Namma Kalvi

POSITIVE VIBES 1
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POSITIVE VIBES 2
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POSITIVE VIBES 3

Index

S.no Content Pg.

No
1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical equations 4
2 Quantum mechanical model of Atom 16
3 Periodic classification of Elements 30
4 Hydrogen 37
5 Alkali and alkaline earth metal 44
6 Gaseous state 51
7 Thermodynamics 62

Positive Vibes Study Materials.

By. : R.Hariganesh
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POSITIVE VIBES 4

LN – 1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations

I. Choose the Best Answer (a) 102 g
Question 1.
40 ml of methane is completely burnt using 80 ml of oxygen Question 6.
at room temperature. The volume of gas left after cooling to The number of water molecules in a drop of water weighing
room temperature is ……….. 0.018 g is ………….
(a) 40 ml CO2 gas (a) 6.022 × 1026
(b) 40 ml CO2 gas and 80 ml H2O gas (b) 6.022 × 1023
(c) 60 ml CO2 gas and 60 ml H2O gas (c) 6.022 × 1020
(d) 120 ml CO2 gas Answer:
Answer: (c) 6.022 × 1020
(a) 40 ml CO2 gas
Question 7.
Question 2. 1 g of an impure sample of magnesium carbonate
An element X has the following isotopic composition 200X = (containing no thermally decomposable impurities) on
90 %, 199X = 8 % and 202X = 2 %. The weighted average atomic complete thermal decomposition gave 0.44 g of carbon
mass of the element X is closest to ………… dioxide gas. The percentage of impurity in the sample is
(a) 201 u ………..
(b) 202 u (a) 0 %
(c) 199 u (b) 4.4 %
(d) 200 u (c) 16 %
Answer: (d) 8.4 %
(d) 200 u Answer:
(c) 16%
Question 3.
Assertion: Question 8.
Two mole of glucose contains 12.044 × 1023 molecules of When 6.3 g of sodium bicarbonate is added to 30 g of acetic
glucose. acid solution, the residual solution is found to weigh 33 g.
Reason: The number of moles of carbon dioxide released in the
Total number of entities present in one mole of any reaction is –
substance is equal to 6.02 × 1022 (a) 3
(a) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the (b) 0.75
correct explanation of assertion (c) 0.075
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the (a) 0.3
correct explanation of assertion Answer:
(c) assertion is true but reason is false (c) 0.075
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer: Question 9.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false When 22.4 liters of H2 (g) is mixed with 11.2 liters of Cl2 (g),
each at 273 K at 1 atm the moles of HCl (g), formed is equal
to ………..
Question 4. (a) 2 moles of HCl (g)
Carbon forms two oxides, namely carbon monoxide and (b) 0.5 moles of HCl (g)
carbon dioxide. The equivalent mass of which element (c) 1.5 moles of HCl (g)
remains constant? (d) 1 moles of HCl (g)
(a) Carbon Answer:
(b) Oxygen (d) 1 moles of HCl (g)
(c) Both carbon and oxygen
(d) Neither carbon nor oxygen Question 10.
Answer: Hot concentrated sulfuric acid is a moderately strong
(b) Oxygen oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not
show oxidizing behavior?
Question 5. (a) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
The equivalent mass of a trivalent metal element is 9 g eq - (b) C + 2H2SO4 → 4 CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
1
the molar mass of its anhydrous oxide is ……….. (c) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4+ 2HCl
(a) 102 g (d) none of the above
(b) 27 g Answer:
(c) 270 g (c) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4+ 2HCl
(d) 78 g
Answer:
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POSITIVE VIBES 5
Question 11. Question 17.
Choose the disproportional reaction among the following The equivalent mass of ferrous oxalate is ……….
redox reactions.
(a) 3Mg (s) + N2(g) → Mg2N2 (s)
(b) P4 (s) + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3(g) + 3NaH2PO2 (aq)
(c) Cl2 (g) + 2Kl (aq) → 2KC1 (aq) + I2
(d) Cr2O3 (s) + 2Al (s) → A2O3 (s) + 2Cr (s)
Answer:
(b) P4 (s) + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3(g) + 3NaH2PO2 (aq)
Answer:
Question 12.
The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate in alkaline
medium is
MnO4 + 2H2O + 3e– → MnO2 + 4OH–
(a) 31.6 Question 18.
(b) 52.7 If Avogadro number were changed from 6.022 × 1023 to 6.022
(c) 79 × 1020, this would change ………..
(d) None of these (a) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced
Answer: equation
(b) 52.7 (b) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
(c) the definition of mass in units of grams
Question 13. (d) the mass of one mole of carbon
Which one of the following represents 180 g of water? Answer:
(a) 5 Moles of water (d) the mass of one mole of carbon
(b) 90 moles of water
(c) 6.022×1023180 Molecules of water Question 19.
(d) 6.022 × 1024 Molecules of water Two 22.4 liter containers A and B contains 8 g of O 2 and 8 g
Answer: of SO2 respectively, at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, then ……….
(d) 6.022 x 1024 Molecules of water (a) number of molecules in A and B are same
(b) number of molecules in B is more than that in A
Question 14. (c) the ratio between the number of molecules in A to the
7.5 g of a gas occupies a volume of 5.6 liters at 0°C and 1 atm number of molecules in B is 2 : 1
pressure. The gas is ………… (d) number of molecules in B is three times greater than the
(a) NO number of molecules in A
(b) N2O Answer:
(c) CO (c) The ratio between the number of molecules in A to
(d) CO2 number of molecules in B is 2 : 1
Answer:
(a) NO Question 20.
What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 ml of 8.5%
Question 15. solution of Ag NO3 is mixed with 100 ml of 1.865% potassium
Total number of electrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia is chloride solution?
……….. (a) 3.59 g
(a) 6.022 × 1023 (b) 7 g
(b) 6.022×10221.7 (c) 14 g
(c) 6.022×10241.7 (d) 28 g
(d) 6.022×10231.7 Answer:
Answer: (a) 3.59 g
(a) 6.022 × 1023
Question 21.
Question 16. The mass of a gas that occupies a volume of 612.5 ml at
The correct increasing order of the oxidation state of sulphur room temperature and pressure (25°C and 1 atm pressure) is
in the anions SO42-, SO32-, S2O42-,S2O62- is ……….. 1.1g. The molar mass of the gas is ………..
(a) SO32- < SO32- < S2O42- < S2O62- (a) 66.25 g mol-1
(b) SO42- < S2O42- < S2O62-<SO32- (b) 44 g mol-1
(c) S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62- < SO42- (c) 24.5 g mol -1
(d) S2O62- < S2O42- < SO42- < SO32- (d) 662.5 g mol-1
Answer: Answer:
(c) S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62- < SO42- (b) 44 g mol-1
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POSITIVE VIBES 6
Question 22. Question 24.
Which of the following contain same number of carbon Which of the following is/are true with respect to carbon –
atoms as in 6 g of carbon -12? 12?
(a) 7.5 g ethane (a) relative atomic mass is 12 u
(b) 8 g methane (b) oxidation number of carbon is +4 in all its compounds.
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) I mole of carbon -12 contain 6.022 × 1022 carbon atoms.
(d) none of these (d) all of these
Answer: Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) relative atomic mass is 12 u

