Abnormal Psychology

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1. According to the authors of your textbook, the definition of a psychological disorder is

associated with
a. stress.
b. impaired functioning.
c. culturally expected responses.
d. psychotic symptoms.

2. A psychological dysfunction refers to

a. a breakdown in cognitive functioning.
b. a breakdown in emotional functioning.
c. a breakdown in behavioral functioning.
d. any of these.

3. Regarding the definition of abnormality, it is correct to state that

a. it is difficult to define “normal” and “abnormal.”
b. abnormality depends solely on subjective distress.
c. the definition is universal across cultures.
d. the criteria differ depending on whether the individual has a psychological disorder or a
psychological dysfunction.

4. The criterion that a particular behavior be atypical or not culturally expected is

insufficient to define abnormality because
a. behavior that occurs infrequently is considered abnormal in every culture.
b. the atypical behavior must also cause harm or impairment to be considered abnormal.
c. behaviors vary very little from one individual to another within each culture.
d. many people behave in ways that deviate from the average, but this doesn’t mean that they
have a disorder.

5. A male college student begins feeling sad and lonely. Although still able to go to
classes and work at his job, he finds himself feeling down much of the time and worries
about what is happening to him. Which part of the definition of abnormality applies to his
situation?
a. Personal distress
b. Cultural factors
c. Impaired functioning
d. Violation of societal norms

6. Mark has dyed his hair purple. Although his friends like the color, his older aunts have
been giving him strange looks. Mark is applying for jobs and has not yet had any job
offers. He suspects that potential employers are not taking him seriously because of his
hair color. Which part of abnormality applies to Mark’s employment situation?
a. Personal Distress
b. Cultural Factors
c. Impaired Functioning
d. Violation of Social Norms

7. Talking loudly and smoking is more appropriate in an Egyptian movie theater than an
American one. This illustrates which norm?
a. Personal Distress
b. Cultural Factor
c. Impaired Functioning
d. Violation of Social Norms

8. Which of the following is true:

a. There is clear consensus on the definition of mental health disease.
b. There is no clear consensus on the definition of disease but there is a clear definition of
mental health disorder.
c. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) never changes its definitions.
d. The DSM is based on prototypes or symptoms and examples of the phenomenon in question.

9. Which of the following degrees is earned by a psychiatrist?

a. Ph.D.
b. Ed.D.
c. M.D.
d. Psy.D.

10. With which of the following terminal degrees can you practice therapy?
a. Master’s degree in business administration
b. Bachelor’s degree in psychology
c. Ph.D. in psychology with additional licensing requirements
d. Ph.D. in non-profit management

11. Rocky Starr is a male rocker who wears outlandish makeup and women’s clothing
when performing on stage. This behavior is considered
a. more abnormal than that of an accountant who starts to do so because rockstars are
supposed to be very masculine.
b. less abnormal than that of an accountant who starts to do so because it is consistent with his
professional success.
c. less abnormal than that of an accountant who starts to do so because its more common to
see a rockstar in makeup.
d. just as abnormal as that of an accountant who starts to do so because abnormality is defined
by the individual himself.

12. The prototype of a disorder reflects as described in DSM-5.

a. its history and prognosis
b. its biological underpinnings
c. the causes of pathology
d. the “typical” profile and diagnostic criteria

13. The scientific study of psychological disorders is called

a. psychopathology.
b. psychoanalysis.
c. pseudoscience.
d. parapsychology.

14. Dr. Simons is studying learning behavior in rats. What is likely her main field of
study?
a. Behaviorism
b. Oedipal theory
c. Psychiatry
d. Humanistic Psychology

15. Why is the biological theoretical model considered a newer field of study than the
psychological theoretical model?
a. Brain scans can tell us about brain structure.
b. The field of genetics is relatively young.
c. We have more powerful microscopes than we have had in the past.
d. All of the above are true.

