Cases Mentioned in The Text Book
Cases Mentioned in The Text Book
FACTS: Shantabai’s husband had granted her the right to take and
appropriate all kinds of wood from certain forests in his Zamindary
through an unregistered document. With the passing of the Madhya
Pradesh Abolition of Proprietary Rights (Estates, Mahals, and
Alienated Lands) Act, 1950, all proprietary rights in land vested in the
State U/S 3 of this Act and the petitioner could no longer cut any
wood. She obtained an order U/S 6(2) of the Act from the Deputy
Commissioner and started cutting trees. The Divisional Forest Officer
took action against her and passed an order directing that her name
might be cancelled and the cut materials forfeited. She moved the
State Government against this order but to no effect. Thereafter she
applied to this Court under Art. 32 of the Constitution and contended
that the order of Forest Officer infringed her fundamental rights under
Arts. 19(i)(f) and 19(1)(g).
“In my opinion, the document only confers a right to enter on the lands
in order to cut down certain kinds of trees and carry away the wood.”
“It is not a ‘transfer of a right to enjoy the immoveable property’ itself
(s. 105 of the Transfer of Property Act), but a grant of a right to enter
upon the land and take away a part of the produce of the soil from it. In a
lease, one enjoys the property but has no right to take it away. In a profit
a prendre one has a licence to enter on the land, not for the purpose of
enjoying it, but for removing something from it, namely, a part of the
produce of the soil.”
Cooper v. Cooper
In Cooper v. Cooper 1874, LR 7 HL 53, the Court held that the doctrine of
election applied on every instrument and all types of property.
The parties had been married for 26 years. Over a two year period, they negotiated
a separation agreement which gave the wife one-half of the husband's military
pension; virtually all of the matrimonial assets, including the home; and fixed-term
spousal support for six years from the date of the agreement at an amount equal to
40 per cent of the husband's employment income. Following the separation, the
wife continued to operate a llama farm at a deficit each year, using up some of her
capital and all of her income. After the fixed-term spousal support ended, she
applied to set aside the agreement and sought indefinite spousal support on the
basis that the agreement did not meet the objectives of the Divorce Act when
negotiated because self-sufficiency was not an attainable goal within the time
allowed. The husband had remarried and his new wife was seriously ill and unable
to work other than minimally. In anticipation of the end of his support obligation,
they had adopted a child.
The Corollary Relief Judgment incorporating the terms of the separation agreement
is granted; the agreement is upheld. Instead of embarking upon a career or
undertaking retraining to be in a position to eventually pay some of her living
expenses during the 8.5 years that she was receiving spousal support, the wife
chose to become a hobby farmer and pursue a passion which she knew, or ought to
have known, would not contribute to her financial well-being. The wife had
received over two-thirds of the parties' assets and at the time that the agreement
was made, financial independence to the standard that prevailed during the
marriage was a realistic and attainable goal with a combination of investment and
employment income.
M.C. Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries
On 4 and 6 December 1985, there was leakage of oleum gas from one of its units
which caused the death of an advocate and affected the health of several others.
The incident took place on December 4, 1985.
Sreerangayee case (1973) 1 MLJ 231
The above extract reveals the harrowing tale of a poverty-stricken woman with a
capacity to earn Rs. 2/- a day charged with maintaining five children between the
ages of 11 and 1 1/2 years, the callousness of her husband towards his wife and
children and his beastly desire in requiring a concubine during times when his wife
is disabled 'by him, the indifference of neighbours in general, the mean advantages
which the husband's brother wanted to get from his sister-in-law when she asked
him for a loan of Rs. 2/- and the Doctor who demanded payment of money for
treating her children when they fell ill and only a spoonful of 'Tamil' which alone
used to be served to children presumably in the mid-day meal schema.
Even so, the accused is not justified in murdering her children and attempting to
put an end to her life also. We can only take these circumstances into account in
inflicting the punishment and seeking to reform her as a useful member of society.
The Government have also as a policy provided for detention of such females
convicted of infanticide and we propose to adopt such a course. In the
circumstances of the case we recommend to the Government for commuting the
sentence of life imprisonment imposed on the accused for an offence under Section
302, Indian Penal Code and, in supersession of the recommendation made by the
Sessions Judge to substitute an imprisonment for a period of one year, the said
period of one year being in lieu of the sentences passed on her both under Sections
302 and 309, Indian Penal Code. We further direct in accordance with G.O.Ms.
N0.222 Law, (General) Department, dated 20th January, 1931, that the
Government may detain the accused in the Madras Seva Sadan or any other
institution having similar objectives for a certain period, to be fixed by the
Government to train her and make her fit to earn a decent livelihood.
(Konkan Railways Corp. Ltd. v. Mehul Construction Co. (2000) 7 SCC 201).
