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Tutorial 02 Solution

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Tutorial 02 Solution

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FIN 205/ FIN 510

Tutorial 02 – Solutions

Q1. Why it is better to receive $1 today than at some point in the future?

Answer: Assuming a positive interest rate (i.e. r > 0), then $1 in the future is always
worth less than $1 today because the present value of $1 received in the future is $1 /
(1 + r)N which results in a value below $1.

Q2. What is the importance for an individual of understanding time value of money
concepts? For a corporate manager? Under what circumstance would the time value of
money be irrelevant?

Answer: An individual would want to know time value of money techniques in order
to compare investments. Which is better – shares, bonds, preferred equity, real estate,
etc.? A corporate manager uses time-value-of-money techniques to make accept/reject
decisions for the company’s projects. An example of where time-value-of-money might
not be used is if a company is required to take on a specified project (such as one that
addressed an environmental or safety issue). Then time-value- of-money would not
matter, since the company would have to make the investment to comply with
government rules.

Q3. How would the future value of a deposit be affected by: a) a decrease in the interest
rate; or b) an increase in the holding period? Why?

Answer: A decrease in the interest rate would lower future value, while an increase in
the holding period will increase future value. Decreasing the interest rate decreases the
future value factor and thus future value. Increasing the holding period increases the
future value factor and thus future value. Looking at the expression for future value,
FV = PV × (1+r)N, where r is interest rate and n is the number of holding periods, should
make these relationships obvious.

Q4. How would the present value be affected by: a) an increase in the discount rate; or b) a
decrease in the time period until the cash flow is received? Why?

Answer: An increase in the discount rate will decrease the present value factor and
hence the present value: A higher interest rate means you would have to set less aside
today to earn a specified amount in the future. A decrease in the time period increases
the present value factor and increases the present value: If you have less time, you will
have to set aside more today to have a specified amount in the future.

Q5. Why is the future value of an ordinary annuity generally less than the future value of
an identical annuity due?
Answer: An ordinary annuity generates payments at the end of each period. Annuities
due, on the other hand, generate payments at the beginning of each period. Cash flows
can be converted from an ordinary annuity into an annuity due by multiplying the final
answer by one plus the interest rate.
Q6. Why is the future value of an ordinary annuity generally less than the future value of
an identical annuity due?
Answer: An ordinary annuity generates payments at the end of each period. Annuities
due, on the other hand, generate payments at the beginning of each period. Cash flows
can be converted from an ordinary annuity into an annuity due by multiplying the final
answer by one plus the interest rate.
Q7. Why is the effective annual rate often greater than the stated annual rate?
Answer: The effective rate equals: (1 + r/m)m – 1, where ‘r’ is the stated annual rate. If
‘m’ is less than one, i.e. compounding occurs at a less than annual basis, then the
effective rate will be greater than the stated annual rate.
Q8. On a 30-year mortgage, would the total amount of money paid by the borrower over the life of
the loan be greater if there were weekly payments or monthly payments

Answer: The total amount paid by the borrower (i.e. interest and principal) will be less
with weekly payments when compared to monthly payments. This occurs because
weekly payments repay principal faster, allowing for less interest to accrue on the loan.
Because less interest accrues, the total amount paid by the borrower decreases.

Practice Problems
Q1. You have $1,500 to invest today at 7% interest compounded annually.
a. How much will you have accumulated in the account at the end of the following
number of years?
1. three years 2. six years 3. nine years
b. Use your findings in part (a) to calculate the amount of interest earned in
1. years 1 to 3 2. years 4 to 6 3. years 7 to 9
c. Compare and contrast your findings in part (b). Explain why the amount of
interest earned increases in each succeeding 3-year period.
Answer.

Future Value: FVn = PV  (1 + r)n or FVn = PV  (FVFr%,n)


a. 1. FV3 = PV  (1.07)3 b. 1. Interest earned = FV3 – PV
FV3 = $1,500  (1.22504) Interest earned = $1,837.57
FV3 = $1,837.57 –1,500.00
$ 337.57

