 129 V DC explosion-proof instrument from service, which procedure
would ensure equipment and personal safety?
a) Lockout and tag, inform operations, open breaker, isolate from process.
b) Inform operations, lockout and tag, open breaker, isolate from process.
c) Lockout and tag, isolate from process, open breaker, inform operations.
d) Inform operations, isolate from process, open breaker, lockout and tag.
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
4. When installing a control valve on a steam process, which of the following valve ratings
could be used? The process pressure is 1000 psi and 250°C.
a) Valve rating 2000 psi, 100°C
b) Valve rating 500 psi, 500°C
c) Valve rating 1000 psi, 500°C
d) Valve rating 1000 psi, 150°C
Ans:C

______________________________________________________________________
5. After installing a new smart valve positioner, the valve does not respond to process
changes. What is not a possible cause?
a) Positioner is in manual mode.
b) Improper actuator bench set.
c) Controller is in manual mode.
d) There is no air supply.
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
6. When installing a new pressure switch, which safety concerns are most important?
a) Pressure rating, enclosure classification and wetted parts.
b) Contact rating, pressure rating and wetted parts.
c) Enclosure type, contact rating and deadband.
d) Accuracy, pressure rating and wetted parts.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
7. When selecting a replacement component, which factor ensures that a conveyor
electronic weighscale will function properly?
a) Maximum length of belt.
b) Minimum width of belt.
c) Average speed of belt.
d) Sensor specifications.
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
8. Which parameters are the most important for calibrating a turbine flowmeter?
a) K-factor and frequency.
b) K-factor and Reynolds number.
c) Universal viscosity curve.
d) Strouhal number and Reynolds number.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
9. Upon which principle of operation is a bulls eye level gauge used on a steam boiler
service based?
a) Conductivity of water.
b) Voltage change of a thermocouple.
c) Differing refractive indexes of steam and water.
d) Resistance change of a resistance temperature detector.
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
10. After replacing the speed-sensing probe, what is the most probable cause of a 60Hz
reading being detected on the output signal of an induction-type speed sensor?
a) The polarity is reversed.
b) The terminals are corroded.
c) The sensor is out of alignment.
d) The shielding has not been properly grounded.
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
11. A nuclear density meter on an oil pipeline is showing erratic output. What is the most
probable fault?
a) The scintillation counter is defective.
b) The source has decayed.
c) The shutter has been left practically closed.
d) The source beam path is permanently obstructed.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
12. What is used to calibrate the maximum range value of a blade type mechanical
consistency transmitter?
a) Fulcrum.
b) Test weight.
c) Force bar.
d) Feedback unit.
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
13. While calibrating a variable speed drive, 10% input equals 15% speed, 50% input
equals 55% speed and 90% input equals 95% speed. What type of error is indicated?
a) Zero.
b) Span.
c) Angularity.
d) Alignment.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
14. When performing a bench calibration on a control valve that has a bench set of 6-15
psi with a positioner that accepts an input of 9-15 psi in a split range application, what
would be the correct calibration of the positioner?
a) 6 - 15 psi in and 6 - 15 psi out
b) 6 - 15 psi in and 9 - 15 psi out
c) 9 - 15 psi in and 6 - 15 psi out
d) 9 - 15 psi in and 9 - 15 psi out
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
15. On a positioner installed on a non-spring assisted piston actuator, what is the probable
fault if a 50% input has been applied and the output pressures to the cylinder ends are not
matched?
a) Positioner misalignment.
b) Incorrect valve bench set.
c) Excessive supply pressure.
d) Cam is installed backwards.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
16. What change occurs in a medium when the pH increases from 3 to 4?
a) It becomes 10 times more base.
b) It becomes 10 times more acidic.
c) It becomes 100 times more base.
d) It becomes 100 times more acidic.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
17. Which procedure is required when terminating a 4-20 mA 2-wire RTD transmitter in the
I.S. barrier panel in the control room?
a) Connect the red lead at the I.S. barrier ground and the blue lead at the respective
positive (+) point of the barrier.
b) Connect the wires at the respective positive (+) and negative (-) points of the active
barrier only and leave the shield open.
c) Connect the wires at the respective positive (+) and negative (-) points of the active
barrier and run a bonding jumper from the negative (-) point to the ground.
d) Connect the shield to the barrier ground and the signal wires to the respective positive
(+) and negative (-) points of the active barrier.
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
18. Where must an intrinsic safety barrier panel be installed?
a) In a hazardous area with the ground bus bars returned to plant ground.
b) In a safe area with no grounds.
c) In a hazardous area with no grounds.
d) In a safe area with an isolated ground.
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
19. Which types of transducers can be used to measure displacement or motion?
a) LVDTs, piezoelectric, and variable resistance.
b) LVDTs, variable resistance, and thermoelectric.
c) Variable resistance, and thermoelectric
d) Thermoelectric, LVDTs, and sonic.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
20. What is the difference between re-ranging and calibrating smart transmitters?
a) Calibration is setting the LRV and URV.
b) Calibration is trimming to the D/A.
c) Re-ranging is trimming to the D/A.
d) Re-ranging is trimming to the D/A and setting the LRV and URV.
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________

21. A local alarm panel is to be installed in a dusty location where temperatures

periodically exceed 50ºC. The panel electronics must not exceed 45ºC. What installation
provisions are necessary to maintain a reliable operation?
a) A water-proof enclosure rated to a class 1 zone 1 location.
b) A dust-proof enclosure with CSA approval.
c) Mount the enclosure lower than normal where temperature is lower.
d) A dust-proof enclosure, with a cooling unit or purged air supply.
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
22. After obtaining permits, which steps are taken to replace components on an
alarm/shutdown panel?
a) Notify supervisor, use anti-static strap, isolate.
b) Isolate, power-down panel, use anti-static strap.
c) Disconnect component, use anti-static strap, install new one.
d) Notify operations, use anti-static strap, isolate.
Ans:D

23. Overload heaters and overload contacts work together to do which of the following?
a. Protect the motor against lubrication failures
b. Protect the motor against massive overcurrent conditions
c. Protect the motor against mechanical overloading
d. Protect the motor against mild overcurrent conditions
Ans. D

24. Assuming perfect power factor (1.0) and an efficiency of 87%, calculate the
mechanical horsepower output of this motor of a single-phase AC electric motor
drawing 54.7 amps while being powered by a 240 volt source?
a. 19.44 hp
b. 18.56 hp
c. 12.96 hp
d. 15.32 hp
Ans. D

25. Assume an ideal silicon transistor, estimate the amount of voltage between point A and
ground in this transistor amplifier circuit under quiescent conditions?
a. 9.31 volts
b. 12.4 volts
c. 2.81 volts
d. 1.62 volts
Ans. A

26. Which safety concerns are most important when installing a new pressure switch?
a. Pressure rating, enclosure classification and wetted parts.
b. Accuracy, pressure rating and wetted parts.
c. Enclosure type, contact rating and dead-band.
d. Contact rating, pressure rating and wetted parts.
Ans. A

27. Which of the following is adaptive Control is an example of?

a. controller uses only Proportional and Integral actions in calculating controller output.
b. controller uses a quantitative process model and modifies controller tuning based on
how the process responds in relation to the model prediction.
c. controller is comprised of layers of nodes, where the outputs from one node in a layer
are multiplied by weighting factors to form the inputs to the nodes in another layer.
d. controller uses human-like logic criteria and makes controller output changes based on
quantities such as small and moderate.
Ans. B

28. A maintenance cycle is a part of four key activities of a control system?

1. Completing the requested maintenance action
2. Recording details of the activities carried out
3. Retesting the system
4. and ___________

a. Training operators to be able to troubleshoot the problem next time it occurs

b. Replacing any panel covers removed during the maintenance action
c. Noting any resulting changes made to the system configuration
d. Verifying the completeness of the maintenance action with a supervisor
Ans. C

29. Which of the following types would normally be shielded when bundling and running
cables in conduit and duct, the listed conductors are normally separated in different
duct or conduit runs based on signal type?
a. Power wires
b. Signal wires
c. Ground wires
d. Control wires
Ans. B

30. Which of the following is the best procedure when connecting shield wires on an
instrument signal cable?
a. Ground the shield conductor only at one end of the cable
b. Connect the shield conductor to the “neutral” AC power wire
c. Connect the shield conductor to the “hot” AC power wire
d. Ground the shield conductor at both ends of the cable
Ans. A

31. Which of the following is not an example of a primary sensing element?

a. pH electrode
b. Torque tube
c. Pitot tube
d. Bourdon tube
Ans. B

32. On a process controller what is the main purpose of having a manual mode?
a. Facilitate calibration of the loop instruments
b. Allow a human operator to take control of the process
c. Provide a way to adjust the alarm points
d. Document maintenance work done on the loop
Ans. B

33. Which of the following procedures is required when terminating a 4-20 mA 2-wire RTD
transmitter in the I.S. barrier panel in the control room?
a. Connect the red lead at the I.S. barrier ground and the blue lead at the respective
positive point of the barrier.
b. Connect the wires at the respective positive and negative points of the active barrier
only and leave the shield open.
c. Connect the wires at the respective positive and negative points of the active barrier and
run a bonding jumper from the negative point to the ground.
d. Connect the shield to the barrier ground and the signal wires to the respective positive
and negative points of the active barrier.
Ans. D

34. Which of the following instruments given would you use to measure electric potential or
electromotive force?
a. ammeter
b. voltmeter
c. tachometer
d. ohmmeter
Ans. B

35. Which of the following given, limits the current that flows through a circuit for a
particular applied DC voltage?
a. Reliance
b. Reactance
c. Saturation
d. Resistance
Ans. D

36. What is the SWL in a two part bridal configuration at 60 degrees lifting angle for a 3/8”
diameter rope?
a. 4000 lbs
b. 4500 lbs
c. 3200 lbs
d. 5400 lbs
Ans. A

37. What is the last valve to open when starting a pump?

a. Suction valve
b. Regulator
c. Relief valve
d. Discharge valve
Ans. D

38. Which of the following is the amount of differential pressure in this manometer indicate?

a. 2.358 ”W.C.
b. 4.159 ”W.C.
c. 745 torr
d. 8.00 ”W.C.
Ans. D

39. A storage vessel holds a liquid of unpredictable density. Which level measurement
technology will not maintain accurate measurement of liquid height in the vessel as the
liquid density changes?
a. Float and tape
b. Guided-wave radar
c. Sightglass
d. Differential pressure transmitter
Ans. D

40. The main advantage of a dip tube or bubbler system for level measurement is which of
the following?
a. isolates the pressure transmitter from the process fluid
b. compensates for changes in liquid density
c. measure both solid and liquid levels
d. always elevates and never suppresses the calibration range
Ans. D

41. Which steps are taken to replace components on an alarm/shutdown panel after
obtaining permits?
a. Disconnect component, use anti-static strap, install new one.
b. Isolate, power-down panel, use anti-static strap.
c. Notify supervisor, use anti-static strap, isolate.
d. Notify operations, use anti-static strap, isolate.
Ans. D

42. Which of the following given is used to control the output of a variable displacement
pump?
a. Compensator
b. Flow control valve
c. MPRV
d. Inlet size
Ans. A

43. What is a “quick disconnect” called in a hydraulic system?

a. Union
b. Hose
c. Pull piece
d. Coupling
Ans. A

44. Which of the following does MSDS stand for?

a. Material Safety Data Sheet
b. Manufacturing systems data sheet
c. Material systems data society
d. Material systems data society
Ans. A

45. Which of the following is the PSI with a reading of 80 PSIA from?
a. 19.8 PSI
b. 70 PSI
c. 65.3 PSI
d. 82.6 PSI
Ans. C

46. Electrical continuity is checked with which of the following?

a. Volt meter
b. Amp meter
c. Ohm meter
d. Manometer
Ans. C

47. Which of the following describes a thermowell?

a. Protective tube for a temperature sensing element
b. Safety relief device for high pressure
c. Temperature sensing device
d. Heat sink
Ans. A

48. Why is reference junction compensation necessary in thermocouple-based temperature

instruments?
a. Electrical noise may interfere with the measurement otherwise
b. reference junction generates a temperature-dependent voltage
c. junction’s electrical resistance varies with temperature
d. Thermocouples are inherently nonlinear
Ans. B

49. Which of the following describes what Latent heat is?

a. heat released when a gas suddenly decreases pressure
b. heat required to make a substance change phase
c. potential energy residing in a sample of un-burnt fuel
d. amount of heat energy present in ambient conditions
Ans. B

50. Calculate the pH of this solution with an aqueous solution that has a hydrogen ion
concentration of 0.0015 M?
a. 1.654 pH
b. 12.68 pH
c. 3.260 pH
d. 2.824 pH
Ans. D

51. Which of the following does a chromatograph separate and distinguish different
molecule types in a fluid stream?
a. Emitted light spectra
b. Atomic mass (weighing)
c. Electric charge
d. Adsorption time-delay
Ans. D

52. On a steam boiler service, which principle of operation is a bulls-eye level gauge used?
a. Resistance change of a resistance temperature detector.
b. Voltage change of a thermocouple.
c. Differing refractive indexes of steam and water.
d. Conductivity of water.
Ans. C

53. In the drawing below, how much weight is needed to balance the beam if the distance
from point A to fulcrum is 4 feet less than one third the distance from point B to the
fulcrum?

a. 1500
b. 1080
c. 900
d. 680
Ans. B

54. Which of the following given is unique to a pneumatic differential pressure

sensor/transmitter?
a. high pressure inlet
b. d/p cell diaphragm
c. low pressure inlet
d. feedback bellows
Ans. D

55. What is the main purpose of an optical isolation circuit on a digital input card in a PLC
I/O system?
a. provide a common reference point for DC signals.
b. isolate the low-voltage circuitry on the digital input card from the field device voltage.
c. block light from the surroundings in order to prevent the digital input card from
overheating.
d. isolate the positive and negative terminals on the digital input card.
Ans. B

56. What does a manometer measures from which of the following?

a. Pressures in excess of 70 psi, but below 90 psi
b. High pressures only
c. Pressures close to atmospheric
d. Inches of mercury
Ans. C

57. What is a good type of drawing for troubleshooting an electrical issue?

a. Schematic
b. Broken out
c. 3 Dimensional
d. Orthographic
Ans. A

58. Which of the following is pressure created in fluid power?

a. pumps capacity
b. inlet load
c. design of the pump
d. resistance to flow
Ans. D

59. If a new pump will not deliver flow, what is the first thing to check?
a. New return side filter not saturated
b. Oil too dark
c. Pump not primed
d. Oil viscosity too low
Ans. C

60. Which of the following is the main purpose of a control valve positioner?
a. Increase transmitter accuracy
b. Alter the characterization of the valve
c. Improve the precision of the valve
d. Alter the fail-safe status of the valve
Ans. C

61. Which of the following explains the purpose of valve packing?

a. Cushion the valve against harm during shipment
b. Increase stiction
c. Seal process fluid from escaping past the stem
d. Help reduce cavitation in the valve trim
Ans. C

62. From left to right, identify the following instrumentation (P&ID and loop diagram) line
types?

a. electric (on/off), electric (analog), pneumatic, digital network

b. pneumatic, electric, hydraulic, mechanical link
c. electric, pneumatic, digital network, filled system
d. pneumatic, electric, capillary, hydraulic
Ans. D

63. What is not a possible cause after installing a new smart valve positioner, and the valve
does not respond to process changes?
a. Positioner is in manual mode.
b. Improper actuator bench set.
c. Controller is in manual mode.
d. There is no air supply.
Ans. B

64. Which of the following given types of valves allows one operation to occur before
another?
a. Relief valve
b. Sequence valve
c. Unloading valve
d. Directional control valve
Ans. B

65. Which of the following given types of hydraulic valves is used to control the GPM of a
pump?
a. regulator
b. unloading valve
c. MPRV
d. flow control valve
Ans. D

66. What causes an amp drop on the motor of a vacuum system?

a. Blocked inlet
b. Open filter
c. Clean filter
d. Blocked outlet
Ans. A

67. What would be the correct method to use to lift an acetylene container?
a. Nylon basket sling
b. Chain
c. Choker
d. Suitable cradle
Ans. D

68. Which of the following explains the meaning of PLC?

a. Pressure Load Control
b. Pneumatic Logic Capstan
c. PID Loop Controller
d. Programmable Logic Controller
Ans. D
69. Which of the following does Ladder logic programming consists primarily of?
a. Function blocks with connecting lines
b. Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
c. Text-based code
d. Virtual relay contacts and coils
Ans. D

70. Which of the following do an OR function implemented in ladder logic use?

a. Normally-open contacts in parallel
b. single normally-closed contact
c. Normally-open contacts in series
d. Normally-closed contacts in series
Ans. A

71. Which of the following is a good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program?
a. motor start and stop rung
b. math function block
c. communications function block
d. PID function block
Ans. D

72. What is the difference between re-ranging and calibrating smart transmitters from
which of the following answers given below?
a. Re-ranging is trimming to the D/A.
b. Calibration is trimming to the D/A.
c. Calibration is setting the LRV and URV.
d. Re-ranging is trimming to the D/A and setting the LRV and URV.
Ans. B

73. What does it indicate when a Digital Ohmmeter is being use to measure a component.
The meter indicates 3.725K ohms?
a. 0.3865 ohms.
b. 3.285 ohms.
c. 3,725 ohms.
d. 3,725,000 ohms.
Ans. C

The K equals 1000. Move the decimal point three places to the right (replace the K with
three zeros).

74. Which of the following given below does an electrical insulator do?
a. lets electricity flow through it when light shines on it
b. does not let electricity flow through it
c. lets electricity flow through it in one direction
d. lets electricity flow through it
Ans. B
75. What would you do when with a transmitter with nuclear chemical is brought in for
maintenance?
Ans. Close shutter, power off and do maintenance

76. What is the cause in a control valve after maintenance, the travel indicator is showing a
low reading?
Ans. Supply pressure is low

77. The TIA/EIA-485 (formerly known RS-485) is a digital communication standard with the
following traits?
a. Differential voltage signaling, multipoint
b. Manchester encoding, multi drop
c. Frequency Shift Key (FSK) signaling, superimposed on analog 4-20 mA
d. Single-ended voltage signaling, multi-drop
Ans. A

78. Which of the following is unique about Foundation Field bus?

a. Data communication is entirely deterministic
b. It has always been the leading field bus standard
c. Control algorithms may reside in the field devices
d. Power and data share the same wires
Ans. C

79. In a digital control system, a watchdog timer is a device or a programmed routine used
for what purpose?
a. provide time delays for critical functions
b. check for errors in data communications
c. monitor the operation of the microprocessor
d. interrupt normal program flow and address an immediate need
Ans. C

80. What type of thread is found on all acetylene fittings?

a. pipe
b. metric
c. left handed
d. right handed
Ans. C

81. Which factor ensures that a conveyor electronic weigh-scale will function properly when
selecting a replacement component?
a. Average speed of belt.
b. Minimum width of belt.
c. Maximum length of belt.
d. Sensor specifications.
Ans. D
82. What does this indicate when the wire is disconnected from the temperature sending
unit. A voltmeter connected to the wire reads 0v?
a. gauge circuit fuse is good.
b. sending unit is defective. c. open circuit in the gauge circuit. d. gauge circuit is operating
properly.
Ans. C - The voltmeter should indicate 12 volts, not zero.

