1. What is an operating system?

a) interface between the hardware and application programs

b) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
c) system service provider to the application programs
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: An Operating System acts as an intermediary between user/user applications/application
programs and hardware. It is a program that manages hardware resources. It provides services to
application programs.
2. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
a) to provide the interface between the API and application program
b) to handle the files in the operating system
c) to get and execute the next user-specified command
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The main function of a command interpreter is to get and execute the next user-specified
command. Command Interpreter checks for valid command and then runs that command else it will
throw an error.
3. In Operating Systems, which of the following is/are CPU scheduling algorithms?
a) Priority
b) Round Robin
c) Shortest Job First
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: In Operating Systems, CPU scheduling algorithms are:
i) First Come First Served scheduling
ii) Shortest Job First scheduling
iii) Priority scheduling
iv) Round Robin scheduling
v) Multilevel Queue scheduling
vi) Multilevel Feedback Queue scheduling
All of these scheduling algorithms have their own advantages and disadvantages.
4. To access the services of the operating system, the interface is provided by the ___________
a) Library
b) System calls
c) Assembly instructions
d) API
Answer: b
Explanation: To access services of the Operating System an interface is provided by the System Calls.
Generally, these are functions written in C and C++. Open, Close, Read, Write are some of most
prominently used system calls.
5. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________
a) multiprogramming operating systems
b) larger memory sized systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
6. Which one of the following is not true?
a) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
b) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
c) kernel is the first part of the operating system to load into memory during booting
d) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
Answer: b
Explanation: Kernel is the first program that is loaded in memory when OS is loading as well as it
remains in memory till OS is running. Kernel is the core part of the OS which is responsible for
managing resources, allowing multiple processes to use the resources and provide services to various
processes. Kernel modules can be loaded and unloaded in run-time i.e. in running OS.
7. Which one of the following errors will be handle by the operating system?
a) lack of paper in printer
b) connection failure in the network
c) power failure
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned errors are handled by OS. The OS is continuously monitoring all of its
resources. Also, the OS is constantly detecting and correcting errors.
8. Where is the operating system placed in the memory?
a) either low or high memory (depending on the location of interrupt vector)
b) in the low memory
c) in the high memory
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
9. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a ______
a) new file
b) another running process
c) log file
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: If a process fails, most operating systems write the error information to a log file. Log
file is examined by the debugger, to find out what is the actual cause of that particular problem. Log
file is useful for system programmers for correcting errors.
10. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a) RTLinux
b) Palm OS
c) QNX
d) VxWorks
Answer: b
Explanation: VxWorks, QNX & RTLinux are real-time operating systems. Palm OS is a mobile
operating system. Palm OS is developed for Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs).
11. What does OS X has?
a) monolithic kernel with modules
b) microkernel
c) monolithic kernel
d) hybrid kernel
Answer: d
Explanation: OS X has a hybrid kernel. Hybrid kernel is a combination of two different kernels. OS X
is developed by Apple and originally it is known as Mac OS X.
12. In operating system, each process has its own __________
a) open files
b) pending alarms, signals, and signal handlers
c) address space and global variables
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: In Operating Systems, each process has its own address space which contains code, data,
stack, and heap segments or sections. Each process also has a list of files that is opened by the process
as well as all pending alarms, signals, and various signal handlers.
13. In a timeshare operating system, when the time slot assigned to a process is completed, the
process switches from the current state to?
a) Suspended state
b) Terminated state
c) Ready state
d) Blocked state
Answer: c
Explanation: In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed,
the process goes from the running state to the Ready State. In a time-sharing operating system, unit
time is defined for sharing CPU, it is called a time quantum or time slice. If a process takes less than 1
time quantum, then the process itself releases the CPU.
14. Cascading termination refers to the termination of all child processes if the parent process
terminates ______
a) Normally or abnormally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Cascading termination refers to the termination of all child processes if the parent
process terminates Normally or Abnormally. Some systems don’t allow child processes to exist if the
parent process has terminated. Cascading termination is normally initiated by the operating system.
15. When a process is in a “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is
completed, it goes to the __________
a) Terminated state
b) Suspended state
c) Running state
d) Ready state
Answer: d
Explanation: Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the
service is completed, it goes to the ready state. Process never goes directly to the running state from
the waiting state. Only processes which are in ready state go to the running state whenever CPU
allocated by operating system.
16. Transient operating system code is a code that ____________
a) stays in the memory always
b) never enters the memory space
c) comes and goes as needed
d) is not easily accessible
Answer: c
17. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is concerned
with ____________
a) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
b) assigning running processes to blocked queue
c) assigning ready processes to CPU
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
18. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________
a) operating systems
b) multiprocessor systems
c) time sharing systems
d) multiprogramming systems
Answer: c
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each user needs to get a share of the CPU at regular intervals.
19. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
a) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In an effective operating system, we must verify the deadlock each time a request for
resources is made at fixed time intervals.
20. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the __________ to ensure that a circular
wait condition can never exist.
a) operating system
b) resources
c) system storage state
d) resource allocation state
Answer: d
Explanation: Resource allocation states are used to maintain the availability of the already and current
available resources.
21. Swapping _______ be done when a process has pending I/O, or has to execute I/O operations only
into operating system buffers.
a) must never
b) maybe
c) can
d) must
Answer: a
22. The main memory accommodates ____________
a) cpu
b) user processes
c) operating system
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
23. The operating system is responsible for?
a) bad-block recovery
b) booting from disk
c) disk initialization
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
24. The operating system and the other processes are protected from being modified by an already
running process because ____________
a) every address generated by the CPU is being checked against the relocation and limit registers
b) they have a protection algorithm
c) they are in different memory spaces
d) they are in different logical addresses
Answer: a
25. Using transient code, _______ the size of the operating system during program execution.
a) maintains
b) changes
c) increases
d) decreases
Answer: b
26. The operating system maintains a ______ table that keeps track of how many frames have been
allocated, how many are there, and how many are available.
a) memory
b) mapping
c) page
d) frame
Answer: d
27. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is used. With dynamic loading, a routine is
not loaded until it is called. For implementing dynamic loading ____________
a) special support from operating system is essential
b) special support from hardware is required
c) user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system
d) special support from both hardware and operating system is essential
Answer: c
28. The _________ presents a uniform device-access interface to the I/O subsystem, much as system
calls provide a standard interface between the application and the operating system.
a) Device drivers
b) I/O systems
c) Devices
d) Buses
Answer: a
29. In real time operating system ____________
a) process scheduling can be done only once
b) all processes have the same priority
c) kernel is not required
d) a task must be serviced by its deadline period
Answer: d
30. Hard real time operating system has ______________ jitter than a soft real time operating system.
a) equal
b) more
c) less
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Jitter is the undesired deviation from the true periodicity.
31. For real time operating systems, interrupt latency should be ____________
a) zero
b) minimal
c) maximum
d) dependent on the scheduling
Answer: b
Explanation: Interrupt latency is the time duration between the generation of interrupt and execution
of its service.
32. Which one of the following is a real time operating system?
a) Windows CE
b) RTLinux
c) VxWorks
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
33. The priority of a process will ______________ if the scheduler assigns it a static priority.
a) depends on the operating system
b) change
c) remain unchanged
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
34. What are the characteristics of Host based IDS?
a) Logs are analysed to detect tails of intrusion
b) The host operating system logs in the audit information
c) Logs includes logins, file opens, and program executions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
35. What are the characteristics of stack based IDS?
a) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packets
b) It models the normal usage of the network as a noise characterization
c) They are integrated closely with the TCP/IP stack and watch packets
d) The host operating system logs in the audit information
Answer: c
36. If the sum of the working – set sizes increases, exceeding the total number of available frames
____________
a) the operating system selects a process to suspend
b) the system crashes
c) then the process crashes
d) the memory overflows
Answer: a
37. The information about all files is kept in ____________
a) operating system
b) separate directory structure
c) swap space
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
38. The operating system keeps a small table containing information about all open files called
____________
a) file table
b) directory table
c) open-file table
d) system table
Answer: c
39. What will happen in the single level directory?
a) All files are contained in the same directory
b) All files are contained in different directories all at the same level
c) Depends on the operating system
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
40. The operating system _______ the links when traversing directory trees, to preserve the acyclic
structure of the system.
a) deletes
b) considers
c) ignores
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
41. To recover from failures in the network operations _____________ information may be
maintained.
a) operating system
b) ip address
c) stateless
d) state
Answer: d
42. On systems where there are multiple operating system, the decision to load a particular one is
done by _____________
a) process control block
b) file control block
c) boot loader
d) bootstrap
Answer: c
43. Whenever a process needs I/O to or from a disk it issues a ______________
a) system call to the operating system
b) a special procedure
c) system call to the CPU
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
44. The two steps the operating system takes to use a disk to hold its files are _______ and ________
a) caching & logical formatting
b) logical formatting & swap space creation
c) swap space creation & caching
d) partitioning & logical formatting
Answer: d
45. The _______ program initializes all aspects of the system, from CPU registers to device
controllers and the contents of main memory, and then starts the operating system.
a) bootstrap
b) main
c) bootloader
d) rom
Answer: a
46. In SCSI disks used in high end PCs, the controller maintains a list of _________ on the disk. The
disk is initialized during ________ formatting which sets aside spare sectors not visible to the
operating system.
a) destroyed blocks, partitioning
b) bad blocks, low level formatting
c) destroyed blocks, high level formatting
d) bad blocks, partitioning
Answer: b
47. Which principle states that programs, users, and even the systems be given just enough privileges
to perform their task?
a) principle of least privilege
b) principle of process scheduling
c) principle of operating system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
48. Network operating system runs on ___________
a) every system in the network
b) server
c) both server and every system in the network
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
49. What are the types of distributed operating systems?
a) Zone based Operating system
b) Level based Operating system
c) Network Operating system
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
50. In Unix, which system call creates the new process?
a) create
b) fork
c) new
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In UNIX, a new process is created by fork() system call. fork() system call returns a
process ID which is generally the process id of the child process created.
51. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Those systems which allow more than one process execution at a time, are called
multiprocessing systems. Uniprocessing means only one processor.
52. In operating system, each process has its own __________
a) address space and global variables
b) open files
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: In Operating Systems, each process has its own address space which contains code, data,
stack and heap segments or sections. Each process also has a list of files which is opened by the
process as well as all pending alarms, signals and various signal handlers.
53. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?
a) fork
b) create
c) new
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In UNIX, a new process is created by fork() system call. fork() system call returns a
process ID which is generally the process id of the child process created.
54. A process can be terminated due to __________
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A process can be terminated normally by completing its task or because of fatal error or
killed by another process or forcefully killed by a user. When the process completes its task without
any error then it exits normally. The process may exit abnormally because of the occurrence of fatal
error while it is running. The process can be killed or terminated forcefully by another process.
55. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Ready state of the process means process has all necessary resources which are required
for execution of that process when CPU is allocated. Process is ready for execution but waiting for the
CPU to be allocated.
56. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Interprocess Communication (IPC) is a communication mechanism that allows processes
to communicate with each other and synchronise their actions without using the same address space.
IPC can be achieved using shared memory and message passing.
57. A set of processes is deadlock if __________
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Deadlock is a situation which occurs because process A is waiting for one resource and
holds another resource (blocking resource). At the same time another process B demands blocking a
resource as it is already held by a process A, process B is waiting state unless and until process A
releases occupied resource.
58. A process stack does not contain __________
a) Function parameters
b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
d) PID of child process
Answer: d
Explanation: Process stack contains Function parameters, Local variables and Return address. It does
not contain the PID of child process.
59. Which system call can be used by a parent process to determine the termination of child process?
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) get
Answer: a
Explanation: wait() system call is used by the parent process to determine termination of child
process. The parent process uses wait() system call and gets the exit status of the child process as well
as the pid of the child process which is terminated.
60. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the
__________
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe
Answer: b
Explanation: The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by
the Program Counter. After every instruction is executed, the Program Counter is incremented by 1
i.e. address of the next instruction to be executed. CPU fetches instruction from the address denoted
by Program Counter and execute it.
61. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
Answer: c
Explanation: Process Control Block (PCB) contains information related to a process such as Process
State, Program Counter, CPU Register, etc. Process Control Block is also known as Task Control
Block. Bootstrap program is a program which runs initially when the system or computer is booted or
rebooted.
62. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of processes completed per unit time is known as Throughput. Suppose
there are 4 processes A, B, C & D they are taking 1, 3, 4 & 7 units of time respectively for their
executions. For 10 units of time, throughput is high if process A, B & C are running first as 3
processes can execute. If process C runs first then throughput is low as maximum only 2 processes
can execute. Throughput is low for processes which take a long time for execution. Throughput is
high for processes which take a short time for execution.
63. The state of a process is defined by __________
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
Answer: d
Explanation: The state of a process is defined by the current activity of the process. A process state
changes when the process executes. The process states are as New, Ready, Running, Wait, Terminated.
64. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no process state such as old. When a process is created then the process is in
New state. When the process gets the CPU for its execution then the process is in Running state.
When the process is waiting for an external event then the process is in a Waiting state.
65. What is a Process Control Block?
a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory
Answer: b
Explanation: A Process Control Block (PCB) is a data structure. It contains information related to a
process such as Process State, Program Counter, CPU Register, etc. Process Control Block is also
known as Task Control Block.
66. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in __________
a) Process Register
b) Program Counter
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit
Answer: c
Explanation: The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in Process Table. The Process Table
has the status of each and every process that is created in OS along with their PIDs.
67. What is the degree of multiprogramming?
a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiprogramming means the number of processes are in the ready states. To increase
utilization of CPU, Multiprogramming is one of the most important abilities of OS. Generally, a single
process cannot use CPU or I/O at all time, whenever CPU or I/O is available another process can use
it. By doing this CPU utilization is increased.
68. A single thread of control allows the process to perform __________
a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time
c) only two tasks at a time
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A single thread of control allows the process to perform only one task at a time. In the
case of multi-core, multiple threads can be run simultaneously and can perform multiple tasks at a
time.
69. What is the objective of multiprogramming?
a) Have a process running at all time
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
c) To increase CPU utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The objective of multiprogramming is to increase CPU utilization. Generally, a single
process cannot use CPU or I/O at all time, whenever CPU or I/O is available another process can use
it. Multiprogramming offers this ability to OS by keeping multiple programs in a ready queue.
70. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
Answer: b
Explanation: PCB queue does not belong to queues for processes. PCB is a process control block
which contains information related to process. Each process is represented by PCB.
71. When the process issues an I/O request __________
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue
Answer: a
Explanation: When the process issues an I/O request it is placed in an I/O queue. I/O is a resource and
it should be used effectively and every process should get access to it. There might be multiple
processes which requested for I/O. Depending on scheduling algorithm I/O is allocated to any
particular process and after completing I/O operation, I/O access is returned to the OS.
72. What will happen when a process terminates?
a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
Answer: a
Explanation: When a process terminates, it removes from all queues. All allocated resources to that
particular process are deallocated and all those resources are returned back to OS.
73. What is a long-term scheduler?
a) It selects processes which have to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects processes which have to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects processes which heave to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A long-term scheduler selects processes which have to be brought into the ready queue.
When processes enter the system, they are put in the job queue. Long-term scheduler selects processes
from the job queue and puts them in the ready queue. It is also known as Job Scheduler.
74. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______ and the Short term
Scheduler will have a ______ to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot
Answer: c
Explanation: If all processes are I/O bound, the ready queue will almost empty and the short-term
scheduler will have a little to do. I/O bound processes spend more time doing I/O than computation.
75. What is a medium-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A medium-term scheduler selects which process to remove from memory by swapping.
The medium-term scheduler swapped out the process and later swapped in. Swapping helps to free up
memory.
76. What is a short-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A short-term scheduler selects a process which has to be executed next and allocates
CPU. Short-term scheduler selects a process from the ready queue. It selects processes frequently.
77. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is
__________
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The primary distinction between the short-term scheduler and the long-term scheduler is
the frequency of their execution. The short-term scheduler executes frequently while the long-term
scheduler executes much less frequently.
78. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is __________
a) block
b) wakeup
c) dispatch
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is block. Whenever a
user process initiates an I/O request it goes into block state unless and until the I/O request is not
completed.
79. 10. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the
process goes from the running state to the __________
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
Answer: b
Explanation: In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed,
the process goes from the running state to the Ready State. In a time-sharing operating system unit
time is defined for sharing CPU, it is called a time quantum or time slice. If a process takes less than 1
time quantum, then the process itself releases the CPU.
80. In a multiprogramming environment __________
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
Answer: c
Explanation: In a multiprogramming environment more than one process resides in the memory.
Whenever a CPU is available, one process amongst all present in memory gets the CPU for execution.
Multiprogramming increases CPU utilization.
81. 12. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is
completed, it goes to the __________
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
Answer: b
Explanation: Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the
service is completed, it goes to the ready state. Process never goes directly to the running state from
the waiting state. Only processes which are in ready state go to the running state whenever CPU
allocated by operating system.
82. The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain __________
a) the value of the CPU registers
b) the process state
c) memory-management information
d) context switch time
Answer: d
Explanation: The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain context switch time.
When switching CPU from one process to another, the current context of the process needs to be
saved. It includes values of the CPU registers, process states, memory-management information.
83. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between processes?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation lookaside buffer
c) Program counter
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) need not necessarily be saved on a context switch
between processes. A special, small, fast-lookup hardware cache is called Translation Look-aside
Buffer. TLB used to reduce memory access time.
84. Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?
a) A device
b) Timer
c) Scheduler process
d) Power failure
Answer: c
Explanation: Scheduler process does not interrupt a running process. Scheduler process selects an
available process from a pool of available processes and allocates CPU to it.
85. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a) cooperating process
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process
Answer: a
Explanation: A cooperating process can be affected by other processes executing in the system. Also it
can affect other processes executing in the system. A process shares data with other processes, such a
process is known as a cooperating process.
86. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution
depends on the particular order in which the access takes place is called ________
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition
Answer: b
Explanation: When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the
execution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called race condition.
87. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their
critical section. What is this condition called?
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
Answer: a
Explanation: If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executed in
their critical section. This condition is called Mutual Exclusion. Critical section of the process is
shared between multiple processes. If this section is executed by more than one or all of them
concurrently then the outcome of this is not as per desired outcome. For this reason the critical section
of the process should not be executed concurrently.
88. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore
d) socket
Answer: c
Explanation: Semaphore is a synchronization tool. Semaphore is a mechanism which synchronizes or
controls access of threads on critical resources. There are two types of semaphores i) Binary
Semaphore ii) Counting Semaphore.
89. A semaphore is a shared integer variable __________
a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one
d) that can not be more than one
Answer: a
Explanation: A semaphore is a shared integer variable that can not drop below zero. In binary