16. Dr. Smith is interested in how separation anxiety changes over time from childhood to
adolescence in the general population. What is his main field of study?
a. Oedipal theory
b. Behaviorism
c. Child psychopathology
d. Developmental psychology

17. All of the following are ways in which mental health professionals might function as
scientist-practitioners EXCEPT
a. analyzing their own motivations and reasons for helping people with psychological problems.
b. evaluating their own assessments and treatments for effectiveness.
c. conducting research leading to new information about mental disorders and their treatments.
d. using the most current diagnostic and treatment procedures.

18. Tameka, having earned her master’s degree, has begun treating disorders and
concentrating on family problems. Tameka is probably a(n)
a. psychiatric social worker.
b. family therapist.
c. psychiatric nurse.
d. mental health counselor.

19. Statistical data are often relevant when discussing psychological disorders. For
example, a researcher might want to know how many new cases of depression are
diagnosed each year, a figure called the disorder.
a. prevalence
b. incidence
c. recurrence
d. Ratio

20. Psychological disorders can be described as following a typical course or individual

pattern. For example, schizophrenia follows a chronic course. On the other hand, mood
disorders, including depression, follow a(n) course.
a. episodic
b. acute
c. cyclic
d. Insidious

21. If a psychological disorder is said to have an acute onset, it means that the symptoms
developed
a. suddenly.
b. atypically.
c. gradually.
d. following a period of recovery.

22. When 20-year-old Larry was first diagnosed with schizophrenia, his family wanted to
know if and how the disorder would progress and how it would affect him in the future. In
medical terms, the family wanted to know Larry’s
a. Diagnosis.
b. Prognosis.
c. Pathophysiology.
d. disease etiology.

23. At various times in history, in an attempt to explain problematic, irrational behavior,

humans have focused on supernatural causes that include
a. witchcraft.
b. demons and evil spirits.
c. the moon and stars.
d. all of the above.

24. Throughout history, one of these theoretical models have been used to primarily
explain our behavior, thinking and emotions EXCEPT
a. psychological.
b. biological.
c. supernatural.
d. Physical.

25. The best description of the multidimensional integrative approach to understanding

psychopathology is that it is based on
a. biological dimensions.
b. biological and psychological dimensions.
c. biological and psychological dimensions, as well as emotional influences.
d. biological and psychological dimensions, as well as emotional and developmental influences.

26. Within the multidimensional integrative approach to understanding psychopathology,

learned helplessness is considered a(n) dimension.
a. Biological
b. Psychological
c. Emotional
d. physiological

27. The basis of the multidimensional integrative approach to understanding

psychopathology is that each dimension (psychological, biological, emotional, etc.)
a. operates independently.
b. is sufficient to cause pathology.
c. builds on the dimension that precedes it.
d. is influenced by the other dimensions.

28. Your uncle spent most of his teen years in a hospital undergoing treatment for a
severe physical illness. As an adult, he is rather shy and withdrawn, particularly around
women. He has been diagnosed with social phobia, which you believe is entirely due to
lack of socialization during his teen years. Your theory or model of what caused his
phobia is ________.
a. Multidimensional
b. Integrative
c. One-dimensional
d. biological

29. According to the multidimensional integrative approach to psychopathology, the

following statement is true for most psychological disorders:
a. If one monozygotic twin has a particular disorder, the other twin will definitely have the
disorder as well.
b. Monozygotic twins are no more likely to share psychological disorders than any other
siblings.
c. Monozygotic twins are no more likely to share disorders than any other two people selected
at random from the population.
d. If one monozygotic twin has a particular psychological disorder, the other twin is more likely to
have the disorder than the rest of the population.

30. Amanda is 12 years old, and her sister Samantha is 5 years old. While riding in a car
with their parents, the girls witness a major automobile accident where a number of
people are injured. The girls react very differently to the accident. This is probably due to
a. biological differences.
b. developmental differences.
c. psychological differences
d. sociocultural differences

31. The multidimensional integrative approach to pathology includes causal factors from
which fields?
a. Neuroscience
b. Genetics
c. Psychology
d. All of the above are correct

32. Behavioral influences in the multidimensional model include

a. conditioned Responses.
B. cultural Factors.
c. Genetics.
d. violation of Social Norms.