83. When using forward decoupling, what is the main objective?

a. accumulate the interaction between two process variables and their outputs b. cancel
out the interaction between two process variables and their outputs c. use feedback to
eliminate the gain of one process variable and its output d. use a decoupling algorithm to
eliminate all gain between outputs
Ans. B

84. How can a transmitter’s current output signal be converted to a voltage-input signal as
required by an electronic controller?
a. resistor is placed across the input terminals of the controller
b. all wiring in the loop is tied positive-to-negative
c. forward bias diode is placed between the transmitter and controller
d. capacitor is placed across the output terminals of the transmitter
Ans. A

85. Which of the following is an advantage of RTDs as compared to thermocouples?

a. Are more expensive than thermocouples
b. Requires a temperature transmitter to function
c. Are not self-powered
d. Must have equal length and same type and gauge of lead wires
Ans. A
The RTDs are used to measure temperature in a process stream because they have many
distinct advantages over thermocouples, including higher resolution of measurement, are
more stable, are more repeatable, and give a more linear measurement response.

86. Which temperature measuring devices measures temperature as the result of an

electromotive force being generated that is proportional to a temperature difference
between two dissimilar, joined metals?
a. IR Thermometer
b. Bimetallic expansion thermometer
c. Thermocouple
d. RTD
Ans. C Formula: V = a(Th-Tc)

87. If a globe valve has a pressure recovery factor of 0.83, butterfly valve has a pressure
recovery of 0.61, ball valve has a pressure recovery factor of 0.63 and an eccentric
plug valve a pressure recovery factor of 0.79, which valve will have the least overall
pressure drop? a. Eccentric plug b. Ball c. Butterfly d. Globe
Ans. C
88. Calculate the pressure at the discharge end of the pipe (P2), assuming water as the
fluid (with a mass density _ = 1.951 slugs/ft3), 32.2 ft/s2 as the acceleration of gravity
(g), and frictionless flow (no pressure loss due to friction)?

Express your answer in units of PSI as well as PSF?

Bernoulli’s equation:
Answer: P2 = 17,792 lb/ft2 = 123.6 PSI

89. An industrial fuel depot uses a DP transmitter to hydrostatically measure the amount of
liquid kerosene stored in a tank, over a range of 0 to 15 feet. Suppose the decision is
made to use this same storage tank for holding methanol instead of kerosene, but no
one bothers to re-range the level transmitter for the new liquid.
Assuming no elevation or suppression in the DP transmitter’s installation and a calibration
based on the wrong liquid (kerosene), calculate the amount of methanol the transmitter
“thinks” is in the tank when the actual methanol level is 12.4 feet (verified with a hand
tape).
Level (perceived) = feet
Also, determine the proper LRV and URV points for the transmitter, if it is to accurately
measure the liquid height of methanol over the original height range. Express your
answers in units of PSI:
LRV = PSI URV = PSI
Answer: Level (perceived) = 12.23 feet
LRV = 0 PSI URV = 5.26 PSI
4 points for perceived level calculation, 3 points for each range value.

90. Which of the following functions on an oscilloscope locks in waveforms so that they do
not scroll horizontally across the screen?
a. Beam finder
b. Time base
c. Horizontal sync
d. Trigger
Ans. D
91. A voltage gain of 25 (expressed as a unit-less ratio) can also be expressed as decibels
from which of the following?
a. 37.18
b. 27.96
c. 8.913
d. 68.46
Ans. B

92. The sending unit for an oil pressure warning lamp circuit is which of the following?
a. variable resistor.
b. normally open switch.
c. thermistor.
d. normally closed switch.
Ans. D - Oil pressure keeps the normally closed switch open so the light will be off.

93. Calculate the lower and upper range values for this level transmitter. Assume the low
side of the transmitter is vented to atmosphere. Be sure to provide your answers in
units of inches water column (”W.C.)?

Answer: LRV = 22.54 ”W.C. URV = 193.5 ”W.C.

94. Which of the following does an E/I transducer convert?

a. voltage to current
b. voltage to air pressure
c. current to voltage
d. current to air pressure
Ans. A

95. Which of the following is not a variable speed drive setup parameter?
a. Acceleration rate.
b. Motor winding type.
c. Output frequency.
d. Maximum speed.
Ans. B

96. Which of the following flow meter types does not operate on the principle that a
differential pressure is developed across a flow restriction?
a. Pitot tube
b. Elbow
c. Coriolis
d. Venturi
Ans. C
Coriolis flow meters measure the degree of deformation of a vibrating tube as the fluid
moves through the tube. The degree of deformation is directly proportional to the mass
flow rate through the meter.

97. The transmitter produces an increasing signal for an increase in process measurement
(level, pressure, temperature, etc.), and the I/P transducer produces an increasing air
pressure signal out for an increasing current signal in.
Determine the proper action for the process controller, either direct-acting or reverse-
acting. A direct-acting controller produces an increasing output signal with an increasing
process variable input. A reverse-acting controller produces a decreasing output signal for
an increasing process variable input.

Answer: needs to be direct-acting

98. The method in which the tasks and hazards associated with a machine or process are
analyzed by which of the following?
a. Risk assessment. b. Machine assessment. c. Risk reduction. d. Risk abatement.
Ans. A

99. A low pass filter is a circuit that performs the following function from which of the
following?
a. Passes only the negative (low) portions of an AC wave
b. Blocks low-frequency signals from passing through
c. Modifies the shape of an AC wave
d. Blocks high-frequency signals from passing through
Ans. D

100. Calculate the current drawn by each line of this 3-phase heater when a heating
element used in an industrial electric boiler is rated at 15 kW, at 480 volts, 3 phase?
a. 16.68 amps
b. 30.28 amps
c. 22.50 amps
d. 18.04 amps
Ans. D

101. Which are the labels used to describe the left- and right-hand leads on this diode
given from the following below?

a. Anode and cathode

b. Cation and anion
c. Cathode and anode
d. Anion and cation
Ans. C

102. Convert the decimal number 45,688 into binary to give which for the following
below?

a. 1110111000001011
b. 1011001001111000
c. 1010100011010010
d. 1010011100101011
Ans. B

103. Which of the following does a digital logic gate equipped with a tri-state output is
able to?
a. Share an output line with another gate
b. Switch faster than a regular gate
c. Produce an intermediate voltage state
d. Latch an input state for later use
Ans. A

104. Which of the following does a basic control loop will consist of?
a. resistor, capacitor, terminal block, and battery
b. transmitter, controller, I/P transducer, and control valve
c. transducer, valve packing, hex-head wrench, and tubing
d. signal converter, resistor, knob, and control valve
Ans. B
105. What would be the correct calibration of the positioner when performing a bench
calibration on a control valve that has a bench set of 6-15 psi with a positioner that
accepts an input of 9-15 psi in a split range application?
a. 9 - 15 psi in and 9 - 15 psi out
b. 6 - 15 psi in and 9 - 15 psi out
c. 9 - 15 psi in and 6 - 15 psi out
d. 6 - 15 psi in and 6 - 15 psi out
Ans. C

106. A pulsing voltage is easiest to read on which of the following given below?
a. Meter that measures resistance. b. Meter with a needle. c. Digital voltmeter. d. Digital
ohmmeter.
Ans. B
Pulsating voltages are easiest read on an analog meter.

107. What is the angle between the ordinate lines when a template is to be divided into
12 equal spaces?
a. 30deg
b. 45deg
c. 90deg
d. 20deg
Ans. A

108. Before hooking up a pump for a hydrostatic test, what should be verified first?
a. That the pump has been installed without isolation valves.
b. That the pump has been installed after the test header.
c. That an isolation valve has been installed between the pump and the test header.
d. That an orifice has been installed between the pump and the test header.
Ans. C

109. Which code governs the installation of pressure piping systems?

a. ASME B31.1
b. ASW
c. ASTM
d. CWB 471
Ans. A

110. What affects the speed of a pneumatic grinder?

a. Air quality.
b. Torque rating.
c. Air flow.
d. Air pressure.
Ans. C

111. Wrenches should be pushed rather than be pulled?

True
False
Ans. False they should always be pulled

112. Can a pneumatic test be performed when testing piping and a hydrostatic test is not
practical?
a. Approval of the Safety Codes Officer and site super-Intendant.
b. Approval of the Safety Codes Officer and acceptance from the owner.
c. Approval of the Safety Codes Officer is required.
d. Because of the hazards involved a pneumatic test will not be permitted.
Ans. B

113. What should be done to the expansion loop to account for a change on an existing
expansion loop that will now be subject to a temperature differential 100 degrees C less
than it was originally designed to handle?
a. The flex legs will need to be shortened to account for the extra contraction.
b. The guides closest to the upwards facing 90 degree ells must be moved closer.
c. The flex legs are already able to deal with the expansion and contraction.
d. The flex legs will need to be lengthened to account for the extra contraction.
Ans. C

114. How do you figure the end-to-end measurement of a piece of pipe when the end-to-
center measurement is known?
a. take-off must be added to the end-to-center measurement.
b. take-off must be subtracted from the end-to-center measurement.
c. pipe make-up must be subtracted from the end-to-center measurement.
d. pipe make-up must be added to the end-to-center measurement.
Ans. B

115. What is the pipe fitting which makes a 180° turn called?
a. elbow.
b. return fitting.
c. lateral fitting.
d. eighth bend.
Ans. B

116. Which of the following is the gross rating of a boiler with 25% heat loss through the
system piping of a building that loses 125,000 Btu/hr?
a. 145,000 Btu/hr
b. 138,550 Btu/hr
c. 166,667 Btu/hr
d. 98,650 Btu/hr
Ans. C
117. Which of the following tools must be used to check the performance of a base
mounted hydronic pump?
a. Ohmmeter.
b. Milli-volt meter.
c. Voltmeter.
d. Ammeter.
Ans. D

118. What fire extinguisher class is used to put out an electrical equipment fire?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Ans. C

119. Which of the following is authorized to remove a lockout tag out?

a. Only the person who applied the lock
b. Anyone in management
c. Only a certified Health and Safety member
d. Any authorized worker
Ans. A

120. Which of the following is the purpose of performing an “As Found” calibration on an
instrument that is to?
a. Exercise the instrument to keep it in better condition over time
b. Spend more time calibrating the instrument
c. Establish a baseline for comparison, to detect calibration drift
d. Eliminate hysteresis and dead-band from the instrument
Ans. C

121. What should a technician do when calibrating an adjustable, mechanical pressure

switch using an air pressure regulator and a precision pressure gauge. Assuming this
pressure switch will be used as a high pressure alarm (tripping when the pressure
exceeds 50 PSI)?
a. Adjust the switch so it actuates when the pressure decreases to 49 PSI
b. Set the pressure at 50 PSI and move the switch adjustment down until it actuates
c. Set the pressure at 50 PSI and move the switch adjustment up until it actuates
d. Adjust the switch so it actuates when the pressure increases to 51PSI
Ans. B

122. Which of the following is converted pressure measurement of 800 torr into units of
PSI?
a. 1.561 PSIG
b. 18.52 PSIG
c. 0.7737 PSIG
d. 34.82 PSIG
Ans. C

123. Which of the following given below is not a type of pressure sensing element?
a. Orifice plate
b. Manometer
c. Diaphragm
d. Bourdon tube
Ans. A

124. Which of the following continuous sequence of steps or operating cycle performed
by a PLC processor is known as?
a. Updating
b. Polling
c. Scanning
d. Rectifying
Ans. C

125. To test controller tuning or prototype new control strategies offline, the model should
be which of the following?
a. Tie-back (loopback) simulation.
b. Artificial neural network.
c. Dynamic process simulation.
d. Steady state process simulation.
Ans. C

126. How should the bleed valve be set to isolate a system with a double block and
bleed valve?
a. Fully closed.
b. Fully open.
c. 50% open.
d. ¼ open
Ans. B

127. A triple-duty valve is installed in or on the?

a. hot water heating pumps suction piping
b. hot water heating pumps discharge piping
c. bottom connection of the compression tank
d. top of a hot water heating boiler
Ans. B

128. The liquid flow control loop below is suspected that the amount of recycle flow is
more than what is being displayed by FT-1, a digital flow transmitter. The flow
transmitter was recalibrated and does not display any signs of damage. The installation
appears to be correct. Given this information, you determine that one potential cause of
 the apparent discrepancy in flow may be? a. control valve positioner is outputting a
signal that is higher than requested by the flow controller.
b. flow control valve bypass valve is fully closed when it should be open.
c. orifice plate that has been eroded, thereby increasing the effective size of the orifice.
d. Square root extraction is enabled at the transmitter, but should not be for this flow
measurement loop.
Ans. C
Liquid flow through an orifice plate can be represented by Q, volumetric flow rate
Q = C x A √ [2ΔP / ρ]

129. On an external flushing arrangement, the flushing liquid, usually different from the
material in the pump, comes from an external source. On this type of flush the flushing
liquid comes from a?

Answer: External

130. The ORP measurement is often used in processes in which of the following?
a. addition of an oxidant must be controlled
b. Conductivity of the liquid is negligible
c. octane value of a liquid fuel is important
d. Pigments are added to a solution to control color
Ans. A

131. What is the definition of split range control valves?

a. calibrated with complementary ranges.
b. equipped with quick-acting positioners.
c. easily re-ranged for different characteristics.
d. designed to be easily disassembled.
Ans. A
132. Which of the following always detects the proper fail safe status of a control valve?
a. economic savings
b. configuration of the positioner
c. nature of the process
d. controller’s tuning
Ans. C

133. Which of the following does the acronym P&ID stand for?
a. Proportional, Integral and Derivative control
b. Piping and Instrumentation Drawing
c. Process Control and Installation Drawing
d. Piping and Instrument Designing
Ans. B

134. A gear pump is a positive displacement pump and must be installed with?
a. pressure switch
b. pressure relief valve
c. pressure reducing valve
d. pressure tank
Ans. B

135. What is to be done with an oil filled dead weight tester after using to bench check a
pressure signal?
A) Drain the oil and flush the DWT out, return to storage location
B) Clean the weights & fittings, return to storage location.
C) Pressurize the chamber, cap both ends, return to storage location
D) Disconnect the tubing, send out for recertification
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
136. What is the proper procedure for working on a hydraulic valve which is part of a
control system, after obtaining all required work approvals?
A) Open oil line equalizer, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, perform work, return to
service, inform operations
B) Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, verify zero pressure, perform
work, return to service, inform operations
C) Verify zero pressure, Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, perform
work
D) Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, verify zero pressure, perform
work, inform operations
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
137. A configuration change needs to be completed to a PLC or DCS program, how
would this be done to assure back up for records. Using a laptop computer and proper
cabling.
A) Connect laptop, make copy of program, make changes, download changes to
process, verify changes, save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.
B) Connect laptop, make changes, download changes to process, verify changes,
save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.
C) Connect laptop, make copy of program, make changes, download changes to
process, save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.
D) Connect Laptop, put all loops on manual, make copy of program, make changes,
download changes to process, verify changes, save changes to master disc,
disconnect laptop.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
138. A “V” ball valve works perfect from 22% to 100% but does not go fully closed. This
valve & positioner was just checked as fully functional air to open, before being installed in
the process line. What can be done to fix this problem?
A) Recalibrate the valve
B) Increase the air pressure
C) Decrease the air pressure
D) Remove the blockage in the valve
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
139. A control valve, with UP is not responding to controller signal. How could the
calibration & operation of this valve be field checked? Assuming all approvals have been
obtained.
A) Ensure proper air pressure ,remove control signal wires, connect a signal simulator
to the input of the UP, verify operation at 0-100% through major intervals.
B) Ensure proper air pressure , connect a signal simulator to the input of the UP, verify
operation at 0-100% through major intervals.
C) Ensure proper air pressure , connect a signal simulator to output of the UP, verify
operation at 0-100% through major intervals.
D) Ensure maximum air pressure , remove control signal wires, connect a signal
simulator to output of the UP, verify operation at 0—l00% through major intervals.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
140. A diaphragm actuator is being dissembled to replace the worn diaphragm, how
would this be done?
A) Remove the long housing bolt(s) first, them back off slowly the remaining bolts,
remove upper diaphragm ease, remove & replace diaphragm, rebuild in the reverse
order.
B) Loosen off all the housing bolts, leaving the long bolt(s) for last, remove upper
diaphragm case, remove & replace diaphragm, rebuild in the reverse order.
C) Remove the long housing bolt(s) first, them back off slowly the remaining bolts,
remove upper yoke case, remove & replace diaphragm, rebuild in the reverse order.
D) Loosen off all the housing bolts, leaving the long bolt(s) for last, remove upper yoke
case, remove & replace diaphragm, rebuild in the reverse order.
Ans:B
_____________________________________________________________________
141. An orifice plate & differential transmitter is used bring a signal into a DCS. Assuming
the transmitter has no special functions . how would this DCS input be configured to
measure flow?
A) Connect the transmitter output to an A0 connection, configure the A0 block to
connect to the controller input.
B) Connect the transmitter output to an AI connection, configure the AI block to
connect to a square root extractor block.
C) Connect the transmitter input to an A0 connection, configure the AO block to
connect to the controller input.
D) Connect the transmitter input to an AI connection, configure the AI block to connect
to the controller input,
Ans:B

______________________________________________________________________
142. A value on a DCS graphics screen is reading consistently wrong compared to all the
verified input information the group display . What is a likely cause of this error?
A) update time is too slow
B) calibration of input is wrong
C) wrong data point on graphic
D) wrong DCS O/S revision
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
143. Referring to the loop drawing for the Calcium to head tank feed: Assuming all was
working fine, on auto. The flow rate of FIT—33-750 increases by 10%, what would
happen first ?
A) FV 33-166 would close slightly
B) FE-33-186 would read more flow
C) FIC 33-166, SP would increase slightly
D) FIC 33-166, SP would decrease slightly
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
144. A level control system was found to be erratic & jumpy. What is a quick way to test if
the problem is “control” or “measurement”
A) drain the impulse lines
B) put the controller on manual
C) adjust the gain
D) check the calibration
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
145. A new pressure control loop is being commissioned. All wire & loop checks have
been confirmed. On manual the output will properly open the valve to till the vessel &
increase the pressure as required. While on Automatic: With a set point of 25% the
pressure eventually drains to zero and the valve ramps closed. What need to be done to
fix this problem.
A) Calibrate the pressure transmitter
B) Increase the gain
C) Decease the gain
D) Reverse the controller
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________

