Chemistry Post-Test

1. A copper wire with a wooden handle is being held in a flame. Which of the following
elements is true?
a. flame is matter
b. the heat has mass
c. light occupies space
d. the flame has no mass
2. Which statement describes a chemical property?
a. Hemoglobin molecules have red color
b. Water boils below 1000C on top of a mountain
c. Fertilizers help increase the agricultural production
d. When ice cubes are left on the table, it gradually melts.
3. Density is calculated by dividing mass with volume. Both mass and volume are
physical, extensive properties. Thus, density is an example of

a. chemical, extensive property

b. physical, extensive property
c. physical, intensive property
d. chemical, intensive property
4. Which of the following can be done to determine the volume of an irregular solid?
a. use a triple beam balance
b. use a tape measure to measure its dimensions
c. use volume displacement method
d. any of the above
5. Which of the following represents a chemical change?
a. heating a sample of ice until it melts
b. tearing a sheet of paper into tiny pieces
c. burning a sheet of paper
d. all of the above are correct
6. When a candle is lighted, it melts. The wax then vaporizes. Finally, it burns. Which is
the correct order of changes that took place?

a. chemical, physical, physical

b. physical, chemical, chemical
c. physical, physical, chemical
d. chemical, chemical, chemical
7. What happens when water evaporates to form a vapor?
a. it absorbs heat
b. it releases heat
c. its temperature increases
d. its temperature decreases
8. Which sample of matter does not undergo melting?
a. ice
b. ice cream
c. butter
d. mothballs
9. Why are burns caused by steam more damaging than the one caused by boiling water?
a. Water has a higher temperature
b. Steam is a vapor of water molecules
c. Steam has more energy per kilogram
d. Steam is easily formed than boiling water
10. A pure substance that can be decomposed by chemical change into simple substances
with a fixed mass ratio is called a (an)

a. element b. compound c. mixture d. isotope

11. Which of the following groupings is composed ONLY of nonmetals?
a. aluminum, boron, carbon, nitrogen c. bromine, beryllium, barium, boron
b. chlorine, oxygen, selenium, sulfur d. gold, lithium, magnesium, sodium

12. All of the following are inorganic compounds except

a. butane b. hydrazine c. carbon dioxide
d. calcium carbonate
13. A student heated a solid sample. She saw a red glow spread through the sample. At the
end of the experiment, a black solid had been formed. Which statement about the black
solid is true?
 a. It is a separation of mixture.
b. It is a product of an element.
c. It is an evidence of the formation of a compound.
d. It is an indication that a physical change has occurred.
14. When a pure crystalline yellowish substance is heated in vacuum, a greenish gas and a
red powdery substance were produced. In which of the following will you classify the
yellowish substance?
a. element b. compound c. mixture d. pure
substance
15. Group IB are referred to as the “coinage metals” since these metals (copper, gold,
silver) are used for many centuries to make coins and jewelries too. Which of the
following is the best characteristic of metals?
a. Metals are malleable and ductile.
b. Metals are good insulators.
c. Metals have high tensile strength.
d. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.

16. A filament of an electric bulb is made from tungsten. Which of the following properties of
metals is exemplified in this situation?
a. ability to resist deformity.
b. ability to conduct heat and electricity
c. ability to be transformed into fine wires
d. ability to withstand very high temperatures
17. Which acid is responsible for the sour taste of lemons and limes?

a. Acetic acid
b. Citric acid
c. Carbonic acid
d. Hydrochloric acid
18. Scurvy leads to the formation of spots on the skin, spongy gums, and bleeding from the
mucous membranes. This disease results from the deficiency in Vitamin C. What is the
chemical name of this vitamin?

a. Citric acid
b. Acetic acid
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Hydrochloric acid
19. What will happen when acetic acid is mixed with sodium bicarbonate in a beaker?