1. Balfour v. Balfour
2. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball
3. Durga Prasad V. Baldeo
4. Donoghue v Stevenson
5. Union Carbide Corporation ( Bhopal gas tragedy)
6. M.C. Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries,
7. State of Maharashtra v. Mayor Hans George, AIR 95 SC
The respondent, a German smuggler, left Zurich by plane on
27th November 1962 with 34 kilos of gold concealed on his person to be
delivered in Manila. The plane arrived in Bombay on the 28th but the
respondent did not come out of the plane. The Customs Authorities examined
the manifest of the aircraft to see if any gold was consigned by any
passenger, and not finding any entry they entered the plane, searched the
respondent, recovered the gold and charged him with an offence under ss.
8(1) and 23(1-A) of the Foreign
Exchange Regulation Act (7 of 1947) read with a notification
dated 8th November 1962 of the Reserve Bank of India which
was published in the Gazette of India on 24th November. The
respondent was convicted by the Magistrate, but acquitted by
the High Court on appeal. In the appeal by the State to the
Supreme Court, the respondent sought to support the judgment
of the High Court by contending that : (i) Mens rea was an
essential ingredient of the offence charged and as it was
not disputed by the prosecution that the respondent was not
I aware of the notification of the Reserve Bank, he could
not be found guilty, (ii) the notification being merely
subordinate or delegated legislation could be deemed to be
in force only when it was brought to the notice of persons!
affected by it and (iii) the second proviso in the
notification requiring disclosure in the manifest was not
applicable to gold carried on the person of a passenger.
HELD : (per RAJAGOPALA AYYANGAR and MUDHOLKAR JJ.) (i) On
the language of s. 8(1) read with s. 24(1) of the Act, which
throws on the accused the burden of proving that he had the
requisite permission to bring gold into India, there was no
scope for the invocation of the rule that besides the mere
act of voluntarily bringing gold into India any further
mental condition or mens rea is postulated as necessary to
constitute an offence referred to in s. 23(1-A). Further,
the very object and purpose of the Act and its effectiveness
as an instrument for the prevention of smuggling would be
entirely frustrated if a condition were to be read into the
sections qualifying the plains words of the enactment,that
the accused should be proved to have knowledge that he was
contravening the law before he could be held to have
contravened the provision. [145G; 147G; 154C-D; 157D-E].
Case law reviewed.
The Indo-China Steam Navigation Co. Ltd. v. Jasjit Singh,
Addl. Collector of Customs, Calcutta (A.I.R. 1964 S.C.
1140) followed.
(ii) The notification was "published" and made known in
India by publication in the and the ignorance of it by the
respondent who is a foreigner was wholly irrelevant and
made no difference to his liability
3. It is also not in dispute that in this incident this appellant and other
accused also received some injuries. This appellant is alleged to have
received number of injuries, two with sharp weapons and other injuries by
blunt weapons. Accordingly to the prosecution story, one Mehar Singh who
was examined as a witness for prosecution stated that he took up a seroo (the
leg of the cot) and inflicted injuries by it on this accused also
5. The circumstances that appear are that there is no clear explanation of the
injuries on the accused person. The appellant has set up a defence that the
scuffle started and it is only in that situation that he took out the knife and
inflicted a blow. It is also not in dispute that it was only one blow which was
inflicted by the present appellant. In these circumstances, the evidence of the
prosecution does not clearly establish the manner in which the incident took
place and, therefore, it could not be held that the incident did not take place
in the manner suggested by the present appellant accused, and in that
situation it could not be held that he inflicted this injury with an intention to
cause death. At best, knowledge could be imputed to him that it may result
in death.
6. In view of this the conviction of the appellant under Section 302 could not
be maintained. The conviction of the appellant is altered to Section 304 Part
II. He has already been in custody for more than five years.
9. Sahoo v. State of U.P
Sahoo, the appellant, is a resident of Pachperwa in the District of Gonda. He has
two sons, Badri and Kirpa Shanker. He lost his wife years ago. His eldest son,
Badri, married one Sunderpatti. Badri was employed in Lucknow, and his wife was
residing with his father. It is said that Sunderpatti developed illicit intimacy with
Sahoo; but there were incessant quarrels between them. On August 12, 1963,
during one of those quarrels, Sunderpatti ran away to the house of one Mohammed
Abdullah, a neighbour of theirs. The appellant brought her back, and after some
wordy altercation between them they slept in the only room of their house. The
only other inmate of the house was the appellant's second son, Kirpa Shanker, a lad
of about 8 years. On the morning of August 13, 1963, Sunderpatti was found with
serious injuries in the room of the house where she was sleeping and the appellant
was not in the house. Sunderpatti was admitted in the Sadar Hospital, Gonda, at
5.25 p.m. on that day and she died on August 26, 1963 at 3 p.m. Sahoo was sent up
for trial before the Court of Sessions, Gonda, on a charge under s. 302 of the Indian
Penal Code.
The learned Sessions Judge, on a consideration of the entire evidence came to the
conclusion that Sahoo killed Sunderpatti. On that finding, he convicted the accused
under s. 302 of the Indian Penal Code and sentenced him to death. On appeal, a
Division Bench of the High Court at Allahabad confirmed both the conviction and
the sentence. Hence the appeal.
