DEBRE BERHAN UNIVERSITY

COLLEGE of ENGINEERING
DEPARTMENT of FOOD ENGINEERING

Course Title: Core Competency Courses Course Code:

Target Group: 5th Year Food Engineering Students
Academic Year: 2016 E.C Semester: II Program: Regular
Exam Type: 3rd Round Model
Max Marks = 100% Time Allowed: 2:00 Hr.
Exam
Prepared By: Food Engineering Department Staffs. Date: 30/09/2016 E.C

Dear Students: Please practice these third round model exam

questions. And try to correct the mistake that you have made during
exam. As well as you are expected to work hard and achieve a good
result for your exit exam.

Note: the answers of the questions are found on the last page.

Melaku E. Exit Exam Committee

Thanks!!!

1
1. What is the purpose of validation in food analysis?
A. Ensure data interpretation
B. Verify analytical methods
C. Calibrate instruments
D. Collect samples
2. Why is it important to factor in regulatory requirements in food analysis?
A. To Optimize the Analytical Procedure
B. To Review Equipment and Resources
C. To Ensure Compliance with Legal Standards
D. To Consult with Experts
3. What is PCR commonly used for in food analysis?
A. Identifying food additives
B. Enumerating microorganisms
C. Determining nutritional components
D. DNA analysis and microbial identification
4. Which technique is extensively used to separate and quantify compounds based on their
differential interactions with a stationary and mobile phase in food analysis?
A. Spectrometric analysis
B. Titrimetric analysis
C. Gravimetric analysis
D. Chromatographic analysis
5. Which aspect of quality control involves monitoring for potential contaminants, allergens, and
toxic substances in food products?
A. Analyzing sensory attributes
B. Conducting microbiological testing
C. Inspecting packaging materials
D. Evaluating product shelf life

2
6. What is a key component of quality control in food production related to ingredient quality
management?
A. Assessing employee training programs
B. Inspecting machinery maintenance logs
C. Evaluating supplier quality and authenticity
D. Monitoring consumer complaints
7. Molecular absorption of radiation in the UV -Vis range results in transitions between what
types of energy levels?
A. Electronic energy levels
B. Vibrational energy levels
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
8. Which of the following best describes food biotechnology?
A. The use of computers to analyze food samples
B. The application of biological techniques to improve food production and processing
C. The study of food chemistry and its impact on human health
D. The development of new recipes using innovative ingredients
9. Which of the following is an example of food biotechnology being used to improve
nutritional quality?
A. Adding artificial colors to make food more visually appealing
B. Increasing the vitamin content of a crop through genetic engineering
C. Extending the shelf life of products using chemical preservatives
D. Improving the texture of food through the addition of stabilizers
10. What is the primary role of microorganisms in fermentation?
A. Production of heat
B. Generation of electricity
C. Synthesis of vitamins
D. Conversion of sugars into other compounds

3
11. Which of the following is a potential benefit of utilizing a diversity of microbes in
food and beverage processes?
A. Increased fermentation time
B. Reduced product variety
C. Enhanced product stability
D. Lower production costs
12. Which of the following is an example of applying modern biotechnology to develop
alternative approaches in beverage processing?
A. Developing bioactive compounds from plant extracts
B. Implementing traditional filtration methods
C. Using natural sweeteners instead of artificial ones
D. Expanding the use of chemical preservatives
13. Enzyme technology can be used to break down anti-nutritional factors in which of the
following food products?
A. Nuts
B. Meat
C. Legumes
D. Fresh fruits
14. Which physico-chemical property of milk is responsible for its ability to form foam?
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. pH
D. Density
15. Which of the following factors can affect the fat content of milk?
A. Breed of the cow
B. Ambient temperature
C. pH level
D. Presence of lactose

4
16. Which process involves in heating milk to specific temperature to kill pathogenic bacteria?
A. Homogenization
B. Sterilization
C. Fermentation
D. Pasteurization
17. What is the primary process involved in the collection of milk from dairy animals?
A. Pasteurization
B. Milking
C. Homogenization
D. Fermentation
18. What is the purpose of clarification in milk processing?
A. To increase the protein content of milk
B. To remove impurities and sediment from milk
C. To reduce the fat content of milk
D. To fortify milk with vitamins and minerals
19. Which of the following is a criterion for selecting a good starter culture for sour cream
production?
A. High pH
B. Low moisture content
C. Production of alcohol
D. Production of lactic acid
20. What is the primary purpose of measuring the pH of dairy products?
A. To determine fat content
B. To assess microbial activity
C. To determine protein content
D. To evaluate acidity