a. no reaction occurs
b. a salt and water are formed
c. an acid and a salt are formed
d. a new acid and a new base are formed
20. To determine if a substance is an acid or a base, a sample is dropped to a litmus paper.
The blue litmus paper turns into red. This indicates that the substance is a/an
a. Acid c. Can be acid or base
b. Base d. Cannot be determined
21. A sample of salt and water solution is homogeneous throughout. Is this sample a
mixture or a pure substance?
a. a pure substance, since it is the same throughout
b. a mixture, because it can have a variable composition
c. a pure substance, because it has a definite composition
d. a mixture, because it has fixed, definite composition
22. Jessie added one tablespoon of sugar in a mixture of instant coffee and hot water. The
resulting solution tastes sweet. Which characteristic of mixtures is best illustrated in the
situation?
a.The components can be mixed in any proportion.
b.The mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
c. The characteristics of the components are retained in the mixture.
d.The components of the mixture may be separated by ordinary physical means.
23. A homogeneous mixture is made up of 95 percent alcohol and 5 percent water. In this
case, the water is (the)
a. solvent b. solute c. solution
d. any of them
24. How do solutions differ from compounds?
 a. solutions are heterogeneous mixtures; compounds are homogeneous.
b. solutions vary in composition; compounds have definite composition
c. solutions have definite composition; compounds vary in composition
d. solutions are formed in chem. reactions; compounds combine physically

25. What is the percentage by volume of ethyl alcohol in a 90 proof lambanog?

a. 45 b. 55 c. 90
d. 180
26. Iron metal is a very useful material for construction and building purposes. Why is iron
metal used in the form of steel (alloy) than as a pure metal?
a. Iron is very soft and shiny.
b. Iron is malleable and ductile.
c. Iron can be mold according to its desirable shape.
d. Iron can form alloys to make it harder and stronger.
27. Which of the following is NOT a property of solutions?
a. It has a definite composition.
b. It consists of a single phase.
c. It has homogeneous composition.
d. It can be physically separated to its component parts.
28. Which of the following groups contains only mixtures?
a. gel, bronze, sodium
b. air, bronze, brine
c. glucose, mercury, oxygen
d. carbon dioxide, glucose, cooking oil

29. Filtration is best used in separating mixtures that are composed of

1. two miscible liquids

2. a soluble solid in a liquid
3. two miscible solids
4. an insoluble solid in a liquid

30. Which of the following mixtures can best be separated by using a magnet?
a. pulverized charcoal and iron fillings
b. green and yellow mango seeds
c. sugar and salt
d. iron nails in a salt solution
31. Sulfur powder and oxygen gas chemically combined to form two compounds. One
compound contains 50.0% sulfur and 50.0% oxygen; the other 40.0% sulfur and 60.0%
oxygen. Which of the following laws does this illustrate?

a. Law of Definite Proportion

b. Law of Multiple Proportions
c. Law of Conservation of Mass
d. Law of Conservation of Energy
32. Who discovered the magnitude of the charge of the electron?
a. Joseph Thomson
b. Robert Millikan
c. James Chadwick
d. Eugene Goldstein
33. Who discovered in 1932 the electrically neutral particle called neutron?
a. Joseph Thomson
b. Robert Millikan
c. James Chadwick
d. Eugen Goldstein
34. According to Rutherford’s calculations, the volume of an atom is mostly
a. occupied by protons and neutrons
b. field with electrons
c. occupied by tightly bound protons, electrons and neutrons
d. empty space
39
35. The number of neutrons in an atom of potassium 19 K is
a. 19 b. 20 c. 39 d. 58
36. The nucleus of an isotope of magnesium contains 12 protons and 14 neutrons. The
atomic number and mass number of the isotope are
a. 12 and 14
 b. 14 and 12
c. 12 and 26
d. 14 and 26
37. The isotopes of a given element always have
a. the same mass and the same chemical behavior
b. the same mass and a different chemical behavior
c. different masses and different chemical behaviors
d. different masses and the same chemical behavior
38. The rule that states the electrons are filled up first in set of degenerate orbitals singly
before pairing?
a. Aufbau
b. Heisenberg
c. Hund’s
d. Pauli’s Exclusion

39. Sublevels are filled up in increasing energies. This statement explains the

a. Aufbau principle
b. Hund’s rule
c. Pauli’s exclusion principle
d. Helsenberg’s principle
40. Which quantum number tells the particular energy level or shell the electron can be
found?