semaphore, if the value of the semaphore variable is zero that means there is a process that uses a
critical resource and no other process can access the same critical resource until it is released. In
Counting semaphore, if the value of the semaphore variable is zero that means there is no resource
available.
90.Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________
a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Mutual exclusion can be provided by both mutex locks and binary semaphore. Mutex is
a short form of Mutual Exclusion. Binary semaphore also provides a mechanism for mutual
exclusion. Binary semaphore behaves similar to mutex locks.
91. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the
relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called __________
a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange
d) priority modification
Answer: a
Explanation: When a high priority task is indirectly preempted by a medium priority task effectively
inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called priority inversion.
92. Process synchronization can be done on __________
a) hardware level
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Process synchronization can be done on both hardware and software level. Critical
section problems can be resolved using hardware synchronisation. But this method is not simple for
implementation so software synchronization is mostly used.
93. A monitor is a module that encapsulates __________
a) shared data structures
b) procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A monitor is a module that encapsulates shared data structures, procedures that operate
on shared data structure, synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation.
94. To enable a process to wait within the monitor __________
a) a condition variable must be declared as condition
b) condition variables must be used as boolean objects
c) semaphore must be used
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: To enable a process to wait within the monitor a condition variable must be declared as
condition.
95. Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources prevents any process from
__________
a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage
b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization
c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources
Answer: c
Explanation: Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources prevents any process
from overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes. A process creates a child process,
child process requires certain resources to complete its task. A child process can demand required
resources directly from the system, but by doing this system will be overloaded. So to avoid
overloading of the system, the parent process shares its resources among children.
96. A parent process calling _____ system call will be suspended until children processes terminate.
a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec
Answer: a
Explanation: A parent process calling wait system call will be suspended until children processes
terminate. A parameter is passed to wait system call which will obtain exit status of child as well as
wait system call returns PID of terminated process.
97. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes if the parent process terminates
______
a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes if the parent process
terminates Normally or Abnormally. Some systems don’t allow child processes to exist if the parent
process has terminated. Cascading termination is normally initiated by the operating system.
98. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are
waiting for the processor. With ______________ more than one process can be running
simultaneously each on a different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
Answer: d
Explanation: With Uniprogramming only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other
processes are waiting for the processor. With Multiprocessing more than one process can run
simultaneously each on different processors. The Uniprogramming system has only one program
inside the core while the Multiprocessing system has multiple processes inside multiple cores. The
core is one which executes instructions and stores data locally into registers.
99. In UNIX, each process is identified by its __________
a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In Unix, each process is identified by its Process Identifier or PID. The PID provides
unique value to each process in the system so that each process can be identified uniquely.
100. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the child process and _____ for
the parent process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: In Unix, the return value of the fork system call is Zero for the child process and Non-
zero value for parent process. A fork system call returns the PID of a newly created (child) process to
the parent and returns Zero to that newly created (child) process.
101. The child process can __________
a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
Answer: a
Explanation: The child process can be a duplicate of the parent process. The child process created by
fork consists of a copy of the address space of the parent process.
102. The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps executing, then the child process is
known as __________
a) Orphan
b) Zombie
c) Body
d) Dead
Answer: b
Explanation: The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps executing, then the child
process is known as Zombie. When a child process terminates, its resources get deallocated but its
entry in the Process Control Block (PCB) remains there until its parent calls wait system call.
103. What is Interprocess communication?
a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same address space
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Interprocess Communication allows processes to communicate and synchronize their
actions. Interprocess Communication (IPC) mechanism is used by cooperating processes to exchange
data and information.
There are two models of IPC:
→ Shared Memory
→ Message Passing
104. Message passing system allows processes to __________
a) communicate with each other without sharing the same address space
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
Answer: a
Explanation: Message Passing system allows processes to communicate with each other without
sharing the same address space.
105. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message
Answer: d
Explanation: Two operations provided by the IPC facility are receive and send messages. Exchange of
data takes place in cooperating processes.
106. Messages sent by a process __________
a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Messages sent by a process can be fixed or variable size. If the message size of the
process is fixed then system level implementation is straightforward but it makes the task of
programming more difficult. If the message size of the process is variable then system level
implementation is more complex but it makes the task of programming simpler.
107. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called __________
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called
communication link. Two processes P and Q want to communicate with each other; there should be a
communication link that must exist between these two processes so that both processes can able to
send and receive messages using that link.
108. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?
a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of processes
supported by system)
b) A communication link is associated with exactly two processes
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes supported by
system)
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes
Answer: b
Explanation: For direct communication, a communication link is associated with exactly two
processes. One communication link must exist between a pair of processes.
109. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________
a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication
c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In indirect communication between processes P and Q there is a mailbox to help
communication between P and Q. A mailbox can be viewed abstractly as an object into which
messages can be placed by processes and from which messages can be removed.
110. In the non blocking send __________
a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received
b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In the non blocking send, the sending process sends the message and resumes operation.
Sending process doesn’t care about reception. It is also known as asynchronous send.
111. In the Zero capacity queue __________
a) the queue can store at least one message
b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don’t wait in the queue
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In the Zero capacity queue the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message.
Zero capacity queue has maximum capacity of Zero; thus message queue does not have any waiting
message in it.
112. The Zero Capacity queue __________
a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The Zero capacity queue is referred to as a message system with no buffering. Zero
capacity queue has maximum capacity of Zero; thus message queue does not have any waiting
message in it.
113. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as __________
a) Programmed buffering
b) Automatic buffering
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
Answer: b
Explanation: Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as Automatic
buffering. Buffer capacity of the Bounded capacity queue is finite length and buffer capacity of the
Unbounded queue is infinite.
114. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
115. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on
a list called _____________
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue
Answer: b
116. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
____________
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
Answer: b
117. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: as
118. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
119. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of ____________
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process
Answer: b
120. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
Answer: b
121. Process are classified into different groups in ____________
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
Answer: d
122. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
123. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread
c) process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: User level threads are managed by thread library and the kernel is unaware of them.
124. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________
a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
125. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.
a) time
b) space
c) money
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
126. What are the two steps of a process execution?
a) I/O & OS Burst
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
Answer: b
127. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________
a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts
Answer: c
Explanation: An I/O bound program frequently performs short computations (short CPU bursts)
followed by waiting for I/O operations to complete.
128. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be executed.
a) blocked, short term
b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
Answer: c
129. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?
a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
130. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called ____________
a) process switch
b) task switch
c) context switch
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
131. What is Dispatch latency?
a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
132. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
133. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the throughput
b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
134. What is Turnaround time?
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Answer: d
135. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the turnaround time
b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
Answer: b
136. What is Waiting time?
a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Answer: b
137. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
138. What is Response time?
a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
139. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________
a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
140. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system ____________
a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
Answer: a
141. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with ____________
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
142. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________
a) are very appropriate for very large computers
b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Large computers are overloaded with a greater number of processes.
143. What is FIFO algorithm?
a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
Answer: b
144. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is
called ____________
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
Answer: b
145. What is Scheduling?
a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
146. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input
event in the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method.
Which out of the following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes
have a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?
a) tQ = 15ms
b) tQ = 40ms
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms
Answer: a
147. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.
a) earliest due date
b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
Answer: c
148. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
a) First come First served
b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
Answer: b
149. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long
jobs is slightly ___________
a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
Answer: b
150. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)