5
21. What is the primary method used to control microbial growth in food by modifying the
environment surrounding the food?
A. Temperature control
B. pH adjustment
C. Water activity control
D. Packaging techniques
22. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic parameter affecting microbial growth in
food?
A. Temperature
B. Humidity
C. Atmosphere
D. pH
23. Which microbial group is commonly used in fermentation to produce alcohol and carbon
dioxide?
A. Yeasts
B. Molds
C. Lactic acid bacteria
D. Pathogenic bacteria
24. Which examination technique allows for the identification of microorganisms based on their
genetic material?
A. Microscopy
B. Biochemical tests
C. Molecular techniques
D. Immunological assays
25. Why are microbial criteria important in food safety?
A. To promote food spoilage
B. To increase microbial growth in food products
C. To ensure compliance with food safety regulations
D. To reduce the shelf life of food products

6
26. Which of the following is an example of an indicator microorganism?
A. Salmonella
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Escherichia coli (E. coli)
D. Total coliforms
27. What is the primary mechanism by which preservatives control microbial growth in food?
A. Inhibition of cellular respiration
B. Disruption of cell membrane integrity
C. Blocking DNA replication
D. Inhibition of protein synthesis
28. What is the primary function of fat in meat, poultry, and fish?
A. Providing structure to muscle tissue
B. Storing energy and providing flavor
C. Facilitating muscle contraction
D. Transporting oxygen in muscle cells
29. What is the primary purpose of curing in meat processing?
A. To increase meat tenderness
B. To enhance meat flavor and color
C. To reduce meat spoilage
D. To decrease meat protein content
30. What is the main ingredient in sausage production that helps bind meat particles together?
A. Salt
B. Fat
C. Seasonings
D. Binder
31. What role does fermentation play in the production of fermented meat products like salami?
A. To increase meat tenderness
B. To enhance meat flavor and color
C. To reduce meat spoilage
D. To increase meat protein content

7
32. What is the primary purpose of implementing Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) in meat,
poultry, and fish processing facilities?
A. To increase production costs
B. To ensure product quality and safety
C. To reduce employee training
D. To speed up production process
33. Which of the following is a common pathogen associated with meat, poultry, and fish
products that can cause foodborne illness?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Escherichia coli (E. coli)
D. Aspergillus flavus
34. What is the recommended storage temperature for refrigerated meat, poultry, and fish
products to prevent bacterial growth and spoilage?
A. 0°C
B. 4°C
C. 7°C
D. 10°C
35. The three most important characteristics of an individual particle are
A. Composition, its size and shape
B. Composition, size and hardness
C. Composition shape and toughness
D. Composition, moisture content and size

8
36. What is sphericity in the context of particle shape?
A. The ratio of surface area of a sphere having the same volume as the object to the actual
surface area of the object.
B. The ratio of the surface area of a sphere to the surface area of a cube with the same volume.
C. The ratio of the volume of a sphere to the volume of a cylinder with the same height and
diameter
D. The ratio of the surface area of a sphere to the surface area of a cylinder with the same height
and diameter
37. Which one of the following is NOT true about size reduction equipment?
A. An equipment is generally known as crusher when it performs coarse reduction.
B. Grinders employed principally in intermediate and fine reduction.
C. Cutting machines used for exact reduction
D. A tumbling mill is used in many industries for course grinding.
38. According to ________________the energy required for a given size reduction was
proportional to the size reduction ratio.
A. Rittniger’s law
B. Kick’s law
C. Bond’s law
D. A and B are correct
39. Which one of the following correctly describe the difference between tumbling
agglomeration and pressure agglomeration?
A. Tumbling agglomeration involves compressing powders using high pressure, while pressure
agglomeration involves tumbling particles in a rotating drum.
B. Tumbling agglomeration involves the application of heat to particles, while pressure
agglomeration involves the formation of liquid bridges between particles.
C. Tumbling agglomeration includes the use of a liquid binder to form small nuclei that coalesce
into larger agglomerates, while pressure agglomeration compresses powders into a compact mass
using high pressure.
D. Tumbling agglomeration results in the formation of denser and more compact agglomerates,
while pressure agglomeration leads to the drying of agglomerates to remove excess moisture.