a. spin
b. azimuthal
c. principal
d. magnetic

41. Which quantum number tells the particular orbital where the electron can be found?
a. spin
b. azimuthal
c. principal
d. magnetic
42. The maximum number of electrons in the f sublevel is
a. 2
b. 6
c. 10
d. 14
43. The total number or orbitals in the fourth energy level is
a. 16
b. 32
c. 4
d. 9
44. How many sublevels are there in the fourth energy level?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
45. An element has a condensed electron configuration of [Ar]4s2. Which of the following
would not be a fitting description of the element?
a. It is a reactive metal.
b. It has two valence electrons.
c. It can combine with metals to form salts.
d. It belongs to the representative elements.
46. The electron configuration of an atom of element X in the ground state is
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1. Which of the following elements represents this?
a. 48Cd b. 35Br c. 31Ga d. 27Co
47. The set of four quantum numbers of the 25th electron is
−1
a. n=3 ,l=2 ,m=0 , s=
2
+1
b. n=3 ,l=3 , m=−1 , s=
2
 −1
c. n=3 ,l=2 ,m=+ 2, s=
2
+1
d. n=4 ,l=1, m=0 , s=
2
48. He developed the law of octaves
a. Henry Moseley
b. Dmitri Mendeleev
c. Johann Döbereiner
d. John Newlands
49. He arranged the elements in groups of threes or triads
a. Henry Moseley
b. Dmitri Mendeleev
c. Johann Döbereiner
d. John Newlands
50. Which of the following elements has the highest ionization energy?
a. lithium (group 1A, period 2)
b. neon (group 8A, period 2)
c. krypton (group 8A, period 4)
d. potassium (group 1A, period 4)
51. Which of the following elements is the most metallic?
a. O (group 6A, period 2)
b. Ca (group 2A, period 4)
c. Se (group 6A, period 4)
d. Be (group 2A, period 2)
52. Which type of chemical bond is formed between two identical atoms by the sharing of
two electrons, with one electron from each atom?
a. ionic
b. polar covalent
c. non-polar
d. metallic
53. What type of bond generally involves non-metal atoms?
a. covalent bonds b. ionic bonds c. none of them
54. Which of the following molecules is a nonpolar?
a. NH3
b. H2O
c. OF2
d. CCl4
55. All of the following elements will have the tendency to give up electrons to be stable
except
a. Aluminum b. Chlorine c. Calcium d. Potassium
56. A positive ion is called a/an
a. cation
b. positron
c. anion
d. electron
57. Which type of chemical bond is formed by a transfer of electrons?
a. ionic
b. polar covalent
c. non-polar covalent
d. metallic
58. All of the following are characteristics of an ionic bond except
a. involves sharing of electrons
b. stronger than a covalent bond
c. the components joined by the bonds are ions
d. ions are held by electrostatic forces of attraction
59. What is the molecular of methane (CH4)?
a. trigonal planar b. tetrahedral c. square planar d. linear
60. Carbon disulfide is a nonpolar molecule. Its central atom is carbon. Using VSEPR, what
is its shape?
a. linear b. trigonal planar c. tetrahedral d. bent
61. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
a. Most ionic compounds have high melting point.
b. Polar molecules show unsymmetrical distribution of electron clouds.
c. Metallic substances possess high thermal and electrical conductivity.
d. Ionic compounds are formed by the electrostatic force of attraction held between
 nonmetals.
62. What type of forces holds molecules of covalent compounds together?
a. electrostatic
b. van der Waals
c. hydrogen bonds
d. ionic
63. The formula of an oxide ion is
a. O2
b. O2-
c. O
d. O3
64. The number of atoms of sulfur in Al2(S2O3)3 is
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. six
65. The chemical formula of calcium chloride is
a. Ca2Cl
b. CaCl2
c. CaCl
d. CaC2
66. The chemical formula of sodium bicarbonate is _______.
a. Na2CO3
b. NaHCO3
c. NaHCO4
d. Na2HCO3
67. The formula mass of sodium bicarbonate is
a. 84 g/mol
b. 100 g/mol
c. 106 g/mol
d. 107 g/mol
68. Hydrogen peroxide has been used as a rocket propellant. If the chemical formula of
hydrogen peroxide is H2O2, what is its empirical formula?
a. H2O b. HO c. H2O2 d. HO2
69. The complete combustion of methane, CH4, can be represented by the equation:

CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g)  CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)

How many grams of CO2 are formed from the combustion of 120 g of methane?
a. 43.6 g b. 54.5 g c. 264 g c. 330 g
70. Batteries in our cars generate electricity through the following redox reaction.