33. Social influences in the multidimensional model include

a. the fact that illness usually gets attention.
b. heart rate.
c. Genetics.
d. conditioned responses.

34. The most accurate way to think of genes is that they

a. set boundaries for our development.
b. determine both our physical and psychological characteristics.
c. determine physical but not psychological characteristics.
d. actually have very little to do with any of the characteristics that we display.

35. The systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social
factors in a person with a possible mental disorder is known as clinical
a. assessment
b. Interpretation
c. validation
d. standardization

36. The process of determining whether an individual's symptoms meet the criteria for a
specific psychological disorder is called
a. Prognosis
b. diagnosis
c. Classification
d. Analysis

37. In order to be useful, assessment techniques should be based on

a. beliefs
b. Attitudes
c. Evidence
d. assumptions

38. In the first interview with Frank, a patient described in the textbook, he stated that he
had been having intrusive thoughts that he tried to prevent by performing certain
movements. Based on this information, you might predict that Frank would be diagnosed
with
a. major depressive disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. a personality disorder
d. Schizophrenia

39. A measurement which is consistent is considered to be

a. valid
b. reliable
c. standardized
d. Accurate

40. If the short version of a test yields the same results as a longer version, then you
could conclude that the brief version had______validity.
a. Concurrent
b. divergent
c. predictive
d. Excessive

41. Clifton had been experiencing a number of psychological issues, so he decided to go

to a psychiatrist to see what was wrong. Dr. A told him he had major depressive disorder.
He decided to seek a second opinion. Dr. B diagnosed him with generalized anxiety
disorder. Wanting yet another opinion, he went to Dr. C who told him he was obsessive
compulsive. This demonstrates poor
a. test-retest reliability
b. concurrent validity
c. descriptive validity
d. inter-rater reliability

42. The process of clinical assessment results in narrowing the focus to

a. concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant.
b. consider a broad range of problems.
c. cover all possible problems.
d. concentrate on all problem areas equally.

43. In order to develop useful standards for a test, it is important to use a normative
group that consists of a
a. small group of people who are very similar to each other.
b. large group of people who all share a key characteristic.
c. large group of very diverse people.
d. small group that differs from the population at large

44. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic concepts that help determine the
value of a psychological assessment procedure?
a. Reliability
b. Subjectivity
c. Validity
d. Standardization

45. Treminitia, who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and loss of appetite, received
different diagnoses from several psychologists. In terms of assessment, this indicates a
problem with
a. reliability
b. subjectivity
c. validity
d. Standardization

46. In terms of psychological assessment, which of the following describes the concept
of validity?
a. Two or more "raters" get the same answers.
b. An assessment technique is consistent across different measures.
c. Scores are used as a norm for comparison purposes.
d. An assessment technique measures what it is designed to measure.

47. Comparing assessment scores to those of individuals who are demographically

similar to you reflects what concept of clinical assessments?
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Standardization
d. All of the above are correct

48. Internal validity is defined as

a. the extent to which the results of a study can be explained by the dependent variable.
b. the degree to which the hypothesis is supported by the study.
c. the overall quality of the research.
d. the extent to which the results in a study can be explained by the independent variable.
49. External validity refers to the
a. degree that the dependent variable was changed in the study.
b. power of the independent variable to cause a change in the dependent variable.
c. extent to which findings apply to individuals or situations other than those studied.
d. overall quality of the study.

50. A researcher studies the impact of stress on college students' exam scores. Whether
the results of this study help us to understand the relationship between job performance
and stress level of real-life organizational workers is a question of
a. internal validity.
b. study confounds.
c. external validity.
d. the original research hypothesis.