I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation

II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation

III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time

a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III

Answer: d
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest job
scheduling. It may cause starvation as shorter processes may keep coming and a long CPU burst
process never gets CPU.
II) Preemption may cause starvation. If priority based scheduling with preemption is used, then a low
priority process may never get CPU.
III) Round Robin Scheduling improves response time as all processes get CPU after a specified time.
151. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?
a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First
c) RR – Round Robin
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
152. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________
a) it is too good an algorithm
b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
153. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________
a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
Answer: a
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each user needs to get a share of the CPU at regular intervals.
154. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds.

Process Burst time

P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms

Answer: a
155. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called ____________
a) Fast SJF scheduling
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next
Answer: d
156. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is ____________
a) the predicted next CPU burst
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst
d) anything the user wants
Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the CPU burst, the lower the priority.
157. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?
a) it schedules in a very complex manner
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
158. What is ‘Aging’?
a) keeping track of cache contents
b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
Answer: d
159. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority processes is ____________
a) Starvation
b) Wait queue
c) Ready queue
d) Aging
Answer: d
160. Which of the following statements are true?

i) Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation

ii) Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation

iii) Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time

a) i only
b) i and iii only
c) ii and iii only
d) i, ii and iii

Answer: d

161. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority

Answer: b

162. Concurrent access to shared data may result in ____________

a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

163. A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the
outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called
____________
a) data consistency
b) race condition
c) aging
d) starvation

Answer: b

164. he segment of code in which the process may change common variables, update tables, write into
files is known as ____________
a) program
b) critical section
c) non – critical section
d) synchronizing

Answer: b

165. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to solve the critical section problem?
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded Waiting
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

166. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________

a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be executing in their
critical sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be executing in their
critical sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system must be blocked
until it finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

167. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a bound on the number of times a process is allowed to
enter its critical section ____________
a) after a process has made a request to enter its critical section and before the request is granted
b) when another process is in its critical section
c) before a process has made a request to enter its critical section
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

168. A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are required to be shared between processes to solve the
critical section problem.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

Answer: b

169. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem ____________
a) each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner
b) each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with the lowest number is
served next
c) each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is served next
d) each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is served next

Answer: b
170. An un-interruptible unit is known as ____________
a) single
b) atomic
c) static
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

171. TestAndSet instruction is executed ____________

a) after a particular process
b) periodically
c) atomically
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

172. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical section problem.

a) hardware for a system
b) special program for a system
c) integer variable
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

173. What are the two atomic operations permissible on semaphores?

a) wait and signal
b) stop and wait
c) hold and signal
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

174. What are Spinlocks?

a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

175. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?

a) they are not sufficient for many process
b) they require busy waiting
c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) they are too complex for programmers

Answer: b

176. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) stop()
b) block()
c) hold()
d) wait()

Answer: b

177. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) continue()
b) wakeup()
c) getup()
d) start()

Answer: b

178. If the semaphore value is negative ____________

a) its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore
b) it is invalid
c) no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is performed on it
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

179. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is ____________
a) remainder section code
b) non – critical section code
c) critical section code
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

180. The following program consists of 3 concurrent processes and 3 binary semaphores. The
semaphores are initialized as S0 = 1, S1 = 0, S2 = 0.

Process P0
while(true)
{
wait(S0);
print '0';
release(S1);
release(S2);
}

Process P1
wait(S1);
release(S0);

Process P2
wait(S2);
release(S0);
How many times will P0 print ‘0’?
a) At least twice
b) Exactly twice
c) Exactly thrice
d) Exactly once

Answer: a

181. Each process Pi, i = 0,1,2,3,……,9 is coded as follows.

repeat
P(mutex)
{Critical Section}
V(mutex)
forever
The code for P10 is identical except that it uses V(mutex) instead of P(mutex). What is the largest
number of processes that can be inside the critical section at any moment (the mutex being initialized
to 1)?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Any one of the 9 processes can get into critical section after executing P(mutex) which
decrements the mutex value to 0. At this time P10 can enter critical section by incrementing the value
to 1. Now any of the 9 processes can enter the critical section by again decrementing the mutex value
to 0. None of the remaining processes can get into their critical sections.

182. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than once?
a) Starvation
b) Deadlock
c) Aging
d) Signaling

Answer: b
Explanation: If a thread which had already locked a mutex, tries to lock the mutex again, it will enter
into the waiting list of that mutex, which results in a deadlock. It is because no other thread can
unlock the mutex.