Pb + PbO2 + H2SO4  PbSO4 + H2O

What is the numerical coefficient for H2SO4 and PbSO4 respectively?

a. 2, 2 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 1 d. 1, 1

71. Analysis of gas gave the percent composition as follows: C= 85.76% and H = 14.30 %.
If the molar mass of this gas is 42 g/mol, what are the empirical formula and the true
formula?
a. CH; C4H4 b. CH3; C3H9 c. CH2; C3H6 d. C2H4, C3H6
72. Aluminum reacts with aqueous hydrochloric acid forming aqueous aluminum chloride
and hydrogen gas.
2Al (s) + 6HCl (aq) → 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3H2 (g)
The reaction is an example of
b. combination
c. decomposition
d. single replacement
e. double replacement
73. Which is an application of Charles’s Law?
a. Inflated car tire
b. Rising of the dough when baked
c. Aerosol canister thrown in a camp fire
d. Tenderizing meat in a pressure cooker
74. A small bubble rises from the bottom of a swimming pool, where the temperature and
 pressure are 19 °C and 2.50 atm respectively, where the temperature is 25 °C and
pressure is 0.88 atm. Which relationship is true on the final volume of the bubble if its
initial volume was 3.6 mL?
a. As the temperature increases, volume decreases
b. As pressure decreases, volume decreases.
c. As pressure decreases, temperature increases and volume decreases
d. As pressure decreases, temperature increases and volume increases
75. Combustion of methane gas, CH4, liberates 890 kJ of heat. Which of the following
statements is NOT correct?
a. The reaction is an exothermic process.
b. The reaction produces carbon dioxide and water.
c. The reaction absorbs 890 kJ of heat.
d. The reaction releases 890 kJ of heat.
76. Which of the following describes what happens when you hold an ice cube in your
hand?
a. Heat flows from the ice to your hand; the melting of the ice is endothermic.
b. Heat flows from the ice to y our hand; the melting of the ice is exothermic.
c. Heat flows from your hand to the ice; the melting of the ice is endothermic.
d. Heat flows from your hand to the ice; the melting of the ice is exothermic.
77. A fresh fruit shrinks when placed in a sugar solution. What factor explains this?
a. The sugar solution in the fruit has the same concentration as the surrounding
sugar solution.
b. The sugar solution in the fruit has a lower concentration than the surrounding
sugar solution.
c. The sugar solution in the fruit has a higher concentration than the surrounding
solution.
d. The fruit has no sugar solution, thus the surrounding sugar solution diffused into
the fruit.
78. A cell with a semi-permeable membrane contains 5 % aqueous solution of sucrose.
What will happen to the cell if it is immersed in water?
a. burst b. swell c. shrink d. unchanged
79. The reaction 2X(g)  Q2(g) was found to be endothermic. What happens when the
reaction is heated?
a. There will be more reactants formed.
b. There will be more products formed.
c. The reaction will no longer continue.
d. The reaction will come to completion.
80. Which two simple sugars make up a lactose – a component of breast milk?
a. Glucose and glucose c. Glucose and fructose
b. Glucose and galactose d. Galactose and fructose
81. In RNA, instead of pairing with thymine, adenine is paired with
a. Guanine c. Thymine
b. Cytosine d. Uracil
82. What is the compliment of the DNA sequence GCCAAA?
a. CGGTTT c. AAAGCC
b. TTTCGG d. CGGUUU
83. A pure substance that cannot be decomposed by chemical change into simple
substances with a fixed mass ratio is called a (an)
a. element b. compound c. mixture d. isotope
84. One of the physical properties of a metal, compared to a non–metal, is that the metal is
