Biology Test - #11 (Full Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Syllabus) 8527521718

Biology I - Section A 5 The three steps of decomposition occur:

1. sequentially, with catabolism being the last step.
1 The most ecologically relevant environmental factor 2. sequentially, with leaching being the last step.
3. simultaneously.
is:
4. sequentially, but not in a particular order.
1. Temperature 2. Water
3. Light 4. Soil 6 The evolution of C4 photosynthetic system is
probably one of the strategies for:
2 In stems: 1. maximizing the availability of oxygen in spite of
1. the primary xylem is endarch with protoxylem continuing high amount of water loss
towards the center and metaxylem towards the periphery 2. maximizing availability of water in spite of continuing
2. the primary xylem is endarch with metaxylem towards high amount of carbon dioxide loss
the center and protoxylem towards the periphery 3. reducing the amount of water loss but leads to
3. the primary xylem is exarch with protoxylem towards decreased availability of carbon dioxide
the center and metaxylem towards the periphery 4. maximizing the availability of carbon dioxide while
4. the primary xylem is exarch with metaxylem towards minimizing water loss
the center and protoxylem towards the periphery
7 Identify the option where all columns are correctly
3 Match the element with its associated
matched:
functions/roles and choose the correct option among Crop Variety Resistant to
given below: Rapeseed Shoot and fruit
i. Splitting of H2O to liberate O2 during 1. Pusa Sawani
A. Boron mustard borer
photosynthesis 2. Chilli Himgiri Chilli mosaic virus
B. Manganese ii. Needed for synthesis of auxins Pusa
3. Cauliflower Bacterial blight
C. Shubhra
iii. Component of nitrogenase
Molybdenum 4. Flat bean Pusa Sem 2 Aphids
D. Zinc iv. Pollen germination
E. Iron v. Component of ferredoxin 8 Consider the following two statements:
Options: An effective germplasm collection is the prerequisite
A B C D E I:
of any successful plant breeding programme.
1. i ii iii iv v Genetic variability is the root of any breeding
II:
2. iv i iii ii v programme.
3. iii ii iv v i 1. Both I and II are true and II explains I.
4. ii iii v i iv 2. Both I and II are true but II does not explain I.
3. I is true but II is false.
4. I is false but II is true.
4 Consider the given two statements:
In most ecosystems, all the ecological pyramids are 9 What process in aerobic respiration generates
I:
largely upright.
maximum ATP?
Pyramid of energy can be a notable exception to the 1. substrate-level phosphorylation
II:
above rule. 2. chemiosmosis
1. Both I and II are correct. 3. Krebs cycle
2. Both I and II are incorrect. 4. Pyruvate decarboxylation
3. Only II is correct.
4. Only I is correct.

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 Biology Test - #11 (Full Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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10 Tapetum: 16 Large holes in Swiss cheese are the result of

is the outermost layer in the wall of fermentation by:
1.
microsporangium Streptococcus Propionibacterium
1. 2.
2. helps in the protection of the pollen grains salivarius shermanii
3. helps in dehiscence of anther Lactobacillus
3. 4. Lactobacillus delbrueckii
4. has cells that generally have more than one nucleus helveticus

11 Liquid endosperm in coconut forms due to: 17 Identify the incorrect statement regarding restriction
1. Failure of cytokinesis after karyokinesis endonucleases:
2. Failure of karyokinesis before cytokinesis 1. They mostly cut ds DNA at specific base sequences.
3. Disruption of spindle fibers at metaphase They are produced by bacterial cells as a mechanism
2.
4. Continued DNA replication during cytokinesis of self-defense.
They digest DNA by removing nucleotides from a
3.
12 The rivet popper hypothesis was given by: free 3' end.
1. Humboldt 2. Ehlrich They often generate short single-stranded sequences
4.
3. Tilman 4. Tansley at the ends of the resultant fragments.