Question 23. Question 25.

Which of the following compound( s) has/have percentage of Which one of the following is used as a standard for atomic
carbon same as that in ethylene (C2H4)? mass?
(a) propene (a) 6C12
(b) ethyne (b) 7C12
(c) benzene (c) 6C13
(d) ethane (d) 6C14
Answer: Answer:
(a) propene (a) 6C12

II. Write brief answer to the following questions

Question 26.
Define relative atomic mass.

On the basis of carbon, the relative atomic mass of element is defined as the ratio of mass of one atom of the element to the
mass of l/12th mass of one atom of Carbon – 12.

Question 27.
What do you understand by the term mole?
Answer:
The mole is defined as the amount of a substance which contains 6.023 x 1023 particles such as atoms, molecules or ions. It is
represented by the symbol

Question 28.
Define equivalent mass.
Answer:
The equivalent mass of an element is the number of parts of the mass of an element which combines with or displaces 1.008
parts of hydrogen or 8 parts of oxygen or 35.5 parts of chlorine.

Question 29.
What do you understand by the term oxidation number?
Answer:
Oxidation number refers to the number of charges an atom would have in a molecule or an ionic compound, if electrons were
transferred completely. The oxidation numbers reflect the number of electrons “transferred”.

Question 30.
Distinguish between oxidation and reduction.
Answer:
Oxidation:
According to the classical concept, oxidation is a process of addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen.
Removal of hydrogen
2H2S + O2 → H2O + 2S
Addition of oxygen
C + O2 → CO2
According to the electronic concept, loss of electrons is called oxidation reaction.
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POSITIVE VIBES 7
Ca → Ca + 2e
2+ –

During oxidation, oxidation number increases.

During oxidation, reducing agent gets oxidised.
Reduction:
Reduction is a process of removal of oxygen or addition of hydrogen.
Addition of hydrogen
Ca + H2 → CaH2
Removal of oxygen
Zn O + C → Zn + CO
According to the electronic concept, gain of electrons is called reduction reaction.
Zn + 2e– → Zn
2+

During reduction, oxidation number decreases.

During reduction, oxidising agent gets reduced.

Question 31.
Calculate the molar mass of the following compounds.