2. FV6 = PV  (1.07)6 2. Interest earned = FV6 – FV3


FV6 = $1,500  (1.50073) Interest earned = $2,251.10
FV6 = $2,251.10 –1,837.57
$ 413.53
3. FV9 = PV  (1.07)9 3. Interest earned = FV9 – FV6
FV9 = $1,500  (1.83846) Interest earned = $2,757.69
FV9 = $2,757.69 –2,251.10
$ 506.59

c. The fact that the longer the investment period the larger the total amount of interest
collected is not unexpected and is due to the greater length of time that the principal sum
of $1,500 is invested. The most significant point is that the incremental interest earned
per 3 year period increases with each subsequent 3-year period. The total interest for the
first 3 years is $337.57; however, for the second 3 years (from year 3 to 6) the additional
interest earned is $413.93. For the third 3-year period the incremental interest is $506.19.
This increasing change in interest earned is due to compounding, the earning of interest
on previous interest earned. The greater the previous interest earned the greater the
impact of compounding.
Q2. You have saved $10,000 toward a down payment on a home. The money is invested in
an account earning 7% interest. You will be ready to purchase the new home once your
savings account grows to $25,000.
a. Approximately how many years will it take for the account to reach $25,000?
b. If the interest rate doubles to 14%, how many years will pass before you reach your
$25,000 target?
Answer:

You are trying to solve this equation for ‘n’: $25,000 = $10,000(1.07)n . You can use
natural logarithms as follows: (25,000/10,000) = (1.07)n

Ln(2.5) = nLn(1.07)

n = Ln(2.5)/Ln (1.07)

n=13.5 years.

Q3. Google, Inc., became a public company when it conducted an initial public offering (IPO)
of ordinary shares in August 2004. Originally priced at $65 per share, Google equity
soared after the IPO. By August 2011, Google shares stood at $600. What annual rate of
return did the investors who bought Google shares at the IPO and held them until August
2011 earn?
Answer:

FV = PV × (1 + r)n.

In this case we know FV = $600, PV = $65, and n = 7 years.


Plug those values into the equation and solve for r.
$600 = $65(1 +r)7
$600 ÷ $65 = (1 + r)7
($600 ÷ $65) (1 ÷ 7) = (1 + r)
1.322 = 1 + r
r = 0.322 = 32.2%
Q4. Koalaburra, a toy manufacturing company spend $7000 each year for the maintenance
of their equipment. EMI, a service company offered, Koalaburra to service all their
equipment for the next 5 years in exchange for a one-time payment today. If Koalaburra
requires a minimum return of 8% on all its investments, how much is it willing to pay
to EMI? ( note: Koalaburra is willing to pay EMI for the service contract not more than
the amount they are currently spending for maintenance of equipment).

Answer: PV (annuity) = PMT/r x {1 – 1/ (1+r)n }


PV (annuity) = 7000/0.08 x {1 – 1/(1.08)5 }
PV = $27,948.97

Q5. Liliana Alvarez’s employer offers its workers a two-month paid sabbatical every seven
years. Liliana, who just started working for the company, plans to spend her sabbatical
touring Europe at an estimated cost of $25,000. To finance her trip, Liliana plans to
make six annual end-of-year deposits of $2,500 each, starting this year, into an
investment account earning 8% interest.
a. Will Liliana’s account balance at the end of seven years be enough to pay for her trip?
b. Suppose Liliana increases her annual contribution to $3,150. How large will her
account balance be at the end of seven years?

Answer:
a. FV (annuity) = PMT [ {(1+r)n-1}/r]

FV = 2,500 × FVAF (7, 8%) = $2,500 × 8.9228 = $22,307.


Therefore, Liliana’s balance will not be enough for her to cover the trip.

b. FV = 3,150 × 8.9228 = $28,107.


In this case the account balance will be enough for Liliana to make the trip.
Q.6. Binh Tran has shopped around for the best interest rates for his investment of $10,000
over the next year
Stated Rate Compounding
6.10% annual
5.90% Semi-annual
5.85% monthly

a. Which investment offers Binh the highest effective annual rate of return?
b. Assume that Binh wants to invest his money for only six months and the annual
compounded rate of 6.10 percent is not available. Which of the remaining investments should
Binh choose?
Answer: a.
Q7. To supplement your planned retirement, you estimate that you need to accumulate
$200,000 in 40 years. You plan to make equal annual end-of-year deposits into an
account paying 10% annual interest.
a. How large must the annual deposits be to create the $220,000 fund in 42 years?
b. If you can afford to deposit only $600 per year into the account, how much will you
have accumulated by the end of the forty-second year?
Answer:
a. PMT = FVA40 ÷ [ (1+0.1)40 – 1 ] b. FVA40 = PMT × [ (1+0.1)40 – 1 ]
0.1 0.1
PMT = $200,000 ÷ (442.5926) FVA42 = $600 × (442.5926)
PMT = $452 FVA42 = $265,555.56
Q8. Ruth Nail receives two offers for her seaside home. The first offer is for $1 million
today. The second offer is for an owner-financed sale with annual payments as
follows:

End of Year Payment

0 $200,000
1 200,000
2 200,000
3 200,000
4 200,000
5 300,000

Assuming that Ruth earns a rate of 8 % on her investments, which offer should she
take?