Before we consider whether the circumstances narrated above would stand the said
rigorous test, we will at the outset deal with the contention that the soliloquy of the
accused admitting his guilt was not an extra-judicial confession as the Courts
below held it to be. If it was an extra-judicial confession, it would really partake
the character of direct evidence rather than that of circumstantial evidence. It is
argued that it is implicit in the concept of confession, whether it is extra-judicial or
judicial, that it shall be communicated to another. It is said that one cannot confess
to himself : he can only confess to another. This raises an interesting point, which
falls to be decided on a consideration of the relevant provisions of the Evidence
Act. Sections 24 to 30 of the Evidence Act deal with the admissibility of
confessions by accused persons in criminal cases. But the expression "confession"
is not defined. The Judicial Committee in Pakala Narayana v. R. [L.R. 66 I.A. 66]
has defined the said expression thus :
"A confession is a statement made by an accused which must either admit in terms
the offence, or at any rate substantially all the facts which constitute the offence."
Pursuant to Article 323-A and 323-B of the Constitution of India the Central
Administrative Tribunal, with five Benches, was established on November 1, 1985.
However, even before the Tribunal had been established, several writ petitions had
been filed in various High Courts as well as the Supreme Court, challenging the
constitutional validity of Article 323-A, on the ground that it is contrary to the
spirit of the Constitution as it excludes the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under
Article 32 of the Constitution and the High Court under Article 226 of the
Constitution. Through an interim order[3] in S. P. Sampat Kumar v. Union of
India[4] the Supreme Court, in order to ensure the functioning of the Tribunal
along with sound Constitutional principles, directed carrying out of certain
measures.
When Sampat Kumar’s case was finally heard, these changes had already been
incorporated in the body and text of the Act. The Supreme Court took the view that
most of the original grounds of challenge –which included the challenge to the
constitutional validity of Article 323-A – did not survive and restricted its focus to
testing only the validity of the provisions of the act. In the final decision it was
held that though judicial review is the basic feature of the Constitution, the vesting
of the power of judicial review in an alternative Institutional Mechanism, after
taking it away from the High Court, would not be violative of the basic structure of
the Constitution, so long it was ensured that the alternative mechanism was an
effective and real substitute for the High Court.
Similar questions were raised subsequently in many cases and one of them was L.
Chandra Kumar v. Union of India[5]. In this case after analyzing the relevant
Constitutional provisions and the circumstances which led to the decision in
Sampat Kumar’s case, the bench reached the conclusion that:- on account of the
divergent view expressed by the Supreme Court in a series of cases after Sampat
Kumar’s case, the resulting situation warranted a fresh look by a larger Bench
over all the issues adjudicated by the Court in Sampat Kumar’s case including the
question whether the Tribunal can at all have an Administrative Member on its
bench, if it were to have the power of even deciding the constitutional validity of a
statute or Article 309 rule as decided in J. B. Chopra v. Union of India[6].The
present case under discussion is the very case where the larger bench looked over
all the issues adjudicated by the Court in Sampat Kumar’s case.
Issues raised:
1. Whether the power conferred upon the Parliament by Article 323-A (2) (d)
or upon the State Legislature by Article 323-B (3) (d) of the Constitution of
India, to totally exclude the jurisdiction of ‘all courts’, except that of the
Supreme Court under Article 136 ?
2. Whether the Tribunals constituted either under Article 323A or under Article
323B of the Constitution, possess the competence to test the constitutional
validity of a statutory provision or rule?
3. Whether the Tribunals, as they are functioning at present, can be said to be
the effective substitutes for the High Court in discharging the power of
judicial review? If not, what are the changes required to make them conform
to their founding objectives?
Judgment
Issue 1 :- Whether the power conferred upon the Parliament by Article 323-A (2)
(d) or upon the State Legislature by Article 323-B (3) (d) of the Constitution of
India, to totally exclude the jurisdiction of ‘all courts’, except that of the Supreme
Court under Article 136, in respect of disputes and complaints referred to in
Article 323-A (1) or with regard to all or any of the matters specified in Article
323-B (2), runs contrary to the power of judicial review conferred on the High
Court u/as 226/227 and on the Supreme Court u/a 32 of the Constitution of India?
In adjudging this issue the Bench made a study of the provisions of the
Administrative Tribunals Act particularly Section 28. It pointed out that although
Section 28 was originally enacted in express terms with Article 323A of the
Constitution and the only exception was made in respect to the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court under Article 136 but when the final hearing of Sampat Kumar’s
case was concluded the provision was already amended to save the jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution. It also pointed out that as
Sampat Kumar case was specifically related with power of judicial review of the
Supreme Court, and as it already had been returned to the court, the court
expressed itself satisfied with the position as it had emerged during the pendency
of Sampat Kumar case and the court did not ventured to address the larger issue of
whether Article 323A (2) also required a similar amendment.
The court also found that the main intention behind the Act was to provide for a
self-contained, self-sufficient and exclusive forum of adjudicating all service
related matters. But it made it clear that it was intended to perform a substitution
role and not a supplemental role.
