PRACTICE SET 3

LLB 5 Years 2024 Examination

(Designed by Aquib A. Khan)

Subject - Legal Aptitude, Constitution, Reasoning Ability, English, GK & Numerical Ability
Duration : 2 Hours Marks : 120M

Instructions :- (1) All questions are compulsory. (2) Section 1 to 6 are Objective Type Questions. Each Question carries
1 mark. (3) Choose the correct answer from the given options (A,B,C,D). (4) Mark your answer clearly. (5) Do not select
more than one answer for any question. (6) Use a pencil or pen as instructed. (7) There is no negative marking for
incorrect answers. (8) Review your answers if time permits. (8) Read questions carefully.

SECTION I - Legal Aptitude

1. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 helps in .
a) Procedural of crime.
b) Subjective nature.
c) Police enquiry.
d) Judicial Enquiry.

2. Natural law means

a) Principles of common law.
b) Principles of constitutional law.
c) Principles of municipal laws.
d) Principles of natural justice.

3. The term ‘common law’ has three different meanings. Which of the following is not a meaning of the
term common law ?
a) The body of law as made by judges through the determination of cases.
b) A legal system that is based on that of England.
c) Laws created by Parliament.
d) The system of law that emerged following the Norman Conquest in 1066.

4. Extortion is almost equal to offence of

a) Blackmail.
b) Theft.
c) Demand of Money.
d) None of the above.

5. When a convict is temporarily released from the prison for a fixed period of time it is called ……
a) Parole.
b) Bail.
c) Discharge.
d) Acquittal.

6. PRINCIPLE - Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is, by reason of
intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or
contrary to law : provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his
knowledge or against his will.
FACTUAL SITUATION - ‘A’ was having a get together with his old friends on his friends suggestions, he
consumed some alcohol. On his way back to home at, night, ‘A’ heard some footsteps and turning back, he
imagined he saw a figure moving towards him with a spear. In fact, it was only a man, ‘B’ with a umbrella
who was telling ‘A’ to walk carefully since ‘A’ appeared to be unsteady
However, ‘A’ proceeded to attack ‘B’ with an iron rod leading to grave injuries to ‘B’, Is ‘A’ guilty of
causing grevious hurt to ‘B’ ?
a) No, ‘A’ is not guilty because in his intoxicated state the umbrella appeared a spear to him and he
exercised his right of private defence.
b) No, ‘A’ is not guilty of because ‘B’ could have attacked ‘A’ with his umbrella.
c) No, ‘A’ is not guilty because he was intoxicated on the suggestions of his friends and was incapable of
knowing that he was savagely attacking a man who was carrying only a umbrella.
d) Yes, ‘A’ is guilty because he got intoxicated voluntarily and under the effect of this voluntary
intoxication, he attacked and caused grevious injuries to ‘B’ who posed no threat to him in fact.

7. ….. holds that jurisprudence is the study of law as it is.

a) Moralists.
b) Positivists.
c) Realists.
d) Analysts.

8. Which of the following is not a feature of the criminal justice system in India ?
a) Innocent until proven guilty.
b) Right against self incrimination.
c) Preponderance of probability.
d) Proof beyond reasonable doubt.

9. Which of the following is the source of law ?

a) Jurisprudence.
b) Social law.
c) Customary law.
d) None of these.

10. What are the main source of law till 19th century in England.
a) Customary law.
b) Constitution law.
c) Parliamentary law.
d) Private law.

11. LEGAL PRINCIPLE - Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable
property is guilty of criminal misappropriation of property.
FACTUAL SITUATION - “A” finds a government promissory note belonging to “Z”, bearing a blank
endorsement. “A” knowing that the note belongs to “Z”, pledges it with a banker as a security for a loan,
intending to restore it to “Z” at a future time. Has “A” committed criminal misappropriation.

a) Yes, since he deprived “Z” from using his property and used it for his own use.
b) No, since he intended to return the property in the future.
c) No, it is theft not criminal misappropriation.
d) Yes, since he deprived “Z” from using his property.
12. Assertion (A) Divine law is always related to the god.
Reason (R) Man in the state of society is governed by divine law of God in ancient society.
Directions In the question given above are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In the
context of the two statements, which of the following is correct ?
Codes :
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