146. A digital valve controller has failed, what is another device which could be used
temporarily to replace the DVC and still have the actuator respond to the PLCs signals:
A) Flow meter
B) I/P converter
C) P/I converter
D) RTD/I converter
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
147. A mag flow meter has been installed backwards in a pipe. The output when running
is 3.85 ma. What is the most economical way to fix this?
A) Reverse 4-20 mA output wires
B) Remove flow meter & re-install
C) Reverse 110vac power to meter
D) Reverse electrode wires
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
148. What is the procedure & considerations to calibrate a Torrid conductivity sensor
which is to be calibrated using a test solution and a container.
A) Insert and move around to allow contaminants to dissolve off of the sensor. Perform
adjustments.
B) Insert and allow sensor temperature to stabilize to the test solution. Perform
adjustments.
C) Insert and wait to allow any water to separate from the test solution. Perform
adjustments
D) Insert and keep moving to allow test solution to circulate around the sensor.
Perform adjustments
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
149. A boiler stack is monitored with an opacity meter. The reading takes a gradual
change, which does not match the performance of the boiler. What needs to be done to fix
the problem?
A) Remove the meter from service and recalibrate
B) Remove power from the meter and clean the lenses
C) Clean the lenses when the boiler and meter is on normal operation.
D) Shut down & lock out the boiler, clean the lenses
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
150. What would be considered a normal preventative maintenance procedure for a
chilled mirror moister analyzer which is being used to monitor a 100% Nitrogen line?
A) Calibrate zero & span daily
B) Change filter monthly
C) Equalize manifold & blow back sample line
D) Clean mirror and balance optics
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
151. During calibration of a Carbon Monoxide monitor, it is found that the response is
getting much slower than normal and the span adjustment is all the way to the high end.
What should be done?
A) Nothing if calibration is fine.
B) Increase sample rate, until response improves
C) Replace chemical cell and recalibrate
D) Adjust zero up & move span down to bring in range.
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
152. A differential Pressure transmitter is connected to the side of a closed vessel. It has
been found that when the vessel pressure increases the level reading increases also.
What needs to be done?
A) Clear out the plugged low side
B) Clear out the plugged high side
C) Reverse the impulse lines
D) Recalibrate the transmitter
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
153. A mass flow meter, to measuring bunker “c” needs to be installed: What would be
the best way to accomplish this?
A) Install an office plate and delta pressure transmitter
B) Install a Magnetic flow meter with pressure compensation
C) Install a Coriolis meter in series with the flow.
D) Install a Coriolis meter in parallel with the flow
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
154. A mag flow meter is measuring a flow rate of 79 L/min. The meter is calibrated for
50 to 150 L/min. The measured ma output is 8.64 ma: What needs to be done?
A) Adjust the zero
B) Adjust the span
C) Adjust both zero & span
D) No adjustments required
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
155. Maintenance was just performed on a tank monitored by a nuclear level gauge.
After returning to the control room the DCS reading was found to be 100% full when it is
known that the level is actually around 35% full. What needs to be done to correct the
problem?
A) Turn the power back on
B) Reconnect the 4-20 ma signal
C) Close the shutter
D) Open the shutter
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
156. A process temperature, monitored with a thermocouple starts spiking from normal to
the “high-over range” and back within a second. This is found to be an occasional problem.
What should be done to correct this problem?
A) Fix the lose connection
B) Repair the shorted lead wire
C) Allow process to stabilize
D) Replace the burnt out thermocouple
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
157. The DCS reading from a pressure transmitter installed on a 250 pound steam line,
calibrated for 0400 pounds, suddenly drops to zero. What should be checked first?
A) 24 VDC power to transmitter
B) If control is on auto
C) Impulse line to transmitter
D) DCS is scanning
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
158. Level on an open slurry tank is being monitored using a bubble pipe and level
transmitter. The tank is regularly at 25% to 50% full and has been confirmed to be at that
level today, the level transmitter however is reading 100% full. What needs to be done?
A) Turn on the purge air
B) Calibrate the transmitter
C) Clean out the bubble pipe
D) Fix the tubing leaks
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
159. A cylinder which movement is being controlled by a proximity switch, has been
drifting past the desired setting. It was determined that the Proximity switch was activating
too late. What can be done to rectify this problem?
A) Change the target magnet
B) Change the target metal type
C) Increase the voltage to the pro
D) Adjust the gap between pro & target
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
160. Where would a gas Chromatograph best be installed for best operation?
A) A temperature controlled room as close as possible to process
B) Mounted on the process piping in an approved enclosure
C) As close to the maintenance shop as possible for ease of calibration
D) A temperature controlled room as close as possible to maintenance shop
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
161. A pressure reading PI-251 has been reading a straight line at 35% on the DCS for
the past four hours. Operations assures you that the pressure is changing. What can be
done as quick check to see if the transmitter and input is responding to process change?
A) Isolate the transmitter & vent at the manifold to see if the DCS signal goes to Zero
B) Disconnect the 24 V & see if the transmitter goes to zero
C) Isolate the transmitter & vent at the manifold to see if the DCS signal goes to 100%
D) Put the control on manual an stroke the controller
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________

162. Regarding this diagram, what can this used for?

A) To modify an air signal

B) To amplify an air signal
C) to invert an air signal
D) all of the above
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
163. What is the best way to tune a cascade control system. Using this drawing as an
example?

A) Tune the secondary controller first, then the primary, with the secondary controller
tuned to be faster than the primary.
B) Time the primary controller first, then the secondary, with the secondary controller
tuned to be slower than the primary.
C) Tune the primary controller first, then the secondary, with the secondary controller
tuned to be faster than the primary.
D) Tune the secondary controller first, then the primary, with the primary controller
tuned to be faster than the primary.
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
164. A temperature control system to a reactor using both steam for heating and chilled
water for cooling, uses one controller with split range valves.
The steam valve is ranges 12 ma (closed) to 20 ma (open)
The water valve is ranged 4 ma (open) to 12 ma (closed).
With a controller output of 14 ma what position would the valves be found?
0%= closed, 100% = open
A) Water 100%, steam 50%
B) Water 0% , steam 60%
C) Water 0 %, steam 25%
D) Water 62%, steam 100%
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
165. A temperature control system to a reactor using both steam for heating and chilled
water for cooling, uses one controller with split range valves.
The steam valve is ranges 12 ma (closed) to 20 ma (open)
The water valve is ranged 4 ma (open)to 12 ma (closed)
On loss of controller signal, what position would you find the valves ?
A) Steam 100 % , water 100%
B) Steam 100 % , water 0%
C) Steam 0%, water 0%
D) Steam 0% , water 100%
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
166. A DCS network card is addressed using binary dip switches. The address is 73,
which switch configuration would need to be set.
A) 01001001
B) 00101011
C) 01010010
D) 10010010
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
167. A plant control-communication network is set up using various layers of operations
data and security of the process.
With regards to controller networks: What would be the fastest configuration for controller
to controller data transfer
A) Ring network
B) Bus network
C) Star network
D) Fieldbus network
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
168. A control valve (4rna closed, 20 ma open) is 37.5% open, what would be the
measured ma signal to this valve?
A) 7.5
B) 6.0
C) 10.0
D) 5.2
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
169. A DCS has an unused AO channel, (meaning nothing is connected to it). What
would have to be done if the two terminals from this channel were shorted.
A) Change fuse
B) Reset controller
C) Nothing
D) Replace I/O board
Ans:C
______________________________________________________________________
170. A very fine dust has been found at the outlet of a desiccant air dryer, what should
be done to correct this problem?
A) Increase the cycle time of the dryer
B) Change the pre-filter
C) Decrease the cycle time of the dryer
D) Change the secondary filter
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
171. What would be used to check for leakage radiation around a radiation device like a
density meter?
A) A radiation badge
B) A Geiger counter
C) A radiation leakage coil
D) A weir gauge
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
172. To safely work on most isotope source gauges what needs to be done?
A) Turn off the power & lock out the power
B) Close shutter & ensure it can not open
C) Open shutter & ensure it can not close
D) Can not be worked on safely
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
173. To safely work on most x-ray source gauges what needs to be done?
A) Turn off the power & lock out the power
B) Close shutter & ensure it can not open
C) Open shutter & ensure it can not close
D) Can not be worked on safely
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
174. A frequency converter calibrated O~5000 Hz in and 4-20rna output, is receiving a
signal of 1237 Hz, what ma value would be read on the output?
A) 7.95
B) 8.52
C) 6.47
D) 9.12
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
175. Using drawing level 163 as a guide: What would be the calibrated range of this
transmitter? All units in inches of water column
 Zero Span
A) 0 96
B) -115.2 110.5
C) 96 110.5
D) -96 115.2
Ans:B
______________________________________________________________________
176. A thermo filled, temperature switch needs to be checked for operation. How would
this be done ?
A) Immerse bulb & tubing in temperature bath, check output with m meter
B) Immerse bulb in temperature bath, check output with mv meter
C) Immerse bulb & tubing in temperature bath, check output with ohm meter
D) Immerse bulb in temperature bath, check output with ohm meter
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
177. Which is true as a measurement of vibration?

A) X= thrust, Y=torque, Z = vibration

B) Z = thrust, Y= torque, X= vibration
C) Z= thrust, X= torque, Y = vibration
D) Y= thrust, X= torque, Z = vibration
Ans:D
______________________________________________________________________
178. A controller with Proportional only needs to be set up so that 21 PV change of 20%
produces and output increase of 30%, what would the settings be?
A) Direct acting, Proportional band of 66
B) Reverse acting, Proportional band of 66
C) Direct acting , gain of 2.3
D) Reverse acting, gain of 2.3
Ans:A
______________________________________________________________________
179. A digital switch is turning on and off to frequently in response to the process What
can be done to improve the situation so switch is not turning on and off too much?
A) Decrease gain
B) Increase gain
C) Increase dead band
D) Decrease dead band
Ans:C

180. A basic control loop will consist of:

(A) Signal converter, resistor, knob, and control valve
(B) Transmitter, controller, I/P transducer, and control valve
(C) Transducer, valve packing, hex-head wrench, and tubing
(D) Resistor, capacitor, terminal block, and battery
(E) Control valve, microprocessor, terminal block, and cables

Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________
181. In order for a control loop to work well under a wide range of conditions, it must
possess:
(A) A very expensive transmitter
(B) Calibration drift
(C) Negative feedback
(D) Hysteresis
(E) Proper documentation

Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
182. A “final control element” is typically:
(A) An indicator
(B) A pipe or vessel
(C) A pneumatic instrument
(D) A sensor
(E) A valve
Ans:E
________________________________________________________________________
183. When connecting shield wires on an instrument signal cable, it is best to:
(A) Ground the shield conductor only at one end of the cable
(B) Ground the shield conductor at both ends of the cable
(C) Connect the shield conductor to the “hot” AC power wire
(D) Connect the shield conductor to the “neutral” AC power wire
(E) Leave both shield conductors floating (unconnected)
Ans:A
________________________________________________________________________
184. The most common analog signal standard for industrial process instruments is:
(A) 10 to 50 milliamps DC
(B) 0 to 5 amps AC
(C) 0 to 10 volts
(D) 0 to 20 milliamps
(E) 4 to 20 milliamps DC
Ans:E
________________________________________________________________________
185. In a process controller, “setpoint” refers to:
(A) The minimum value for the high-alarm point
(B) The maximum value for the low-alarm point
(C) The production quota for each work day
(D) The target value for the measured variable
(E) The optimum position of the control valve
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
186. Identify which of the following is not an example of a “primary sensing element”:
(A) Bourdon tube
(B) Torque tube
(C) Pitot tube
(D) pH electrode
(E) Thermocouple
Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________
187. In an automobile “cruise control” system, the vehicle’s speed is the:
(A) Process variable
(B) Setpoint
(C) Manipulated variable
(D) Inferred variable
(E) Error variable
Ans:A
________________________________________________________________________
188. The main purpose of having a “manual” mode on a process controller is to:
(A) Document maintenance work done on the loop
(B) Allow a human operator to take control of the process
(C) Provide a way to adjust the alarm points
(D) Facilitate calibration of the loop instruments
(E) Limit the maximum travel of the control valve
Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________
189. Derivative control action is never used in processes where there is substantial
________________.
(A) Variability
(B) Gain
(C) Noise
(D) Cycling
(E) Hysteresis
Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
190. _______________ processes always require some degree of _________________
control action to achieve setpoint.
(A) Integrating, Derivative
(B) Integrating, Feedforward
(C) Self-regulating, Proportional
(D) Runaway, Linear
(E) Self-regulating, Integral
Ans:E
________________________________________________________________________
191. The reciprocal of proportional band is called:
(A) Reset
(B) Percent
(C) Minutes per repeat
(D) Gain
(E) Rate
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
192. “Quarter-wave damping” may be described as:
(A) A condition of good control where oscillations quickly subside
(B) A condition of good control where PV approaches SP without overshoot
(C) A condition of poor control where oscillations continue at constant amplitude
(D) A condition of poor control where the transmitter is damped by 25%
(E) A condition of excellent control where there are no oscillations
Ans:A
________________________________________________________________________
193. Reset control action is often expressed in units of:
(A) Repeats per minute
(B) Percent
(C) Seconds per rate
(D) Minutes
(E) Time constant ratio (unitless)
Ans:A
________________________________________________________________________
194. A proportional band setting of 175% is equivalent to a gain setting of
____________________.
(A) 175
(B) 0.756
(C) 0.571
(D) 1.32
(E) 1.75
Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
195. The open-loop response of a process is shown in the following trend. What sort of
process is indicated by this behavior?
(A) Proportional
(B) Integrating
(C) Self-regulating
(D) Step-response
(E) Runaway
Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
196. A condition where integral control action drives the output of a controller into
saturation is called:
(A) Self-bias
(B) Repeat
(C) Wind-up
(D) Noise
(E) Offset
Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
197. Purely integrating processes typically respond well to aggressive _______________
control action.
(A) Nonlinear
(B) Derivative
(C) Linear
(D) Proportional
(E) Integral
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
198. Process variable filtering should be used:
(A) Only on self-regulating processes
(B) To improve response time
(C) Only on integrating processes
(D) To dampen noise
(E) Never
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
199. Cascade control is characterized by:
(A) A special relay or function block to compensate for nonlinear process gain
(B) The presence of a “dead time” relay or function block
(C) Two controllers whose outputs are selected either by high or low value
(D) One controller providing a setpoint for another controller
(E) The presence of a “lead/lag” relay or function block
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
200. Adaptive gain is used for controlling ______________ processes.
(A) Time-variant
(B) Dead time
(C) Fast
(D) Integrating
(E) Nonlinear
Ans:E
________________________________________________________________________
201. The three “elements” in a three-element boiler feedwater control system are:
(A) Steam flow, drum level, and feedwater flow
(B) Feedwater flow, water conductivity, and steam flow
(C) Turbidity, feedwater flow, and temperature
(D) Drum temperature, firing rate, and feedwater flow
(E) Drum level, water pH, and drum temperature
Ans:A
________________________________________________________________________
202. The purpose of feedforward control is to:
(A) Eliminate the need for feedback control in a process
(B) Save energy
(C) Reduce the effect of load variation on the process variable
(D) Reduce the effect of process variable noise on stability
(E) Compensate for dead time and lag time in a process
Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
203. In a feedforward control system, the controller gets its input from the
____________.
(A) Controlled variable
(B) Load variable
(C) Manipulated variable
(D) Inferred variable
(E) Dynamic variable
Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________

204. Ratio control is where:

(A) A “wild flow” variable sets the gain of the controller
(B) Fuel must be precisely rationed for economy
(C) Process data is communicated in a digital format
(D) The rate of one variable must remain fixed over time
(E) One variable is controlled in proportion to another
Ans:E
________________________________________________________________________

205. The slave controller in a cascade control system must always be tuned:
(A) In manual mode
(B) Slower than the master
(C) With greater filtering than the master
(D) After the master
(E) Before the master

Ans:E
________________________________________________________________________
206. The following P&ID shows a/an ___________________ control strategy:

(A) Ratio
(B) Feedforward with trim
(C) Cascade
(D) Override
(E) Two-element
Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________
207. Lead/lag compensation, sometimes called “dynamic compensation,” is commonly
used to:
(A) Equalize load and manipulated variable lags in a feedforward system
(B) Improve stability by changing controller gain over time
(C) Filter noise from the process variable signal in a feedforward system
(D) Overcome dead time by duplicating the process lags on the setpoint signal
(E) Prevent integral windup by placing limits on the manipulated variable signal

Ans: A
I&C Technician
Exam Practice 3

1. What sort of alarm function is provided by the controller in this diagram?

(A) High-flow alarm

(B) Low-level alarm
(C) High-temperature alarm
(D) Low-flow alarm
(E) High-level alarm

Ans:B

2. Which of the following symbols is a transmitter in an auxiliary location?

Ans. A
3. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of:
(A) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
(B) Function blocks with connecting lines
(C) Text-based code
(D) Hieroglyphics
(E) Virtual relay contacts and coils
Ans:E

4. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which . . .

(A) The technician enters the program
(B) Timers and counters are indexed by
(C) One “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
(D) Transmitted data communications must finish
(E) The entire program takes to execute
Ans:E

5. Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program:

(A) Coil
(B) Start contact
(C) Stop contact
(D) Seal-in contact
(E) Power source
Ans:D

6. The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

(A) ABC + D
(B) C + (A+B )D
(C) C + D (A + B)
(D) C (AB + D)
(E) ABC + BD
Ans:D

7. The difference between online and offline PLC programming is . . .

(A) whether the PLC is running or stopped
(B) whether the programming PC has internet connectivity
(C) where the edited program resides
(D) the type of programming cable used
(E) the type of programmer used
Ans:C

8. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that:

(A) Defaults to the “on” state
(B) Comes last in the program
(C) Defaults to the “off” state
(D) Is not reset after a power cycle
(E) Cannot be edited or deleted
Ans:D

9. What is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function can reach if it uses an
8 bit register?
(A) 128
(B) 255
(C) 256
(D) -127
(E) 127
Ans:B

10. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:

(A) Normally-open contacts in parallel
(B) Normally-closed contacts in series
(C) Normally-open contacts in series
(D) A single normally-closed contact
(E) Normally-closed contacts in parallel
Ans:A

11. A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be:
(A) A communications function block
(B) A math function block
(C) A motor start/stop rung
(D) A “watchdog” timer
(E) A PID function block
Ans:E

12. The acronym DCS stands for:

(A) DeltaV Console Services
(B) Direct Cascade Sequencing
(C) Differential Concentration Switch
(D) Distributive Control System
(E) Digital Control System
Ans:D

13. Many digital control systems utilize Ethernet as a communications network,

because . . .
(A) no terminating resistors are necessary
(B) it is robust and inexpensive
(C) speed is not affected by traffic
(D) it is a wireless network standard
(E) it is fully deterministic
Ans:B

14. Resolution refers to in the analog-to-digital conversion portion of a digital control

system.
(A) the number of active bits
(B) the analog signal range
(C) how determined the designer was
(D) the speed of analog signal sampling
(E) the probability of hardware failure
Ans:A

15. A checksum is used for the purpose of in digital systems.

(A) math calculations
(B) diagnostic monitoring
(C) error detection
(D) time-stamping data
(E) power monitoring
Ans:C

16. A typical use for an integer variable in a digital control system is:
(A) Representing single switch status
(B) Representing power supply voltage
(C) Trigonometric math operations
(D) Exponential math operations
(E) Counting discrete events
Ans:E

17. TIA/EIA-485 (formerly known as RS-485) is a digital communication standard with the
following traits:
(A) Differential voltage signaling, multipoint
(B) Single-ended voltage signaling, multidrop
(C) Frequency Shift Key (FSK) signaling, superimposed on analog 4-20 mA
(D) Manchester encoding, multidrop
(E) Mark-and-space signaling, point-to-point
Ans:A

18. FOUNDATION Fieldbus is unique in that:

(A) It has always been the leading fieldbus standard
(B) Data communication is entirely deterministic
(C) Control algorithms may reside in the field devices
(D) Power and data share the same wires
(E) Diagnostic data is communicated as well as process data
Ans:C

19. A watchdog timer is a device or a programmed routine used for what purpose in a
digital control system?
(A) To interrupt normal program flow and address an immediate need
(B) To check for errors in data communications
(C) To monitor the operation of the microprocessor
(D) To provide time delays for critical functions
(E) To signal the start of a new program cycle
Ans:C

20. Digital control systems are generally superior to analog control systems, but they are
always worse with regard to:
(A) Diagnostics
(B) User-friendliness
(C) Flexibility
(D) Speed
(E) Noise immunity
Ans:D

21. A triple modular redundant (TMR) digital control system would be typically used for
what purpose?
(A) To control a potentially dangerous process
(B) To save energy (compared to other control systems)
(C) To increase response speed for fast processes
(D) To save money (compared to other control systems)
(E) To minimize routine maintenance requirements
Ans:A

22. Which of the following given below is not true of thermocouples?

a. do not use a reference junction.
b. composed of dissimilar metals.
c. generate a small voltage.
d. can be calibrated.
Ans. A
23. Which of the following test equipment would be best suited for calibration to calibrate a
pressure transmitter, with a range of 0 psi to 600 psi, to .02% of reading accuracy?
a. High pressure mercury manometer.
b. Precision dead weight tester.
c. Precision dial gage.
d. Precision air piston.
Ans. B

24. What is the first thing to be done to solve the problem when a valve has failed on the
supply header of an existing steam tracing system. The tracing is tied into an existing
valve on the header that was intended for future use. After following proper start-up
procedures, it is discovered that the tracing fills with condensate?
a. Check to see if tracing is kinked.
b. Check for blockages in the thermodynamic trap on the return header
c. Check to see if the existing valve needs to be rodded for calcification.
d. Check with the engineer to see if tying into the new valve overloaded the system.
Ans. C

25. Which of the following given pumps is required to handle high viscosity fluid?
a. Radial piston pump.
b. Georotor
c. Any positive displacement pump
d. Lobe pump
Ans. A

26. Which of the following is the main function of a baffle plate in a hydraulic tank?
a. Prevents aeration
b. Prevents cavitation
c. Keeps dirty oil on one side of the reservoir
d. Prevents the return oil from directly re-entering the pump inlet
Ans. D

27. The Derivative control action is never used in processes where there is substantial of
which of the following?
a. Cycling
b. Gain
c. Noise
d. Variability
Ans. C

28. The________processes always require some degree of _________control action to

achieve setpoint?
a. Integrating, Derivative
b. Integrating, Feed forward
c. Self-regulating, Proportional
d. Self-regulating, Integral
Ans. D

29. A proportional band setting of 175% is equivalent to a gain setting of which of the
following?
a. 275
b. 0.576
c. 0.571
d. 1.42
Ans. C

30. What do you call a condition where integral control action drives the output of a
controller into saturation?
a. noise
b. repeat
c. wind-up
d. self-bias
Ans. C

31. Which of the following is correct when the sending-unit resistance is low?
a. bimetallic gauge reading is high.
b. magnetic gauge reading is low.
c. unit is short-circuited and should be replaced.
d. both a and b.