9
40. The type of mixing equipment used for mixing small quantities of additives into large masses
of material is known as:
A. Vertical Screw Mixers
B. Horizontal Trough Mixers
C. Tumbling Mixers
D. All of the above
41. In sedimentation, the terminal velocity of a particle is NOT depend on:
A. Density of fluid and particle
B. Shape of the particle
C. Viscosity of the fluid
D. The material from which sedimentation tank is made from
42. Which of the following has highest protein content?
A. Oat
B. Finger millet
C. Wheat
D. Pearl Millet
43. Combination of which of the following is known as gluten?
A. Gliadin + Glutelin
B. Gliadin + Lysine
C. Glutelin + Glutelin
D. Lysine + Glutelin
44. During dough formation following results
A. Sulphydryl bond cleave to disulphide bond (S-S)
B. Dislphide bond cleave to sulphydryl bond
C. Concentration of dislphide becomes more
D. Concentration of sulphydryl becomes less

10
45. When a food containing protein is cooked, there is a permanent change in the structure of the
protein. This change is called
A. syneresis.
B. denaturation.
C. gelatinization.
D. emulsification
46. A functional property of starch in food preparation is
A. tenderizing a cake mixture.
B. retaining moisture in a cake batter.
C. acting as a thickening agent in a sauce.
D. providing a glossy appearance to a sauce
47. Moisture content of wheat grains is increased due to
A. milling
B. tempering
C. tempering and conditioning
D. conditioning
48. Lower falling number indicates --------------- amylase activity
A. High
B. Low
C. no effect
D. none of the options
49. In the production of fats and oils, what is the purpose of degumming?
A. Increasing the color intensity
B. Removing phospholipids
C. Adding antioxidants
D. Enhancing the aroma

11
50. What is the primary objective of the bleaching process in fats and oils production?
A. Adding colorants for aesthetic purposes
B. Removing pigments and impurities
C. Enhancing the shelf life
D. Increasing the viscosity
51. What does the term "hydrogenation" refer to in the context of fats and oils production?
A. Adding hydrogen atoms to unsaturated fats to make them saturated
B. Removing hydrogen atoms from saturated fats
C. Enhancing the color of oils
D. Increasing the free fatty acid content
52. Which method is commonly used to determine the quality and purity of edible oils by
measuring the acidity level?
A. Acid value determination
B. Chromatography
C. Spectrophotometry
D. Microscopic analysis
53. Which method involves the removal of waxes from oils to prevent clouding or crystallization
at lower temperatures?
A. Winterization
B. Esterification
C. Polymerization
D. Trans esterification
54. Which property is an indicator of the freshness of an oil?
A. Viscosity
B. Peroxide value
C. pH
D. Color

12
55. Which process involves altering the physical or chemical properties of oils to enhance their
performance in different applications?
A. Oil extraction
B. Oil blending
C. Oil modification
D. Oil refining
56. Identify factor affecting drying processes of fruit and vegetable processing?
A. Temperature
B. Surface area
C. Color
D. A and B
57. All of the following are true except______.
A. Blanching reduces the strain on can closures during processing and to create reduced oxygen
levels in the can
B. Pasteurization is a mild heat treatment performed to destroy vegetative microorganisms
C. Fermentation is the preservation of foods by the addition of salt and/or vinegar as a primary
means of preservation
D. None
58. All are the application of sensory evaluation except___?
A. Evaluate differences in similar products
B. Utilized by-product
C. check that final products meets its original specifications,
D. Analyse a test sample for improvement
59. Which one of the following is the important reason for analyzing foods?
A. To increase the shelf life of the product
B. To ensure the safety of the consumer
C. To decrease the environmental contamination
D. None

13
60. Which of the following is not secondary processed product?
A. Juice
B. Jam
C. Dried fruits
D. Tomato pastes
61. ____ removes the moisture from the food so bacteria, yeast and molds can’t grow and spoil
the food?
A. Freezing
B. Drying
C. Cooling
D. canning
62. -------- is a system of determining the alcohol content and, therefore the relative strength of
the beverage.
A. Proof.
B. Alcohol by volume.
C. Hydrometer.
D. A and B.
63. 8 ºBrix is equivalent to:
A. 8 gram sugar per 100,000 gram of solution.
B. 8 gram of sugar per 10 gram of solution.
C. 8 gram of sugar per 100 gram of solution.
D. 8 gram sugar per 1000 gram of solution.
64. During the mash naturally occurring -------------------- present in the malt converts the
starches in to simple sugar.
A. Proteins.
B. Yeasts.
C. Enzymes.
D. Vitamins.