1. urea [CO(NH2)2] 2. acetone [CH3COCH3] 3. boric acid [H3BO3] 4. sulphuric acid [H2SO

Answer:

1. urea [CO(NH2)2]
Atomic mass of C =12 3. Boric acid [H3BO3]
Atomic mass of O =16 Atomic mass of B = 10
Atomic mass of 2(N) = 28 Atomic mass of 3(H) = 3
Atomic mass of 4(H) = 4 Atomic mass of 3(O) = 48
∴ Molar mass of Urea = 60 ∴ Molar mass of Boric acid = 61

2. Acetone [CH3COCH3] 4. Sulphuric acid 2[H2SO4]

Atomic mass of 3(C) = 36 Atomic mass of 2(H) = 2
Atomic mass of 1(0) = 16 Atomic mass of 1(S) = 32
Atomic mass of 6(H) = 6 Atomic mass of 4(O) = 64
∴ Molar mass of Acetone = 58 ∴ Molar mass of Sulphuric acid = 98

Question 32.
The density of carbon dioxide is equal to 1.977 kg m -3 at 273 K and 1 atm pressure. Calculate the molar mass of CO 2
Answer:
Molecular mass = Density x Molar volume
Molar volume of CO2 = 2.24 x 10-2 m3
Density of CO2 = 1.977 kg m-3
Molecular mass of CO2 = 1.977 x 103 gm-3 x 2.24 x 10-2 m3
= 1.977 × 10-1 × 2.24 = 44 g

Question 33.
Which contains the greatest number of moles of oxygen atoms?

1. 1 mol of ethanol
2. 1 mol of formic acid
3. 1 mol of H2O
Answer:

1. 1 mol of ethanol 2. 1 mol of formic acid.

C2H5OH (ethanol) – Molar mass = 24 + HCOOH (formic acid) – Molar mass = 3. 1 mol of H2O
6 + 16 = 46 2+12 + 32 = 46 H2O (water) – Molar mass = 2 + 16 =
46 g of ethanol contains 1 × 6.023 × 46 g of HCOOH contains 2 × 6.023 × 18
1023 number of oxygen atoms. 1023 number of oxygen atoms. 18 g of water contains 1 × 6.023 ×
1023 number of oxygen atoms.
∴ 1 mole of formic acid contains the
greatest number of oxygen atoms.
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POSITIVE VIBES 8

Question 34.
Calculate the average atomic mass of naturally occurring magnesium using the following data

Isotope Isotopic atomic mass Abundance (%)

Mg24 23.99 78.99

Mg26 24.99 10

Mg25 25.98 11.01

Answer:
Isotopes of Mg.
Atomic mass = Mg24 = 23.99 x 783.99100 = 18.95
Atomic mass = Mg26 = 24.99 x 10100 = 2.499
Atomic mass = Mg25 = 25.98 x 11.01100 = 2.860
Average Atomic mass = 24.309
Average atomic mass of Mg = 24.309

Question 35.
In a reaction x + y + z2 → xyz2, identify the limiting reagent if any, in the following reaction mixtures.
(a) 200 atoms of x + 200 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z2
(b) 1 mol of x + 1 mol of y + 3 mol of z2
(c) 50 atoms of x + 25 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z2
(d) 2.5 mol of x + 5 mol of y + 5 mol of z2
Answer:
x + y + z2
(a) 200 atoms of x + 200 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z2 According to the reaction, 1 atom of x reacts with one atom of y and
one molecule of z to give product. In the case (a) 200 atoms of x, 200 atoms of y react with 50 molecules of z 2 (4 part) i.e. 50
molecules of z2 react with 50 atoms of x and 50 atoms of y. Hence z is the limiting reagent.
(b) 1 mol of x + 1 mol of y + 3 mol of z2
According to the equation 1 mole of z2 only react with one mole of x and one mole of y. If 3 moles of z2 are there, z is limiting
reagent.
(c) 50 atoms of x + 25 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z2
25 atoms of y react with 25 atoms of x and 25 molecules of z2. So y is the limiting reagent.
(d) 2.5 mol of x + 5 mol of y + 5 mol of z2
2.5 mol of x react with 2.5 mole of y and 2.5 mole of z2. So x is the limiting reagent.