183. What is a semaphore?

a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
184. What are the two kinds of semaphores?
a) mutex & counting
b) binary & counting
c) counting & decimal
d) decimal & binary
Answer: b
185. What is a mutex?
a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
186. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 P operations
and 15 V operations were completed on this semaphore. The resulting value of the semaphore is?
(GATE 1987)
a) 42
b) 2
c) 7
d) 12
Answer: b
Explanation: P represents Wait and V represents Signal. P operation will decrease the value by 1 every
time and V operation will increase the value by 1 every time.
187. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values ____________
a) 1
b) -1
c) 0.8
d) 0.5
Answer: a
188. Semaphores are mostly used to implement ____________
a) System calls
b) IPC mechanisms
c) System protection
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
189. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Bounded Waiting
c) Aging
d) Progress
Answer: b
190. The bounded buffer problem is also known as ____________
a) Readers – Writers problem
b) Dining – Philosophers problem
c) Producer – Consumer problem
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
191. In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full semaphores that ____________
a) count the number of empty and full buffers
b) count the number of empty and full memory spaces
c) count the number of empty and full queues
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
192. In the bounded buffer problem ____________
a) there is only one buffer
b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers
d) the buffer size is bounded
Answer: b
193. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the readers – writers problem _______ are given exclusive
access to the shared object.
a) readers
b) writers
c) readers and writers
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
194. The dining – philosophers problem will occur in case of ____________
a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
Answer: a
195. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosophers problem ____________
a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
196. What is a reusable resource?
a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
197. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?
a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
198. A system is in the safe state if ____________
a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
199. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
200. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
a) banker’s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn’s algorithm
Answer: a
201. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?
a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
202. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
203. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied necessary resources
is called ____________
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging
Answer: b
204. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock
occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
205. To avoid deadlock ____________
a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used
Answer: a
206. The number of resources requested by a process ____________
a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
Answer: c
207. The request and release of resources are ___________
a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
Answer: c
208. What are Multithreaded programs?
a) lesser prone to deadlocks
b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiple threads can compete for shared resources.
209. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
210. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________
a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: If another process requests that resource (non – shareable resource), the requesting
process must be delayed until the resource has been released.
211. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________
a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and then request to
acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional resources that are
being held by other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional resources
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
212. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock
Answer: a
213. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion ____________
a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A printer cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes.
214. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________
a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: They do not require mutually exclusive access, and hence cannot be involved in a
deadlock.
215. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be ensured that
____________
a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources
b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: c – A process may request some resources and use them. Before it can can request any
additional resources, however it must release all the resources that it is currently allocated.
216. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its execution is
____________
a) Low CPU utilization
b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
217. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another resource
that cannot be immediately allocated to it ____________
a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
d) then all resources currently being held are pre-empted
Answer: d
218. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to ____________
a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one precedes another in the
ordering
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
219. Each request requires that the system consider the _____________ to decide whether the current
request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
a) resources currently available
b) processes that have previously been in the system
c) resources currently allocated to each process
d) future requests and releases of each process
Answer: a
220. Given a priori information about the ________ number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system will
never enter a deadlock state.
a) minimum
b) average
c) maximum
d) approximate
Answer: c
221. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the __________ to ensure that a circular
wait condition can never exist.
a) resource allocation state
b) system storage state
c) operating system
d) resources
Answer: a
Explanation: Resource allocation states are used to maintain the availability of the already and current
available resources.
222. A state is safe, if ____________
a) the system does not crash due to deadlock occurrence
b) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
c) the state keeps the system protected and safe
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
223. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a ____________
a) safe allocation
b) safe resource
c) safe sequence
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
224. All unsafe states are ____________
a) deadlocks
b) not deadlocks
c) fatal
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
225. A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and 3 processes : P0, P1, and P2. Process P0 requires 10
tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2 requires 9 tape drives.
Process
P0
P1
P2

Maximum needs (process-wise: P0 through P2 top to bottom)

10
4
9

Currently allocated (process-wise)