Answer:
PV of owner-financed sale:

End of Year (t) Cash Flow × (1+.08)-t Present Value

0 $200,000 × 1.000000 = $ 200,000


1 200,000 × .925926 = 185,186
2 200,000 × .857339 = 171,468
3 200,000 × .793832 = 158,766
4 200,000 × .735030 = 4 147,006
5 300,000 × .680583 = 5 204,175
$1,066,601

Ruth should take the second offer for the series of payments because it has a higher
present value than the $1,000,000 payment today.

Q9. Find the present value of a 3-year, $10,000 ordinary annuity deposited into an account
that pays 12% annual interest, compounded monthly. Solve for the present value of the
annuity in the following ways:
a. as three single cash flows discounted at the stated annual rate of interest
b. as three single cash flows discounted at the appropriate effective annual rate of
interest
c. as a 3-year annuity discounted at the effective annual rate of interest
Answer: It is important to note that, the stated annual rate is the contractual annual rate
of interest charged by a lender or promised by a borrower. The effective annual rate
(EAR) or true annual return is the annual rate of interest actually paid or earned. The
effective annual rate reflects the effect of compounding frequency, the stated annual rate
does not.
Here PV = PMT× (1+12/12)-12
a. PV = $10,000 × (1.01)-12 + $10,000 × (1.01)-24 + $10,000 × (1.01)-36 = $47,479
b. Effective rate = (1 + .12)12 – 1 = 12.68%
12
PV = $20,000 × (1.1268)-1 + $20,000 × (1.1268)-2 + $20,000 × (1.1268)-3 = $47,481
(rounding)
c. PVA3 = $20,000 × [ 1 – (1.1268)-3 ] = $47,481 (rounding)
Q10. You are planning to purchase a caravan for $40,000, and you have $10,000 to pay as a
down payment. You may borrow the remainder under the following terms: a 10-year
loan with semi-annual repayments and a stated interest rate of 6 %. You intend to make
$6,000 in each semi-annual payment, applying the excess over your required payment
to the reduction of the principal balance.
a. Given these terms, how long (in years) will it take you to fully repay your loan?
b. What will be your total interest cost?
c. What would your interest cost be if you made no prepayments and repaid your loan
by strictly adhering to the terms of the loan?
Answer: If 10000 downpayment then the loan amount will be ($40000- $10000) i.e.
$30000.
Required Payment: PVA = PMT x 1 – (1 + r/2) -2*10
r r/2

PMT = $30,000 = $30,000


[1/0.03 x {1/ – (1 + {.06/2} -2 x 10
}] [1/0.03 X 1 – (1.03) -20]

= 2016.47 (Equation 3.16 in textbook)


Prepayment in every year = $6000 - $2016.47 = 3983.53
Semi-annual payment of interest = $30000* 0.06/2 = $900
Ending Balance = $30000 – ($6000 - $900) = 24900

Amortisation Schedule

Beginning Interest Ending


Period Balance Payment (.03  Principal Prepay Balance
Principal)
1 $30,000.00 $2,016.47 $ $1,116.47 $3,983.53 $24,900.00
900.00
2 24,900.00 2,016.47 747.00 1,269.47 3,983.53 19,647.00
3 19,647.00 2,016.47 589.41 1,427.06 3,983.53 14,236.41
4 14,236.41 2,016.47 427.09 1,589.38 3,983.53 8,663.50
5 8,663.50 2,016.47 259.91 1,756.56 3,983.53 2,923.41
6 2,923.41 2,016.47 87.70 1,928.77 994.64 0
$3,011.11

The loan will be paid off in 6 periods or 3 years.

b. Total interest cost = $3,011.11

c. Total interest cost with no prepayments:


20  $2,016.47 – $30,000 = $10,329.40

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