14
65. Which of the following is not true about yeasts?
A. They are multicellular microorganisms.
B. They convert sugar in to CH3CH2OH and CO2.
C. They can live in the presence and absence of oxygen.
D. They are fungus.
66. Which of the following is not a step in the production of beer?
A. Fermentation
B. Distillation
C. Mashing
D. Hopping
67. Which of the following is a commonly used preservative in beverage processing?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Sodium chloride
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Citric acid
68. What is the primary function of malting in the production of beer?
A. Adding sweetness
B. Increasing alcohol content
C. Breaking down starches into fermentable sugars
D. Enhancing color
69. To identify defects in a developed product before it is released is the goal of------?
A. Quality assurance
B. Food safety management system
C. Food business operator
D. Quality control
70. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Customer satisfaction leads to perceived value
B. Customer loyalty leads to perceived value
C. Customer loyalty leads to customer satisfaction
D. Customer satisfaction leads to customer loyalty

15
71. Which of the following foods can be stored safely at room temperature?
A. Raw whole carrots
B. Sliced watermelon
C. Cooked rice
D. Baked potatoes
72. Which of the following is a biological hazard?
A. Earthquake
B. Smoking
C. Viruses
D. All are biological hazards
73. How is risk defined within ISO 22000?
A. A hazard to consumers
B. An effect of uncertainty
C. A danger to consumers and workers
D. A situation with a negative outcome
74. Which of the following is recommended for the managing of risk in the food production
process?
A. Food recall procedure
B. Food analysis
C. Risk analysis approach
D. Hazard analysis approach
75. A preventive approach to food safety, which identifies biological, chemical, and physical
properties in the production process, is known as---?
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Hazard analysis
D. Injury analysis

16
76. Which two materials are utilized in the production of edible packaging materials that are both
biodegradable and safe for consumption?
A. Minerals and vitamins
B. Proteins and vitamins
C. Water and proteins
D. Proteins and carbohydrates
77. Which of the following is used for packaging of milk in pouches?
A. Polyvinyl
B. Polyethylene Terephthalate
C. Polyethylene
D. Polyester
78. What element is typically added to aluminum to enhance the strength and durability of the
alloy?
A. Titanium
B. Chromium
C. Magnesium
D. Tin
79. Among enzymes used in Novel packaging systems, which one specifically functions as an
oxygen scavenger?
A. lipase
B. catalase
C. kinase
D. amylase
80. Ca(OH)2 and NaOH acts as _______ scavenger in Intelligent packaging system .
A. oxygen
B. carbon Dioxide
C. ethylene
D. moisture

17
81. What is the term used to describe the fibrous raw material used in the production of paper,
which serves as the foundation for its manufacturing process?
A. Pulp
B. Hemicellulose
C. Cellulose
D. Lignin
82. What is the primary inert gas used in Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP), which is
widely employed to extend the shelf life of packaged products?
A. Xenon
B. Krypton
C. Argon
D. Helium
83. What is the term for the stage in the crystallization process of sugar processing when solute
molecules dispersed in the solvent begin to aggregate into clusters on a nanometer scale?
A. Nucleation
B. Crystal growth
C. Super saturation
D. Evaporation
84. What is the main objective of the imbibition process in sugar production?
A. To increase the purity of the sugar juice.
B. To extract additional sugar from the sugar cane or sugar beet.
C. To remove impurities and suspended solids from the sugar juice.
D. To regulate the temperature of the sugar juice.
85. During sugar processing, what is the term for the concentrated syrup obtained after
evaporation of water from the sugar juice?
A. Molasses
B. Sucrose
C. Syrup
D. Massecuite