Next it ventured in examining post-Sampat Kumar cases and found that those cases
did not specifically addressed the question regarding the power of the
Administrative Tribunals in striking down a statute or provision as
unconstitutional. In J. B. Chopra’s case[7] the Division Bench felt that it would
follow as a logical and direct consequence of the judgment in Sampat Kumar’s
case. In M. B. Majumdar v. Union of India[8] the bench held that Administrative
Tribunals can be equated with High courts as regards to its jurisdiction in service
matters but not in case of service conditions of the members of the tribunal. In R.
K. Jain v. Union of India[9], which coincidently had the same bench as in the
discussed case, analyzed the relevant provisions, and cases such as Sampat Kumar,
Chopra, Majumdar etc. and found that the Tribunals under Article 323A cannot be
substitutes to the High Court as their performance was not satisfactory and also
because they leave the litigants with only one remedy under 136 by the way of
appeal to the Supreme Court which is costly affair. It suggested that an expert body
like the Law Commission of India should study the feasibility of providing an
appeal to a two judge Bench of the High Court from a decision of the Tribunals.
The court also took in view the suggestions made by the learned counsels. Mr.
Rama Jois and Mr. Shanti Bhushan urged the court to review the judgment in
Sampat Kumar’s case and contended that Articles 323A (2) (d) and 323B (3) (d)
should be declared unconstitutional to the extent they exclude the jurisdiction of
the High Court. Mr. Bhatt, the learned Additional Solicitor General, Mr. P. P. Rao
and Mr. K. K. Venugopal on the other hand urged the court to uphold the validity
of the said Articles. Mr. A. K. Ganguly cited that the power of judicial review
vested on the constitutional Courts cannot be bestowed on newly created quasi-
judicial bodies which are susceptible to executive influences. Next it went to
discuss the other facet of this issue viz. judicial review and the basic feature of the
constitution. After citing various cases like Kesavananda Bharati’s case[10],
dissenting view of Chandrachud J. in Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain[11],
Minority judgment of Bhagwati J. in Minerava Mills v. Union of India[12] and the
view, or rather a revised view, of Chandrachud CJ. In Fertilizer Corporation
Kamgar Union v. Union of India[13], the Court came to the conclusion that
judicial review is indeed a basic feature of the Constitution.
Also the court relied on the view of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, the Chairman of the
Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India regarding Article 25
(corresponding to the present Article 32 of the Constitution) where he said that this
Article is the very soul of the Constitution.
Issue 2 :- Whether the Tribunals constituted either under Article 323A or under
Article 323B of the Constitution, possess the competence to test the constitutional
validity of a statutory provision or rule?
In this regard the court cited took help from the American practice regarding
judicial review. The court also found that the definition of judicial review in
America and in India are similar and therefore went on to review the position of
judicial review in America and for this relied on the view of Henry J.
Abraham(Henry J. Abraham, The Judicial Process[14], an acclaimed American
Constitutional Law scholar. It found that theoretically every Court in America, no
matter how high or low, had the power of judicial review although it is seldom
used. That is there is no blanket prohibition on the conferment of judicial power
upon Courts other than the U. S. Supreme Court.
The court also agreed that if the power of judicial review under Article 32 of the
Constitution, which has been described as the heart and soul of the Constitution,
can be additionally conferred on any other court, there is no reason why the same
cannot be done in case of the power conferred upon the High Court under Article
226 of the Constitution. However it is must that the jurisdiction of the High Court
under Articles 226/227 and of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is retained and
the Tribunals function as a supplementary body.
In giving the reason of this view the learned Court pointed out the following
points:
It is very necessary for clearing the backlog of pending cases which has
assumed a colossal proportion.
Although the Tribunals have not performed upto the expectations it would
not be satisfactory to attribute these problems to the very basic principles of
its establishment and hold them as unsound. The reasons for the
establishment of the Tribunals still persist and have become more
pronounced in the recent times.
However it held that the jurisdiction of the Tribunals would be subject to the
review of the High Court under Articles 226/227. This would serve two purposes;
one it will ensure that frivolous claims would be filtered out through the process of
adjudication in the Tribunal and two, the High Court will not lose its power of
judicial review. Thus the Supreme Court held that the Tribunals constituted either
under Article 323A or under Article 323B of the Constitution, possess the
competence to test the constitutional validity of a statutory provision or rule
subject to the review by the High Court.
Issue 3 :- Whether the Tribunals, as they are functioning at present, can be said to
be the effective substitutes for the High Court in discharging the power of judicial
review? If not, what are the changes required to make them conform to their
founding objectives?
The Court throughout the judgment pointed out that the Tribunals are not
substitutes of the High Court but are supplementary. Moreover it suggested the
following changes:
They will function as a supplementary body and all such decisions of the
Tribunals will be subject to the scrutiny before a Division Bench of the
respective High Courts.
The contention that appointment of Administrative members to
Administrative tribunals should be stopped cannot be accepted as a judicious
mix of judicial members and those with grass-root experience would be
better suited for the purpose of speedy and efficient discharge of justice.