13 The discontinuously synthesized DNA fragments 18 In the chloroplast:

are later joined by: Statement I: The membrane system is the site of
1. DNA helicase 2. Topoisomerase enzymatic reactions leading to synthesis of sugar.
Statement II: The stroma is responsible for trapping the
3. DNA ligase 4. DNA polymerase
light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP and
NADPH.
14 Match each item in COLUMN I with one in 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
COLUMN II and select the correct match from the codes 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
given: 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
COLUMN I COLUMN II 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
[Phyllotaxy] [Example]
A. Alternate P. Alstonia 19 The non technical term Bark in an old woody stem
B. Opposite Q. Calotropis and Guava does not include:
C. Whorled R. China rose, Mustard and Sunflower 1. Cork
Codes: 2. Secondary phloem
3. Secondary cortex
A B C
4. Vascular cambium
1. P Q R
2. P R Q 20 The given compound:
3. R Q P
4. Q P R

15 If the fruit is formed without the fertilization of

ovary, it is called as:
1. Parthenogenetic
2. Parthenocarpic
3. Aggregate
4. False
1. is a storage product in archaea
2. is the source of energy in fungi
3. is present in the cell walls of gram negative bacteria
4. is a structural component of plasma membrane

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 Biology Test - #11 (Full Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Syllabus) 8527521718

21 Which of the following is not a character of 26 The world’s most problematic aquatic weed, “The
Ascomycetes? terror of Bengal”, is the name given to:
1. Mycelium is unbranched and septate 1. Zostera 2. Ceratophyllum
2. Asexual spores conidia are produced exogenously 3. Eichhornia 4. Parthenium
3. Sexual spores called ascospores are produced
endogenously
27 Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for:
4. Conidia on germination produce mycelium
Species-specific, narrow-spectrum insecticidal
1.
22 Consider the following statements: applications
I. Unicellular organisms grow by cell division. Species-specific, broad-spectrum insecticidal
2.
II. Growth in all multicellular organisms by cell division applications
occurs only up to a certain age. 3. Biocontrol of fungal diseases
III. Non-living objects do not exhibit growth 4. Biocontrol of aphids and mosquitoes
The incorrect statement/s is/are:
1. I only 2. III only 28 The primary CO acceptor in C plants is:
2 4

3. II only 4. II and III only 1. RuBP in mesophyll cells

2. RuBP in bundle sheath cells
23 In brown algae: 3. PEP in mesophyll cells
I. Asexual reproduction is by biflagellate zoospores that 4. PEP in bundle sheath cells
are pear shaped and have two unequal and laterally
attached flagella. 29 Which of the following acts as a ribozyme for
II. The gametes are pyriform [pear shaped] and bear two peptide bond formation in bacteria?
laterally attached flagella. 1. 5s rRNA 2. 23s rRNA
1. Both I and II are incorrect 3. 16s rRNA 4. 5.1s rRNA
2. Only I is incorrect
3. Only I is correct
30 Mesosomes, extensions of plasma membrane into
4. Both I and II are correct
the cell, help bacterium in all the following processes
24 GM crops have been modified with various traits. except:
1. Photosynthesis in cyanobacteria
Golden rice has been developed by the International 2. Respiration
Rice Research Institute for: 3. DNA replication
1. Improved shelf life 4. Cell wall formation
2. Disease resistance
3. Herbicide resistance 31 Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
4. Improved nutritional value Scientist PGR discovery
1. Cousins Ethylene
25 Consider the two statements: 2. Kurosawa Gibberellin
Species diversity seen in tropical areas is much 3. Skoog and Miller ABA
I:
lower than that seen in temperate areas. 4. F. W. Went Auxin
Temperate areas, unlike tropical areas are less
II: seasonal, more constant and promote niche
specialization.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

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32 Match the asexual reproductive structure in Biology I - Section B