Question 36.
Mass of one atom of an element is 6.645 × 10-23 g. How many moles of element are there in 0.320 kg?
Answer:
Mass of one atom of an element = 6.645 × 10-23 g = Atomic mass.
Mass of given element = 0.320 kg
Number of moles =
Atomic mass

= 48.156 x 1023
= 4.8156 x 1024moles
= 48.156 x 10-23
= 4.8156 x 10-24 moles.
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POSITIVE VIBES 9

Question 37.
What is the difference between molecular mass and molar mass? Calculate the molecular mass and molar mass for carbon
monoxide. Answer:

Molecular Mass Molar Mass

• Relative molecular mass is defined as the ratio of the mass • It is defined as the mass of one mole of a substance.
of the molecule to the unified atomic mass unit. • The molar mass of a compound is equal to the sum of
• It can be calculated by adding the relative atomic masses of the relative atomic masses of its constituent expressed
its constituent atoms. in g mol-1.
• For carbon monoxide (CO) Molecular mass = Atomic mass • For carbon monoxide (CO) 12 + 16 = 28 g mol-1 Both
of carbon + Atomic mass of oxygen 12 + 16 = 28 u. molecular mass and molar mass are numerically same
but the units are different.
Question 38.
What is the empirical formula of the following?

1. Fructose (C6H12O6) found in honey

2. Caffeine (C8H10N4O2) a substance found in tea and coffee.
Answer:
1. Fructose (C6H12O6)
Empirical formula is the simplest formula. So it is divided by 6 and so empirical formula is CH 2O.
2. Caffeine (C8H10N4O2)
Simplified formula = molecularformula2
Empirical formula = C4H5N2O.

Question 39.
The reaction between aluminium and ferric oxide can generate temperatures up to 3273 K and is used in welding metals. (Atomic
mass of AC = 21 u Atomic mass of 0 = 16 u) 2Al + Fe2O2 → Al2O3 + 2Fe; If, in this process, 324 g of aluminium is allowed to react
with 1.12 kg of ferric oxide.
1. Calculate the mass of Al2O3 formed.
2. How much of the excess reagent is left at the end of the reaction?
Answer:

1. As per balanced equation 54 g A1 is required for 112 g of iron and 102 g of Al 2O3.
54 g of Al gives 102 g of Al2O3.
∴ 324 g of Al will give 10254 x 324 = 612 g of Al2O3.
2. 54 g of Al requires 160 g of Fe2O3 for welding reaction.
∴ 324 g of Al will require 16054 x 324 = 960 g of Fe2O3.
∴ Excess Fe2O3 – Un reacted Fe2O3 = 1120 – 960 = 160 g
160 g of excess reagent is left at the end of the reaction.

Question 40.
How many moles of ethane is required to produce 44 g of CO 2 (g) after combustion.
Answer:

∴ 44g of CO2 = I mole of CO2

2 moles of CO2 is produced by 1 mole of ethane.
∴ 1 mole of CO2 will be produced by = ?
∴ To produce 1 mole of CO2, the required mole of ethane is = 12 x 1 = 0.5 mole of ethane.
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POSITIVE VIBES 10
Question 41.
Hydrogen peroxide is an oxidizing agent. It dioxides ferrous ion to ferric ion and reduced itself to water. Write a balanced
equation.
Answer:
H2O2 – Oxidizing agent
Fe2+ + H2O2 → Fe3+ + H2O (Acetic medium)
Ferrous ion is oxidized by H2O2 to Ferric ion.
The balanced equation is Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e– x 2

Question 42.
Calculate the empirical and molecular formula of a compound containing 76.6% carbon, 6.38 % hydrogen and rest oxygen its
vapour density is 47.
Answer:

Empirical formula = C6H6O

Va-pour density 47
∴ Molecular mass = 2 x vapor density = 2 x 47 = 94
Molecular formula Empirical formula x n
Molecular mass x n
n = MolecularmassEmpiricalformulamass = 9494 = 1
∴ Molecular formula = C6H6O

Question 43.
A Compound on analysis gave Na = 14.31% S = 9.97% H = 6.22% and O = 69.5% calculate the molecular formula of the
compound if all the hydrogen in the compound is present in combination with oxygen as water of crystallization, (molecular mass
of the compound is 322).
Answer:

All H combines with 10 oxygen atoms to form as 10H2O.

So the empirical formula is Na2SO4 .10H2 O
Empirical formula mass = (23 x 2) + (32 x 1) + (16 x 4) + (10 x 18)
= 46 + 32 + 64 + 180 = 322
n = MolecularmassEmpiricalformulamass = 322322 = 1
Molecular formula = Na2SO4. 10H2O

Question 44.
Balance the following equations by oxidation number method
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POSITIVE VIBES 11
1. K2Cr2 O7 + KI + H2SO2 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + I2 + H2O
2. KMnO4 + Na2SO3 → Mn02 + Na2SO4 + KOH
3. Cu+ HNO3 → Cu(N03)2 + NO2 + H2O
4. H2C2O4 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + MnSO4 + CO2 + H2O
Answer:
1. K2Cr2 O7 + KI + H2SO2 → K2SO2 + Cr2(SO4)3 + I2 + H2O
Step – 1.