Ans. D - Low resistance - Bimetal gauge = high current flow & heat, magnetic gauge =
lowered flux in high coil field.

32. Each given answer can cause the temperature lamp to remain off when the ignition
switch is turned to the run position, with the engine not running, except for which of the
following?
a. blown fuse.
b. open prove-out (test) circuit.
c. defective sending unit.
d. defective lamp.
Ans. C - A defective sending unit has no effect on the prove-out test circuit.

33. If a pressure gauge reads 0 in a hydraulic system, what would be the main reason?
a. Broken relief valve
b. Closed center DCV
c. Wrong style of pump
d. Tandem center DCV
Ans. D

34. What is the difference between pistons in a multi-stage piston compressor from which
of the following?
a. Low pressure pistons are larger in diameter
b. Low pressure pistons have a longer stroke
c. Low pressure pistons are smaller in diameter
d. Low pressure pistons have a shorter stroke
Ans. A

35. What is the term used when liquid flows where falling static pressure causes the
formation of vapor bubbles that subsequently collapse back into the all-liquid state as
the fluid static pressure is recovered,?
a. Pressure Piling
b. Vortex Shedding
c. Saturation
d. Cavitation
Ans. D

36. Which of the following describes where Ratio control is?

a. process data is communicated in a digital format
b. fuel must be precisely rationed for economy
c. wild flow variable sets the gain of the controller
d. one variable is controlled in proportion to another
Ans. D

37. Which of the following must always be tuned with a slave controller in a cascade
control system?
a. manual mode
b. slower than the master
c. greater filtering than the master
d. before the master
Ans. D

38. Which of the following explains the difference between online and offline PLC
programming?
a. type of programming cable used
b. whether the programming PC has internet connectivity
c. where the edited program resides
d. whether the PLC is running or stopped
Ans. C

39. Thermistors are used in which of the following components?

a. temperature switches.
b. oil pressure sending units.
c. coolant temperature sensors.
d. fuel gauge sending units.
Ans. C - Thermistors are used in Coolant sensors as variable resistors.
40. All of the following answers given can cause all the gauges to be inoperative in a
bimetallic gauge system except for which of the following?
a. sending unit ground connection.
b. printed circuit wiring.
c. fuse.
d. IVR.
Ans. A - A single sending unit ground will only affect the one gauge.

41. What is the most probable fault on a nuclear density meter on an oil pipeline is showing
erratic output?
a. scintillation counter is defective.
b. source beam path is permanently obstructed.
c. shutter has been left practically closed.
d. source has decayed.
Ans. A

42. What should the tuning method be when tuning the catalyst feed flow controller while in
operation?
a. Modified Ziegler-Nichols tuning method
b. General purpose, closed-loop tuning method
c. Lambda tuning method
d. Open-loop, shortcut tuning method
Ans. B

43. Reynolds Number is used to describe flow in a pipe, which is represented by this
formula:
Re = ρ V dh / μ
This quantity is useful because it describes the ratio between which two quantities?
a. Ratio of electrical charge to fluid capacitance for the fluid.
b. Ratio of specific gravity to heat capacity of the fluid.
c. Ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces on the fluid.
d. Ratio of frictional forces to kinetic forces on the fluid.
Ans. C

44. When looking at the raw input value of a single channel on an analog input card in the
PLC, you notice that the raw input is expressed in “counts” and is an integer value that
varies between 0 and 8092. You learn from the PLC manual that 0 counts occur when
the input signal is 0 mA, and 8192 counts is obtained for an input signal of 20mA. If a
4–20mA pressure transmitter is connected to this analog input channel, and if the
pressure sensor has a range of 0–100psig, approximately how many counts should be
seen for a sensed pressure of 25psig?
a. 3468 counts
b. 3926 counts
c. 3277 counts
d. 5464 counts
Ans. C
45. The models of control that can be used to describe a batch process, which of the
following statements is true?
a. a unit, physical model, may support procedures, unit procedures, operations, and
phases from the procedural model.
b. process stage in the process model can be mapped to a unit procedure in the
procedural model, which in turn is mapped to a unit in the physical model.
c. ISA-88 describes four models: process, procedural, equipment, and physical.
d. Procedural control model elements are designed to correspond to elements of the
physical model.
Ans. B

46. Use the triangle to calculate the impedance (Z) of this series combination of resistance
(R) and inductive reactance (X)?

47. What is the purpose of checksum used for the in digital systems?
a. time-stamping data
b. diagnostic monitoring
c. error detection
d. math calculations
Ans. C

48. Which of the following is the purpose of CPR?

a. Maintain oxygenated blood circulation
b. Dislodge blood clots within the victim’s lungs
c. Build upper body strength
d. Stabilize body temperature to avoid hypothermia
Ans. A

49. Where must an intrinsic safety barrier panel be installed from which of the following?
a. hazardous area with no grounds.
b. safe area with no grounds.
c. hazardous area with the ground bus bars returned to plant ground.
d. safe area with an isolated ground.
Ans. D

50. Which of the following readings is correct on the analog voltmeter below?
a. 12.0 volts.
b. 0.22 volts.
c. 2.2 volts.
d. 22.0 volts.
Ans. C
2.2 volts with the selector knob set to the 4.0 volt range

51. How should the frequency of maintenance be determined from which of the following?
a. Failure rates of components.
b. Availability of personnel and parts.
c. Management targets for efficiency and productivity.
d. Effectiveness of maintenance personnel.
Ans. A

52. What type of system would be used for a specification for a new facility indicating the
new system must be capable of analyzing the multiple sources of data required to run
the entire facility, as well as have the capability to provide collaboration between the
visualization, alarm management, scheduling, reporting, and analysis functions?
a. MES system utilizing a B2MML interface
b. stand-alone HMI system
c. process automation controller (PAC) with field bus I/O
d. integrated building automation system
Ans. D

53. Which piece of rigging equipment is most suited for this job when a 40ft, 14 in schedule
80 pipe has to be moved 60ft horizontally in a pipe rack?
a. pinch bars
b. chain fall
c. tirfor
d. block and tackle
Ans. C

54. What is the minimum rating required when making up a test header with a system that
is rated for a 1500psi?
a. 2250psi
b. 1500psi
c. 2000psi
d. 2500psi
Ans. A

55. The concept of Multiple Independent Protection Layers (In the ISA-84 standard) refers
to which of the following listed below?

a. Independent layers of project management decision-making, which helps ensure project

execution is performed to meet schedule and budget constraints.
b. Multiple layers in a control system architecture, which provide redundant data pathways
from sensors and plant-floor level devices to servers, historians, and business networks, in
order to ensure reliable data capture.
c. Independent software modules where each successive layer monitors each layer below
to ensure the integrity of the sensor signals processed and the transfer of data to the next-
higher software module.
d. Independent layers of protection for which each layer helps to reduce the overall level of
risk of the process. The inner layers help to prevent a hazardous event (explosion, fire,
etc.) from ever occurring, & the outer layers are designed to help lessen the consequences
of an event once it has occurred.
Ans. D

56. Which of the following given do you call a flow metering device comprised of a body,
flow straightener, hub, bearing, rotor, and pickup?
a. Vortex shedding flow meter
b. Magnetic flow meter
c. Parshall flume
d. Turbine flow meter
Ans. A

57. A new set of 4–20mA gage pressure transmitters has been wired to an analog input
card on an existing PLC system, and the technician must inspect the raw input values
in the PLC logic. The analog card has the following characteristics:

• Unsigned, 14-bit analog data format

• Eight (8) channels, 0–20mA inputs
• Single-ended inputs
• No channel diagnostics
• Data stored internally in integer “counts,” from 0 up to the maximum 14-bit value

After reviewing this, the technician determines the correct equation to program into the
PLC to determine the current process values from the new transmitters is (where
Engineering Units Value at 20 mA = EU100% and Engineering Units Value at 4 mA = 0
psig)?
a. Analog Value in Eng Units=[(Raw Counts-3277) × EU100%] ÷ 13106
b. Analog Value in Eng Units=[(Raw Counts-819) × EU100%] ÷ 6048
c. Analog Value in Eng Units=[(Raw Counts+1637) ÷ EU100%] × 16384
d. Analog Value in Eng Units=[EU100%-(Raw Counts-3277)] ÷ 4096
Ans. A

58. Which of the following describes the purpose of a lock-out/tag-out procedure?

a. Eliminate expenses related to maintenance
b. Reduce time spent doing the job
c. Prevent unauthorized personnel from entering an area
d. Secure all energy sources in a system
Ans. D

59. What would a reading of 'OL' would indicate when performing a continuity check using
a Fluke digital ohmmeter?
a. an open.
b. a short.
c. proper continuity.
d. an internal ground.
Ans. A
OL means over limit (open circuit).

60. Wiring harness connectors are which of the following?

a. should never be opened up.
b. make good test points.
c. are used to control current flow.
d. cannot be located in the power source diagrams.
Ans. B
Test wires on the wire side of the connector.

61. In the analog-to-digital conversion portion of a digital control system, what does
Resolution refer to?
a. number of active bits
b. how determined was the designer
c. analog signal range
d. speed of analog signal sampling
Ans. A

62. Some computers send a Pulse Width Modulation signal to control the cooling fan.
Which of the following signals is correct?
a. D.C. signal that is varying the percent of 'ON' time.
b. varying an analog signal high and then low.
c. constant 12 volt .
d. both a and c.
Ans. A
Increasing or decreasing the ON time, the speed of the fan is controlled.
63. Calculate the amount of voltage between points C and D, as well as the current through
R1 in this series-parallel circuit. Assume all resistors are 1 k in resistance?

Answer: 2
VCD = 6 V
IR1 = 9 Ma

64. Please convert a controller gain value of 0.93 into a proportional band value expressed
in units of percent?
Convert a controller proportional band value of 175% into a gain value expressed as a
unitless ratio?
Answer: 107.5% 0.5714

65. A confined space is deemed ready for employee entry from which of the following?
a. independent inspection agency has completed their survey
b. company safety inspector has certified it
c. supervisor assigns you to the job
d. unit operations foreman declares it ready
Ans. B

66. Which of the following symptoms is a common signs of a heart attack?

a. A feeling of numbness in the legs
b. Loss of bowel control
c. Sharp pain in the lower area of the spine
d. Discomfort in the chest and/or upper body
Ans. D

67. Which of the following ratios is equivalent to the ratio 25:300 from the answers given
below?
a. 14:4
b. 1:12
c. 2:10
d. 15:5
Ans. B

68. The three terminals on a transistor are which of the following?

a. Drain, case and emitter.
b. Emitter, ground and collector.
c. Base, emitter and collector.
d. Base, ground and collector.
Ans. C
69. When applying solder to a splice connection, what is the correct procedure?
a. solder is applied at the instant that the heat is applied.
b. solder is applied directly to the soldering tip.
c. solder is applied to the splice after it has been heated for a few seconds.
d. both a and b.
Ans. C
Heat the splice and then melt solder into the splice.

70. What is the proper procedure to repair a broken fitting on a hydronic heating system
using CPVC pipe?
a. Isolate, drain remove joint solvent weld to new spool and fitting and install
b. Drain, isolate remove joint apply primer solvent weld to new spool and fitting and install
c. Isolate, drain remove joint apply primer to new spool and fitting and install
d. Isolate, drain remove joint apply primer solvent weld to new spool and fitting and install
Ans. D

71. Which type of gasket is most frequently used in a high-pressure hydraulic system
assembled with socket weld flanges?
a. spiral flange
b. crush ring
c. “O” ring
d. Split ring
Ans. C

72. How many neutrons does the nucleus of one Lead atom contain if an atom of Lead
(Pb) has an atomic number of 82, and an atomic mass of 207?
a. 262
b. 86
c. 125
d. 150
Ans. C

73. Allen-Bradley model “SLC 500” PLC connected to a three switches and two AC loads
From the printed program below, what is the status of the lamp and of the solenoid coil
provided a process pressure of 130 PSI, a process temperature of 186deg F, and an un-
pressed pushbutton switch?

Answer: Both the lamp and the solenoid coil will be energized.

74. The advantage of a two-stage regulator is it? a. maintains a more constant pressure
b. can be used for cutting as well as welding
c. has a second stage to reduce tank pressure to working pressure
d. has the first stage preset at one-half the tank pressure.
Ans. A

75. What does the flow meter use to determine the flow of gas?
a. weight of gas
b. volume of gas
c. cylinder pressure
d. gas pressure
Ans. B

76. Voltages and currents in an RC or LR time-constant circuit will settle to within 1% of

their final value in how many time constants from which of the following answers given
below?
a. 7
b. 6
c. 12
d. 5
Ans. D

77. Resonance is defined as a condition in an AC circuit from which of the following?

a. voltage and current waveforms are exactly 90o out of phase
b. opposition to electric current varies with frequency
c. complementary reactances are equal and opposite
d. no more magnetic flux may be forced into an iron core
Ans. C

78. The most commonly used solder for soldering a component or leads is which of the
following?
a. 50/50 acid-core wire solder.
b. 60/40 resin-core wire solder.
c. 40/40 solid wire solder.
d. 20/80 bar solder.
Ans. B
60/40 rosin core solder is used for all electrical repairs. 60 percent tin and 40 percent lead.

79. When splicing a broken wire back together and a water proof connection is preferred
you can use which of the following to repair?
a. splice clip wrapped in electrical tape
b. crimp and seal butt splice sleeve
c. insulated butt splice
d. none insulated butt splice wrapped in silicon tape
Ans. B
Crimp and seal splice seals, after being crimped is heated with a heat gun, insulation
shrinks against the wire, and epoxy melts and glues itself to the wire insulation forming a
water proof connection.

80. What weight must each sling be able to bear if the slings must be placed at a 30
degree angle in order to perform a 2500 lb lift?
a. 5000lbs
b. 2500lbs
c. 4500lbs
d. 2000lbs
Ans. B

81. Which of the following does WHMIS stand for?

a. Workplace Health and materials information system
b. Workplace Health and materials information system
c. Workplace Hazardous Materials information system
d. Workplace Hazards and infectious material information system
Ans. C

82. When designing a fluid power system, what is the highest consideration?
a. Ease of maintenance
b. Compatibility with existing parts
c. The load requirements
d. Location of equipment
Ans. C

83. Which of the following describes the power factor in an AC circuit where current lags
voltage by 35o?
a. 0.756
b. 0.819
c. 0.672
d. 0.720
Ans. B

84. Which of the following describes the frequency of this waveform shown on an
oscilloscope screen?

Vertical sensitivity = 2 volts/div

1:1 probe DC coupling
Time base = 0.5 ms/div
a. 400 Hz
b. 275 Hz
c. 0.6 Hz
d. 12 kHz
Ans. A

85. Is this statement true or false? The symbols below represent a data link and a process
connection.?

Answer: True

86. The third letter on an ISA symbol indicates which of the following?
a. Device function or a modifier
b. Readout
c. Measured variable
d. Type of process fluid
Ans. A

87. Is this statement true or false? A controller with three or more set positions is called a
continuous controller?
Answer: False
70. Which of the following do you use to size filters?
a. Viscosity
b. Microns
c. Parts per million
d. Mesh
Ans. B

88. A type of hydraulic valve that is normally open is which of the following?
a. Pressure reducing valve
b. Unloading valve
c. Sequencing valve
d. All of them are normally open
Ans. A

89. Which of the following answers given below is the principal function of a positive
displacement pump?
a. handle high viscosity fluid
b. create positive pressure in a cylinder
c. create enough pressure to bypass a cylinder cushion
d. create a partial vacuum on the inlet
Ans. D

90. What is used to reduce line pressure in a pneumatic system?

a. regulator
b. MPRV
c. unloading valve
d. reducing bushing
Ans. A

91. If you have water in a receiver, what may be the possible cause?
a. Faulty after cooler on the compressor
b. Faulty fan
c. Improper fan speed
d. Improper lubricator on the outlet line
Ans. A

92. What will need to be done on a level control system using a capacitance probe as the
sensor, if the process liquid medium changes?
a. should be no effect on the control loop performance.
b. transmitter will need to be recalibrated.
c. Adaptive control action will need to be added to the controller.
d. probe’s grounding system will need to be relocated.
Ans. B

93. The Hall Effect device is a component typically used to do what from which of the
following?
a. measure magnetic field strength
b. detect vibration in machinery
c. measure an electrical resistance
d. suppress transient voltages
Ans. A

94. Which of the following identifies the terminals of this transistor?

a. 1 = Gate ; 2 = Emitter ; 3 = Drain

b. 1 = Emitter ; 2 = Base ; 3 = Collector
c. 1 = Source ; 2 = Gate ; 3 = Drain
d. 1 = Drain ; 2 = Gate ; 3 = Source
Ans. B

95. As compared to a small-volume pressure control loop, how does a high-volume

pressure control loop react?
a. Extremely fast
b. Quicker
c. Slower
d. Same rate
Ans. C

96. To increase the speed of a temperature control loop, what type of control strategy is
often used?
a. Cascade control
b. Feedback control
c. Feed-forward control
d. Ratio control
Ans. C

97. Before they can impact the process variable, what type of control loop anticipates and
controls load disturbances?
a. Single variable loop
b. Feed-forward control loop
c. Ratio control loop
d. Feedback control loop
Ans. B

98. Before replacing the damaged wiring when a correctly designed control panel is fed by
one 120VAC circuit, what is the minimum course of action to take?
a. Remove the 24VDC power feed wiring to the temperature control loop before replacing
the damaged wire.
b. Check the level transmitter front LCD. If it indicates that no power is present, replace the
wiring.
c. With the proper personnel protective equipment, pull the fuse on the level control loop
circuit and test for “dead circuit” with a multi-meter to insure no voltage is present on the
loop before replacing the wires.
d. Just go ahead and replace the wire. The largest voltage that could be present is 24VDC,
which cannot hurt the technician.