51. Dr. Smith uses a sample of participants in his memory study. Any conclusions that
can be drawn from the results may be applied to the general population if there is a high
degree of
a. internal reliability.
b. external reliability.
c. internal validity.
d. external validity.

52. Your friend has trouble making commitments in relationships. You believe that this is
because her parents had a bitter divorce when she was young. Your belief that a child
who lives through a bitter parental divorce will have trouble making commitments in
relationships as an adult would be considered a(n) .
a. hypothesis
b. independent variable
c. empirical conclusion
d. applied theory

53. A hypothesis is defined as a(n) .

a. theory
b. empirical conclusion
c. research study
d. educated guess

54. Of the following, which hypothesis would NOT be appropriate given the concept of
testability:
a. Behavior is influenced by the rewards that follow the behavior.
b. Children who view aggression are more likely to act in an aggressive manner.
c. Invisible forces influence our behavior every day.
d. Personality traits can be influenced by genetics.

55. The dependent variable in a research study is the variable that

a. is expected to influence or change the variable being studied.
b. is the empirical result of the study
c. is expected to be changed or influenced in the study.
d. forms the most important component of the hypothesis.

56. The independent variable in a research study is the variable that

a. is expected to be changed or influenced in the study.
b. is expected to influence or change the dependent variable.
c. is the empirical result of the study.
d. forms the most important component of the hypothesis.

57. The independent variable is the ___________ whereas the dependent variable
measures ________________.
a. treatment or intervention; impact of the treatment or intervention
b. measurement; explanation
c. impact of the treatment or intervention; treatment or intervention
d. none of the above are correct

58. Shonda and her company have developed a new drug to treat Parkinson’s Disease.
She conducts a randomized control trial. Which is most likely the independent variable?
a. Whether or not the drug impacts the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease
b. The experimental drug
c. The number of patients in the trial
d. Whether or not the drug cures Parkinson’s patients

59. A researcher is testing the effects of sunlight on depression. The dependent variable
is independent variable is
a. sunlight; depression
b. depression; sunlight
c. sunlight; mood
d. depression; mood

60. In an experimental study,

a. the independent variable is manipulated.
b. the dependent variable is manipulated.
c. both the independent variable and the dependent variable are manipulated.
d. the environment is manipulated.

61. With regard to research design, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT that
a. independent variables are hypothesized to have an impact on dependent variables.
b. independent variables are generally manipulated by the researcher.
c. dependent variables are hypothesized to have an impact on independent variables.
d. dependent variables are generally measured by the researcher.
62. Studies that have significant confounds are said to be low in .
a. external validity
b. internal validity
c. fidelity
d. empirical validity

63. Internal validity is:

a. an educated guess or statement to be supported by the data
b. the extent to which the results of the study can be generalized or applied outside the
immediate study
c. the extent to which the results of the study can be attributed to the independent variable
d. none of the above are correct

64. External validity is:

a. an educated guess or statement to be supported by the data
b. the extent to which the results of the study can be generalized or applied outside the
immediate study
c. the extent to which the results of the study can be attributed to the independent variable
d. none of the above are correct

65. If a study of a medication is conducted using only 25- year-old white males, the
results would be limited in their ______________.
a. generalizability
b. internal validity
c. concurrent reliability
d. usefulness

66. The common aspect of all somatic symptom disorders is a maladaptive or excessive
a. belief that a serious medical condition will cause death.
b. belief that one's appearance is ugly.
c. response to physical or associated health symptoms.
d. concern with the meaning of a physical pain.
67. Hippocrates and the Egyptians before him thought that hysterical disorders were the
result of a .
a. dysfunctional ovary
b. tense vagina
c. wandering uterus
d. none of these

68. An essential element of illness anxiety disorder is .

a. psychosis
b. worry
c. depression
d. dissociation

69. Illness anxiety disorder was formerly known as:

a. hypochondriasis
b. OCD
c. schizophrenia
d. irreality disorder

70. Clients with illness anxiety disorder are likely to

a. avoid doctors.
b. avoid unnecessary medical procedures.
c. soon reject assurances that they are healthy.
d. ignore the long-term process of illness.