18
86. Which enzyme is commonly used in sugar processing to break down starch into sugars?
A. Pectinase
B. Amylase
C. Protease
D. Lipase
87. Which method is commonly used for sugar purification in industrial processing?
A. Crystallization
B. Fermentation
C. Distillation
D. Oxidation
88. What chemical process occurs during coffee roasting that contributes to the development of
flavor and aroma?
A. Oxidation
B. Fermentation
C. Dehydration
D. Caramelization
89. Which of the following additives is commonly used as an emulsifier in food products?
A. Sodium chloride
B. Lecithin
C. Citric acid
D. Potassium sorbate
90. In the context of food safety, HACCP stands for:
A. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
B. High Acid Concentration Cooking Process
C. Heat-Assisted Cold Chain Preservation
D. Hygienic Approaches to Clean Cooking Procedures

19
91. Which of the following is NOT a primary component of carbohydrates?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
92. Non-enzymatic browning reactions are primarily caused by the interaction between:
A. Enzymes and substrates
B. Proteins and sugars
C. Oxygen and water
D. Heat and light
93. Caramelization occurs when:
A. Sugars are heated to high temperatures, leading to the breakdown of molecules and the
formation of new compounds
B. Proteins react with reducing sugars in the presence of heat, resulting in brown pigments and
flavorful compounds
C. Oxygen interacts with unsaturated fatty acids, causing rancidity
D. Enzymes break down carbohydrates into simpler sugars
94. Which of the following is a function of carbohydrates in the body?
A. Provide long-term energy storage
B. Enhance absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
C. Regulate body temperature
D. Transport oxygen in the blood
95. Assume that you are working in communities who have problems of anemia. Which of the
following food products do you recommend for the community to eat in the Ethiopian context?
A. Injera from finger millet
B. Wheat Bread
C. Injera From Red Teff
D. Injera from white teff

20
96. Which of the following are the benefits and advantages of Fortification of Food?
A. It changes existing food habits
B. Alters the physical characteristics of the food
C. Fortification is safe and cost effective
D. Fortification gives complete nutrition
97. You are working as a manager of the Ethiopia public health institute of nutrition department.
It is reported to you, deficiency of a given micro nutrient in a given segment of the population of
a nation. Which method of fortification did you apply to overcome the reported problem?
A. Market driven Fortification
B. Mass Fortification'
C. Target Fortification
D. Household fortification
98. Which type of fortification is a combination of supplementation and fortification, and has
been referred to by some as “complementary food supplementation”?
A. Market Driven Fortification
B. Target Fortification
C. Household and community fortification
D. Mandatory Fortification
99. There is a huge risk of severe illness and death from childhood infections such as diarrhoea
and measles. Each year, up to 500,000 children become blind and 50% of these children die
within 12 months. As a food engineer graduate what will be your recommendation for this
problem?
A. Providing Iron fortified food products for children
B. Design and prepare Vitamin A formulated complementary foods.
C. Calcium based formulated foods
D. Preparing large quantity of weaning food

21
100. An urban area reports a rise in cases of goiter among residents due to iodine deficiency.
Which of the following food fortification methods would be the most effective intervention?
A. Fortifying rice with iron
B. Fortifying salt with iodine
C. Fortifying pasta with vitamin
D. Fortifying milk with calcium

22
 Answers
1. B 11. C 21. D 31. C 41. D 51. A 61. B 71. A 81. A 91. C

2. C 12. A 22. D 32. B 42. A 52. A 62. A 72. C 82. C 92. B

3. D 13. C 23. A 33. A 43. A 53. A 63. C 73. B 83. A 93. A

4. D 14. B 24. C 34. B 44. B 54. B 64. C 74. C 84. B 94. A

5. B 15. A 25. C 35. A 45. B 55. C 65. A 75. C 85. C 95. C

6. C 16. D 26. D 36. A 46. C 56. D 66. B 76. D 86. B 96. C

7. A 17. B 27. B 37. D 47. C 57. D 67. A 77. D 87. A 97. C

8. B 18. B 28. B 38. B 48. A 58. B 68. C 78. C 88. D 98. C

9. B 19. D 29. B 39. C 49. B 59. B 69. D 79. B 89. B 99. B

10. D 20. D 30. D 40. A 50. B 60. C 70. D 80. B 90. A 100. B

23