COLUMN I with organisms in COLUMN II and select
the correct option from the codes given: 36 Consider the two statements:
COLUMN I COLUMN II Assertion: Heterospory in some pteridophytes paved the
A. Zoospore a. Penicillium way for the evolution of seeds in higher plants.
B. Conidia b. Chlamydomonas Reason: The megaspores and microspores in
C. Buds c. Sponge heterosporous ferns give rise to female and male
D. Gemmule d. Hydra gametophytes respectively.
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
correctly explains the Assertion.
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does
1. a b c d not correctly explain the Assertion.
2. d c b a 3. Assertion is true and Reason is false.
3. c d a b 4. Assertion is false and Reason is true.
4. b a d c
37 Phloem transport differs from xylem transport as:
33 The inheritance of flower colour in dog flower and 1. Xylem transport requires active pumping at stomata,
4’O clock plant exhibits: transport in phloem is passive.
1. Complete dominance 2. Phloem movement is solar powered, xylem movement
2. Incomplete dominance occurs best in dark.
3. Co-dominance 3. Phloem carries fluid from the soil to the leaves, while
4. Lethality xylem is the reverse.
4. Phloem can reverse direction, depending on the
34 What guides the entry of the pollen tube though the activity of the "source" and "sink" of its materials but the
flow in xylem is essentially unidirectional.
micropyle into the embryo sac in the angiosperms?
1. Antipodals 38 Consider the given two statements:
2. Filiform apparatus in synergids
3. The egg cell Statement I: Green house crops such as tomatoes and
4. Polar nuclei bell pepper are allowed to grow in carbon dioxide
enriched atmosphere that leads to higher yields.
35 Nicotine, caffeine, quinine and opium produced by Statement II: C3 plants respond to higher carbon dioxide
plants are actually: concentration by showing increased rates of
1. Primary metabolites needed in reproduction photosynthesis, leading to higher productivity.
2. Secondary metabolites needed for growth 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and
3. Alkaloids that are present in seeds Statement II explains Statement I
4. Defenses against grazers and browsers 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but
Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

39 Regarding phosphorus cycle:

There is no respiratory release of phosphorus into
I:
atmosphere
Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall
II:
of phosphorus is small
1. Only I is true.
2. Only II is true.
3. Both I and II are true.
4. Both I and II are false.

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 Biology Test - #11 (Full Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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40 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 43 Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). I: Vernalisation enables the plant to have sufficient time
Soil erosion rate increases due to to reach maturity.
Assertion (A): II: It prevents precocious reproductive development late
deforestation.
Deforestation decreases the amount of in the growing season.
Reason (R): litter cover, which provides protection 1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
from surface runoff. 2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
In the light of the above statements, choose the most 3. I is correct but II is incorrect
appropriate answer from the options given below : 4. I is incorrect but II is correct
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
44 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2. Lactose is the inducer of the lac operon
explanation of (A). Assertion (A):
in E.coli.
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
Lactose is the inhibitor of the lac
4. Both (A) and (R) are false. Reason (R):
operon.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
41 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as appropriate answer from the options given below :
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Conventional breeding is not the answer 1. explanation of (A).
Assertion (A): if we want to increase yield in the 2. Both (A) and (R) are false.
existing crop varieties.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
The existing crop varieties have evolved 3. explanation of (A).
Reason (R): into new species and traditional
hybridisation is not possible now. 4. (A) is true but (R) is false.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below : 45 Consider the given two statements:
1. Both (A) and (R) are false. I. In secondary growth in dicot stems, the amount of
secondary phloem produced is more than secondary
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not
2. xylem
explain (A).
II. The cambium is generally more active on the outer
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. side than the inner
4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A). 1. Both I and II are true and II explains I
2. Both I and II are true but II does not explain I
42 Cyanobacteria: 3. I is true but II is false
I. are eubacteria 4. Both I and II are false
II. have chlorophyll a similar to green plants
III. can fix atmospheric nitrogen
1. Only III is correct
2. Only I and II are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