71. Since Jane has been diagnosed with illness anxiety disorder, we can expect her to
see her physician
a. often and feel completely reassured that there is nothing wrong with her health.
b. rarely but continue to believe that she is quite ill.
c. almost never because she does not trust physicians.
d. often but continue to be anxious about her health anyway.

72. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for a manic episode:
a. inflated self-esteem.
b. more talkative than usual.
c. ideas that seem to be racing.
d. ability to concentrate.

73. Tamara gave birth to a healthy child 4 days ago. Now she is tearful and having mood
swings. Fortunately, these symptoms disappeared relatively quickly. Tamara was
probably suffering from .
a. major depressive disorder with peripartum onset
b. baby blues
c. persistent depressive disorder
d. major depressive episode with seasonal onset

74. A person who eats and sleeps too much is experiencing a depressive episode with
features.
a. Atypical
b. melancholic
c. chronic
d. Catatonic

75. Purging techniques are ______ for bulimia nervosa.

a. common and necessary for diagnosis
b. common but not necessary for diagnosis
c. not as common as laxative use
d. none of the above are correct

76. Susan, a woman of relatively normal weight, sometimes eats huge quantities of junk
food with no ability to stop herself. She follows this with long periods of complete
fasting. Based on this information, Susan
a. might be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa.
b. should be diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.
c. will not be diagnosed with any disorder because she is of normal weight.
d. cannot be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa because she is not purging.

77. After engaging in an extended session of binge eating, Thomas goes to the bathroom
and makes himself vomit. He thinks that he has removed all of the food he consumed
from his stomach, but in fact he will only have removed around percent of the calories he
consumed.
a. One-third
b. one-quarter
c. one-half
d. two-thirds

78. Amy is a young woman who is very competitive and comes from a high-achieving,
wealthy family. She is very social and likes the fact that she is quite popular. She believes
that her popularity is dependent on the weight and shape of her body. Amy has a
boyfriend but worries that she may care more about their relationship than he does. The
feature that puts Amy most at risk for an eating disorder such as bulimia nervosa is her
a. belief that her weight and body shape influence her popularity.
b. belief that her boyfriend cares less about the relationship than she does.
c. successful family.
d. competitive nature.

79. The most serious medical consequence of bulimia nervosa is potential .

a. electrolyte imbalance
b. salivary gland damage
c. starvation
d. tooth erosion

80. Health Psychology is:

a. subfield of behavioral medicine.
b. the study of psychological factors important to the promotion and maintenance of health
c. Both of these
d. Neither of these

81. Which of the following is NOT considered an interdisciplinary field:

a. Behavioral Medicine
b. Behavioral Economics
c. Health Psychology
d. All of these are interdisciplinary

82. In which of the following ways do psychological and social factors influence health?
a. They can affect basic biological processes resulting in illness and disease.
b. Risky behaviors can increase the likelihood of developing physical disorders.
c. Both of these
d. Neither of these

83. Health psychology, a subfield of behavioral medicine, focuses on all of the following
EXCEPT
a. promotion and maintenance of health.
b. health policy formation.
c. improvements in healthcare systems.
d. psychosomatic effects on health.

84. "AIDS, a disease of the immune system, is directly affected by stress. Stress may
then promote the deadly progression of the disease." These two statements are an
example of ______ factors influencing ______ processes.
a. psychological; biological
b. biological; psychological
c. sociocultural; genetic
d. genetic; sociocultural

85. The most common of all the male sexual dysfunctions is

A. erectile dysfunction
B. inhibited orgasm
C. premature ejaculation
D. sexual aversion
86. Who will be most likely to have a sexual dysfunction?
A. Santo, a 28-year-old, who sometimes gets over excited and ejaculates after a couple of
minutes.
B. Henry, who is 65 and once had a heart attack.
C. Imelda, who is 33 and sexually inexperienced.
D. Katrina, who is 65 and has sex only once a week.