To remove the inefficiency of the Tribunals the tribunals should be made
subject to the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court.
The Ministry may appoint an independent supervisory body to oversee the
working of the tribunals.
Ratio Decendi
Power of judicial review over legislative action vested in the High Courts
and the Supreme Court under Articles 226 and 32 respectively is the basic
structure of the Constitution.
Power of judicial superintendence over decisions of all courts and Tribunals
within their jurisdiction is the basic structure of the Constitution
Judicial review of legislative action in exercise of power by subordinate
judiciary or Tribunals created under ordinary legislation cannot be to the
exclusion of the High Courts and the Supreme Court. However they can
perform supplemental – as opposed to substitutional – role in this respect.
Tribunals constituted under Articles 323A and 323B have the power to test
vires of subordinate legislation except vires of their parent statutes. All its
decisions would be subject to scrutiny before Division Bench of their
respective High Courts under Articles 226/227. No appeal would lie directly
to the Supreme Court under Article 136. The said direction would operative
prospectively.
Appointment of Administrative members need not be stopped.
Till a wholly independent body is set for the purpose of overseeing the
working of the Tribunals, all such Tribunals will be under single nodal
ministry whose members would be appropriately be a Ministry of Law.
Decision
All the matters are to be listed before a Division Bench to enable them to be
decided upon their individual facts in the light of the observations contained in the
judgment
11.Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd., (2010)
8 SCC 24
Cherian Verkay Construction filed a suit against the Afcons Infrastructure and Ors.
for recovery of Rs.210,70,881 which includes the amount due to the appellants
from the employer with interest at 18% per annum.
In the same suit an order of attachment was made on 15.09.2004 in regard to the
sum of Rs. 2.25 crores. Thereafter, In March 2005 ,Cherian Verkay Construction
filed an application under section 89 of CPC before the trial court praying that the
court may formulate the terms of settlement and refer the matter to arbitration.
Afcons infrastructure and Ors. filed a counter dated 24.10.2005 to the application
submitting that they were not agreeable for referring the matter to arbitration or
any of the other ADR processes under section 89 of the Code.
In the meanwhile, the High Court of Kerala by order dated 8.9.2005, allowed the
appeal filed by the appellants against the order of attachment and raised the
attachment granted by the trial court subject to certain conditions. While doing so,
the High Court also directed the trial court to consider and dispose of the
application filed by the first respondent under section 89 of the Code.
The trial court after hearing the parties allowed the said application under section
89 of the code. Then ,the Appellants filed the review petition against the order of
the trial court.
The High Court by the impugned order dated 11.10.2006 dismissed the revision
petition holding that the apparent tenor of section 89 of the Code permitted the
court, in appropriate cases, to refer even unwilling parties to arbitration. This order
was challenged in the Superme Court as an Appeal.
The Supreme Court rightly pointed out various drafting errors in interpreting
section 89 of the code of civil procedure.
The first Anomaly is the mixing up of the definitions of `mediation' and `judicial
settlement' under clauses (c) and (d) of sub-section (2) of section 89 of the Code.
Clause (c) says that for judicial settlement, the court shall refer the same to a
suitable institution or person who shall be deemed to be a Lok Adalat.
Clause (d) provides that where the reference is to mediation , the court shall effect
a compromise between the parties by following such procedure as may be
prescribed.
The second anomaly is that sub-section (1) of section 89 imports the final stage of
conciliation referred to in section 73(1) of the AC Act into the pre-ADR reference
stage under section 89 of the Code.
Sub-section (1) of section 89 requires the court to formulate the terms of settlement
and give them to the parties for their observation and then reformulate the terms of
a possible settlement and then refer the same for any one of the ADR processes. If
sub-section (1) of Section 89 is to be literally followed, every Trial Judge before
framing issues, is required to ascertain whether there exists any elements of
settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, formulate the terms of
settlement, give them to parties for observations and then reformulate the terms of
a possible settlement before referring it to arbitration, conciliation, judicial
settlement, Lok Adalat or mediation. There is nothing that is left to be done by the
alternative dispute resolution forum. If all these have to be done by the trial court
before referring the parties to alternative dispute resolution processes, the court
itself may as well proceed to record the settlement as nothing more is required to
be done, as a Judge cannot do these unless he acts as a conciliator or mediator and
holds detailed discussions and negotiations running into hours.
The apex Court tried to make demarcation between the extent of ADR to dispute
and settlement . It was stated in Salem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India
that If the reference is to be made to arbitration, the terms of settlement formulated
by the court will be of no use, as what is referred to arbitration is the dispute and
not the terms of settlement; and the Arbitrator will adjudicate upon the dispute and
give his decision by way of award.
In Salem Bar Association case, it was stated that the court is only required to
formulate a ‘summary of disputes’ and not ‘terms of settlement'. Interpretation of
any statute is based on the Principle of Statutory Interpretation. This principle
applies when there is any ambiguity in understanding the provisions of the statute.