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46 Mark true (T) or false (F) for the given statements: 50 Two core techniques that enabled birth of modern
Statement I: Tap root of sweet potato and adventitious biotechnology are:
roots of carrot, turnip get swollen and store food. Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material,
Statement II: Prop roots are hanging and supporting A. to introduce these into host organisms and thus
structures in a banyan tree. change the phenotype of the host organism.
Statement III: Stilt root arising from the uppermost Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical
nodes in stems of maize and sugarcane are also engineering process to enable growth of only the
supporting roots. B.
desired microbes/eukaryotic cell in large quantities
Statement IV: Pneumatophores help plants like for the manufacture of biotechnological products.
Rhizophora growing in swampy areas to get oxygen for
respiration.
A is called as Genetic Engineering and B is called as
I II III IV 1.
Biophysical engineering.
1. T T F F A is called as Genomics and B is called as
2. F T F T 2.
Bioprocess engineering.
3. T F T F A is called as Genetic Engineering and B is called as
3.
4. F F T T Bioprocess engineering.
A is called as Genomics and B is called as
47 In an ecosystem, the rate of production of organic 4. Biophysical engineering.
matter during photosynthesis is called as its:
1. Gross Primary productivity
2. Net Primary productivity
B iology II - S ection A
3. Secondary productivity
4. Non productivity
51 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II
and select your answer from the codes given:
48 Plants have developed many mechanisms to COLUMN
COLUMN II
encourage cross-pollination that include: I
Asynchrony between pollen release and stigma a. injection of washed sperm into the uterus
I. A. IUI
receptivity with a catheter
II. Placing of pollen and stigma at different positions b. an egg fertilized in vitro (outside the
B. ZIFT body) is placed into a woman's fallopian
III. Self-incompatibility
tube
IV. Dioecy
c. eggs are removed from a woman's
What would be true regarding these mechanisms? C. GIFT ovaries, and placed in one of the Fallopian
1. I and II prevent autogamy and geitonogamy tubes, along with the man's sperm
III is a genetic mechanism that inhibits pollen d. injection of a single sperm directly into a
2. D. ICSI
germination or pollen tube growth mature egg
IV is a very common [found in the Codes :
3.
majority]mechanism seen in flowering plants A B C D
4. I, II, and III invariably lead to xenogamy 1. a b c d
2. d b c a
49 Identify the incorrectly matched pair: 3. a c b d
Component of ETC Name 4. d c b a
1. Complex I NADH dehydrogenase
2. Complex II Succinate dehydrogenase 52 Unlike Arthropods, Annelids:
3. Complex III Cytochrome b6f complex 1. have a true coelom lined by embryonic mesoderm
4. Complex IV Cytochrome c oxidase 2. have a closed circulatory system
3. do not reproduce by sexual methods
4. have a complete digestive system