5
2
2
Which of the following sequence is a safe sequence?
a) P0, P1, P2
b) P1, P2, P0
c) P2, P0, P1
d) P1, P0, P2
Answer: d
226. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph ____________
a) then the system will not be in a safe state
b) then the system will be in a safe state
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
227. The resource allocation graph is not applicable to a resource allocation system ____________
a) with multiple instances of each resource type
b) with a single instance of each resource type
c) single & multiple instances of each resource type
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
228. The Banker’s algorithm is _____________ than the resource allocation graph algorithm.
a) less efficient
b) more efficient
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
229. The data structures available in the Banker’s algorithm are ____________
a) Available
b) Need
c) Allocation
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
230. The content of the matrix Need is ____________
a) Allocation – Available
b) Max – Available
c) Max – Allocation
d) Allocation – Max
Answer: c
231. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection algorithm that is applicable when ____________
a) all resources have a single instance
b) all resources have multiple instances
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple instances
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
232. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that ____________
a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs
b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system
d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system
Answer: a
233. If the wait for graph contains a cycle ____________
a) then a deadlock does not exist
b) then a deadlock exists
c) then the system is in a safe state
d) either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state
Answer: b
234. If deadlocks occur frequently, the detection algorithm must be invoked ________
a) rarely
b) frequently
c) rarely & frequently
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
235 What is the disadvantage of invoking the detection algorithm for every request?
a) overhead of the detection algorithm due to consumption of memory
b) excessive time consumed in the request to be allocated memory
c) considerable overhead in computation time
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
236. A deadlock eventually cripples system throughput and will cause the CPU utilization to ______
a) increase
b) drop
c) stay still
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
237. Every time a request for allocation cannot be granted immediately, the detection algorithm is
invoked. This will help identify ____________
a) the set of processes that have been deadlocked
b) the set of processes in the deadlock queue
c) the specific process that caused the deadlock
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
238. A computer system has 6 tape drives, with ‘n’ processes competing for them. Each process may
need 3 tape drives. The maximum value of ‘n’ for which the system is guaranteed to be deadlock free
is?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: a
239. A system has 3 processes sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a maximum of 2 units then,
deadlock ____________
a) can never occur
b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
240. A deadlock can be broken by ____________
a) abort one or more processes to break the circular wait
b) abort all the process in the system
c) preempt all resources from all processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
241. The two ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are ____________
a) Abort all deadlocked processes
b) Abort all processes
c) Abort one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
242. Those processes should be aborted on occurrence of a deadlock, the termination of which?
a) is more time consuming
b) incurs minimum cost
c) safety is not hampered
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
243. The process to be aborted is chosen on the basis of the following factors?
a) priority of the process
b) process is interactive or batch
c) how long the process has computed
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
244. Cost factors for process termination include ____________
a) Number of resources the deadlock process is not holding
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock
c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has thus far consumed during its execution
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
245. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process cannot continue with its normal execution
and it must be ____________
a) aborted
b) rolled back
c) terminated
d) queued
Answer: b
246. To _______ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information about the states of
processes.
a) abort the process
b) roll back the process
c) queue the process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
247. If the resources are always preempted from the same process __________ can occur.
a) deadlock
b) system crash
c) aging
d) starvation
Answer: d
248. What is the solution to starvation?
a) the number of rollbacks must be included in the cost factor
b) the number of resources must be included in resource preemption
c) resource preemption be done instead
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
249. What is Address Binding?
a) going to an address in memory
b) locating an address with the help of another address
c) binding two addresses together to form a new address in a different memory space
d) a mapping from one address space to another
Answer: d
250. Binding of instructions and data to memory addresses can be done at ____________
a) Compile time
b) Load time
c) Execution time
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
251. If the process can be moved during its execution from one memory segment to another, then
binding must be ____________
a) delayed until run time
b) preponed to compile time
c) preponed to load time
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
252. What is Dynamic loading?
a) loading multiple routines dynamically
b) loading a routine only when it is called
c) loading multiple routines randomly
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
253. What is the advantage of dynamic loading?
a) A used routine is used multiple times
b) An unused routine is never loaded
c) CPU utilization increases
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
254. The idea of overlays is to ____________
a) data that are needed at any given time
b) enable a process to be larger than the amount of memory allocated to it
c) keep in memory only those instructions
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
255. The ___________ must design and program the overlay structure.
a) programmer
b) system architect
c) system designer
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
256. The ___________ swaps processes in and out of the memory.
a) Memory manager
b) CPU
c) CPU manager
d) User
Answer: a
257. If binding is done at assembly or load time, then the process _____ be moved to different
locations after being swapped out and in again.
a) can
b) must
c) can never
d) may
Answer: c
258. In a system that does not support swapping ____________
a) the compiler normally binds symbolic addresses (variables) to relocatable addresses
b) the compiler normally binds symbolic addresses to physical addresses
c) the loader binds relocatable addresses to physical addresses
d) binding of symbolic addresses to physical addresses normally takes place during execution
Answer: a
259. Which of the following is TRUE?
a) Overlays are used to increase the size of physical memory
b) Overlays are used to increase the logical address space
c) When overlays are used, the size of a process is not limited to the size of the physical memory
d) Overlays are used whenever the physical address space is smaller than the logical address space
Answer: c
260. The address generated by the CPU is referred to as ____________
a) Physical address
b) Logical address
c) Neither physical nor logical
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
261. The address loaded into the memory address register of the memory is referred to as
____________
a) Physical address
b) Logical address
c) Neither physical nor logical
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
262. The run time mapping from virtual to physical addresses is done by a hardware device called the
____________
a) Virtual to physical mapper
b) Memory management unit
c) Memory mapping unit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
263. The base register is also known as the ____________
a) basic register
b) regular register
c) relocation register
d) delocation register
Answer: c
264. The size of a process is limited to the size of ____________
a) physical memory
b) external storage
c) secondary storage
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
265. If execution time binding is being used, then a process ______ be swapped to a different
memory space.
a) has to be
b) can never
c) must
d) may
Answer: d
266. Swapping requires a _________
a) motherboard
b) keyboard
c) monitor
d) backing store
Answer: d
267. The backing store is generally a ____________
a) fast disk
b) disk large enough to accommodate copies of all memory images for all users
c) disk to provide direct access to the memory images
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
268. The ________ consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.
a) wait queue
b) ready queue
c) cpu
d) secondary storage
Answer: b
269. The _________ time in a swap out of a running process and swap in of a new process into the
memory is very high.
a) context – switch
b) waiting
c) execution
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
270. The major part of swap time is _______ time.
a) waiting
b) transfer
c) execution
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
271. Swapping _______ be done when a process has pending I/O, or has to execute I/O operations
only into operating system buffers.
a) must
b) can
c) must never
d) maybe
Answer: c
272. Swap space is allocated ____________
a) as a chunk of disk
b) separate from a file system
c) into a file system
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
273. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of ____________
a) program counter
b) status register
c) instruction register
d) program status word
Answer: a
274. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called ____________
a) stack pointer
b) cache
c) accumulator
d) disk buffer
Answer: b
275. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?
a) physical address
b) absolute address
c) logical address
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
276. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by ____________
a) Memory management unit
b) CPU
c) PCI
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
277. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data from secondary
storage for use in main memory is called?
a) fragmentation
b) paging
c) mapping
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
278. The address of a page table in memory is pointed by ____________
a) stack pointer
b) page table base register
c) page register
d) program counter
Answer: b
279. Program always deals with ____________
a) logical address
b) absolute address
c) physical address
d) relative address
Answer: a
280.The page table contains ____________
a) base address of each page in physical memory
b) page offset
c) page size
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
281. What is compaction?
a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error
Answer: c
282. Operating System maintains the page table for ____________
a) each process
b) each thread
c) each instruction
d) each address
Answer: a
283. The main memory accommodates ____________
a) operating system
b) cpu
c) user processes
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
284. What is the operating system?
a) in the low memory
b) in the high memory
c) either low or high memory (depending on the location of interrupt vector)
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
285. In contiguous memory allocation ____________
a) each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory
b) all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
c) the memory space is contiguous
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
286. The relocation register helps in ____________
a) providing more address space to processes
b) a different address space to processes
c) to protect the address spaces of processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
287. With relocation and limit registers, each logical address must be _______ the limit register.
a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
288. The operating system and the other processes are protected from being modified by an already
running process because ____________
a) they are in different memory spaces
b) they are in different logical addresses
c) they have a protection algorithm