Step – 2
K2Cr2 O7 + 6KI + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 3I2 + H2O
Step – 3
To balance other atoms
K2Cr2 O7 + 6KI + H2SO4 → 4K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 3I2 + H2O
Step – 4
K2Cr2 O7 + 6KI + 7H2SO4 → 4K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 3I2 + 7H2O
2. KMnO4 + Na2SO3 → MnO2 + Na2SO4 + KOH (Alkaline medium)
Step – 1

Step – 2
2KMnO4 + 3Na2SO3 → 2MnO2 + 3Na2SO4 + KOH
Step – 3
balancing potassium, KOH is multiplied by 2
2KMnO4 + 3Na2SO3 → 2MnO2 + 3Na2SO4 + KOH
Step – 4
To balance H atom, H20 is added on reactant side.
2KMnO4 + 3Na2SO3 + H2O → 2MnO2 + 3Na2SO4 + KOH
3. Cu + HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O
Step – 1

Step – 2
Cu + HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O
Step – 3
To balance Nitrogen, 2HNO3 is multiplied by 2 and NO2 is multiplied by 2
Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + H2O
Step 4.
To balance oxygen, H2O is multiplied by 2
Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O
4. H2C2O4 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + MnSO4 + CO2 + H2O
Step – 1

Step – 2
5 H2C2O4 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + MnSO4 + 10 CO2 + H2O
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POSITIVE VIBES 12
Step – 3
To balance K, KMnO4 and MnSO4 are multiplied by 2
5 H2C2O4 + 2KMnO4 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 10 CO2 + H2O
Step – 4
To balance O and H, H2O and H2SO4 are multiplied by 3 and 6.
5 H2C2O4 + 2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 10 CO2 + 8H2O

Question 45.
Balance the following equations by ion electron method.

1. KMnO4 + SnCl2 + HCl → MnCl2 + SnCl4 + H2O + KCl

2. C2O42- + Cr2 O7 2- → Cr 3+ + CO2 (in acid medium)
3. Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + NaI (in acid medium)
4. Zn + NO3– → Zn2+ + NO
Answer:
1. KMnO4 + SnCl2 + HCl → MnCl3 + SnCl3 +H2O + KCl
Oxidation half reaction: (loss of electrons)

………………………………………………………..(1)
Reduction half reaction: (gain of electrons)

………………………………………………………(2)
Add H2O to balance oxygen atoms.

……………………………………………(3)
Add HCl to balance hydrogen atoms
KMnO4 + 5e– + 8HCl → MnCl2 + 4H2O …………………………………….(4)
To equalize the number of electrons equation (1) x 5 and equation (2) x 2
5SnCl2 → 5SnCl4 + 10e–
2KMnO4 + 16HCl + 10e– → 2MnCl2 + 4H2O + 2KCl
2KMnO4 + 5SnCl2 + 16HCl → 5SnCl4 + 2MnCl2 + 4H2O + 2KCl
2. C2O42- + Cr2 O72- → Cr 3+ + CO2 (in acid medium)
Oxidation half reaction:

Reduction half reaction:

To balance oxygen atoms, H2O is added on RHS of equation (2)

Cr2O72- + 6e– → 2Cr3+ + 7 H2O ……….(3)
To balance Hydrogen atoms, H+ is added on LHS of equation (1)
C2O42- + 14H+ → 2CO2 + 2e– ……..(4)
To equalize the number of electrons gained and lost, multiply the equation (4) x 3.

3. Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + NaI (in acid medium)

Oxidation half reaction: (Loss of electron)
Na2S2O3 → Na2S4O6 + 2e2- ……..(1)
Reduction half reaction: (Gain of electron)
I2 + 2e2-→ 2NaI …………(2)
Adding (1) and (2)

To balance oxygen,
2Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S2O2 + 2NaI
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POSITIVE VIBES 13
In acidic medium
4. Zn + NO3– → Zn2+ + NO
Half reactions are –

Textual Calculations based on Stolchlometry Solved

Question 1.
How many moles of hydrogen is required to produce 10 moles of ammonia?
Answer:
The balanced stoichiometric equation fòr the formation of ammonia is
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH2(g)
4s per the stoichiometric equation, to produce 2 moles of ammonia, 3 moles of hydrogen are required.
∴ to produce 10 moles of ammonia,

= 15 moles of hydrogen are required.

Question 2.
Calculate the amount of water produced by the combustion of 32 g of methane.
Answer:
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
As per the stoichiometric equation,
Combustion of 1 mole (16 g) CH4 produces 2 moles (2 x 18 = 36 g) of water.