Where the words of the statute are clear and unambiguous, the provision should be
given its plain and normal meaning, without adding or rejecting any words and
‘when a procedure is prescribed by the Legislature, it is not for the court to
substitute a different one according to its notion of justice, when the Legislature
has spoken, the judges cannot afford to be wiser’.
Issues Discussed
Keeping in view the contentions of both the parties, The apex court formulated two
issues which were later on discussed in this particular case:
Section 89 has to be read with Rule 1-A of Order 10 which requires the court to
direct the parties to opt for any of the five modes of alternative dispute resolution
processes and on their option refer the matter. The said rule does not require the
court to either formulate the terms of settlement or make available such terms of
settlement to the parties to reformulate the terms of possible settlement after
receiving the observations of the parties. Therefore the only practical way of
reading Section 89 and Order 10, Rule 1-A is that after the pleadings are complete
and after seeking admission/denials wherever required, and before framing issues,
the court will have recourse to section 89 of the Code. Such recourse requires the
court to consider and record the nature of the dispute, inform the parties about the
five options available and take note of their preferences and then refer them to one
of the alternative dispute resolution processes.
Firstly, it is not necessary for the court, before referring the parties to an ADR
process to formulate or re-formulate the terms of a possible settlement. It is
sufficient if the court merely describes the nature of dispute (in a sentence or two)
and makes the reference.
Secondly, the definitions of `judicial settlement' and `mediation' in clauses (c) and
(d) of section 89(2) shall have to be interchanged to correct the draftsman's error.
Clauses (c) and (d) of section 89(2) of the Code will read as under when the two
terms are interchanged (c) for mediation the court shall refer the same to a suitable
institution or person and such institution or person shall be deemed to be a Lok
Adalat and all the provisions of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 (39 of
1987) shall apply as if the dispute were referred to a Lok Adalat under the
provisions of that Act; (d) for judicial settlement, the court shall effect a
compromise between the parties and shall follow such procedure as may be
prescribed.
The Supreme Court declared that the above changes made by interpretative process
shall remain in force till the legislature corrects the mistakes, so that section 89 is
not rendered meaningless and infructuous.
2.Consent of all parties to the suit is necessary for reference to arbitration under
section 89 of the Code.
The main question discussed by the Supreme Court in this particular case was
whether reference to ADR process is mandatory.
The Court considered the interpretation made in the Salem Bar Association Case
which considered the aspect of advert conflict between the language of section 89
and Order 10 Rule 1-A of the code.
However after analyzing the fact, the Supreme Court clarified the legal
position more aptly by stating that:
‘Section 89 starts with the words “where it appears to the court that there exist
elements of a settlement”. This clearly shows that cases which are not suited for
ADR process should not be referred under Section 89 of the Code. The court has to
form an opinion that a case is one that is capable of being referred to and settled
through ADR process. Having regard to the tenor of the provisions of Rule 1-A of
Order 10 of the Code, the civil court should invariably refer cases to ADR process.
Only in certain recognized excluded categories of cases it may choose not to refer
to an ADR process. Where the case is unsuited for reference to any of the ADR
processes, the court will have to briefly record the reasons for not resorting to any
of the settlement procedures prescribed under Section 89 of the Code. Therefore,
having a hearing after completion of pleadings, to consider recourse to ADR
process under Section 89 of the Code, is mandatory. But actual reference to an
ADR process in all cases is not mandatory. Where the case falls under an excluded
category, there need not be reference to ADR process. In all other cases reference
to ADR process is a must’.
Though , The Superme Court accepted that in most of the cases references to ADR
process is must but it also mentioned the excluded category which are not to be
referred for ADR Process.
Those are:
· Representative suits under Order 1 Rule 8 CPC which involve public interest or
interest of numerous persons who are not parties before the court. (In fact, even a
compromise in such a suit is a difficult process requiring notice to the persons
interested in the suit, before its acceptance).
· Cases involving grant of authority by the section after enquiry, as for example,
suits or grant of probate or letters of administration.
The Supreme Court also stated that all the other suits and cases of civil nature
which falls under the following categories ,whether pending in civil courts or any
tribunals, can be referred for ADR Process.
· All cases where there is a need for continuation of the pre-existing relationship,
such as disputes between neighbour and members of societies;
· All cases relating to tortuous liability, including motor accident claims; and
The Supreme Court endeavoured to resolve the conflict under section 89 of the
code and hence made a demarcation as to which cases can be brought under
‘suitable’ and ‘unsuitable’ categories for referring ADR processes.
· When the pleadings are complete, before framing issues, the court shall fix a
preliminary hearing for appearance of parties. The court should acquaint itself with
the facts of the case and the nature of the dispute between the parties.
· The court should first consider whether the case falls under any of the category of
the cases which are required to be tried by courts and not fit to be referred to any
ADR processes. If it finds the case falls under any excluded category, it should
record a brief order referring to the nature of the case and why it is not fit for
reference to ADR processes. It will then proceed with the framing of issues and
trial.