13. LEGAL PRINCIPLE -

i. The crime of kidnapping involves taking someone away from the custody of their lawful guardian.
ii. The crime of abduction involves inducing or forcing somebody to go away from some place against
their will.
DECISION -
I Kidnapping.
II Abduction.
III Neither.
REASON -
(A) Slavery is illegal.
(B) “A” has taken him away from B’s lawful custody.
(C) “A” has forced somebody to go with him against his will.
a) I (B).
b) II (C).
c) III (A).
d) I (A).

14. The contract Act came into force

a) From 1 September 1972.
b) Before 1 September 1882.
c) From 1 September 1872.
d) After 1 September 1872.

15. Contractual rights and duties are created by

a) State.
b) Statute.
c) Parties.
d) Custom or usage.

16. A contract creates

a) Right in personam.
b) Right in rem.
c) No obligation.
d) Only obligations and no rights.

17. Voidable contract is one

a) Which is lawful.
b) Which is invalid.
c) Which is valid as long as it is not avoided by the party entitled to do so.
d) Which is unlawful.

18. “A” makes a contract with “B” to beat his business competitor. This is an example of
a) Valid contract.
b) Illegal agreement.
c) Voidable contract.
d) Unenforceable contract.

19. Contract is said to have three essentials. Which of the following is not an essential in the formation of
contract ?
a) Offer.
b) Acceptance.
c) Consideration.
d) Damages.

SECTION II - Indian Constitution

20. Which of the following act established the Supreme Court at Calcutta ?
a) Regulating Act,1773.
b) Pitt’s India Act , 1784.
c) Government of India Act, 1858.
d) Charter Act, 1833.

21. Which of the following was the first Governor-General of Bengal ?

a) Lord Canning.
b) Lord Warren Hastings.
c) Lord Dalhousie.
d) Lord William Bentinck.

22. By which of the following act the Indian (Central) Legislative Council was set-up ?
a) Charter Act, 1853
b) Charter Act, 1833
c) Charter Act, 1856
d) Indian Council Act, 1861

23. For the first time, British Parliament enacted which law for the British Colonial empire in India ?
a) Government of India Act, 1857
b) Government of India Act, 1858
c) Government of India Act, 1891
d) Government of India Act, 1935

24. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, which communities were provided separate representation
in the electorate system ?
a) Sikhs, Europeans
b) Indian Christians
c) Anglo-Indians
d) All of these

25. Who of the following was the first Governor-General of the new dominion of India ?
a) Lord Mountbatten.
b) Warren Hastings.
c) Chakrawarti Rajagopalachari
d) Lord Macauley

26. Which of the following consisting in Part IV A of the constitution ?

a) Fundamental Rights
b) Fundamental Duties
c) Directive Principles
d) The Executive.

27. How many contents are there in the Panchayati Raj System ?
a) 18 subjects
b) 21 subjects
c) 29 subjects
d) 23 subjects

28. Which of the following article requires ratification by the legislatures of one-half of the states ?
a) Article 54
b) Article 84
c) Article 51
d) Article 173

29. At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the
Preamble?
a) Liberty
b) Equality
c) Socialist
d) Justice

30. Which one of the following decribe India a Secular State ?

a) Fundamental Rights
b) Preamble of the Constitution
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Directive Principles

31. By which of the following amendment the voting age has been reduced from 21 to 18 years ?
a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
b) 61st Constitutional Amendment
c) 63rd Constitutional Amendment
d) 44th Constitutional Amendment.

32. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 11 of the Constitution of India deal ?
a) Indian Union and its Territory.
b) Citizenship
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Features of the Constitution.