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53 The cells in areolar loose connective tissue that can 59 Which of the following statements would not be
secrete histamine are: applicable to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in a
1. Fibroblasts 2. Macrophages eukaryotic cell?
3. Mast cells 4. Basophils 1. Frequently observed in cells actively involved in
protein synthesis and secretion
54 A cloning vector has two antibiotic resistance 2. Bear ribosomes on their surface
3. Continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus
genes- for tetracycline and ampicillin. A foreign DNA 4. Sites of synthesis of steroidal hormones
was inserted into the tetracycline gene. Non-
recombinants transformants would survive on the 60 The sporozoites that cause infection when a female
medium containing:
1. ampicillin but not tetracycline Anopheles mosquito bites a person, are found in:
2. tetracycline but not ampicillin 1. liver of the person
3. both tetracycline and ampicillin 2. RBCs of mosquito
4. neither tetracycline nor ampicillin 3. salivary glands of the mosquito
4. gut of the mosquito
55 From outside to inside, the correct sequence of cells
61 Consider the following key events:
in the inner layer of human retina will be:
1. Photoreceptor cells, Bipolar cells, Ganglion cells I. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and
2. Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells, Photoreceptor cells their identity is lost as discrete elements.
3. Photoreceptor cells, Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells II. Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.
4. Ganglion cells, Photoreceptor cells, Bipolar cells The stage of mitosis characterized by these key events
is:
1. Prophase
56 Leydig cells:
2. Metaphase
Are present in seminiferous tubules and secrete 3. Anaphase
1.
androgens 4. Telophase
Are present in seminiferous tubules and help in the
2.
maturation of sperms 62 Consider the given two statements:
Are present in interstitial space and secrete Statement 1: Iodine test can detect the presence of starch
3.
androgens but not of cellulose in a given sample.
Are present in interstitial space and help in the Statement 2: Starch forms helical secondary structure
4.
maturation of sperms and can hold iodine molecules while cellulose does not
contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine.
57 The last of 24 human chromosomes to be sequenced 1. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and
was: Statement 2 correctly explains Statement 1
1. Chromosome 1 and completed in 2003 2. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but
2. Chromosome 1 and completed in 2006 Statement 2 does not correctly explain Statement 1
3. Chromosome X and completed in 2003 3. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
4. Chromosome X and completed in 2006 4. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct

58 Pain and inflammation that occur when too much

uric acid crystallizes and deposits in the joints are known
as:
1. gout
2. osteoarthritis
3. osteoporosis
4. rheumatoid arthritis

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Syllabus) 8527521718

63 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II 67 When population density is plotted against time, the
and select the correct match from the codes given: exponential growth curve is:
COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. S shaped 2. Straight line
Stimulates the secretion of HCl 3. J shaped 4. Hyperbola
A Cholecystokinin P and pepsinogen by gastric
glands 68 Though we cannot be certain, what can be the
Acts on exocrine pancreas and probable reason/s for the sudden disappearance of
B Secretin Q stimulates the secretion of water dinosaurs from the Earth?
and bicarbonate ions I: Climatic changes killed them
Acts on both exocrine pancreas II: Most of them evolved into birds
and gall bladder and stimulates
C Gastrin R
the secretion of pancreatic
1. I only 2. II only
enzymes and bile juice
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II
Inhibits gastric secretion and
Gastric inhibitory
D S motility and has no effect on
peptide 69 JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular
exocrine pancreas
modifications in the:
Codes: 1. DCT and the afferent arteriole at the location of their
A B C D contact
2. DCT and the efferent arteriole at the location of their
1. Q P R S
contact
2. R Q S P 3. PCT and the afferent arteriole at the location of their
3. R Q P S contact
4. P Q R S 4. PCT and the efferent arteriole at the location of their
contact
64 The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
malonate is an example of: 70 The oxyntic or Parietal cells of the gastric mucosa
1. Non-competitive reversible inhibition secrete:
2. Non-competitive irreversible inhibition 1. prorennin
3. Competitive inhibition 2. pepsinogen
4. Allosteric inhibition 3. HCl and intrinsic factor
4. gastric lipase
65 Arcata Wildlife Sanctuary in Arcata, California is
also a/an: 71 What is the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon
1. innovative sewer management system dioxide respectively in the venous blood leaving the
2. tiger reserve tissues [in mmHg]?
3. nuclear waste disposal site 1. 104, 40 2. 95, 40
4. ecological hotspot 3. 40, 45 4. 20, 46

66 During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle 72 The semilunar valves close at the beginning of
which of the following occur? 1. atrial systole.
The primary follicle grows and becomes a fully 2. atrial diastole.
I:
mature Graafian follicle. 3. ventricular systole.
The endometrium of the uterus regenerates through 4. ventricular diastole
II:
proliferation.