· In other cases (that is, in cases which can be referred to ADR processes) the court
should explain the choice of five ADR processes to the parties to enable them to
exercise their option.
· The court should first ascertain whether the parties are willing for arbitration. The
court should inform the parties that arbitration is an adjudicatory process by a
chosen private forum and reference to arbitration will permanently take the suit
outside the ambit of the court. The parties should also be informed that the cost of
arbitration will have to be borne by them. Only if both parties agree for arbitration,
and also agree upon the arbitrator, the matter should be referred to arbitration.
· If the parties are not agreeable for arbitration, the court should ascertain whether
the parties are agreeable for reference to conciliation which will be governed by
the provisions of the AC Act. If all the parties agree for reference to conciliation
and agree upon the conciliator/s, the court can refer the matter to conciliation in
accordance with section 64 of the AC Act.
· If parties are not agreeable for arbitration and conciliation, which is likely to
happen in most of the cases for want of consensus, the court should, keeping in
view the preferences/options of parties, refer the matter to any one of the other
three other ADR processes :
· If the case is simple which may be completed in a single sitting, or cases relating
to a matter where the legal principles are clearly settled and there is no personal
animosity between the parties (as in the case of motor accident claims), the court
may refer the matter to Lok Adalat. In case where the questions are complicated or
cases which may require several rounds of negotiations, the court may refer the
matter to mediation. Where the facility of mediation is not available or where the
parties opt for the guidance of a Judge to arrive at a settlement, the court may refer
the matter to another Judge for attempting settlement.
· If the reference to the ADR process fails, on receipt of the Report of the ADR
Forum, the court shall proceed with hearing of the suit. If there is a settlement, the
court shall examine the settlement and make a decree in terms of it, keeping the
principles of Order 23 Rule 3 of the Code in mind.
· If the settlement includes disputes which are not the subject matter of the suit, the
court may direct that the same will be governed by Section 74 of the AC Act (if it
is a Conciliation Settlement) or Section 21 of the Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987 (if it is a settlement by a Lok Adalat or by mediation which is a deemed Lok
Adalat). This will be necessary as many settlement agreements deal with not only
the disputes which are the subject matter of the suit or proceeding in which the
reference is made, but also other disputes which are not the subject matter of the
suit.
· If any term of the settlement is ex facie illegal or unforceable, the court should
draw the attention of parties thereto to avoid further litigations and disputes about
executability.
Judgment
In this particular case, The Supreme Court relied upon the judgment of Sukanya
Holdings Case and held that to contend for a reference to arbitration under section
89 of the Code, consent of parties is not required. The High Court has assumed that
section 89 enables the civil court to refer a case to arbitration even in the absence
of an arbitration agreement. Sukanya Holdings does not lay down any such
proposition. In that decision, this Court was considering the question as to whether
an application under section 8 of the AC Act could be maintained even where a
part of the subject matter of the suit was not covered by an arbitration agreement.
The only observations in the decision relating to Section 89 are as under:
Reliance was placed on Section 89 CPC in support of the argument that the matter
should have been referred to arbitration.The Division Bench held that Section 89
CPC cannot be resorted to for interpreting Section 8 of the Act as it stands on a
different footing and it would be applicable even in cases where there is no
arbitration agreement for referring the dispute for arbitration. Further, for that
purpose, the court has to apply its mind to the condition contemplated under
Section 89 CPC and even if application under Section 8 of the Act is rejected, the
court is required to follow the procedure prescribed under the said section.
The Court drew out inference that even in the absence of Arbitration agreement,
Parties can go for ADR process through Mutual Consent and Finally the Supreme
court enlightened in this matter by delivering landmark judgment stating that:
1. The trial court did not adopt the proper procedure while enforcing Section 89 of
the Code. Failure to invoke Section 89 suo moto after completion of pleadings and
considering it only after an application under Section 89 was filed, is erroneous.
2. A civil court exercising power under Section 89 of the Code cannot refer a suit
to arbitration unless all the parties to the suit agree for such reference.
Conclusion
"Discourage litigation. Persuade your neighbours to compromise wherever you
can. Point out to them how the nominal winner is often a real loser - in fees,
expenses, and waste of time. As a peacemaker, the lawyer has a superior
opportunity of being a good man. There will still be business enough." ----
Abraham Lincoln
12. 2011, in a judgment delivered by the Bombay High Court on a public
interest litigation (PIL) was filed by Lawyer's Collective, a non-profit
organization
13.PIL filed byA.K. Balaji, permitted foreign lawyers to practice in India on a "fly
in and fly out 155
India had signed the WTO Treaty in the 1990s leading to economic
liberalization, it is also expected to liberalize the legal services sector under the
GATS (General Agreement on Trade and Services) and services negotiations
under various free trade agreements/ economic partnership agreements.
14.Patna High Court case, Ms. Hazra . In the Patna High Court case, Ms. Hazra,
the petitioner, secured a B.L. degree from Calcutta University. 165
15.New Delhi: The Supreme Court on Tuesday held that foreign law firms and
lawyers cannot practise in the country, even as it allowed “casual visits" by
foreign lawyers on a “fly in and fly out" basis for rendering legal advice to
clients in India.