33. Which of the following Articles provides the Right of Citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan ?
a) Article 5
b) Article 6
c) Article 7
d) Article 8
34. A person of India origin who is ordinarily resident of India for seven years before making is eligible
for ?
a) Descent.
b) Registration
c) Naturalisation
d) An application for registration

35. Which of the following is not an Article given to the OCI’s ?

a) Article 16
b) Article 14
c) Article 58
d) Article 124

36. Which of the following Article states that India as a Union of States rather than a Federation of States ?
a) Article 3
b) Article 2
c) Article 370
d) Article 1

37. Which of the following Article states that Sikhism to be associated with the Union which is repealed ?
a) Article 2
b) Article 2A
c) Article 1
d) Article 1A

38. Which of the following is not the member of JVP Committee ?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Vallabhbhai Patel
c) Potti Sriramulu
d) Pattabhi Sitaramayya

SECTION III - Reasoning Ability

39. Reptile is to lizard as flower is to

a) Petal
b) Bud
c) Stem
d) Daisy

40. If the second half of the following alphabet is arranged in the reverse order, then which letter will be
9th to the right of the 9th letter counting from the left end ?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
a) I
b) F
c) V
d) W

41. If the first half of the above alphabet arrangement is written in the reverse order, then which letter
will be exactly in the middle between the 9th letter from the left and the 10th letter from the right end ?
a) B
b) A
c) N
d) D

Directions : (Q. No 31 to 33) In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in the sequence in
which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
42. (1) Inside (2) Infect (3) Income (4) Intern (5) Internal
a) 5,4,2,3,1
b) 3,2,1,4,5
c) 4,5,1,3,2
d) 3,5,2,4,1

43. (1) Wound (2) Writer (3) White (4) Worst (5) Worked
a) 5,3,2,1,4
b) 1,4,3,5,2
c) 3,5,4,1,2
d) 2,1,3,4,5

44. (1) Conspire (2) Brochure (3) External (4) Peaceful (5) Elegance
a) 1,4,5,3,2
b) 2,1,5,3,4
c) 2,1,5,4,3
d) 5,1,2,3,4

45. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word COMPUTERS, each of which has as many letters
between them as in the English alphabet series ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) More than three

Directions : (Q. No 46 to 48) In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed by four
pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original
pair.
46. Bee : Hive :: ____ : _____
a) Dog : Show
b) Rider : Bicycle
c) Cow : Barn
d) Horse : Carriage

47. Plaintiff : Defendant :: ____ : _____

a) Court : Law
b) Victim : Accused
c) Judge : Jury
d) Husband : Wife

48. Club : Golf :: ____ : _____

a) Candid : Disingenuous
b) Racket : Tennis
c) Author : Book
d) Ball : Soccer
Directions : (Q. No 49 to 50) In each of the following questions, same words are given which are related in
some way. The same relationship exist among the words in one of the four alternatives given under it. Find
the correct alternatives.
49. Ink : Pen : Paper
a) Watch : Dial : Strip
b) Book : Paper : Words
c) Farmer : Plough : Field
d) Colour : Brush : Canvas

50. Road : Bus : Driver

a) Track : Train : Passenger
b) Watch : Ship : Driver
c) Sky : Aeroplane : Pilot
d) Paper : Letter : Reader

Directions : (Q. No 51 to 52) In each of the following questions, choose that set of numbers from the four
alternatives sets that is similar to the given set.
51. Given set : (7, 77, 140)
a) (8, 80, 166)
b) (9, 88, 180)
c) (8, 88, 160)
d) (10, 110, 300)

52. Given set : (31, 19, 41)

a) (27, 29, 47)
b) (23, 33, 51)
c) (29, 17, 37)
d) (16, 27, 11)

Directions : (Q. No 53 to 57) In each of the following questions, three alternatives are same in a certain
way out of four and so form a group. Find the odd word that does not belong to the group.
53. (a) Wing (b) Beak (c) Fin (d) Rudder

54. (a) Carpenter (b) Goldsmith (c) Blacksmith (d) Driver

55. (a) Gallon (b) Ton (c) Quintal (d) Kilogram

56. (a) Square (b) Cube (c) Foot (d) Prism

57. (a) Brass (b) Steel (c) Bronze (d) Tin

Directions : (Q. No 58 ) Select the odd one out.