87. Our current understanding of the psychological causes of sexual dysfunction

suggests that the primary psychological factor in sexual dysfunction is
A. anxiety
B. distraction
C. relationship issues
D. unreasonable expectations

88. The original concept of performance anxiety as a cause of sexual dysfunction has
been replaced with a more modern view that performance anxiety is comprised of
A. distraction, cognition, and depression.
B. arousal, anxiety, and distraction.
C. cognition, arousal, and distraction.
D. arousal, cognitive processes, and negative affect.

89. As a typical male with erectile dysfunction, we can expect Bill to show
A. decreased arousal during performance demand and an inaccurate sense of how aroused he
is.
B. decreased arousal during performance demand and an accurate sense of how aroused he is.
C. increased arousal during performance demand and an inaccurate sense of how aroused he
is.
D. increased arousal during performance demand and an accurate sense of how aroused he is.

90. Greg often has problems with premature ejaculation. As he becomes more anxious
about his problem, the amount of time between initiating intercourse and ejaculation will
most likely .
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. depend upon what is making him anxious

91. What explains the apparent stimulation, feeling of wellbeing, and outgoing behavior
that occur as the initial effects of alcohol ingestion?
A. Depression of the inhibitory centers in the brain
B. Activation of the inhibitory centers in the brain
C. Depression of the autonomic nervous system
D. Stimulation of the autonomic nervous system
92. Which of the following does NOT describe the specific effect of alcohol on a
particular neurotransmitter system?
A. Serotonin - alcoholic cravings
B. Glutamate - alcoholic blackouts C. Dopamine - slurred speech
D. GABA - anti-anxiety effect

93. All of the following are symptoms of withdrawal from alcohol EXCEPT____________.
A. nausea and/or vomiting
B. hypersomnia
C. transient hallucinations
D. agitation
94. The characteristic features of personality disorders tend to develop with
A. rapid onset in late adolescence.
B. gradual onset in adulthood.
C. rapid onset in adulthood.
D. a chronic pattern with onset in childhood.

95. Which set of adjective pairs correctly describes the clusters into which DSM-5
personality disorders are grouped?
A. Odd/eccentric, dangerous/inconsistent, and shy/withdrawn
B. Shy/withdrawn, anxious/fearful, and dangerous/inconsistent
C. Shy/withdrawn, dramatic/emotional, and bizarre/thought disordered
D. Odd/eccentric, dramatic/emotional, and anxious/fearful

96. According to the definition of personality disorder, only individuals who

show______________patterns of maladaptive behavior or emotional distress as a result
of their actions should be diagnosed with a personality disorder.
A. suicidal
B. the most severe
C. enduring
D. highly variable

97. All of the following are necessary conditions for the diagnosis of a personality
disorder EXCEPT
A. patient feelings of distress.
B. distress to the person demonstrating the behaviors or others around them.
C. maladaptive functioning.
D. chronic course of behavior.

98. Both John and Fred meet the diagnostic criteria for paranoid personality disorder.
John's friends are aware of his paranoia although he continues to live a meaningful life.
Fred's paranoia is so extreme that he finds it hard to function in society. The DSM-5
diagnosis for these individuals would be
A. exactly the same.
B. categorically different.
C. in the same category but reflect the different levels of pathology.
D. in the same category with different specifiers.

99. When parens patriae is used to take a mentally ill individual into custody, it means
that the state is acting as a
a. mental health counselor.
b. surrogate parent.
c. legal advisor.
d. social worker.

100. Margaret has been schizophrenic for many years and has been hospitalized several
times. She has paranoid delusions and hallucinations. Her speech is rambling and
incoherent. Most recently, Margaret got a hold of a gun and shot several people,
believing that they were her enemies. Following her arrest, what is the most likely
scenario for Margaret?
a. If convicted, she will go to prison.
b. Following a trial, she will be hospitalized again.
c. Her case will never go to trial.
d. She will be found competent to stand trial.