Combustion of 32 g CH4 produces

Question 3.
How much volume of carbon dioxide is produced when 50 g of calcium carbonate is heated completely under standard
conditions?
Answer:
The balanced chemical equation is,

As per the stoichiometric equation,

1 mole (100g) CaCO3 on heating produces 1 mole CO2

At STP, 1 mole of CO2 occupies a volume of 22.7 litres

At STP, 50 g of CaCO3 on heating produces,

= 11.35 litres of CO2

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POSITIVE VIBES 14

Question 4.
How much volume of chlorine is required to form 11.2 L of HCl at 273 K and 1 atm pressure ?
Answer:
The balanced equation for the formation of HCl is,
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2 HCl (g)
As per the stoichiometric equation, under given conditions,
To produce 2 moles of HCl, 1 mole of chlorine gas is required.
To produce 44.8 liters of HCl, 22.4 liters of chlorine gas are required
∴ To produce 11.2 liters of HCl,

= 5.6 litres of chlorine are required.

Question 5.
Calculate the percentage composition of the elements present in magnesium carbonate. How many kilogram of CO 2 can be
obtained by heating 1 kg of 90 % pure magnesium carbonate.
Answer:
The balanced chemical equation is

Molar mass of MgCO3 is 84 g mol-1.

84 g MgCO3 contain 24 g of Magnesium.
∴ 100 MgCO3 contain

= 28.57 g Mg i.e. percentage of magnesium = 28.57 %.

84 g MgCO3 contain 12 g of carbon

= 14.29 g of carbon
Percentage of carbon = 14.29 %.
84 g MgCO3 contain 48 g of oxygen
∴ 100 g MgCO3 contains

= 57.14 g of oxygen.
∴ Percentage of oxygen = 57.14 %.
As per the stoichiometric equation,
84 g of 100 % pure Mg CO3 on heating gives 44 g of CO2.
∴1000 g of 90 % pure Mg CO3 gives
44g84gx100 x 90 % x 1000 g
= 471.43 g of CO2
= 0. 471 kg of CO2

Question 6.

(1) If the entire quantity of all the reactants is not consumed in the reaction which is the limiting reagent ?
(2) Calculate the quantity of urea formed and un reacted quantity of the excess reagent. The balanced equation is

Answer:
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POSITIVE VIBES 15
(1) The entire quantity of ammonia is consumed in the reaction. So ammonia is the limiting reagent. Some quantity of
CO2 remains unreacted, so CO2 is the excess reagent.
(2) Quantity of urea formed = number of moles of urea formed x molar mass of urea
= 19 moles x 60 g mol-1
= 1140 g = 1.14 kg
Excess reagent leftover at the end of the reaction is carbon dioxide. Amount of carbon dioxide leftover = number of moles of
CO2 left over x molar mass of CO2
= 7 moles x 44 g mol-1 = 308 g.

p
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POSITIVE VIBES 16
ln – 2 quantum mechanical model of an atom
I. Choose the correct answer Answer:
Question 1. (d) Stark effect
Electronic configuration of species M2+ is
1s2 2s2 2p63s2 3p6 3d6 and its atomic weight Question 5.
is 56. The number of neutrons in the Based on equation E = -2.178 x
nucleus of species M is ……….. 1018 J (z2n2) certain conclusions are written.
(a) 26 Which of them is not correct ? (NEET)
(b) 22 (a) Equation can be used to calculate the
(c) 30 change in energy when the electron
(d) 24 changes orbit
Answer: (b) For n = 1, the electron has a more
(c) 30 negative energy than it does for n = 6
which means that the electron is more
Question 2. loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit
The energy of light of wavelength 45 nm is (c) The negative sign in equation simply
(a) 6.67 x 1015 J means that the energy of electron bound to
(b) 6.67 x 1011 J the nucleus is lower than it would be if the
(c) 4.42 .x 1018 J electrons were at the infinite distance from
(d) 4.42 x 10-15 J the nucleus.
Answer: (d) Larger the value of n, the larger is the
(c) 4.42 .x 1018 J orbit radius.
Answer:
Question 3. (b) For n = 1, the electron has a more
The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are negative energy than it does for n = 6
25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation which means that the electron is more
between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit
be ………… .
(a) λ1λ2=1 Question 6.
(b) λ1 = 2 λ2 According to the Bohr Theory, which of the
(c) λ1 = 25×50−−−−−−√λ2 following transitions in the hydrogen atom
(d) 2 λ1 = λ2 will give rise to the least energetic photon?
Answer: (a) n = 6 to n = 1
(b) λ1 = 2 λ2 (b) n = 5 to n = 4
(c) n = 5 to n = 3
Question 4. (d) n = 6 to n = 5
Splitting of spectral lines in an electric field Answer:
is called ……………. (d) n = 6 to n = 5
(a) Zeeman effect
(b) Shielding effect
(c) Compton effect
(d) Stark effect Question 7.
Assertion : The spectrum of He+ is expected
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POSITIVE VIBES 17