16.In the process, a bench comprising justices Adarsh Kumar Goel and U.U. Lalit
modified a Madras high court order permitting foreign lawyers and law firms to
come to India on a “fly in and fly out" basis for rendering legal services here on
offshore laws and diverse international legal issues.
17.“We hold that the expression ‘fly in and fly out’ will only cover a casual visit
not amounting to ‘practice’. In case of a dispute (over) whether a foreign lawyer
was limiting himself to ‘fly in and fly out’ on (a) casual basis for the purpose of
giving legal advice to clients in India regarding foreign law or their own system
of law and on diverse international legal issues or whether in substance he was
doing practice which is prohibited can be determined by the Bar Council of
India (BCI)," the bench ruled.
The Hon'ble Supreme Court of India (Supreme Court) pronounced a judgment
restricting foreign law firms/lawyers from setting up offices in India and has only
allowed them to come to India on temporary basis for advise on foreign law only
and for participation in international commercial arbitrations in India. Further,
restrictions have been imposed on BPO's so that they do not venture in to practice
of law in any manner.
Background
Under the Advocates Act 1961 (Act), a foreigner is not entitled to practice
law in view of the restrictions contained under the said Act. However, under
the guise of different entities foreign lawyers were conducting seminars and
conferences etc in India. Foreign law firms were also practicing the
profession of law in India in violation of the Act. Writ petitions were filed
before the Hon'ble Madras High Court (ie, AK Balaji vs. Government of
India (Madras HC Judgment)) and Hon'ble Bombay High Court
(ie, Lawyers Collective vs. Bar Council of India (Bombay HC Judgment)),
seeking restrictions on such practices.
The Supreme Court, in Bar Council of India vs. AK Balaji & Ors, passed a
landmark judgment dated 13 March 2018, which has put to rest some of the
major issues concerning the entry of foreign lawyers and law firms in India.
The key issue was whether foreign lawyers and law firms are permitted to practice
in India.
Madras HC judgment
The main issue arising in the Madras HC Judgement was whether foreign
lawyers and law firms can practice law in India in case of litigation and
commercial transactions.
The writ petition was filed by Mr AK Balaji, Advocate, seeking directions
restricting the entry of foreign lawyers and law firms in India. The Madras
High Court held that:
o There was no bar on foreign lawyers and law firms from taking part in
negotiations, settling of documents and conducting arbitrations in
India.
o There was no bar on foreign lawyers and law firms providing
consultancy/support services as the same cannot be treated as practice
of law.
o There was no bar on foreign lawyers and law firms to participate in
international commercial arbitration in India. It was observed that
foreign contracting parties are entitled to lawyers from their own
country.
o Foreign lawyers and law firms can "fly in and fly out" of India for
advising their clients in India on foreign law and there is no bar on the
same.
o It was also observed that several accountancy and management firms
are employing law graduates who are rendering legal services which
is contrary to the Act and, and held that in case any activity is carried
out against the provisions of the Act, Bar Council of India will be
entitled to take appropriate action.
Bombay HC judgment
The main issue arising in the Bombay HC Judgment was whether foreign
law firms can open liaison offices in India to carry on the practice in non-
litigious matters without being enrolled as Advocates under the Act.
The Bombay High Court held that,
o The phrase "to practice profession of law" used in Section 29 of the
Act is wide enough to cover litigious as well as non-litigious practice.
As a result, foreign lawyers and law firms were bound to follow
provisions of the Act.
o The Reserve Bank of India was not justified in granting permission to
foreign law firms to open liaison offices in India.
The Hon'ble Supreme Court held that the phrase "practice of profession"
includes both litigation practice and non-litigation practice. The
understanding of "practice of profession" has thus been given a wider
meaning to include provision of advisory services, legal opinions etc.
On the issue whether practice by foreign lawyers and law firms is
permissible without fulfilling the requirements of the Act and Bar Council of
India Rules, the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that the regulatory framework
for conduct of advocates applies to non-litigation practice. It was further
held that the prohibitions as applicable under the Act are applicable to
foreign lawyers and law firms also.
On the issue whether there is a bar on foreign lawyers and law firms to visit
India on a "fly in and fly out" basis for giving legal advice regarding foreign
law, the Hon'ble Supreme Court held a casual or temporary visit for giving
advice will not be covered under "practice" and the same is permissible. On
the issue whether a particular visit will be treated as 'casual' or 'regular' will
be decided on a case to case basis.
The Hon'ble Supreme Court has subjected the foreign law firms/lawyers to
regulatory mechanism in India and suggested the Bar Council of India or Union of
India to frame appropriate rules in this regard.
The Hon'ble Supreme Court also clarified that the Act deals with companies and
firms in addition to individuals. This is the first instance wherein law firms or
entities engaged in the legal sector were recognized, which were earlier not
recognised by the Bar Council of India.
Comment