Ans. C - A set of 24VDC redundant power supplies feeds the transmitter and controller for
a temperature control loop. The loop is protected by a single removable fuse. It is
necessary to replace a damaged wire inside the control panel that is part of the
temperature control loop.

99. What is the pH measurement if the transmitter’s output is equal to 17.3 mA, when a pH
transmitter has a calibrated range of 5 to 9 pH, with a 4-20 mA output.?
a. 6.173 pH
b. 5.788 pH
c. 8.325 pH
d. 7.580 pH
Ans. C

100. Where would the proper place be to record the calibrated range of an instrument?
a. On safety lock-out tag
b. In text section of a loop diagram sheet
c. Next to cable symbols for that instrument on a wiring diagram
d. On packing slip that came with the instrument
Ans. B

101. Which of the following is a smart transmitter that is one that?

a. Also plays MP3 music files
b. Calibrates itself
c. Communicates using Foundation Fieldbus
d. Has a microprocessor built inside
Ans. D

102. Which of the following describes a control system in which controlled flow is added
proportionately to an uncontrolled flow?
a. Fuzzy control
b. Cascade control
c. Ratio control
d. Selective control
Ans. C
103. Which of the following types of control systems will the more important of two
variables be maintained?
a. Ratio control
b. Cascade control
c. Fuzzy control
d. Selective control
Ans. D

104. Which of the following is another word for pressure?

a. pH
b. Density
c. Head
d. Force
Ans. C

105. The drawing below shows a portion of water piping from an overhead view. The
pipe itself is completely level with the ground, so that all points along the pipe centerline
are at the same height:

The inlet pressure gauge shows 50 PSI, and the velocity of the water entering through the
4 inch pipe is known to be 14 feet per second. Both pressure gauges are fixed at the
centerline of the pipe, and are thus at the exact same height. Calculate the pressure
registered at the outlet gauge, on the 16 inch pipe section, in units of PSI, assuming
inviscid (frictionless) flow throughout, and a mass density for water of _ = 1.951 slugs/ft3.
Bernoulli’s equation:
Answer: Pout = 51.32 PSI

106. A magnetic flow meter will not properly measure the flow rate from which of the
following?
a. Caustic
b. Milk
c. Dirty water
d. Oil
Ans. D
107. Flow-straightening vanes are used upstream of orifice plate flow elements from
which of the following?
a. flow profile is laminar
b. process fluid is a gas
c. Accuracy is not a concern
d. Insufficient straight-pipe length exists
Ans. D

108. Identify which of the following flow meters inherently measures mass flow rate from
which of the following answers given?
a. Vortex
b. Flow nozzle
c. Thermal
d. Magnetic
Ans. C

109. Is this statement true or false? Derivative gain is typically set to zero in flow
applications since flow applications are usually noisy and derivative control will react to
readings that are in fact noise, thus preventing the process from holding set point.
True
False
Answer: True

110. Which of the following control systems anticipates load disturbances and controls
them before they can impact the process variable?
a. Cascade control
b. Fuzzy control
c. Feed forward control
d. Selective control
Ans. C

111. Please convert a controller gain value of 1.55 into a proportional band value
expressed in units of percent?
Convert a controller proportional band value of 110% into a gain value expressed as a
unitless ratio?
Answer: 64.52% 0.9091

112. What does an unloading valve do from which of the following?

a. Replaces the MPRV when it is taken out for servicing
b. Allows one operation to occur before another
c. Returns fluid back to tank after system pressure is reached
d. Maintains system pressure
Ans. C
113. What is used to maintain a constant pressure in a fluid system from which of the
following?
a. Directional control valve
b. Flow control valve
c. Maximum pressure relief valve
d. Regulator
Ans. D

114. When set to 1500 psi, and a cylinder bore of 3.00”, what is the maximum load in
pounds that can be moved?
a. 11,600 lbs
b. 10,600 lbs
c. 14,075 lbs
d. 1800 lbs
Ans. B

115. A pressure instrument utilizes a strain gauge to sense pressure applied to a

diaphragm. Assuming a strain gauge resistance of precisely 23.71 at a certain applied
pressure, calculate the magnitude of the voltage between points A and B at that
pressure, and also determine the polarity of that voltage?

Answer. 5 points for voltage, 5 points for polarity:

V = 12.194 mV, with A negative and B positive

116. What is the purpose of an intrinsic safety barrier from which of the following?
a. Provide a physical obstruction between the hazardous and non-hazardous areas.
b. Increase the resistance in the circuit to reduce the risk of explosion.
c. Prevent excess voltage and current from reaching the hazardous area.
d. Establish a central grounding point in the hazardous area.
Ans. C

117. What is the recommended turn down ratio from the high pressure side to the low
pressure side of a pressure reducing valve?
a. 10-1
b. 1-5
c. 5-1
d. 20-1
Ans. A
118. Before breaking open the pipe joints for repair, what should be done with the
isolation valves on a high pressure steam system?
a. Remove the valve handles so the valves can't be operated.
b. Open the valves fully to equalize the pressure with the system.
c. Check that the valves are closed, tagged and locked out.
d. Determine the pressure in the mains ahead of the isolation valves.
Ans. C

119. What will the voltage developed by the electrodes do when temperature increases,
all other factors remaining the same, according to the Nernst equation?
a. Fluctuate
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
d. Increase
Ans. D

120. Which of the following is the best trim characteristic to choose for the valve would
be when a control valve is installed in a process with nearly constant differential
pressure (drop) across the valve?
a. Hyperbolic
b. Quick-opening
c. Equal percentage
d. Linear
Ans. D

121. Where does the controller get its input from the in a feed forward control system?
a. Inferred variable
b. Load variable
c. Manipulated variable
d. Controlled variable
Ans. B

122. Lead and lag compensation, sometimes called “dynamic compensation,” is

commonly used to?
a. equalize load and manipulated variable lags in a feed forward system
b. overcome dead time by duplicating the process lags on the set point signal
c. filter noise from the process variable signal in a feed forward system
d. improve stability by changing controller gain over time
Ans. A

123. Is this statement true or false? A pump motor is the most commonly used final
control element.
True
False
Answer: False
124. Match the component label in Column A to its ISA symbol representation in Column
B.
Column A Column B

1. Flow Transmitter

2. Temperature transmitter

3. Flow controller

4. Valve

Answers:
B
C
D
A

125. Identify the major disadvantage of proportional action from which of the following?
a. Tends to leave an offset
b. Possible overshoot during startup
c. Reset Windup during shutdown
d. Can cause cycling in fast process by amplifying noisy signals
Ans. A

126. Which of the following are derivative or rate actions expressed in terms in?
a. Seconds
b. Hours
c. Repeats per minute
d. Minutes
Ans. D

127. What does it mean when the plug valves listed in the specifications give you a
specific model or equivalent and on the drawings only show the specific model?
a. There is a conflict between the specifications and the prints.
b. To use the equivalent model plug valve only.
c. To use the specific model plug valve or an equivalent model.
d. To use the specific model plug valve only.
Ans. C
128. What device is installed on the downstream side of a high pressure steam safety
valve that vents to the roof?
a. Double block and bleed.
b. Safety valve de-accumulator.
c. Drip pan elbow.
d. Exhaust head.
Ans. C

129. Which of the following is the acronym DCS stand for?

a. Differential Concentration Switch
b. Direct Cascade Sequencing
c. DeltaV Console Services
d. Distributive Control System
Ans. D

130. Many digital control systems utilize Ethernet as a communications network,

because?
a. wireless network standard
b. robust and inexpensive
c. speed is not affected by traffic
d. no terminating resistors are necessary
Ans. B

131. What do electrical gauges depend on from which of the following below?
a. battery voltage
b. an alternating voltage
c. regulated voltage.
d. none of the above.
Ans. C - Regulated because of variation in charging system voltage.

132. What should you check for if a warning lamp will operate when the ground circuit is
bypassed with a jumper wire to ground?
a. open ground circuit.
b. blown fuse.
c. defective buzzer .
d. open circuit in the 12 volt supply wire to the buzzer.
Ans. A - By running a jumper to ground you bypass the ground side.

133. In the diagram below the process trend is showing the PV, SP, and Output of a loop
controller.
Based on the drawing, determine the following:
a) Is this an open-loop or a closed-loop response?
b) Is the controller a direct-acting or reverse-acting?
Answer:
a) This is a closed-loop test
b) This is a reverse-acting controller

134. The symbol on the drawing below represents which of the following?

a. Screwed butterfly valve.

b. Flanged swing check valve.
c. Flanged butterfly valve.
d. Screwed angle check valve.
Ans. C

135. What information from the mechanical prints would you need on a P & I D drawing
you have located the vessel where you are to install a spool in order to place it in the
correct location?
a. Grid co-ordinates and elevations found on the P & ID drawing.
b. Grid co-ordinates and elevations from the mechanical plans.
c. Grid co-ordinates from the mechanical plans and elevations from the detail drawings.
d. Grid co-ordinates and elevations from the detail drawings.
Ans. C

136. If a non positive centrifugal pump delivers lower than required flow, what is the most
likely cause?
a. Wrong style of pump
b. Inlet restricted
c. Wrong fluid viscosity
d. Running too quickly
Ans. B
137. This type of valve controls a system GPM from which of the following?
a. Directional control valve
b. Regulator
c. Flow control valve
d. Sequencing valve
Ans. C

138. What is used to control a constant pressure in a pneumatic system?

a. flow control valve
b. regulator
c. MPRV
d. Compressor rating
Ans. B

139. What is the probable fault if a 50% input has been applied and the output pressures
to the cylinder ends are not matched on a positioner installed on a non-spring assisted
piston actuator?
a. Positioner misalignment.
b. Cam is installed backwards.
c. Excessive supply pressure.
d. Incorrect valve bench set.
Ans. A

140. Computer outputs control which of the following correct devices?

a. relays, lamps, motors, and pulse generators.
b. motors, variable resistors, solenoids.
c. motors, lamps, relay, and solenoids.
d. sensors, motors, and relays.
Ans. C

141. Process & Instrumentation Diagrams (P&ID) are often used as a reference to
identify what type of instrumentation is installed and how this instrumentation is
installed in the process. The drawing below, from a typical P&ID, which of following
statements is true?

Process Line
a. Temperature sensor TE-102 is a bulb-type sensor, and pressure sensor PI-101 is
electrically-connected to an electromagnetic isolator.
b. TE-102 is shown as a surface-mounted temperature sensor, and pressure sensor PI-
101 is “directly-connected” to the process.
c. PI-101 and TE-102 are wired directly to a DCS controller.
d. Temperature sensor TE-102 is inserted into a thermowell, and pressure indicator PI-
101 uses a filled capillary system and diaphragm seal to isolate it from the process fluid.
Ans. B

142. What immediate medical attention should a victim of electric shock require?
a. Ice applied to the burned areas
b. Bandages over the point of electrical contact
c. Antibiotics to prevent infection
d. CPR
Ans. D

143. Shock is defined as an abnormal condition of the body described from which of the
following?
a. insufficient blood delivered to the body’s cells
b. lungs are unable to process oxygen properly
c. heart stops beating normally, and quivers instead
d. broken bone has penetrated the skin
Ans. A

144. Shrink tubing is used for which of the following?

a. cover an insulated butt splice
b. protect a soldered splice joint.
c. repair a fusible link.
d. when the insulation has worn away but the wire is still serviceable.
Ans. B
Shrink tubing is excellent insulation protection of soldered repairs. Be sure to slide the
piece of shrink tubing on one wire before the ends are soldered together. Slip the shrink
tubing over the repair and heat.

145. Calculate the differential pressure developed by an open venturi tube measuring air
speed at 50 MPH, at sea level (_air = 0.00235 slugs/ft3), where the throat diameter is
one-half that of the entrance diameter:

Also, how much pressure will the venturi tube develop at twice the air speed (100 MPH)?
Answer:

146. Field-effect transistors operate with which of the following?

a. high input current. b. small input voltage and current. c. small input voltage but
practically no input current. d. same principle as magnetic field devices.
Ans. C
A small voltage applied to the gate will stop current flow.

147. Which of the following is correct when a bipolar transistor circuit is operated so that?
a. small change in base current controls a large change in collector current. b. small
change in collector current controls a large change in emitter current. c. small change in
collector current controls a large change in base current. d. small change in emitter current
controls a large change in collector current.
Ans. A

148. What is the cut-in pressure on a low-pressure steam boiler has a set operating
pressure 5 psig below the maximum allowed by the ASME code. The differential of the
pressure troll is 4 psig?
a. 14 psig
b. 4 psig
c. 6 psig
d. 18 psig
Ans. C

149. During a 24-hour air test, what could cause fluctuations on the test gauge reading?
a. Test air absorbed by moisture in the system.
b. Change in elevation.
c. Change in volume of the system.
d. Change in ambient air temperature.
Ans. D

150. What test pressure is required on a low pressure cast iron sectional boiler that has a
safety valve set at 15psi?
a. 50psi
b. 30psi
c. 15psi
d. 25psi
Ans. B

151. Which of the following is the correct equation to describe this graph?
Ans. B

152. Which of the following is correct when using the Ideal Gas Law to calculate the
volume of an ideal gas sample containing 1 mole of gas at 20 degrees C and at a
pressure of 2 atmospheres?
a. 2.627 liters
b. 12.03 liters
c. 13.41 liters
d. 0.856 liters
Ans. B

153. The purpose of a lock-out/tag-out procedure is to:

(A) Reduce time spent doing the job
(B) Eliminate expenses related to maintenance
(C) Prevent unauthorized personnel from entering an area
(D) Secure all energy sources in a system
(E) Reduce the risk of accidental fire
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
154. A victim of electric shock may likely require what sort of immediate medical
attention?
(A) Bandages over the point of electrical contact
(B) Ice applied to the burned areas
(C) Antibiotics to prevent infection
(D) CPR
(E) An EEG test to record nervous system function
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
155. The very first thing you should do if you are the first to witness or discover an
accident
on the job site is to:
(A) Provide first-aid to the victim(s)
(B) Seek the assistance of the nearest co-worker
(C) Alert professional emergency responders
(D) Report the incident to your supervisor
(E) Go find at least one co-worker to help you so you can work as a team
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
156. The purpose of a cartridge-style respirator is to:
(A) Provide a pure oxygen breathing environment where there is insufficient oxygen
in the air
(B) Enhance your personal appearance for maximum social appeal
(C) Convert exhaled carbon dioxide back into oxygen for re-breathing
(D) Reduce the concentration of particulates in the air you breathe
(E) Reduce noxious odors in the air you breathe
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
157. Shock is defined as an abnormal condition of the body where:
(A) There is insufficient blood delivered to the body’s cells
(B) The heart stops beating normally, and “quivers” instead
(C) The lungs are unable to process oxygen properly
(D) A broken bone has penetrated the skin
(E) The muscles in the body have “frozen” and will not move
Ans:A
________________________________________________________________________
158. A confined space is deemed ready for employee entry when:
(A) The unit operations foreman declares it ready
(B) A company safety inspector has certified it
(C) Your supervisor assigns you to the job
(D) An independent inspection agency has completed their survey
(E) An engineer has completed the necessary calculations
Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________
159. One of the common signs of a heart attack is:
(A) A sharp pain in the lower area of the spine
(B) Loss of bowel control
(C) A feeling of numbness in the legs
(D) Discomfort in the chest and/or upper body
(E) A general feeling of restlessness and anxiety
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
160. Arc blast is caused by:
(A) Poor contact within electrical wire splices
(B) Radio frequency emissions from high-power transmitters
(C) Discharge of high electrical current through open air
(D) Failure to lock-out and tag-out electrical breakers
(E) Ionization of gases near high-voltage electrical conductors
Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
161. Current measurements are more dangerous to make with a multimeter than voltage
measurements because:
(A) You must use both hands to take the measurement
(B) Most multimeters are unfused
(C) The resulting magnetic fields may be very strong
(D) The circuit must be broken (opened)
(E) A fuse protects the voltage measurement ranges, but not current
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
162. Identify what type of diagram this is:

(A) Wiring diagram

(B) Isometric drawing
(C) P&ID
(D) Loop diagram
(E) SAMA diagram
Ans:E
________________________________________________________________________
163. Identify what type of diagram this is:
(A) Wiring diagram
(B) Isometric drawing
(C) P&ID
(D) Loop diagram
(E) SAMA diagram
Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
164. According to this diagram, the controller is ____________, and it is located
_____________:

(A) Electronic, on the front of the main control panel

(B) Pneumatic, in the field (process) area
(C) Pneumatic, on the front of the main control panel
(D) Pneumatic, on the front of a secondary control panel
(E) Electronic, behind the main control panel
Ans:D
________________________________________________________________________
165. Identify the following instrumentation (P&ID and loop diagram) line types, from left
to
right:

(A) electric, pneumatic, digital network, filled system

(B) pneumatic, electric, hydraulic, mechanical link
(C) electric (on/off), electric (analog), pneumatic, digital network
(D) pneumatic, mechanical link, hydraulic, capillary
(E) pneumatic, electric, capillary, hydraulic
Ans:E

________________________________________________________________________
166. If the pneumatic tube in this diagram were to suddenly break in two pieces, what
would be the effect on the process variable?

(A) It would remain the same

(B) It would decrease
(C) It would become noisier
(D) It would become less noisy
(E) It would increase
Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________
167. If the gas flow through FT-42 is 1200 SCFM, how much electric current is going
through cable 23 and through cable 27?

(A) ICBL23 = 14.2 mA , ICBL27 = 14.2 mA

(B) ICBL23 = 14.2 mA , ICBL27 = 16.8 mA
(C) ICBL23 = 16.8 mA , ICBL27 = 16.8 mA
(D) ICBL23 = 16.8 mA , ICBL27 = 14.2 mA
(E) ICBL23 = 16.8 mA , ICBL27 = 18.3 mA
Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________
168. If the thermocouple fails open, what will happen?

(A) Valve TV-205 will close shut, making the process warm up
(B) Valve TV-205 will close shut, making the process cool down
(C) Valve TV-205 will hold position, stabilizing the process
(D) Valve TV-205 will open wide, making the process cool down
(E) Valve TV-205 will open wide, making the process warm up
Ans:B
________________________________________________________________________
169. What kind of device provides the setpoint for the analytical indicating controller in
this
diagram?