to be similar to that of hydrogen no. 63) Gd (atomic no. 64) and Tb (atomic
Reason : He+ is also one electron system, no. 65) are (NEET – Phase II)
(a) If both assertion and reason are true (a) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]
and reason is the correct explanation of 4f8 5d1 6s2
assertion. (b) [Xe] 4f7, 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but 4f9 6s2
reason is not the correct explanation of (c) [Xe] 4f7 , 6s2, [Xe] 4f8 6s2 and [Xe]
assertion. 4f8 5d1 6s2
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false (b) [Xe] 4f7, 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]
Answer: 4f9 6s2
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of Question 11.
assertion. The maximum number of electrons in a sub
shell is given by the expression …………..
(a) 2n2
Question 8. (b) 21 + 1
Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals (c) 41 + 2
will have electron density along the axes ? Answer:
(NEET Phase – II) (c) 41 + 2
(a) dz , dxz
2

(b) dxz, dyz Question 12.

(c) dz , dx2−y2
2
For d-electron, the orbital angular
(d) dxy, dx2−y2 momentum is ………….
Answer: (a) 2√h2π
(c) dz , dx2−y2
2
(b) 2h√2π
(c) 2×4−−−−√
Question 9. (d) 6√h2π
Two electrons occupying the same orbital Answer:
are distinguished by ………… (d) 6√h2π
(a) azimuthal quantum number
(b) spin quantum number Question 13.
(c) magnetic quantum number What is the maximum numbers of electrons
(d) orbital quantum number that can be associated with the following
Answer: set of quantum numbers ? n = 3,l = 1 and
(b) spin quantum number m = -1
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 2
Answer:
(c) 2
Question 10.
The electronic configuration of Eu (atomic
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POSITIVE VIBES 18

Question 14. Question 16.

Assertion: Number of radial and angular If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of
nodes for 3p orbital are l, l respectively. electrons will be, …………
Reason: Number of radial and angular (a) ns → (n – 2) f → (n – 1)d → np
nodes depends only on principal quantum (b) ns → (n – 1) d → (n – 2) f → np
number. (c) ns → (n – 2) f → np → (n – 1) d
(a) both assertion and reason are true and (d) none of these are correct
reason is the correct explanation of Answer:
assertion. (a) ns → (n – 2)f → (n – l)d → np
(b) both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. Question 17.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false Consider the following sets of quantum
(d) both assertion and reason are false numbers:
Answer:
(c) assertion is true but reason is false Which of the following sets of quantum
Solution: number is not possible ?
No. of radial node = n- l – 1 (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
No. of angular node = l for 3p orbital (b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
No. of angular node = l =1 (c) (z) and (iii)
No. of radial node = n- l – 1 = 3 – 1 – 1 = 1. (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
Question 15. (b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
The total number of orbitals associated
with the principal quantum number n = 3 is Question 18.
……….. How many electrons in an atom with
(a) 9 atomic number 105 can have (n + 1) = 8 ?
(b) 8 (a) 30
(c) 5 (6) 17
(d) 7 (c) 15
Answer: (d) unpredictable
(a) 9 Answer:
Solution: (b) 17
n = 3; l = 0; m1 = 0 – one s orbital n = 3; l =
1; m1 = -1, 0, 1 – three p orbitals n = 3; l = 2;
m1 = -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 – five d orbitals, overall
nine orbitals are possible.

Question 19.
Electron density in the yz plane of 3 dx2-
y orbital is …………….
2

(a) zero
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POSITIVE VIBES 19

(b) 0.50 Answer:

(c) 0.75 (d) 0.4
Answer:
(a) zero Question 23.
The energy of an electron in the 3rd orbit
Question 20. of hydrogen atom is -E. The energy of an
If uncertainty in position and momentum electron in the first orbit will be ……………..
are equal, then minimum uncertainty in (a) – 3E
velocity is ………. (b) – E /3
(a) 1mhπ−−√ (c) – E / 9
(b) hπ−−√ (d) – 9E
(c) 12mhπ−−√ Answer:
(d) h4π (c) – E / 9
Answer:
(c) 12mhπ−−√ Question 24.
Time independent Schnodinger wave
Question 21. equation is ………….
A macroscopic particle of mass 100 g and
moving at a velocity of 100 cm s-1d will have
a de Broglie wavelength of ………….
(a) 6.6 x 10-29 cm
(b) 6.6 x 10-30 cm
(c) 6.6 x 10-31 cm Answer:
(d) 6.6 x 10-32 cm (a) Hˆψ=Eψ.
Answer:
(c) 6.6 x 10-31 cm
Question 25.
Question 22. Which of the following does not represent
The ratio of de Broglie wavelengths of a the mathematical expression for the
deuterium atom to that of an a – particle, Heisenberg uncertainty principle?
when the velocity of the former is five times (a) ∆E.∆p ≥ h/4π
greater than that of later, is …………… (b) ∆E.∆v ≥ h/4πm
(a) 4 (c) ∆E.∆t ≥ h/4π
(b) 0.2 (d) ∆E.∆x ≥ h/4π
(d) 0.4 Answer:
(d) ∆E.∆x ≥ h/4π
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POSITIVE VIBES 20

II. Write brief answer to the following questions

Question 26.
Which quantum number reveal information about the shape, energy, orientation and size of
orbitals?
Answer:
Magnetic quantum number reveal information about the shape, energy, orientation and
size of orbitals.