d) every address generated by the CPU is being checked against the relocation and limit registers
Answer: d
289. Transient operating system code is code that ____________
a) is not easily accessible
b) comes and goes as needed
c) stays in the memory always
d) never enters the memory space
Answer: b
290. Using transient code, _______ the size of the operating system during program execution.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) changes
d) maintains
Answer: c
291. When memory is divided into several fixed sized partitions, each partition may contain
________
a) exactly one process
b) at least one process
c) multiple processes at once
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
292. In fixed size partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded by ___________
a) the number of partitions
b) the CPU utilization
c) the memory size
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
293. The first fit, best fit and worst fit are strategies to select a ______
a) process from a queue to put in memory
b) processor to run the next process
c) free hole from a set of available holes
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
294. In internal fragmentation, memory is internal to a partition and ____________
a) is being used
b) is not being used
c) is always used
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
295. A solution to the problem of external fragmentation is ____________
a) compaction
b) larger memory space
c) smaller memory space
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
296. Another solution to the problem of external fragmentation problem is to ____________
a) permit the logical address space of a process to be noncontiguous
b) permit smaller processes to be allocated memory at last
c) permit larger processes to be allocated memory at last
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
297. If relocation is static and is done at assembly or load time, compaction _________
a) cannot be done
b) must be done
c) must not be done
d) can be done
Answer: a
298. The disadvantage of moving all process to one end of memory and all holes to the other
direction, producing one large hole of available memory is ____________
a) the cost incurred
b) the memory used
c) the CPU used
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
299. __________ is generally faster than _________ and _________
a) first fit, best fit, worst fit
b) best fit, first fit, worst fit
c) worst fit, best fit, first fit
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
300. External fragmentation exists when?
a) enough total memory exists to satisfy a request but it is not contiguous
b) the total memory is insufficient to satisfy a request
c) a request cannot be satisfied even when the total memory is free
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
301. External fragmentation will not occur when?
a) first fit is used
b) best fit is used
c) worst fit is used
d) no matter which algorithm is used, it will always occur
Answer: d
302. Sometimes the overhead of keeping track of a hole might be ____________
a) larger than the memory
b) larger than the hole itself
c) very small
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
303. When the memory allocated to a process is slightly larger than the process, then ____________
a) internal fragmentation occurs
b) external fragmentation occurs
c) both internal and external fragmentation occurs
d) neither internal nor external fragmentation occurs
Answer: a
304. Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ________
a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
305. Logical memory is broken into blocks of the same size called _________
a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
306. Every address generated by the CPU is divided into two parts. They are ____________
a) frame bit & page number
b) page number & page offset
c) page offset & frame bit
d) frame offset & page offset
Answer: b
307. The __________ is used as an index into the page table.
a) frame bit
b) page number
c) page offset
d) frame offset
Answer: b
308. The _____ table contains the base address of each page in physical memory.
a) process
b) memory
c) page
d) frame
Answer: c
309. The size of a page is typically ____________
a) varied
b) power of 2
c) power of 4
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
310. If the size of logical address space is 2 to the power of m, and a page size is 2 to the power of n
addressing units, then the high order _____ bits of a logical address designate the page number, and
the ____ low order bits designate the page offset.
a) m, n
b) n, m
c) m – n, m
d) m – n, n
Answer: d
311.With paging there is no ________ fragmentation.
a) internal
b) external
c) either type of
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
312. The operating system maintains a ______ table that keeps track of how many frames have been
allocated, how many are there, and how many are available.
a) page
b) mapping
c) frame
d) memory
Answer: c
313. Paging increases the ______ time.
a) waiting
b) execution
c) context – switch
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
314. Smaller page tables are implemented as a set of _______
a) queues
b) stacks
c) counters
d) registers
Answer: d
315. The page table registers should be built with _______
a) very low speed logic
b) very high speed logic
c) a large memory space
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
316. For larger page tables, they are kept in main memory and a __________ points to the page table.
a) page table base register
b) page table base pointer
c) page table register pointer
d) page table base
Answer: a
317. For every process there is a __________
a) page table
b) copy of page table
c) pointer to page table
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
318. Time taken in memory access through PTBR is ____________
a) extended by a factor of 3
b) extended by a factor of 2
c) slowed by a factor of 3
d) slowed by a factor of 2
Answer: d
319. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TLB) consists of ____________
a) key
b) value
c) bit value
d) constant
Answer: a
320. If a page number is not found in the TLB, then it is known as a ____________
a) TLB miss
b) Buffer miss
c) TLB hit
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
321. An ______ uniquely identifies processes and is used to provide address space protection for that
process.
a) address space locator
b) address space identifier
c) address process identifier
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
322. The percentage of times a page number is found in the TLB is known as ____________
a) miss ratio
b) hit ratio
c) miss percent
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
323. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by ____________
a) protection algorithm with each page
b) restricted access rights to users
c) restriction on page visibility
d) protection bit with each page
Answer: d
324. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page ____________
a) is in the TLB
b) has data in it
c) is in the process’s logical address space
d) is the system’s physical address space
Answer: c
325. Illegal addresses are trapped using the _____ bit.
a) error
b) protection
c) valid – invalid
d) access
Answer: c
326. When there is a large logical address space, the best way of paging would be ____________
a) not to page
b) a two level paging algorithm
c) the page table itself
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
327. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.35. The required to access a page in secondary
memory is equal to 100 ns. The time required to access a page in primary memory is 10 ns. The
average time required to access a page is?
a) 3.0 ns
b) 68.0 ns
c) 68.5 ns
d) 78.5 ns
Answer: c
328. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is used. With dynamic loading, a routine is
not loaded until it is called. For implementing dynamic loading ____________
a) special support from hardware is required
b) special support from operating system is essential
c) special support from both hardware and operating system is essential
d) user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system
Answer: d
329. In paged memory systems, if the page size is increased, then the internal fragmentation generally
____________
a) becomes less
b) becomes more
c) remains constant
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
330. In segmentation, each address is specified by ____________
a) a segment number & offset
b) an offset & value
c) a value & segment number
d) a key & value
Answer: a
331. In paging the user provides only ________ which is partitioned by the hardware into ________
and ______
a) one address, page number, offset
b) one offset, page number, address
c) page number, offset, address
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
332. Each entry in a segment table has a ____________
a) segment base
b) segment peak
c) segment value
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
333. The segment base contains the ____________
a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
334. The segment limit contains the ____________
a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
335. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be ____________
a) greater than segment limit
b) between 0 and segment limit
c) between 0 and the segment number
d) greater than the segment number
Answer: b
336. If the offset is legal ____________
a) it is used as a physical memory address itself
b) it is subtracted from the segment base to produce the physical memory address
c) it is added to the segment base to produce the physical memory address
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
337. When the entries in the segment tables of two different processes point to the same physical
location ____________
a) the segments are invalid
b) the processes get blocked
c) segments are shared
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
338. The protection bit is 0/1 based on ____________
a) write only
b) read only
c) read – write
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
339. If there are 32 segments, each of size 1Kb, then the logical address should have ____________
a) 13 bits
b) 14 bits
c) 15 bits
d) 16 bits
Answer: a
Explanation: To specify a particular segment, 5 bits are required. To select a particular byte after
selecting a page, 10 more bits are required. Hence 15 bits are required.
340. Consider a computer with 8 Mbytes of main memory and a 128K cache. The cache block size is
4 K. It uses a direct mapping scheme for cache management. How many different main memory
blocks can map onto a given physical cache block?
a) 2048
b) 256
c) 64
d) 8
Answer: c
341. ______ is a unique tag, usually a number identifies the file within the file system.
a) File identifier
b) File name
c) File type
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
342. To create a file ____________
a) allocate the space in file system
b) make an entry for new file in directory
c) allocate the space in file system & make an entry for new file in directory
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
343. By using the specific system call, we can ____________
a) open the file
b) read the file
c) write into the file
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
344. File type can be represented by ____________
a) file name
b) file extension
c) file identifier
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
345. Which file is a sequence of bytes organized into blocks understandable by the system’s linker?
a) object file
b) source file
c) executable file
d) text file
Answer: a
346. What is the mounting of file system?
a) crating of a filesystem
b) deleting a filesystem
c) attaching portion of the file system into a directory structure
d) removing the portion of the file system into a directory structure
Answer: c
347. Mapping of file is managed by ____________
a) file metadata
b) page table
c) virtual memory
d) file system
Answer: a
348. Mapping of network file system protocol to local file system is done by ____________
a) network file system
b) local file system
c) volume manager
d) remote mirror
Answer: a
349. Which one of the following explains the sequential file access method?
a) random access according to the given byte number
b) read bytes one at a time, in order
c) read/write sequentially by record
d) read/write randomly by record
Answer: b
350. When will file system fragmentation occur?
a) unused space or single file are not contiguous
b) used space is not contiguous
c) unused space is non-contiguous
d) multiple files are non-contiguous
Answer: a
351. Management of metadata information is done by ____________
a) file-organisation module
b) logical file system
c) basic file system
d) application programs
Answer: b
352. A file control block contains the information about ____________
a) file ownership
b) file permissions
c) location of file contents
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
353. Which table contains the information about each mounted volume?
a) mount table
b) system-wide open-file table
c) per-process open-file table
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
354. To create a new file application program calls ____________
a) basic file system