(A) A mathematical relay

(B) Another panel-mounted controller
(C) A computer
(D) A programmable logic controller (PLC)
(E) A pneumatic hand station
Ans:C
________________________________________________________________________
170. How do you connect an ammeter to check an electrical circuit?
a. in parallel with load
b. across the voltage supply
c. in series parallel with load
d. in series with load
Ans. D

171. When applying solder to a splice connection, what is the proper procedure you
should do?
a. The solder is applied to the splice after it has been heated for a few seconds.
b. The solder is applied at the instant that the heat is applied.
c. The solder is applied directly to the soldering tip.
d. None of the above
Ans. A

172. What is a class “C” fire?

a. electrical equipment, motors, switches
b. gasoline
c. ordinary combustions like wood, paper, etc.
Ans. A

173. What is a class “A” fire?

a. electrical equipment, motors, switches
b. gasoline
c. ordinary combustions like wood, paper, etc.
Ans. C
174. When using a wrench, the safest and most efficient way to use it is by?
a. pushing away from you
b. pulling towards you
c. put a pipe on end and push
d. can be used as a hammer
Ans. B

175. This symbol is found on a pair of safety boots means?

a. The boots have rubber soles.

b. The boots are made of natural leather.
c. The boots are electrically insulating.
d. The boots have protective plates.
Ans. C

176. A product you are planning to use is marked with this symbol?

What personal protective equipment would you expect to wear?

a. Fire resistant clothing.
b. Supplied air respirator and full face mask.
c. Dust mask and leather work gloves.
d. Chemically resistant gloves, apron and a face shield.
Ans. D

177. What is the definition of a Class B fire?

a. Fires that involve energized electrical equipment, such as wiring, controls, motors or
appliances.
b. Fires that involve combustible metals such as magnesium and sodium.
c. Fires involving common combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber and trash.
d. Fires involving flammable liquids, gases, gasoline and synthetic or oil-based products.
Ans. D

178. As metal cools after being flame cut, it will?

a. contract
b. expand
c. become softer
d. cannot weld the material
Ans. A

179. The valves on a oxygen cylinder should be opened?

a. 3 turns
b. Fully opened
c. ½ turn
d. 1 ½ turn
Ans. B

180. How much does 135 cubic feet of water weigh?

a. 7975lbs
b. 8437.5lbs
c. 8258.26lbs
d. 8015.5lbs
Ans. B

181. What is a function of oxygen and acetylene regulators?

a. they mix gases for combustion
b. they control the working pressure
c. they keep gases separate
d. they increase cylinder pressure
Ans. B

182. Scaffolding erected this much feet above the ground must have guard rails?
a. 3ft
b. 5ft
c. 7ft
d. 10ft
Ans. D

183. What safe work procedures should be followed when working with PVC solvent
cements and primers inside an enclosed building?
a. Keep containers tightly closed when not in use, open only when brush is to be used to
dispense primer or solvent cement and ventilate area.
b. Wear approved gloves, keep containers tightly closed when not in use, open only when
brush is to be used to dispense primer or solvent cement and ventilate area.
c. Wear leather palmed gloves and only cut a small hole in the lid of the containers large
enough for the brush required to dispense materials.
d. Wear cotton gloves, cut a small hole in the lid of the containers large enough for the
brush required to dispense materials and ventilate area as needed.
Ans. B

184. Which of the following is the decimal equivalent of 5/8”?

a. .875
b. .625
c. .375
d. .437
Ans. B

185. A key element of a comprehensive safety and health program is one of the
following?
a. Hazard prevention and control.
b. Pre-employment physicals.
c. Record keeping.
d. Drug and alcohol testing.
Ans. A

186. What is the knot below called?

a. granny
b. slip know
c. clove
d. pipe
Ans. A

187. Find the Celsius degrees if the Fahrenheit reading is minus 40 using the formula,
Celsius = (Fahrenheit degrees - 32) ÷ 1.8?
a. 40
b. -40
c. 44.4
d. 42.8
Ans. B

188. What is the minimum distance a portable ladder is to extend above a work platform?
a. 36”
b. 28”
c. 12”
d. 24”
Ans. A

189. If 5 liters of paint cover 20 square meters, how many liters are required to cover 400
square meters?
a. 45 liters
b. 50 liters
c. 75 liters
d. 100 liters
Ans. D

190. A piece of sheet metal is 28½ inches wide. A piece 13 5/16 inches is cut off. How
wide will the remaining piece of sheet metal be?
a. 14 1/4 inches.
b. 15 3/16 inches.
c. 15 13/16 inches.
d. 16 1/4 inches.
Ans. B

191. A journeyperson earns $23.45 per hour. A new apprentice earns 60% of the
journeyperson rate and has 27% deductions. What would the apprentice's net weekly
earnings be for a 40 hour week?
a. $275.90
b. $369.89
c. $410.84
d. $582.80
Ans. C

192. When a gas is heated it will?

a. expand
b. contract
c. condenses
d. solidifies
Ans. A

193. Water at sea level heated to 100° Celsius would be?

a. expanding.
b. just beginning to change to a solid.
c. starting to boil.
d. contracting.
Ans. C

194. The reason ice floats on water is because it?

a. is a solid.
b. contains more air.
c. has less heat energy than water.
d. is less dense than water.
Ans. D

195. Assuming equal volumes, the expansion of solids is usually?

a. greater than liquids.
b. the same as liquids.
c. greater than gases
d. less than liquids.
Ans. D

196. A parallel circuit is one in which?

a. Two batteries are included in the circuit.
b. current can flow through only one path.
c. current can flow through more than one path.
d. light bulbs must not be used.
Ans. C

197. The chemical combination of two or more elements is known as a/an?

a. isotope.
b. ion.
c. compound.
d. catalyst.
Ans. C

198. If a gas in a closed space is compressed, it will?

a. decrease in temperature.
b. increase in temperature.
c. solidify.
d. move more slowly.
Ans. B

199. What type of fire extinguisher should be used on electrical fires?

a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class D
Ans. C

200. What are the three methods of transferring heat?

a. Convection, radiant and thermodynamic.
b. Radiant, thermodynamic and conduction.
c. Thermodynamic, conduction and convection.
d. Conduction, convection and radiant.
Ans. D

201. Identify the hand signal in the drawing below?

a. Swing load
b. Travel forward
c. Extend boom
d. Dog everything
Ans. C

202. An increase in pressure will cause the boiling point of water to?
a. decrease
b. increase
c. expand
d. no affect
Ans. B
203. When would WHMIS require the use of a workplace label?
a. When the instructions for use are missing.
b. When a controlled product is shipped from the manufacturer.
c. When a controlled product is transferred from its’ original container.
d. When the MSDS is missing from a controlled product.
Ans. C

204. What must be done to correct the fit in the drawing below?

a. Grinding required at “1” and “3”.

b. Grinding required at “3”.
c. Grinding required at “1”.
d. Grinding required at “2”.
Ans. D

205. When using a fire extinguisher to extinguish a fire, it should be?

a. pointed at the top of the flames
b. held within 6 inches of the flame
c. pointed at the base of the fire
d. moved up and down to cool the flame
Ans. C

206. Federal regulation requires that hazardous information about a product be provided
to all users of that product. What is the form used to provide this information?
a. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
b. Hazardous Information Sheet (HIS)
c. Occupational Safety and Hazard Form (OSHF)
d. Safety Information Form (SIF)
Ans. A
207. Plumbers calculate water pressure in pounds per square inch (psi). What is the
water pressure for a 28-foot vertical pipe full of water?
Use this formula:
Water pressure (psi) = h × 0.433
ANS=28 × 0.433 = 12.12 psi

208. Which is the correct formula for the area of a circle?

a. .7854 x D squared
b. πd2
c. 3.1416 x D
d. .7854 x r2
Ans. A

209. Using the formula, Celsius = (Fahrenheit degrees - 32) ÷ 1.8, find the Celsius
degrees if the Fahrenheit reading is minus 40?
a. 4.44
b. 40
c. -40
d. 44.4
Ans. C

210. Which of the following is not an essential element necessary to produce an ordinary
fire?
a. Oxygen
b. Heat
c. Hydrogen
d. Fuel
Ans. C

211. What is the purpose of a class A ground fault circuit interrupter?

a. for short circuit and ground fault only
b. overload short circuit and ground fault
c. overload reverse current and ground fault
d. overload and short circuit only
Ans. A

212. When would WHMIS require the use of a workplace label?

a. When the instructions for use are missing.
b. When a controlled product is shipped from the manufacturer.
c. When a controlled product is transferred from its’ original container.
d. When the MSDS is missing from a controlled product.
Ans. C
213. Lockout devices are used to do which of the following?
a. supply air pressure to an air feeder
b. establish the size of container to hold the finished parts
c. keep affected personnel from being injured by machinery that may be activated by
mistake
Ans. C

214. “Source of Energy” is which of the following characteristics?

a. pneumatic
b. hydraulic
c. electrical
d. all of the above
Ans. D

215. The acronym PLC stands for:

(A) Pressure Load Control
(B) Pneumatic Logic Capstan
(C) PID Loop Controller
(D) Pressure Loss Chamber
(E) Programmable Logic Controller
Ans:E

216. Use the diagram below to determine the correct order to tighten?

a. A,B,C,D,E
b. E,D,C,B,A
c. B,D,E,C,A
d. D,C,A,E,B
Ans. C

217. Which diagram shows what happens when heat is applied to a bi-metal strip
consisting of stainless steel on the top and brass on the bottom? (Brass has the higher
expansion rate.)
a. Strip A
b. Strip B
c. Strip C
d. Strip D
Ans. C
I&C Technician
Exam Practice 4

1. If we alter this level measurement system to have a wet leg instead of a dry leg , what
single aspect of the transmitter’s calibration will we need to change?

(A) We will need to change the transmitter’s URV

(B) We will need to change the transmitter’s span
(C) We will need to change the transmitter’s zero
(D) We will need to change the transmitter’s LRV
(E) We will need to change the transmitter’s linearity
Ans: C

2. The purpose of performing an “As Found” calibration on a pressure transmitter is to:

(A) Eliminate hysteresis and deadband from the instrument
(B) Spend more time calibrating the instrument
(C) Establish a baseline for comparison, to detect calibration drift
(D) “Exercise” the instrument to keep it in better condition over time
(E) Diagnose control problems in the loop
Ans: C

3. When is calibrating an adjustable, mechanical pressure switch using an air pressure

regulator and a precision pressure gauge. Assuming this pressure switch will be used as a
high pressure alarm (tripping when the pressure exceeds 50 PSI), you should do the
following:
(A) Set the pressure at 50 PSI and move the switch adjustment up until it actuates
(B) Set the pressure at 50 PSI and move the switch adjustment down until it actuates
(C) Adjust the switch so it actuates when the pressure decreases to 51 PSI
(D) Adjust the switch so it actuates when the pressure increases to 49 PSI
(E) Purchase a pressure switch factory-set at 50 PSI
Ans: B
4. A pressure transmitter has a calibrated measurement range of 200 to 300 PSIG, and
an output range of 4-20 mA. What is the expected output if the input pressure is 235
PSIG?
(A) 9.6 mA
(B) 1.6 mA
(C) 16.5 mA
(D) 5.6 mA
(E) 12.5 mA
Ans: A

5. Which of the following is not a type of pressure sensing element?

(A) Orifice plate
(B) Bourdon tube
(C) Manometer
(D) Diaphragm
(E) Bellows
Ans: A

6. If the pressure applied to the “high” side of a DP transmitter decreases while the
pressure applied to the “low” side remains steady, the transmitter output should:
(A) Remain unchanged
(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
(D) Fluctuate back and forth
(E) Saturate
Ans: B

7. Identify the proper sequence of valve actions for a three-valve manifold and bleed
when taking a differential pressure transmitter out of service:
(A) Open bleed, close one block valve, open equalizing valve, close other block valve
(B) Open equalizing valve, close both block valves (simultaneously), open bleed
(C) Open equalizing valve, open bleed, close both block valves (simultaneously)
(D) Close one block valve, open bleed, close other block valve, open equalizing valve
(E) Close one block valve, open equalizing valve, close other block valve, open bleed
Ans: E

8. Identify the condition that could cause pressure gauge A to register a greater pressure
than pressure gauge B in this liquid process:
(A) A high rate of flow from left to right (top to bottom through the vessel)
(B) An extremely dense liquid
(C) Liquid boiling inside the vessel
(D) A high rate of flow from right to left (bottom to top through the vessel)
(E) Pressure gauge B calibrated for absolute pressure units instead of gauge units
Ans: A

9. How much differential pressure does this manometer indicate?

(A) 0.272 ”W.C.

(B) 745 torr
(C) 3.929 ”W.C.
(D) 4.00 ”W.C.
(E) 8.00 ”W.C.
Ans: E

10. Suppose the following pneumatic DP transmitter was to be re-calibrated from a range
of 0 to 250 inches water column to a range of What would have to be done to it to
recalibrate it for a new range of 100 to 350 inches water column?:
(A) Turn the screw (located near the bellows)
(B) Bend the flapper (next to the nozzle)
(C) Turn the range wheel nut (located in the middle of the range bar)
(D) Re-size the orifice (located between air supply and nozzle)
(E) Replace the diaphragm capsule with one of a different size
Ans: A

11. Suppose a storage vessel holds a liquid of unpredictable density. Identify which level
measurement technology will not maintain accurate measurement of liquid height in the
vessel as the liquid density changes:
(A) Sightglass
(B) Guided-wave radar
(C) Float and tape
(D) Differential pressure transmitter
(E) Ultrasonic
Ans: D

12. The main advantage of a “dip tube” or “bubbler” system for level measurement is that:
(A) It can measure both solid and liquid levels
(B) It compensates for changes in liquid density
(C) It isolates the pressure transmitter from the process fluid
(D) It always elevates and never suppresses the calibration range
(E) It is less expensive to operate than a direct-connected transmitter
Ans: E
13. A displacer-type level transmitter has a cylindrical displacer 30 inches long and 2.5
inches in diameter. When fully submerged in a petroleum fuel (SG = 0.82), how much
buoyant force will the displacer generate?
(A) 5.320 pounds
(B) 6.488 pounds
(C) 2.792 pounds
(D) 17.45 pounds
(E) 4.363 pounds
Ans: E

14. Calculate the LRV and URV for this DP-based liquid level measurement system:

(A) LRV = 444 ”H2 O ; URV = 0 ”H2 O

(B) LRV = 0 ”H2 O ; URV = 360 ”H2 O
(C) LRV = 0 ”H2 O ; URV = 444 ”H2 O
(D) LRV = 84 ”H2 O ; URV = 444 ”H2 O
(E) LRV = 7 ”H2 O ; URV = 37 ”H2 O
Ans: D

15. A d/p cell used to measure liquid level has a “suppressed zero.” This means:
(A) The transmitter is located above the 0% liquid level mark
(B) The transmitter uses filter circuits to suppress noise to a zero level
(C) The liquid is less dense than water
(D) The transmitter is located below the 0% liquid level mark
(E) The elevation of the vessel is below sea level
Ans: D

16. Which of the following level-measurement technologies cannot be adapted to

measure solid (powder) level in a vessel?
(A) Float and tape
(B) Ultrasonic
(C) Load cell
(D) Displacer
(E) Radar
Ans: D

17. A guided-wave radar transmitter is able to measure liquid interface levels based on
differences of ____________ between the two liquids.
(A) Ionization potential
(B) Density
(C) Speed of light
(D) Temperature
(E) Dielectric constant
Ans: E

18. The following liquid level switch will only function with liquids that are ____________.

(A) Absolutely pure (i.e. not a solution)

(B) In a state of laminar flow
(C) Optically transparent
(D) Electrically conductive
(E) Denser than water
Ans: D

19. Calculate the hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of a vessel holding 12 vertical feet of
liquid with a density of 50 lb/ft3 .
(A) 18.867 PSI
(B) 14.98 PSI
(C) 5.202 PSI
(D) 4.167 PSI
(E) 6.495 PSI
Ans: D
20. Identify the thermocouple type with the highest temperature limit from those listed
here:
(A) Type S
(B) Type T
(C) Type E
(D) Type J
(E) Type K
Ans: A

21. The negative lead of a thermocouple in North America is always colored:

(A) Yellow
(B) Red
(C) White
(D) Black
(E) Blue
Ans: B

22. The most linear temperature sensing element listed here is a/an:
(A) RTD
(B) Thermistor
(C) Bellows
(D) Diode
(E) Thermocouple
Ans: A

23. When the reference junction is the same temperature as the measurement junction in
a thermocouple circuit, the output voltage (measured by the sensing instrument) is:
(A) Noisy
(B) Unreliable
(C) Reverse polarity
(D) AC instead of DC
(E) Zero
Ans: E

24. Reference junction compensation is necessary in thermocouple-based temperature

instruments because:
(A) Thermocouples are inherently nonlinear
(B) The reference junction generates a temperature-dependent voltage
(C) The junction’s electrical resistance varies with temperature
(D) Electrical noise may interfere with the measurement otherwise
(E) Copper extension wire has a tendency to corrode
Ans: B

25. Thermocouple extension wire may be readily distinguished from regular

thermocouple-grade wire by:
(A) Different metal types
(B) Special markings on the wire’s insulation
(C) Thickness
(D) Flexibility (stranded instead of solid)
(E) Outer sheath color
Ans: E

26. A type K thermocouple is made of the following metals:

(A) Chromel and Alumel
(B) Copper and Constantan
(C) Aluminum and Tungsten
(D) Platinum and Platinum/Rhodium alloy
(E) Iron and Constantan
Ans: A

27. Which of the following flow-measuring elements is inherently linear and requires no
signal characterization (e.g. sqaure-root extraction) anywhere in the loop?
(A) Target
(B) Venturi
(C) Turbine
(D) Orifice plate
(E) Pitot tube
Ans: C

28. As an incompressible fluid moves through a restriction,

(A) Velocity decreases and pressure remains the same
(B) Velocity decreases and pressure increases
(C) Velocity increases and pressure increases
(D) Velocity increases and pressure remains the same
(E) Velocity increases and pressure decreases
Ans: E

29. For accurate operation, orifice plate flowmeters require:

(A) Swirls and eddies in the flow stream
(B) Transitional flow
(C) Plug flow
(D) Laminar flow
(E) Fully-developed turbulent flow
Ans: E

30. A magnetic flowmeter will not properly measure the flow rate of:
(A) Dirty water
(B) Milk
(C) Caustic
(D) Oil
(E) Acid
Ans: D

31. Based on the relative positions of transmitter and orifice plate, this flow-measuring
installation is suitable for:

(A) Water or oil flow

(B) Gas flow
(C) Steam flow
(D) Laminar flow
(E) Slurry flow
Ans: B

32. Flow-straightening vanes are used upstream of orifice plate flow elements when:
(A) Accuracy is not a concern
(B) The process fluid is a gas
(C) The flow profile is laminar
(D) Insufficient straight-pipe length exists
(E) The process fluid is a liquid
Ans: D

33. A DP transmitter calibrated for a range of 0 to 100 ”H2 O measures liquid flow through
an orifice plate from 0 to 1200 GPH. Calculate the new calibration range for the transmitter
if we desire to decrease the flow measurement range to 0 to 700 GPH, using the same
orifice plate.
(A) 0 to 34.03 ”H2O
(B) 0 to 76.38 ”H2O
(C) 0 to 171.4 ”H2O
(D) 0 to 293.9 ”H2O
(E) 0 to 58.33 ”H2O
Ans: A

34. Identify which of the following flowmeters inherently measures mass flow rate:
(A) Magnetic
(B) Flow nozzle
(C) Thermal
(D) Vortex
(E) Venturi tube
Ans: C
35. The pH of a liquid solution is a measure of:
(A) Dissolved salt content
(B) Hydroxyl ion molarity
(C) Hydrogen ion activity
(D) Electrical conductivity
(E) Sodium ion molarity
Ans: C

36. Flue gas oxygen measurement (“O2 trim”) is important in combustion control systems
for the purpose of:
(A) Reducing sulphur emissions
(B) Safer shut-downs
(C) Faster start-ups
(D) Reducing NOX emissions
(E) Minimizing burner noise
Ans: D

37. A chromatograph separates and distinguishes different molecule types in a fluid

stream by:
(A) Emitted light spectra
(B) Atomic mass (weighing)
(C) Electric charge
(D) Adsorption time-delay
(E) Reverse osmosis
Ans: D

38. An electrodeless , or toroidal , conductivity probe enjoys the following advantage over
electrode-type conductivity probes:
(A) Smaller size
(B) Lower cost
(C) Immunity to temperature changes
(D) Resists fouling
(E) Greater sensitivity
Ans: D

39. ORP measurement is often used in processes where:

(A) The addition of an oxidant must be controlled
(B) The octane value of a liquid fuel is important
(C) Conductivity of the liquid is negligible
(D) Pigments are added to a solution to control color
(E) Precise temperature control is critical
Ans: A
40. A pH transmitter has a calibrated range of 5 to 9 pH, with a 4-20 mA output. What is
The pH measurement if the transmitter’s output is equal to 17.3 mA?
(A) 4.156 pH
(B) 6.599 pH
(C) 8.325 pH
(D) 8.460 pH
(E) 7.481 pH

Ans: C

41. An analog signal is the meaning of which of the following?

a. either a 1 or a 0.
b. either on or off.
c. varying voltage.
d. any of the above.
Ans. C

42. Computers rely on ____________ for their input signals:

a. solenoids.
b. sensors.
c. actuators.
d. all of the above.
Ans. B
Sensors translate a physical condition into an electrical signal input.