malleable. This means you can
a. see you reflection in it
b. use it to conduct electricity
c. pound it into thin sheet
d. pull it into a wire that will conduct electricity
85. The common name of hydrochloric acid is muriatic acid. What is the chemical name for
baking soda?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. sodium carbonate
c. sodium hydroxide
d. calcium carbonate
86. Drain cleaners’ major component that is highly basic and corrosive substance is
commonly known as caustic soda. What is the chemical name of this component?
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Sodium carbonate
c. Sodium hydroxide
 d. Sodium hypochlorite
87. Antacids provide relief from hyperacidity. Which two bases are components of antacid?
a. Barium hydroxide and Aluminum hydroxide.
b. Magnesium hydroxide and Sodium hydroxide
c. Aluminum hydroxide and Magnesium hydroxide
d. Sodium hydroxide and Barium hydroxide
88. Petrol is a form of fuel used to run vehicles. Which statement best describes that petrol
is a mixture?
a.Petrol evaporates to form a vapor.
b.Petrol is a highly combustible liquid.
c. Petrol boils over a wide range of temperatures.
d.Petrol is in liquid state at room temperature and pressure
89. An odorless, colorless Liquid A boils at a temperature range of 105 – 110 0C. What
inference can you draw based from this observation?
a. Liquid A is a mixture.
b. Liquid A is a compound.
c. Liquid A is an element.
d. Liquid A is a pure substance
90. Maria accidentally mixed walnuts, potato chips, and orange juice. What are the
techniques than can be applied to separate them?
a. sieving
b. filtering
c. applying magnet, evaporation
d. decanting, picking
91. Which of the following statements best describes a liquid?
a. the particles can move freely from one place to another
b. the particles have the highest kinetic energy as compared to the other phases of
matter
c. the particles are compactly arranged so that the density tends to be the greatest
as compared to the other phases of matter
d. the particles form a bulk with definite volume but without definite shape
92. John Dalton reasoned that atom exists from the evidence that
a. elements could not be broken down into anything simpler
b. water pours and flows when in the liquid state
c. elements always combined in certain fixed ratios
d. peanut butter and jelly could be combined in any ratio
93. Which of the following is an assumption of Dalton’s atomic theory?
a. Atoms of an element have different masses.
b. When atoms combine to form compounds, they do so in ratios of small whole
numbers
c. An atom consists of a very small, positively charged nucleus
d. An atom is a sphere of positively charged material in which the detachable
electrons are embedded
94. Which theory of Dalton’s is acceptable today?
a. All atoms of a given element are alike.
b. No atoms are created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
c. Atoms of one element differ from the atoms of any other element.
d. Compounds are formed when two atoms of different elements combine in fixed
proportions.
95. Elements combine in fixed mass ratios to form compounds. This must mean that
elements
a. are made up of continuous matter without subunits
b. are made up of discrete units called atoms
c. are always chemically active
d. are always combined together to form compounds
96. On which law(s) of matter was Dalton’s atomic theory based?
a. law of conservation of energy
b. law of definite and multiple proportions
c. both a and b
d. all of them
97. Deposits of two pure salts from two different regions in the Philippines were subjected
to analysis and gave the following data:
Details Sample 1 Sample 2