58. (a) JIHG (b) ROPO (c) WXUV (d) UTSR

SECTION IV - English Language

Directions : (Q. No 59 to 62 ) In these questions, read each sentence to find out whether there is any error
in it. If there is no error; the answer is (d). (Ignore errors of Punctuation, if any.)
59. My Father is (a) / in bad mood (b) / today. (c) / No error (d)
60. After you will return (a) / from Mumbai (b) / I will come to meet you. (c) / No error (d)

61. The quickly brown fox (a) / jumped over (b) / the lazy dog. (c) / No error (d)

62. He slowly (a) / went to open (b) / the lock. (c) / No error (d)

Directions : (Q. No 63 to 65 ) Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences. If there is no
error; the answer is (d).
63. We got everything ready (a) / for all of them (b) / long before they arrived. (c) / No error (d)

64. He looks more depressed (a) / then her but I don’t (b) / know the reason. (c) / No error (d)

65. The person which was (a) / recommended for the position (b) / did not fulfill the prescribed
qualifications. (c) / No error (d)

Directions : Read the given passage and answer the questions with the help of information provided in the
passage.
Passage 4 =
Today, with a Noble Prize to its credit, Grameen is one of the largest micro-finance organisations in
the world. It started out lending small sums to poor entrepreneurs in Bangladesh to help them grow
from a subsistence living to a livelihood. The great discovery its founders made was that even with few
assets, these entrepreneurs repaid on time.
Grameen and micro-finance have since become financial staples of the developing world.
Grameen's approach, unlike other micro-financers, uses the group-lending model. Costs are kept down
by having borrowers vet one another, tying together their financial fates and eliminating expensive
loan offices entirely. The ultimate promise of Grameen is to use business lending as a way of people to
lift themselves out of poverty.
Recently, Grameen has taken on a different challenge by setting up operations in the US Money
may be tight in the waning recession but it is still a nation of 100000 bank branches. Globally, the
working micro-finance equation consists of, borrowing funds cheaply and keeping loan defaults and
overhead expenses sufficiently low. Microlenders, including Grameen, do this by charging colossal
interest rates-as high as 60% or 70% which is necessary to compensate for the risk and attract bank
funding.
But, loans at rates much above the standard 15% would most likely be attacked as usurious in
America. So, the question is whether there is a role for a third world lender in the world's largest
economy? Grameen America believes that in a few years it will be successful and turn a profit thanks
to 9 million US households untouched by mainstream banks and 21 million using the likes of payday
loans and pawn shops for financing. But enticing the unbanked won't be easy.
After all, profit has long eluded micro-financiers and if it is not lucrative, it is not microlending, but
charity. When Grameen first went to the US, in the late 1980s. it tripped up. Under Grameen's futelage,
banks started micro loans to entrepreneurs with a shocking 30% loss. But, Grameen America says that
this time results will be different because Grameen employees themselves will be making the loans,
not training an American bank to do it.
More often than not, the borrowers, Grameen finds, in the US already have jobs (as factory
workers c.g.) or side businesses-selling toys, cleaning houses, etc. The loans from Grameen, by and
large, provide a steadier source of funding, but they don't create businesses out of nothing. But,
money isn't More many for everything. importantly. entrepreneurs, group members are tremendous
sources of support to one another. So, even if studies are yet to determine if Grameen is a clear-cut
pathway out of poverty it still achieves something useful.

66. What has adversely affected the success of micro- finance institutions in the US ?
a) The focus of these institutions is on making a profit at any cost instead of being charitable to the
needy.
b) American banks engaged in micro- lending were the most severely hit during the recession
c) Widespread perception among bankers that these institutions are better suited to developing
countries.
d) Their failure to attract those outside the formal banking system as customers

67. What is the central theme of the passage ?

a) The contention that Grameen is doomed to fail in developed countries.
b) A comprehensive evaluation of the current status of the American economy.
c) A discussion about the prospects of Grameen and micro- finance in the US.
d) The role of banks in facilitating micro- lending efforts in developed nations.