b) logical file system
c) file-organisation module
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
355. What will happens when a process closes the file?
a) per-process table entry is not removed
b) system wide entry’s open count is decremented
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
356. What is raw disk?
a) disk without file system
b) empty disk
c) disk lacking logical file system
d) disk having file system
Answer: a
357. The data structure used for file directory is called ____________
a) mount table
b) hash table
c) file table
d) process table
Answer: b
358. In which type of allocation method each file occupy a set of contiguous block on the disk?
a) contiguous allocation
b) dynamic-storage allocation
c) linked allocation
d) indexed allocation
Answer: a
359. If the block of free-space list is free then bit will ____________
a) 1
b) 0
c) any of 0 or 1
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
360. Which protocol establishes the initial logical connection between a server and a client?
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) mount protocol
d) datagram congestion control protocol
Answer: c
361. Data cannot be written to secondary storage unless written within a ______
a) file
b) swap space
c) directory
d) text format
Answer: a
362. File attributes consist of ____________
a) name
b) type
c) identifier
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
363. The information about all files is kept in ____________
a) swap space
b) operating system
c) seperate directory structure
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
364. A file is a/an _______ data type.
a) abstract
b) primitive
c) public
d) private
Answer: a
365. The operating system keeps a small table containing information about all open files called
____________
a) system table
b) open-file table
c) file table
d) directory table
Answer: b
366. In UNIX, what will the open system call return?
a) pointer to the entry in the open file table
b) pointer to the entry in the system wide table
c) a file to the process calling it
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
367. System wide table in UNIX contains process independent information such as ____________
a) location of file on disk
b) access dates
c) file size
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
368.The open file table has a/an _______ associated with each file.
a) file content
b) file permission
c) open count
d) close count
Answer: c
Explanation: open count indicates the number of processes that have the file open.
369. Which of the following are the two parts of the file name?
a) name & identifier
b) identifier & type
c) extension & name
d) type & extension
Answer: c
370. The larger the block size, the ______ the internal fragmentation.
a) greater
b) lesser
c) same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
371. In the sequential access method, information in the file is processed ____________
a) one disk after the other, record access doesnt matter
b) one record after the other
c) one text document after the other
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
372. Sequential access method ______ on random access devices.
a) works well
b) doesnt work well
c) maybe works well and doesnt work well
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
373. The direct access method is based on a ______ model of a file, as _____ allow random access to
any file block.
a) magnetic tape, magnetic tapes
b) tape, tapes
c) disk, disks
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
374. For a direct access file ____________
a) there are restrictions on the order of reading and writing
b) there are no restrictions on the order of reading and writing
c) access is restricted permission wise
d) access is not restricted permission wise
Answer: b
375. A relative block number is an index relative to ____________
a) the beginning of the file
b) the end of the file
c) the last written position in file
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
376. The index contains ____________
a) names of all contents of file
b) pointers to each page
c) pointers to the various blocks
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
377. For large files, when the index itself becomes too large to be kept in memory?
a) index is called
b) an index is created for the index file
c) secondary index files are created
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
378. To organise file systems on disk _______________
a) they are split into one or more partitions
b) information about files is added to each partition
c) they are made on different storage spaces
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
379. The directory can be viewed as a _________ that translates file names into their directory entries.
a) symbol table
b) partition
c) swap space
d) cache
Answer: a
380. What will happen in the single level directory?
a) All files are contained in different directories all at the same level
b) All files are contained in the same directory
c) Depends on the operating system
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
381. What will happen in the single level directory?
a) all directories must have unique names
b) all files must have unique names
c) all files must have unique owners
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
382. What will happen in the two level directory structure?
a) each user has his/her own user file directory
b) the system doesn’t its own master file directory
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
383. When a user refers to a particular file?
a) system MFD is searched
b) his own UFD is not searched
c) both MFD and UFD are searched
d) every directory is searched
Answer: c
384. In the tree structured directories _____________
a) the tree has the stem directory
b) the tree has the leaf directory
c) the tree has the root directory
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
385. The current directory contains, most of the files that are _____________
a) of current interest to the user
b) stored currently in the system
c) not used in the system
d) not of current interest to the system
Answer: a
386. Which of the following are the types of Path names?
a) absolute & relative
b) local & global
c) global & relative
d) relative & local
Answer: a
387. What is the mount point?
a) an empty directory at which the mounted file system will be attached
b) a location where every time file systems are mounted
c) is the time when the mounting is done
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
388. When a file system is mounted over a directory that is not empty then _____________
a) the system may not allow the mount
b) the system must allow the mount
c) the system may allow the mount and the directory’s existing files will then be made obscure
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
389. A process _____ lower the priority of another process if both are owned by the same owner.
a) must
b) can
c) cannot
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
390. In distributed file system ________________ directories are visible from the local machine.
a) protected
b) local
c) private
d) remote
Answer: d
391. In the world wide web, a ____ is needed to gain access to the remote files, and separate
operations are used to transfer files.
a) laptop
b) plugin
c) browser
d) player
Answer: c
392. Anonymous access allows a user to transfer files _____________
a) without having an account on the remote system
b) only if he accesses the system with a guest account
c) only if he has an account on the remote system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The world wide web uses anonymous file exchange almost exclusively.
393. The machine containing the files is the _______ and the machine wanting to access the files is
the ______
a) master, slave
b) memory, user
c) server, client
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
394. Domain name system provides _____________
a) host-name-to-network-address translations for the entire internet
b) network-address-to-host-name translations for the entire internet
c) binary to hex translations for the entire internet
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
395. To recover from failures in the network operations _____________ information may be
maintained.
a) ip address
b) state
c) stateless
d) operating system
Answer: b
396. The series of accesses between the open and close operations is a _____________
a) transaction
b) procedure
c) program
d) file session
Answer: d
397. Some directory information is kept in main memory or cache to ___________
a) fill up the cache
b) increase free space in secondary storage
c) decrease free space in secondary storage
d) speed up access
Answer: d
398. A systems program such as fsck in ______ is a consistency checker.
a) UNIX
b) Windows
c) Macintosh
d) Solaris
Answer: a
399. Each set of operations for performing a specific task is a _________
a) program
b) code
c) transaction
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
400. Once the changes are written to the log, they are considered to be ________
a) committed
b) aborted
c) completed
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
401. When an entire committed transaction is completed, ___________
a) it is stored in the memory
b) it is removed from the log file
c) it is redone
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
402. What is a circular buffer?
a) writes to the end of its space and then continues at the beginning
b) overwrites older values as it goes
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
403. All the changes that were done from a transaction that did not commit before the system crashed,
have to be _________
a) saved
b) saved and the transaction redone
c) undone
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
404. A machine in Network file system (NFS) can be ________
a) client
b) server
c) both client and server
d) neither client nor server
Answer: c
405. A _________ directory is mounted over a directory of a _______ file system.
a) local, remote
b) remote, local
c) local, local
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
406. The _________ becomes the name of the root of the newly mounted directory.
a) root of the previous directory
b) local directory
c) remote directory itself
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: bs
407. ___________ mounts, is when a file system can be mounted over another file system, that is
remotely mounted, not local.
a) recursive
b) cascading
c) trivial
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
408. The mount mechanism ________ a transitive property.
a) exhibits
b) does not exhibit
c) may exhibit
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Mounting a remote file system does not give the client access to other file systems that
were, by chance, mounted over the former file system.
409. A mount operation includes the _____________
a) name of the network
b) name of the remote directory to be mounted
c) name of the server machine storing it
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
410. The mount request is mapped to the corresponding __________ and is forwarded to the mount
server running on the specific server machine.
a) IPC
b) System
c) CPU
d) RPC
Answer: b
411. The server maintains a/an ________ that specifies local file systems that it exports for mounting,
along with names of machines that are permitted to mount them.
a) export list
b) import list
c) sending list
d) receiving list
Answer: a
412. The NFS servers ____________
a) are stateless
b) save the current state of the request
c) maybe stateless
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
413. Every NFS request has a _________ allowing the server to determine if a request is duplicated
or if any are missing.
a) name
b) transaction
c) sequence number
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
414. A server crash and recovery will __________ to a client.
a) be visible
b) affect
c) be invisible
d) harm
Answer: c
Explanation: All blocks that the server is managing for the client will be intact.
415. The server must write all NFS data ___________
a) synchronously
b) asynchronously
c) index-wise
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
416. A single NFS write procedure ____________
a) can be atomic
b) is atomic
c) is non atomic
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
417. The NFS protocol __________ concurrency control mechanisms.
a) provides
b) does not provide
c) may provide
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
418. _______________ in NFS involves the parsing of a path name into separate directory entries – or
components.
a) Path parse
b) Path name parse
c) Path name translation
d) Path name parsing
Answer: c
419. For every pair of component and directory vnode after path name translation ____________
a) a single NFS lookup call is used sequentially
b) a single NFS lookup call is used beginning from the last component
c) at least two NFS lookup calls per component are performed
d) a separate NFS lookup call is performed
Answer: d
420. When a client has a cascading mount _______ server(s) is/are involved in a path name traversal.
a) at least one
b) more than one
c) more than two
d) more than three
Answer: b