1. Only I 2. Only II
3. I and II 4. None

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73 The pedigree shows the inheritance of red-green 77 Analogous organs arise due to:
color blindness in a family. If II 3 marries a color-blind 1. divergent evolution 2. artificial selection
man, what is the probability that her first child will be 3. genetic drift 4. convergent evolution
normal?
78 What is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in
Eukaryotes?
1. Poly A tail
2. Methyl cytosine triphosphate
3. Methyl guanosine triphosphate
4. Poly U tail

79 Suppression of sperm motility and their fertilizing

capacity is the specific mechanism of action of:
1. Lippes loop 2. Multiload 375
3. LNG 20 4. Progestasert

80 When anti B antibodies are present in the plasma

and A antigens on the surface of RBCs of a person, her
blood group can be:
1. ¼ 1. A and AB 2. Only A
2. ½ 3. Only B 4. O
3. 2/3
4. ¾
81 Consider the following two statements:
74 Identify the correct statement regarding the pineal Statement I: Red fibres are ‘red’ due to large amount of
myoglobin.
gland or the hormone secreted by it:
Statement II: Red muscles are also called as aerobic
1. The gland is situated on the ventral side of the
muscles.
forebrain
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and
2. The hormone secreted by the gland is called as
Statement II explains Statement I
melanin
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but
3. The hormone regulates the diurnal rhythm of our body
Statement II does not explain Statement I
4. The hormone decreases immunity
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
75 In which of the following animals, the body is
cylindrical and is composed of an anterior proboscis, a
collar and a long trunk?
1. Hemichordates
2. Urochordates
3. Cephalochordates
4. Vertebrate chordates

76 The best breeding method for animals that are

below average in productivity in milk production is:
1. Inbreeding 2. Out-crossing
3. Cross-breeding 4. Interspecific hybridization

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82 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Biology II - Section B

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Conserving the biological diversity of 86 Consider the given statements regarding the human
the ecological hotspots is very important skull:
Assertion (A):
component of efforts to safeguard the I. It has a total of 22 bones.
world’s biological heritage. II. Cranial bones are 14 in number and the facial bones
The hotspots of biodiversity cover a are 8 in number.
Reason (R): large percentage of the land area of III. It is monocondylic.
earth. IV. A single hyoid bone is located at the base of the
In the light of the above statements, choose the most buccal cavity.
appropriate answer from the options given below : The correct statements include:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 1. Only I 2. Only I and IV
1.
explanation of (A). 3. Only II and III 4. Only I, II, and IV
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A). 87 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
4. Both (A) and (R) are false. According to CPCB, particulate size 2.5
micrometer or less in diameter [PM 2.5]
Assertion (A):
83 Match each item in Column I [Barriers in innate are responsible for causing the greatest
immunity] with one in Column II [Example] and select harm to human health.
your answer from the codes given: These fine particles can be inhaled deep
Reason (R):
COLUMN I COLUMN II into the lungs and can damage lungs.
A. Physical a. Skin and mucus membranes In the light of the above statements, choose the most
B. Physiological b. PMNL appropriate answer from the options given below:
C. Cellular c. Acid in stomach and saliva in mouth 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
D. Cytokine d. Interferon
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
Codes 2.
explanation of (A).
Options: A B C D
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
1. a b c d
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
2. d b c a
3. a c b d 88 Consider the given statements:
4. d c b a I: The crop in the alimentary canal of cockroach is also
known as proventriculus, has six highly chitinous plates
84 The first clinical gene therapy trial was given in called teeth and helps in grinding food particles.
1990 to a 4 year girl with: II: The gizzard is sac-like structure used for storing food
1. Alpha – 1 antitrypsin deficiency in cockroach.
2. Cystic fibrosis 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia 4. Both I and II are incorrect

85 An F2 phenotypic ratio of 1: 4: 6: 4: 1 from a cross

AaBb X AaBb is expected in the case of:
1. Dominant epistasis 2. Complementary genes
3. Polygenic inheritance 4. Independent assortment