68. Why has Grameen made a second attempt to launch itself in the US ?
a) The willingness of US banks to provide the necessary staff and funds to facilitate the spread of micro-
finance.
b) The rates of interest on loans in the US are exorbitant making it easier to recover capital
c) The realisation that a large percentage of the American population not reached by mainstream banks
can be tapped.
d) Recognition of the fact that disbursing credit in developing countries during the recession is too risky.

69. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?

a) Micro- finance has been successful only in Asian countries
b) Micro- finance makes individual borrowers dependent rather than independent.
c) America has the largest number of banks in the world.
d) There is a scope for micro- finance institutions to be profitable in developed countries.

Directions : (Q. No 70 to 71) Choose the word that is most similar to the meaning of given word.
70. Subsistence
a) Livelihood
b) Close
c) Absence
d) Substitute

71. Enticing
a) Attention
b) Grand
c) Energy
d) Attractive

SECTION V - General Knowledge

72. Who founded the Hindu Shahi dynasty of Punjab?

a) Vasumitra
b) Kallar
c) Jayapala
d) Mahipala
73. 'Mitakshara', an authoritative treatise on Hindu law, was written by
a) Jimutavahana
b) Hemadri
c) Manu
d) Vagneswara

74. The famous Vedic saying 'War begins in the minds of men' is stated in
a) Rig veda
b) Atharva veda
c) Sama veda
d) Mundaka Upanishad

75. Which one of the following four vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?
a) Rig veda
b) Sama veda
c) Yajur veda
d) Atharva veda

76. Upanished are books on

a) Religion
b) Yoga
c) Law
d) Philosophy

77. The Khajuraho shrines built by Chandella rulers are dedicated to

a) Vishnu and Shiva
b) Indra and Varun
c) Shiva and Parvati
d) Vishnu and Brahma

78. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga?

a) Chaitanya
b) Nanak
c) Surdas
d) Ballabhacharya

79. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached during the regin of

a) Ajatashatru
b) Bimbisara
c) Nandivardhan
d) Uday

80. What is the name of Garhwal in Skand Purana?

a) Kedarkhand
b) Kumachal
c) Jallandhar
d) Garhdesh

81. Buddhism split up into the Hinayana and Mahayana sects at the Buddhist Council held during the reign
of
a) Harsha
b) Kanishka
c) Ashoka
d) Chandragupta Maurya

82. Buddhism made an important impact by allowing two sections of society into its fold. There were
a) Merchants and priests
b) Money lenders and slaves
c) Warriors and traders
d) Women and sudras

83. Which among the following is the sacred book of the Buddhists ?
a) Upanishad
b) Vedas
c) Tripitaka
d) Aranyak

84. Who among the following is credited with the invention of Algebra ?
a) Aryabhatta
b) Bhaskara
c) Apastamba
d) Medhatithi

85. Kalhana’s well known work ‘Rajatarangini’ is an important source material for the study of which one
of the following?
a) Ancient Kamarupa
b) Post- Mauryan Magadha
c) Medieval Rajasthan
d) Early Medieval Kashmir

86. The images in the temple of Angkorvat are those

a) Buddha
b) Hindu Deities
c) Tirthankaras
d) Cambodian Kings

87. Which one of the following is related to the origin of the caste system ?
a) Dasaranjana
b) The Purusha-Sukta
c) Kalpasutra
d) The Brahmanas

88. In Jainism ‘perfect knowledge’ is referred to as

a) Jina
b) Ratna
c) Kaivalya
d) Nirvanas

89. Who among the following is not associated with Medicine in Ancient India?
a) Dhanvantri
b) Bhaskaracharya
c) Charakha
d) Susruta
90. Which of the following pair is correct?
a) Ashvaghosa - Vikramaditya
b) Banabhatta - Harshavardhan
c) Harisena - Kanishka
d) Kalidasa - Samudragupta

91. The first dicourse of Budhha in Sarnath is called

a) Mahabhiniskraman
b) Mahaparinivana
c) Mahamastakabhisheka
d) Dharmachakrapravartan