mass of sodium (g) 0.115 0.690

 mass of chlorine (g) 0.178 1.065

mass of salt (g) 0.293 1.755

What law of chemical combination is in accordance with the given data?

a. Law of Definite Proportion
b. Law of Multiple Proportions
c. Law of Conservation of Mass
d. Law of Conservation of Energy

98. Thomson was convinced that he had discovered a subatomic particle, the electron, from
the evidence that
a. the charge-to-mass ratio was the same for all materials
b. cathode rays could move through a vacuum
c. electrons were attracted toward a negatively charged plate
d. the charge was always 1.60 X 10 -19 coulomb
99. The “raisin bread” model of the atom was proposed by
a. J. Chadwick
b. E. Rutherford
c. J.J. Thomson
d. E. Goldstein
100. Who proposed that the electrons revolve around the nucleus in planetary rings or
orbits?
a. J.J. Thomson
b. Niels Bohr
c. Ernest Rutherford
d. Erwin Schrödinger
101. The main problem with a solar system model of the atom is that
a. electrons move in circular, not elliptical orbits
b. the electrons should lose energy since they are accelerating
c. opposite charges should attract one another
d. the mass ratio of the nucleus to the electrons is wrong
102. Using the laws of motion for moving particles and the laws of electrical attraction,
Bohr calculated that electrons could
a. move only in orbits of certain allowed radii
b. move, as do the planets, in orbits at any distance from the nucleus
c. move in orbits at distances from the nucleus that matched the distances
between colors in the line spectrum
d. move in orbits at variable distances from the nucleus that are directly
proportional to the velocity of the electrons
103. According to the Bohr model, an electron gains or losses energy only by
a. moving faster or slower in an allowed orbit
b. jumping from one allowed orbit to another
c. being completely removed from an atom
d. jumping from one atom to another atom
104. Who suggested the dual nature of matter – that matter has both particle and
wave properties?
a. Louis de Broglie
b. Erwin Schrödinger
c. Max Planck
d. Werner Heisenberg
105. If you want to know the number of protons in an atom of a given element, you
would look up the
a. mass number b. atomic number c. atomic mass d. both b and c
106. If you want to know the number of neutrons in an atom of a given element, you
would
a. round the atomic weight to the nearest whole number
b. add the mass number and the atomic number
c. subtract the atomic number from the mass number
d. add the mass number and the atomic number, then divide by two
107. Carbon – 14 is radioactive and is used by archaeologists in carbon dating. Which
species has both the same number of electrons and the same number of neutrons as
an atom of carbon -14?
a. 14N+ b.16O2+ c. 17F+ d. 28Si
108. Which of the following pairs are isotopes?
 a. and
b. and
c. and
d. and
109. All of the following contain C, H, and N atoms except?
a. purine c. pyrimidine
b. amino acid d. sucrose
110. In the central dogma of protein synthesis, which part involves the production of
information prior to protein synthesis?
a. replication c. transcription
b. translation d. reverse transcription
111. A pinch of iron filings was dropped in an aqueous solution of copper (II) sulfate.
Which of the following products will complete the chemical equation for this single
replacement reaction?
a. FeSO4 (aq) c. CuS (s) + FeSO4 (aq)
b. Cu (s) + FeSO4 (aq) d. No reaction products
112. The fermentation of glucose produces ethanol and carbon dioxide as follows

C6H12O6 (aq)  2 C2H5OH(aq) + 2 CO2(g)

How many grams of ethanol will be produced when 4.00 g of glucose reacts in this
fashion? (The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol while ethanol is 46.0 g/mol.)
a. 1.02 g b. 2.04 g c. 31.4 g d. 92.0 g
113. Which of the following quantities is equivalent to one mole?
a. 11.2 L of ammonia gas @STP c. 44.0 g of carbon dioxide
b. 2.00 amu of helium atoms d. 6.02 x1024 ion pairs of lithium fluoride
114. Hydrogen sulfide that is aqueous is called
a. sulfuric acid
b. sulfurous acid
c. hydrosulfuric acid
d. hydrosulfurous acid
115. What is the correct name of the chemical formula, CuSO4?
a. Copper sulphate c. Cuprous sulphate
b. Copper(II) sulphate d. Copper sulfur tetroxide
116. What is the correct chemical name of P4O10?
a. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide
b. tetraphosphorus decoxide d. phosphorus oxyacid
117. What is the correct chemical name of Ca(ClO3)2?
a. Calcium chlorate c. Calcium (II) chlorate
b. Calcium chloride d. Calcium chlorite
118. The acid name of HIO2 is
a. iodous acid
b. periodic acid
c. iodic acid
d. hydroiodic acid
119. The formula of cupric sulfate is ______.
a. Cu(SO4)2
b. CuSO3
c. CuSO4
d. Cu(SO3)2
120. The Stock name of cupric sulfate is
a. copper(I) sulfate
b. copper(II) sulfate
c. copper(III) sulfate
d. copper(IV) sulfate