43. What does it mean when a d/p cell used to measure liquid level has a suppressed
zero?
a. transmitter uses filter circuits to suppress noise to a zero level
b. transmitter is located above the 0% liquid level mark
c. liquid is less dense than water
d. transmitter is located below the 0% liquid level mark
Ans. D

44. What must be determined prior to selecting a hydronic circulator from which of the
following?
a. Height of building and flow rate.
b. System resistance and flow rate.
c. System resistance and pipe size.
d. Height of building and pipe size.
Ans. B

45. Which of the following is the minimum wall thickness of pipe required when cut
grooving steel pipe for a hydraulic system?
a. Schedule 120.
b. Schedule 80.
c. Schedule 20.
d. Schedule 40.
Ans. B

46. Which of the following answers given below does fluid power actuators convert fluid?
a. Motion
b. Pressure
c. Work speed
d. Extreme pressure
Ans. A

47. What must the bore of the cylinder be if you add a 10% safety factor with a pressure of
950 psi and a load of 7.5 tons?
a. 5”
b. 8”
c. 4”
d. 2”
Ans. A

48. A buffer solution is used with pH probes for the purpose of which of the following?
a. Cleaning
b. Electrode inspection
c. Calibration
d. Purging embedded sodium ions
Ans. C

49. A flue gas oxygen measurement (O2 trim) is important in combustion control systems
for the purpose of which of the following?
a. Faster start-ups
b. Safer shut-downs
c. Reducing sulphur emissions
d. Reducing NOX emissions
Ans. D

50. Which of the following are the three “elements” in a three-element boiler feed water
control system?
a. Steam flow, drum level, and feed water flow
b. Turbidity, feed water flow, and temperature
c. Feed water flow, water conductivity, and steam flow
d. Drum temperature, firing rate, and feed water flow
Ans. A

51. Which of the following means the purpose of feed forward control?
a. reduce the effect of process variable noise on stability
b. save energy
c. reduce the effect of load variation on the process variable
d. eliminate the need for feedback control in a process
Ans. C

52. Which of the following is a retentive function in a PLC programming?

a. Defaults to the “off” state
b. Comes last in the program
c. Defaults to the “on” state
d. Is not reset after a power cycle
Ans. D

53. In response to measured deviation from set-point, what type of control loop takes
action?
a. Multi-step control loop
b. Discrete control loop
c. Open loop
d. Feedback control loop
Ans. D

54. Where noise is present, but where no offset can be tolerated, what type of control is
used in an application?
a. PID
b. PD
c. PI
d. P only
Ans. C

55. Assume a loop power supply voltage of exactly 24.00 volts, and negligible wire
resistance. Calculate the voltage between terminals 15 and 16 of TB27 when the
measured flow rate is 106 GPM?
a. 28.60 volts
b. 23.48 volts
c. 21.30 volts
d. 24.50 volts
Ans. C

56. Reducing variability in a process application is which of the following advantages?

a. Helps ensure a consistently high-quality end product.
b. Helps ensure increase in efficiency of the process.
c. Helps ensure an increase in the reaction rate of the process.
d. Helps ensure safety
Ans. A

57. Which of the following is a deviation from set point due to load disturbance?
a. Rate of change
b. Offset
c. Error
Ans. C

58. An electronic pressure transmitter has a calibrated range of 0 to 200 inches of mercury,
and its output signal range is 4 to 20 mA. Complete the following table of values for this
transmitter, assuming perfect calibration (zero error)?

Answer:

59. What is the correct type of ring type joint RTJ gasket to be installed on a hydraulic line?
a. Spiral wound.
b. Type D.
c. Crush Ring.
d. Type A.
Ans. B

60. If using an 8 bit register, what is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function
can reach?
a. 328
b. 255
c. 257
d. -227
Ans. B

61. Which of the following is a typical use for an integer variable in a digital control system?
a. Trigonometric math operations
b. Representing power supply voltage
c. Representing single switch status
d. Counting discrete events
Ans. D

62. Is this statement true or false? The standard analog signal 4–20 mA is the most
common and used in the process control industry today?
True
False
Answer: True

63. A customer would use which of the following to read the temperature of a process fluid
on a display?
a. indicator
b. actuator
d. volt-meter
Ans. A

64. What is the minimum size of the steam header on a low-pressure steam boiler that has
four 2" steam nozzles?
a. 4in
b. 2in
c. 5in
d. 3in
Ans. A

65. While watching the pressure gauge as the pump is running, which procedure is used to
get the best pumping rate from a two pipe convertible deep well jet system?
a. Throttle the pump discharge control valve.
b. Adjust the range nut with the pump running.
c. Adjust the differential nut with the pump running.
d. Open the pump discharge control valve fully.
Ans. A

66. Which of the following is the basic function to convert a reading from a transducer into
a standard signal and transmit that signal to a controller or computer monitor?
a. converter
b. transmitter
c. recorder
Ans. B

67. Digital control systems are generally superior to analog control systems, but they are
negative with regards to?
a. Flexibility
b. User-friendliness
c. Diagnostics
d. Speed
Ans. D

68. A triple modular redundant (TMR) digital control system would be typically used for
what purpose?
a. control a potentially dangerous process
b. save money (compared to other control systems)
c. increase response speed for fast processes
d. save energy (compared to other control systems)
Ans. A

69. Which of the following symbols is a pneumatic valve?

Ans. D

70. Which of the following is the correct answer when the voltage drops across R2?
a. 2v
b. 4v
c. 6v
d. 3v
Ans. D

71. Which of the following is the current through R3?

a. 220 ma
b. 30 ma
c. 50 ma
d. 1.5ma
Ans. C

72. A range boiler is 16 in. in diameter and 4 ft high. How many gallons will it hold?
This problem involves finding the volume of a cylinder. The volume of a cylinder is given
by:
V = r2 h
One Imperial gallon is 277.42 cubic inches, convert all the units to inches before finding
the volume. 4 ft is 4 12 = 48 inches so the height is 48 inches and the radius is 16/2 = 8
inches so volume of the boiler is
V = r2 h = 82 48 = 9650.97 cubic inches.
Since there are 277.42 cubic inches in an Imperial gallon the boiler will hold
Answer: 9650.97/277.42 = 34.79 gallons.

73. Which of the following does PPE stands for?

a. Prepared protective equipment
b. Personal proactive equipment
c. Personal protective equipment
d. Pre-arranged protective equipment
Ans. C

74. Which statement below is true about the Lifecycle Economic Model when the Economic
Profile is defined as Lifecycle Benefits less Lifecycle Costs?
a. Lifecycle Costs for the project should include all costs to the operation, whether or not
they were incurred as a result of the installation of the project.
b. All Lifecycle Costs should be considered over the entire expected life of the project, with
all costs calculated on a Net Present Value basis.
c. Non-operational costs, such as engineering and construction costs, should not be
considered as part of the Lifecycle Costs calculation, since they are one-time charges.
d. Lifecycle Benefits can be realized from project years 1 through 5 only in order to comply
with tax regulatory guidelines, regardless of the useful life of the project.
Ans. B

75. What will the feet/sec. fluid velocity become when fluid is flowing through a 10-inch
diameter pipe at a velocity of 6 feet/sec, and the pipe reduces to an 8-inch diameter,
and all other flowing parameters remain the same?
a. 4.920
b. 7.166
c. 9.375
d. 12.34
Ans. C
Flow through a round pipe can be expressed as:
Q = Velocity (ft/sec) x Area of Pipe (ft2)
Since flow is constant between the two pipe sizes, we can set:
Velocity1 x Area1 = Velocity2 x Area2, where the subscript = 1 for the initial conditions (10-
inch pipe) and subscript = 2 for the final conditions (8-inch pipe).
Solving for Velocity2:
Velocity2 = Velocity1 x Area1 / Area2
For the 10-inch pipe, Area (in ft2) = pi x D2 / 4 = 0.5454 ft2. Don’t forget to divide 10 inches
by 12 to get Diameter in feet before “squaring.”
For the 8-inch pipe, Area (in ft2) = pi x D2 / 4 = 0.3490 ft2
Substituting these values in the equation for Velocity2 above:
Velocity2 = Velocity1 x Area1 / Area2
Velocity2 = 6.0 ft/sec x 0.5454 / 0.3490= 9.375 ft/sec

76. Which of the following will increasing spring tension?

a. cause the valve to open more quickly.
b. change the stroke of the valve by decreasing it.
c. increase the length of valve travel.
d. cause the valve to start opening at an increased diaphragm pressure.
Ans. D

77. Identify the meanings of the following instruments in this P&ID?

Answer:
78. On some external flushes, the flushing liquid is circulated and requires an inlet and
outlet connection.
An inlet and outlet connection is required when the flushing liquid is what?
Answer: Circulated

79. Which piece of test equipment is best for the job if the accuracy must be at least 0.001
of a volt, to troubleshoot a circuit whose input is between 0 to 50 micro-volts and output
is between 0 to 10 volts?
a. Simpson 260 analog meter.
b. DMM with 3 1/2 digit display.
c. DMM with 20, 000 Ω/volt.
d. DVM with 2 1/2 digit display.
Ans. B

80. Which of the following describes an electronic tachometer?

a. receives voltage pulses from the injectors.
b. measures actual vehicle speed.
c. gear driven by the transmission.
d. receives voltage pulses from an ignition signal.
Ans. D - An ignition signal from the negative side of the ignition coil.

81. To detect that a lamp has burned out, a lamp-out warning system senses which of the
following?
a. heat produced by the lamp.
b. light output of the lamp.
c. current flow to the lamp.
d. voltage drop across a resistor.
Ans. D - A loss of a bulb changes circuit resistance and affects the voltage drop of the test
circuit.
82. A control circuit within Field Control Panel #1 is malfunctioning, and you must issue a
work order to have a technician inspect the circuit. FCP-1 contains a PLC, terminal
blocks, circuit breakers and fuses, and various other control equipments, which none
exceeds 120vac. The technician will be working on energized electrical conductors and
circuit parts and performing voltage testing on the live circuits. On the work order, you
will be required to state under which NFPA 70E-2009 Standard for Electrical Safety in
the Workplace Hazard/Risk Category this work activity falls.
Per NFPA 70E-2009 Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace, what Hazard/Risk
Category should be defined for the above task?
a. Hazard/Risk Category 0
b. Hazard/Risk Category 1
c. Hazard/Risk Category 2*
d. Hazard/Risk Category 4
Ans. B

83. ASCII is a digital code used for which of the following?

a. Representing alphanumeric characters
b. Organizing data stored on a hard disk
c. Detecting and correcting data errors
d. Code breaking
Ans. A

84. Which of the following describes a final control element?

a. pneumatic instrument
b. pipe or vessel
c. indicator
d. valve
Ans. D

85. In an instrument requiring calibration, which of the following adjustments is usually

adjusted first?
a. Hysteresis
b. Span
c. Deadband
d. Zero
Ans. D

86. In the drawing below, what will the large piston do?
a. move up.
b. not moving at all.
c. move down.
d. None of the above.
Ans. A

87. Which of the following devices activates the motor in an instrument air compressor?
a. Level switch.
b. Vacuum switch.
c. Pressure switch.
d. Temperature switch.
Ans. C

88. When an installation requires 225’ of 24” high pressure carbon steel steam line at 75º F
with an intended operating temperature of 325º F, how much cold spring is required per
leg of an expansion loop?
a. 1⅛”
b. 4 ¼
c. 2 ½
d. 1 3/8 in
Ans. A

89. Calculate the fluid pressure working against the piston if a force of 3400 pounds is
applied to a circular piston 2 inches in diameter?
a. 549.5 PSI
b. 1082.3 PSI
c. 750 PSI
d. 1600 PSI
Ans. B

90. When taking a differential pressure transmitter out of service, identify the proper
sequence of valve actions for a three-valve manifold and bleed?
a. Open equalizing valve, close both block valves (simultaneously), open bleed
b. Open bleed, close one block valve, open equalizing valve, close other block valve
c. Open equalizing valve, open bleed, close both block valves (simultaneously)
d. Close one block valve, open equalizing valve, close other block valve, open bleed
Ans. D

91. How much buoyant force will the displacer generate if a displacer-type level transmitter
has a cylindrical displacer 30 inches long and 2.5 inches in diameter. When fully
submerged in a petroleum fuel (Gf = 0.82)?
a. 4.820 pounds
b. 5.468 pounds
c. 3.722 pounds
d. 4.363 pounds
Ans. D

92. The warning lamp of a charging-system is activated by which of the following?

a. difference in voltage.
b. pressure switch.
c. variable resistance sending unit.
d. temperature switch.
Ans. A - The regulator grounds the lamp circuit.

93. The sending unit in the fuel gauge utilizes which of the following?
a. diaphragm.
b. zener diode.
c. float.
d. fixed resistor.
Ans. C - A float is used to move a variable resistor.

94. Which of the following is the maximum pressure relief valve located at?
a. Close to the pump
b. Doesn’t matter, as long as it is in the system
c. Anywhere on the return line
d. Mounted on the tank
Ans. A

95. Which of the following is adaptive gain used for in controlling processes?
a. Integrating
b. Dead time
c. Nonlinear
d. Time-variant
Ans. C

96. Which of the following does the scan time refer to the amount of time in a PLC?
a. technician enters the program
b. timers and counters are indexed by
c. one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
d. entire program takes to execute
Ans. D
97. Current measurements are more dangerous to make with a multi-meter than voltage
measurements due to which of the following?
a. resulting magnetic fields may be very strong
b. Most multi-meters are un-fused
c. must use both hands to take the measurement
d. circuit must be broken (opened)
Ans. D

98. What type of error is indicated while calibrating a variable speed drive, 10% input
equals 15% speed, 50% input equals 55% speed and 90% input equals 95% speed?
a. Zero.
b. Alignment.
c. Angularity.
d. Span.
Ans. A

99. The voltmeter in the circuit below should read which of the following given?

a. 6.0 volts.
b. 14.4 volts.
c. source voltage.
d. 12.0 volts.
Ans. C
With an open switch, source voltage runs all the way to the open.

100. Which of the following is a continuing error due to the inability of a control system to
keep the measured variable at set point?
a. Pressure
b. Offset
c. Load disturbance
Ans. B

101. Where would you set the range selector at when measuring an unknown voltage or
current?
a. lowest point, and work upward to the proper range.
b. any point, and work downward and upward until the proper range is determined.
c. highest point, and work downward until the proper range is determined.
d. point midway between the lowest and the highest range.
Ans. C

102. The arrow in the transistor indicates which of the following given below?

a. which side the electrical load is placed in the circuit.

b. NPN type of transistor.
c. direction of positive current flow as it flows to ground.
d. collector circuit.
Ans. C

103. When is it safe to remove the old packing from a valve that is under pressure?
a. When the valve is completely closed.
b. When the valve is back seated.
c. When the valve is completely open.
d. Never
Ans. D

104. In solid state circuits, which of the following must be used?

a. analog meter.
b. digital meter.
c. low impedance meter.
d. analog meter with an electromagnetic coil.
Ans. B
High impedance meters are required on solid state circuits. All digital meters are high
impedance meters.

105. What is the most likely cause if a fuse blows again after it has been replaced?
a. Open circuit in component.
b. The ground point has become disconnected.
c. Current or amps through circuit too high.
d. Resistance in the circuit is too high.
Ans. C
A drop in circuit resistance will cause current flow to increase.

106. Which of the following listed is a level-measurement technologies that cannot be

adapted to measure solid (powder) level in a vessel?
a. Load cell
b. Ultrasonic
c. Float and tape
d. Displacer
Ans. D
107. A guided-wave radar transmitter is able to measure liquid interface levels based on
differences of which of the following between the two liquids?
a. Speed of light
b. Density
c. Ionization potential
d. Dielectric constant
Ans. D

108. Thermocouple extension wire may be readily distinguished from regular

thermocouple-grade wire by which of the following?
a. Thickness
b. Special markings on the wire’s insulation
c. Different metal types
d. Outer sheath color
Ans. D

109. Which of the following is the designation or short form for RAM?
a. Reverse bias amp motor.
b. read only memory.
c. random access memory.
d. random only memory.
Ans. C
Random Access Memory, the ECU writes to and reads from.

110. A flag flapping in the breeze illustrates what type of dynamic fluid effect is from
which of the following?
a. Vortex shedding
b. Transitional flow
c. Laminar flow
d. Coriolis effect
Ans. A

111. For accurate operation, orifice plate flow meters require which of the following?
a. Transitional flow
b. Swirls and eddies in the flow stream
c. Plug flow
d. Fully-developed turbulent flow
Ans. D

112. Where should Process variable filtering be used?

a. only on integrating processes
b. improve response time
c. only on self-regulating processes
d. dampen noise
Ans. D
113. Which of the following characterizes Cascade control?
a. two controllers whose outputs are selected either by high or low value
b. presence of a “dead time” relay or function block
c. special relay or function block to compensate for nonlinear process gain
d. one controller providing a set point for another controller
Ans. D

114. The input signal to an electronic transmitter may be from which of the following?
a. voltage signal
b. mechanical signal
c. controller
d. primary signal
Ans. B

115. Where should you look up the meaning of a symbol on a on the P&ID?
a. Master sheet
b. Safety manual
c. Procedures manual
d. Maintenance procedures
Ans. A

116. Which of the following given below is the correct method to use a tagline?
a. assists the main line in lifting
b. prevent swinging of the load
c. prevent the whip line from coming unraveled
d. secure the snatch block
Ans. B

117. Which of the following is the reciprocal of proportional band?

a. Minutes per repeat
b. Percent
c. Reset
d. Gain
Ans. D

118. Which of the following describes Quarter-wave damping?

a. condition of good control where oscillations quickly subside
b. condition of poor control where oscillations continue at constant amplitude
c. condition of good control where PV approaches SP without overshoot
d. condition of poor control where the transmitter is damped by 25%
Ans. A

119. What is the resolution when a warning lamp does not light, but it does light when the
wire from the lamp going to the sending unit is grounded?
a. sending unit is defective.
b. warning lamp is defective.
c. fuse is blown.
d. open circuit in the lamp wiring.
Ans. A - Disconnect the wire at the sending unit, and ground the wire.

120. Is this statement true or false? The symbol below represents a PLC in a primary
location.?

Answer: True

121. Fiber optic devices conductors will do which of the following?

a. powered by a 12v battery.
b. produce light.
c. transmit light.
d. draw a small amount of electric current.
Ans. C - Light is transmitted through holes in the tubes that conduct light.

122. Which of the following does the Nernst equation relate to?
a. Partial vapor pressure to fluid density
b. Relative ion concentration to voltage
c. Conductivity to fluid flow rate
d. O2 concentration to latent heat
Ans. B

123. An electrodeless, or toroidal, conductivity probe has the following advantage over
electrode-type conductivity probes?
a. Immunity to temperature changes
b. Lower cost
c. Smaller size
d. Resists fouling
Ans. D

124. Which of the following areas is not likely to be a concern when designing a Building
Automation System?
a. Energy management
b. Access control
c. Substation capacity
d. Lighting control
Ans. C

125. This is the electrical symbol for which of the following?

a. Digital clock.
b. Diode.
c. Transistor.
d. Resistor.
Ans. B

126. A type K thermocouple is made from which of the following metals?

a. Chromel and Alumel
b. Platinum and Platinum/Rhodium alloy
c. Aluminum and Tungsten
d. Copper and Constantan
Ans. A

127. An incompressible fluid moves through a restriction from which of the following?
a. Velocity increases and pressure increases
b. Velocity decreases and pressure increases
c. Velocity decreases and pressure remains the same
d. Velocity increases and pressure decreases
Ans. D

128. In an electronic circuit schematic, VEE represents which of the following?

a. negative power supply rail of a bipolar transistor circuit
b. positive power supply rail of a field-effect transistor circuit
c. negative power supply rail of a field-effect transistor circuit
d. positive power supply rail of a bipolar transistor circuit
Ans. A

USE THE DRAWING BELOW FOR QUESTIONS 130 AND 131.