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89 Identify the correct statement regarding the sections 93 Which of the following features will be seen in
of the spinal cord shown in the given diagram: Chordates but not in non-chordates?
a. A notochord
b. Ventral, solid, and double central nervous system
c. Pharynx perforated by gill slits
d. Ventral heart
e. Terminal anus and a lack of post-anal tail
1. a, c, and d only
2. a, b. and e only
3. a and c only
4. b, c, and d only

I. A and D are part of the grey mater 94 Pneumotaxic center:

II. B is motor and C is sensory 1. moderates the function of the rhythm center
1. Only I 2. Only II 2. establishes the respiratory rhythm
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II 3. is located in medulla oblongata
4. reduces the duration of expiration and thereby alters
90 Assertion: Juxtamedullary nephrons are key the respiratory rate
adaptation for water conservation in mammals.
Reason: Juxtamedullary nephrons constitute about 85% 95 Arrange the given steps in the process of DNA
of all nephrons in the mammalian kidney. fingerprinting in correct chronological order [from
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is earliest to last]:
the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is (i) isolation of DNA
not the correct explanation of the assertion. (ii) separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
(iii) digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
4. Both assertion and reason are false.
(iv) hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
91 An individual with c d genes was crossed with the (v) detection of hybridised DNA fragments by
wild type ++. On test crossing F1, the progeny were +c autoradiography
transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments
105, +d 115, c d 880 and ++900. Distance between c d
(vi) to synthetic membranes, such as nitrocellulose or
genes is:
nylon
1. 11 map units 2. 5.5 map units
3. 44 map units 4. 22 map units
1. (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (vi) – (iv) – (v)
2. (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (vi) – (iv) – (v)
92 The vomiting center in human beings is located in:
3. (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi) – (v) – (iv)
1. Pons Varolii
2. Medulla oblongata 4. (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (v) – (iv) – (vi)
3. Hypothalamus
4. Cerebrum

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 Biology Test - #11 (Full Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Syllabus) 8527521718

96 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 98 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Evolution is not a directed process in the In every species, there are trade- offs
Assertion (A): Assertion (A):
sense of determinism. between survival and reproductive traits.
It is a stochastic process based on Natural selection favors traits that
Reason (R): chance events in nature and chance Reason (R): improve an organism’s chances of
mutation in the organisms. survival and reproductive success.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below : appropriate answer from the options given below :
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1. 1.
explanation of (A). explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2. 2.
explanation of (A). explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true. 4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

97 The number of correct statements regarding cloning 99 Consider the following two statements:
vectors amongst the given statements is: Not all copulations lead to fertilization and
I:
Bacteriophages because of their high number per pregnancy
I. cell, have very high copy numbers of their genome Fertilization can occur if the ovum and the sperms
within the bacterial cells. II:
are simultaneously transported to the fallopian tubes.
If one wants to recover many copies of the target 1. Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I.
II. DNA, it should be cloned in a vector whose origin 2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
supports high copy number. 3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
A selectable marker helps in identifying and 4. I is incorrect but II is correct.
III. eliminating non-transformants and selectively
permits the growth of the transformants. 100 Match the drugs in Column I with their correct
Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens has now attributes given in Column II and select the correct
been modified into a cloning vector which is no answer from the codes given:
IV. more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use Drug Attribute
mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a A Opioids P Hallucinogenic at high doses
variety of plants.
B Cannabinoids Q Highly effective painkiller
Retroviruses in animals have the ability to
C Cocaine R Can cause cardiovascular side effects
transform normal cells into cancerous cells and
V. D Nicotine S Stimulates adrenal medulla
hence can never be used as a cloning vector in
rDNA procedures.
Codes:
1. 2 2. 3 A B C D
3. 4 4. 5 1. Q R S P
2. R Q P S
3. Q R P S
4. R Q S P

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 Biology Test - #11 (Full Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Syllabus) 8527521718

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