92. Among the following who was the earliest visitor to India?
a) Alberuni
b) Fa- Hien
c) Hieun - Tsang
d) Megasthanes

93. Which of the following was not a kingdom in Ancient India?

a) Avanti
b) Vatsa
c) Hampi
d) Kosala

94. Which of the following temples was built by the Rashitrakutas?

a) Ajanta
b) Ellora
c) Mahabalipuram Cave
d) Khajuraho

95. Which one of the following chronological orders of the given dynasties of India in correct?
a) Maurya - Nanda - Kanva - Sunga
b) Nanda - Maurya - Sunga - Kanva
c) Nanda - Maurya - Kanva - Sunga
d) Maurya - Nanda - Sunga - Kanva

96. The main contribution of the Chola Dynasty in the field of administration lies in
a) Systematic provincial administration
b) A well planned revenue system
c) A well organised Central Government
d) An organised local self government

97. Which one of the following Kings controlled the famous silk route of Central Asia?
a) Harsha
b) Chandragupta - II
c) Ashoka
d) Kanishka

98. Who were the first to issue gold coins?

a) Indo-Greeks
b) Shakas
c) Parthians
d) Kushans

99. The Kailash temple at Ellora was built by the

a) Rashtrakuta
b) Cholas
c) Pallavas
d) Chalukyas

100. The Vijay Stamble (Tower of Victory) at Chittor was built by

a) Rana Pratap
b) Rana Kumbha
c) Rana Sanga
d) Bappa Raval

SECTION VI - Numerical Ability

101. The difference between the place values of two 7s in the numeral 69758472 is
a) 0
b) 6993
c) 69930
d) None of these

102. Which one of the following is not a prime number ?

a) 31
b) 61
c) 71
d) 91

103. The smallest 6- digit number exactly divisible by 111 is

a) 111111
b) 110011
c) 100011
d) 110101

104. The largest 5- digit number exactly divisible by 91 is

a) 99921
b) 99918
c) 99981
d) 99971

105. Which natural number is nearest to 9217 which is completely divisible by 88 ?

a) 9152
b) 9240
c) 9064
d) 9184

106. N is a whole number which when divided by 4 gives 3 as remainder. What will be the remainder
when 2N is divided by 4 ?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0

107. 476** 0 is divisible by both 3 and 11. The non-zero digits in the hundred’s and ten’s places are
respectively
a) 7 and 4
b) 7 and 5
c) 8 and 5
d) Cannot be determined

108. The unit digit in the product (784×618×917×463) is

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

109. What smallest number should be added to 4456, so that the sum is completely divisible by 6 ?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

110. The greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves remainder 6 and 5 respectively, is
a) 123
b) 127
c) 235
d) 305

111. Three numbers which are co primes to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551
and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is
a) 71
b) 85
c) 81
d) 89

112. If x and y are positive integers such that (3x + 7y) is a multiple of 11, then which of the following will
be divisible by 11?
a) 4x + 6y
b) X + y + 4
c) 9x + 4y
d) 4x - 9y

113. On dividing a number by 68, we get 269 as quotient and 0 as remainder. On dividing the same
number by 67, what will the remainder ?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

114. The HCF of two numbers is 11, and their LCM is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other is
a) 279
b) 283
c) 308
d) 318

115. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and their LCM is 2400. Then, their HCF is
a) 40
b) 80
c) 120
d) 200

116. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2,4,6,8, 10 and 12s respectively. In 30 min,
how many times do they toll together ?
a) 4
b) 10
c) 15
d) 16

117. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the HCF of these numbers is 37, then the greater number is
a) 101
b) 107
c) 111
d) 185

118. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their HCF is 4 then, their LCM is
a) 12
b) 16
c) 24
d) 48

119. The sum of the three numbers in AP is 21 and the product of the first and third number of the
sequence is 45. What are the three numbers ?
a) 5, 7 and 9
b) 9, 7 and 2
c) 3, 7 and 11
d) 4 and 3

120. In AP find 4 + 7 +10 +13 + 16 + ….. upto 20 terms

a) 750
b) 854
c) 650
d) 740