129. Which of the following is the correct answer when the voltage drops across R2?
a. 2v
b. 4v
c. 6v
d. 3v
Ans. D
130. Which of the following is the current through R3?
a. 220 ma
b. 30 ma
c. 50 ma
d. 1.5ma
Ans. C

131. An air-to-close control valve assembly may be formed with which of these
actuator/valve body combinations?
a. Direct-acting actuator, reverse-acting valve body
b. Direct-acting actuator, direct-acting valve body
c. Reverse-acting actuator, reverse-acting valve body
d. B or C
Ans. D

132. How should eccentric reducers be installed in lines used for condensable vapors
from which of the following?
a. With centre lines of the inlet and outlet at the same elevation.
b. Flat on bottom for horizontal lines.
c. Flat on top for horizontal lines.
d. Flat on bottom in vertical lines.
Ans. B

133. What does this indicate when the wire is disconnected from the fuel gauge sending
unit which is a bimetallic gauge. A voltmeter connected to the wire reads a pulsating
5v?
a. properly operating IVR (instrument voltage regulator).
b. defective IVR (instrument voltage regulator).
c. sending unit is operating properly.
d. defective fuel gauge.
Ans. A - IVR regulates voltage to a 5 volt signal

134. Reset control action is often expressed in units of which of the following?
a. repeats per minute
b. seconds per rate
c. percent
d. minutes
Ans. A

135. A purely integrating processes typically respond well to aggressive control action?
a. Derivative
b. Nonlinear
c. Linear
d. Proportional
Ans. D
136. How long is the sling on a double-wrap choker hitch that must be used on a 24”
pipe. The measurement from the top of the pipe to center of the hook is 7.44’?
a. 20ft
b. 18ft
c. 22ft
d. 15ft
Ans. A

137. What should be done first before connecting an ohmmeter to a circuit?

a. Install new batteries.
b. Set the range selector to the highest range.
c. Check the circuit with a voltmeter to make sure the circuit is not powered.
d. Operate the circuit.
Ans. C
Voltage will damage the ohmmeter. Verify the circuit is electrically dead.

138. What of the following is the approximate force produced on the blind when
hydrostatic testing is to be performed on a blinded 24” 300 lb. flange. The test pressure
is 1080 psig?
a. 488,330 lbs force.
b. 357,220 lbs force.
c. 188,419 lbs force.
d. 80,675 lbs force.
Ans. A

139. An alkaline solution has a pH value of which of the following?

a. at least 10
b. greater than 5
c. greater than 7
d. less than 5
Ans. C

140. Given a pressure drop of 19 PSID, a specific gravity of 0.9, and a maximum flow
rate of 250 GPM. Calculate the necessary Cv rating for a liquid service control valve.
Assume there will be no flashing or choked flow through the valve?
a. 54.41
b. 27.96
c. 14.84
d. 61.486
Ans. A

________________________________________________________________________
141. What is control valve trim?

Ans: The internal, replaceable parts that are in contact with the process fluid
________________________________________________________________________
142. What major structural advantage does a cage-guided valve offer over a post- or
stem-guided valve?

Ans: A cage-guided valve has a larger plug guiding surface so plug stability in high
pressure flow streams is improved
________________________________________________________________________
143. When applied to control valves, what does SHUTOFF mean?

Ans: Shutoff is relative to an ANSI Leakage Class the particular valve is designed to meet -
it may still allow some process flow at shutoff position
________________________________________________________________________
144. What are some of the reasons why a control valve won't shut off?

Ans: Improper actuator travel insufficient actuator force bent valve stem eroded, corroded,
worn trim parts

________________________________________________________________________
145. What are some advantages of butterfly valves?

Ans: Relatively unrestricted flow passages high capacity at reasonable cost, relatively light
weight compared to globe valves

________________________________________________________________________
146. What could cause excessive leakage past the disk of a butterfly valve?

Ans: Improper zero-travel position adjustment damaged disk worn seals damaged liner
________________________________________________________________________
147. What is the main purpose of a valve actuator?

Ans: To move the valve closure member to the desired position and hold it there
________________________________________________________________________
148. What is bench set?

Ans: A procedure for checking/adjusting correct actuator travel with a given range of input
pressures, under no-load conditions

________________________________________________________________________
149. List several causes of actuator problems.

Ans: Insufficient supply pressure, improper positioner calibration, improper instrument

signal, improper bench set
________________________________________________________________________
150. What is a double-acting piston actuator?

Ans: one in which pressure is required to move the piston in either direction
________________________________________________________________________
151. What is a spring-return piston actuator?

Ans: one in which pressure is required for movement in one direction only - movement in
the there direction is via the spring when pressure is released

________________________________________________________________________
152. What is the main purpose of a valve positioner?

Ans: To maintain a specific relationship between the controller output and the position of
the valve
________________________________________________________________________
153. List the main elements making up a valve positioner.

Ans: Input element, summing device, feedback mechanism, signal amplifier

________________________________________________________________________
14) What is a double-acting positioner?

Ans: One that has two signal outputs that change together, but in opposite directions, for
use with a double-acting piston actuator
________________________________________________________________________
154. What is cross-over (balance) pressure in a valve positioner?

Ans: In a double-acting positioner, the output pressure required to hold the actuator in mid
stroke without movement
________________________________________________________________________
155. What is flashing in a control valve?

Ans: Formation of vapour bubbles at low pressure point in valve, bubbles remain in flow
stream because pressure does not recover
________________________________________________________________________
156. What is cavitation in a control valve?

Ans: Formation of vapour bubbles at low pressure point in valve, bubbles collapse further
downstream as pressure recovers
________________________________________________________________________
157. What is choked flow in a control valve?

Ans: The condition in which so many bubbles form at the low pressure point in the valve
that liquid flow cannot increase further
________________________________________________________________________

158. When a control valve is installed in a process with nearly constant differential
pressure (drop) across the valve, the best trim characteristic to choose for the valve
would be:
(A) Equal percentage
(B) Quick-opening
(C) Hyperbolic
(D) Linear
(E) Anti-cavitation
Ans: D
________________________________________________________________________
159. The correct identities of the four control valve types shown below are (in order from
left to right):

(A) Globe, Butterfly, Disc, Ball

(B) Ball, Disc, Butterfly, Globe
(C) Diaphragm, Gate, Disc, Globe
(D) Ball, Gate, Butterfly, Plug
(E) Plug, Slide, Rotary, Ball
Ans: D
________________________________________________________________________
160. An air-to-close control valve assembly may be formed with which of these
actuator/valve body combinations?
(A) Direct-acting actuator, reverse-acting valve body
(B) Direct-acting actuator, direct-acting valve body
(C) Reverse-acting actuator, reverse-acting valve body
(D) B or C
(E) A or B
Ans: D
________________________________________________________________________
161. Calculate the necessary Cv rating for a liquid service control valve, given a pressure
drop of 19 PSID, a specific gravity of 0.9, and a maximum flow rate of 250 GPM. Assume
there will be no flashing or choked flow through the valve.
(A) 54.41
(B) 47.66
(C) 11.84
(D) 60.46
(E) 14.62
Ans: A
________________________________________________________________________
162. The main purpose of a control valve positioner is to:
(A) Alter the fail-safe status of the valve
(B) Alter the characterization of the valve
(C) Improve the precision of the valve
(D) Increase transmitter accuracy
(E) Eliminate cavitation in the valve
Ans: C
________________________________________________________________________
163. The purpose of valve packing is to:
(A) Help reduce cavitation in the valve trim
(B) Increase stiction
(C) Seal process fluid from escaping past the stem
(D) Cushion the valve against harm during shipment
(E) Lubricate the valve trim
Ans: C
________________________________________________________________________
164. The definition of split range control valves implies that they are . . .
(A) calibrated with complementary ranges.
(B) designed to be easily disassembled.
(C) easily re-ranged for different characteristics.
(D) equipped with quick-acting positioners.
(E) only used in sets of three.
Ans: A
________________________________________________________________________
165. Dual-ported globe valves typically enjoy the following advantage over single-ported
globe valves:
(A) Longer service life
(B) Easier disassembly and maintenance
(C) Less actuating force required
(D) Tighter shut-off
(E) Greater temperature range
Ans: C
________________________________________________________________________
166. Cavitation in a control valve is caused by:
(A) process noise
(B) vibration in the piping
(C) the Von Karman effect
(D) a laminar flow regime
(E) pressure recovery
Ans: E
________________________________________________________________________
167. The proper “fail safe” status of a control valve should always be dictated by:
(A) economic savings
(B) the configuration of the positioner
(C) the nature of the process
(D) the controller’s tuning
(E) the controller’s action (direct or reverse)
Ans: C
_______________________________________________________________________
168. Define:

i) safety valve
Safety valve is a gas or vapor service valve that opens very quickly when the pressure
exceeds the spring setpoint pressure.

ii) relief valve

It is a valve that opens in proportion to the pressure above a setpoint.

iii) safety relief valve

It is a valve that is designed so that it can be set to act as either a safety valve or a relief
valve.

169. Where might each of the above be used?

Safety valves are used in applications where valve has to open quickly to release
dangerous pressure.

Relief valve are used for unfired vessel applications, protection against overpressure
downstream of pressure regulators, overpressure due to fire, or thermal expansion
protection.

Safety relieve valve are used for unfired vessels such as compressed air receiver vessels.

170. List some worst-case conditions to consider when sizing pressure-relief

devices?
There are four worst-case conditions to consider, they are fire, runaway chemical reaction,
blocked discharge, and thermal expansion.

171. Explain what a rupture disc is, and list some common types?

A rupture disk acts like an electrical fuse for overpressure protection: when the burst
pressure is exceeded, the disk ruptures to let fluids escape through it. Safety and relief
valves work like self-resetting circuit breakers: they open to relieve pressure, then re-close
to seal the process system once more.

Rupture Disk is a safety device that breaks to open a discharge device and is used to
prevent damage in pipelines and pressure vessels due to excessive pressure.

Some common types are conventional metal rupture discs, reverse buckling rupture discs,
composite rupture discs and graphite composite rupture discs.
172. Explain what a burner control system is, and how it works with a flame
detector?

Burner Management System

(BMS) is also called a flame safety system. Here, the sequencer manages the safe start-
up of a combustion burner: beginning by “purging” the combustion chamber with fresh air
to sweep out any residual fuel vapors, waiting for the command to light the fire, energizing
a spark ignition system on command, and then continuously monitoring for presence of
good flame and proper fuel supply pressure once the burner is lit. The flame detector
safety must be the self checking type and will shut off fuel with a loss of flame

173. Define lower explosive limit (LEL)

It is the lowest concentration of a combustible gas or vapor in air that can be ignited.

174. Define upper explosive limit (UEL)

It is the highest concentration of a combustible gas or vapor in air that can be ignited.

175. Define class

A class is a term used to define the general nature of a hazardous gas or vapor in the
surrounding atmosphere.

The Class and Division taxonomy defines classified areas in terms of hazard type and
hazard probability. Each “Class” contains (or may contain) different types of potentially
explosive substances: Class I is for gases or vapors, Class II is for combustible dusts, and
Class III is for flammable fibers. The three-fold class designation is roughly scaled on the
size of the flammable particles, with Class I being the smallest (gas or vapor molecules)
and Class III being the largest (fibers of solid matter). Each “Division” ranks a classified
area according to the likelihood of explosive gases, dusts, or fibers being present. Division
1 areas are those where explosive concentrations can or do exist under normal operating
conditions. Division 2 areas are those where explosive concentrations only exist
infrequently or under abnormal conditions4.
176. Define division
A division is a classification assigned to each class based on the likelihood of the presence
of a hazardous substance in the atmosphere.

177. Define group

Subdivides hazards according to their explosive properties, each group is defined
according to a substance type (hydrogen, propane, metal dust, carbon dust), or ignition
criteria, identifies the physical properties of the hazard

178. Define four types of electrical protections

Protective measures

Different strategies exist to help prevent electrical devices from triggering fires or
explosions in classified areas. These strategies may be broadly divided four ways:

• Contain the explosion: enclose the device inside a very strong box that contains any
explosion generated by the device so as to not trigger a larger explosion outside the box.
This strategy may be viewed as eliminating the “ignition” component of the fire triangle,
from the perspective of the atmosphere outside the explosion-proof enclosure (ensuring
the explosion inside the enclosure does not ignite a larger explosion outside).

• Shield the device: enclose the electrical device inside a suitable box or shelter, then
purge that enclosure with clean air (or a pure gas) that prevents an explosive mixture from
forming inside the enclosure. This strategy works by eliminating either the “fuel”
component of the fire triangle (if purged by air), by eliminating the “oxidizer” component of
the fire triangle (if purged by fuel gas), or by eliminating both (if purged by an inert gas).

• Encapsulated design: manufacture the device so that it is self-enclosing. In other

words, build the device in such a way that any spark-producing elements are sealed air-
tight within the device from any explosive atmosphere. This strategy works by eliminating
the “ignition” component of the fire triangle (from the perspective of outside the device) or
by eliminating both “fuel” and “oxidizer” components (from the perspective of inside the
device).

• Limit total circuit energy: design the circuit such that there is insufficient energy to
trigger an explosion, even in the event of an electrical fault. This strategy works by
eliminating the “ignition” component of the fire triangle.

179. Define 'enclosure'

An enclosure is a case or housing for equipment or other apparatus that provides
protection for controller.
180. What organization classifies enclosure types in Canada?
Canadian Standard Association (CSA)

181. What is the purpose of installing conduit seals?

The purpose of installing conduit seals is to ensure that the hazardous substance does not
migrate through the conduit system.

182. What is an intrinsically safe system?

It is a system designed to limit electrical and thermal energy to level that cannot ignite
combustible atmospheres and to avoid some of the high installation costs associated with
explosion proof installations.

183. Where can the requirements for intrinsically safe systems be found?
They are contained in The Canadian Electrical Code

184. Define safety instrumented system (SIS)

It is a system consisting of sensors, logic solvers, and final control elements that bring a
process to a safe state when normal operating conditions are violated.

185. What is the approach taken to reduce risk?

The approach is all safety systems to have multiple levels of protection, which increase the
integrity level and reduce the residual risk.

One of the challenges inherent to safety instrumented system design is to balance the goal
of maximum safety against the goal of maximum economy. If an industrial manufacturing
facility is equipped with enough sensors and layered safety shutdown systems to virtually
ensure no unsafe condition will ever prevail, that same facility will be plagued by “false
alarm” and “spurious trip” events where the safety systems malfunction in a manner
detrimental to the profitable operation of the facility. In other words, a process system
designed with an emphasis on automatic shut-down will probably shut down more
frequently than it actually needs to. While the avoidance of unsafe process conditions is
obviously a noble goal, it cannot come at the expense of economically practical operation
or else there will be no reason for the facility to exist at all.

186. How may the severity and likelihood of an event be classified?

The severity of an event can be classified as minor, serious, or severe.
The likelihood of an event can be classified as improbable, occasional, or frequent

187. List the advantages and disadvantages of a hardwired system?

Advantage is: very reliable.
Disadvantages are: very difficult and expensive to build and very difficult to change when
used for large systems.

188. List the common safety PLC architectures?

Safety plc architectures

Safety PLC has redundant micro-processors, both its ram and Flash are monitored by
watchdog circuit and a synchronous detection circuit. Safety PLCs have internal method of
testing its input circuitry proving functionality, safety plc have test points and redundancy
on all outputs for failure detection. Some safety PLCs have specially designed power
supplies and also redundant backplane circuitry between the controller and I/O modules.
Basically safety PLCs have redundancy and self checking diagnostics that other PLCs do
not.

189. To measure the voltage drop of a connector, the volt meter should be connected in
which of the following ways?
a. in series, between the connector and the circuit load.
b. in parallel, across each side of the connector.
c. in parallel, between the connector and the battery.
d. in series, between the connector and the battery.
Ans. B
The circuit must remain intact with a voltmeter lead attached on each side. The voltmeter
will measure the difference in electrical voltage potential (voltage drop) between each of
the two voltmeter leads.

190. In using a voltmeter to measure the voltage drop across a resistance, the two leads
are connected from which of the following?
a. one on each side of the resistance without break the circuit.
b. to the resistance after removing it from the circuit.
c. to the resistance after removing it from the circuit.
d. anywhere in the circuit after breaking the circuit.
Ans. A
A voltage drop measurement is the fastest way to identify resistance problems.

191. Which of the following would cause a sudden pressure drop in a system?
a. Cylinder moving
b. Accumulator closing
c. Broken line
d. Wrong fluid
Ans. C

192. What happens in the system when an accumulator closes suddenly?

a. Increase in pressure
b. MPRV opens
c. Pump over amps
d. Pressure drop
Ans. D
193. Using a 2” diameter cylinder moving a load of 5,000lbs, determine the maximum
pressure required?
a. 1650 psi
b. 892 psi
c. 1592 psi
d. 1872 psi
Ans. C

194. Where is the relief valve located in a pneumatic system?

a. Close to the compressor
b. Anywhere in the system
c. On the receiver
d. On the compressor
Ans. C

195. What would be the new pressure if you have a 46 cubic inch container holding 23
PSI and you then transfer the air into a 17 cubic inch container?
a. 48.17 PSI
b. 62.23 PSI
c. 58.75 PSI
d. 83.68 PSI
Ans. B

196. The basic unit of resistance is which of the following?

a. volt
b. watt
c. ampere
d. ohm
Ans. D

197. Which of the following given instruments would you use to measure resistance?
a. ammeter
b. voltmeter
c. ohmmeter
d. tachometer
Ans. C

198. From which of the following is the negative lead of a thermocouple always colored?
a. orange
b. Red
c. White
d. Green
Ans. B

199. Which of the following listed is the most linear temperature sensing element?
a. RTD
b. Diode
c. Bellows
d. Thermistor
Ans. A

200. Which of the following symbols is used to indicate a temperature regulator?

Ans. A - This symbol reflects a temperature regulator, filled thermal system.

201. The code B-R next to a wire tells you the wire is which of the following?
a. Brake light harness, right side.
b. Black with a red stripe.
c. Blue with a red stripe.
d. Brown with a red stripe.
Ans. B
The first letter is wire color & the second is the tracer color.

202. The frequency of an AC signal is determined by which of the following?

a. amplitude of the signal being generated. b. number of cycles per unit of time. c. peak
value of the sine wave. d. all of the above.
Ans. B
Each AC sine-wave per second is 1 cycle or hurtz.

203. Which of the following answers given is not a major advantage of using cascade
control?
a. controllability of the outside loop is improved because the inside loop speeds up the
response of the process dynamic elements between the control variable and slave
variable.
b. disturbances that affect the slave variable are detected and compensated for by the
slave controller before they have time to affect the primary control variable.
c. Nonlinearities of the process in the inner loop are handled by that loop and removed
from the more important outer loop.
d. can further improve the performance of loops that are already very controllable.
Ans. D
204. Which of the following network security technologies does not use encryption?
a. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
b. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
c. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
d. Digital Signatures
Ans. A