Question 27.
How many orbitals are possible for n =4?
Answer:
If n = 4, the possible number of orbitals are calculated as follows –
n = 4, main shell = N
If n = 4, l values are 0, 1, 2, 3
If l = 0, 4s orbital = 1 orbital
If l = 1, m = -1,0, +1 = 3 orbitals
If l = 2, m = -2,-1,0, +1,+2 = 5 orbitals
If l = 3, m = -3,-2,-1,0, +1,+2,+3 = 7 orbitals
∴ Total number of orbitals = 16 orbitals

Question 28.
How many radial nodes for 2s, 4p, 5d and 4f orbitals exhibit? How many angular nodes?
Answer:
Formula for total number of nodes = n – 1

1. For 2s orbital: Number of radial nodes =1.

2. For 4p orbital: Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1. = 4 – 1 – 1 = 2

Number of angular nodes = l
∴ Number of angular nodes = 1
So, 4p orbital has 2 radial nodes and 1 angular node.

3. For 5d orbital:
Total number of nodes = n – 1 = 5 – 1 = 4 nodes
Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1 = 5 – 2 – 1 = 2 radial nodes.
Number of angular nodes = l = 2
∴ 5d orbital have 2 radial nodes and 2 angular nodes.

4. For 4f orbital:
Total number of nodes = n – 1 = 4 – 1 = 3 nodes
Number of radial nodes = n – 7 – 1 = 4 – 3 – 1 = 0 node.
Number of angular nodes = l = 3 nodes
∴ 4f orbital have 0 radial node and 3 angular nodes.
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POSITIVE VIBES 21

Question 29.
The stabilization of a half filled d-orbital is more pronounced than that of the p-orbital why?
Answer:
The exactly half filled orbitals have greater stability. The reason for their stability are –

1. symmetry
2. exchange energy.
(1) Symmetry:
The half filled orbitals are more symmetrical than partially filled orbitals and this symmetry
leads to greater stability.

(2) Exchange energy:

The electrons with same spin in the different orbitals of the same sub shell can exchange
their position. Each such exchange release energy and this is known as exchange energy.
Greater the number of exchanges, greater the exchange energy and hence greater the
stability. In d-orbital, 10 exchanges are possible but in p-orbital 6 exchanges are possible.
So, d – orbital with 5 unpaired electrons (10 exchanges)n i.e. half filled is more stable than p
– orbital with 3 unpaired electrons (6 exchanges).

Question 30.
Consider the following electronic arrangements for the d5 configuration.

(1) Which of these represents the ground state

(2) Which configuration has the maximum exchange energy.
Answer:
(1) – This represents the ground state.
(2) – This represents the maximum exchange energy.

Question 31.
State and explain Pauli’s exclusion principle.
Answer:
Pauli’s exclusion principle states that “No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of
values of all four quantum numbers”.
Illustration: H(Z = 1) 1s1.
One electron is present in hydrogen atom, the four quantum numbers are n = 1, l = 0, m =
0 and s = + 12. For helium Z = 2. He: 1s2. In this one electron has the quantum number same
as that of hydrogen, n = 1,l = 0, m = 0 and s = +½ For other electron, fourth quantum
number is different, i.e. n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 and s = – ½.
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POSITIVE VIBES 22

Question 32.
Define orbital? What are the n and l values for 3px and 4 dx2-y2 electron?
Answer:
(i) Orbital is a three dimensional space which the probability of finding the electron is
maximum.

Question 33.
Explain briefly the time independent Schrodinger wave equation?
Answer:
The time independent Schrodinger equation can be expressed as
Hˆ Ψ = EΨ ……………(1)
Where Hˆ is called Hamiltonian operator.
Ψ is the wave function.
E is the energy of the system.

Since Ψ is a function of position coordinates of the particle and is denoted by Ψ (x, y, z)

∴ Equation (1) can be written as,

Multiply the equation (3) by Hˆ and rearranging

The above equation (4) Schrodinger wave equation does not contain time as a variable and
is referred to as time independent Schrodinger wave equation.

Question 34.
Calculate the uncertainty in position of an electron, if ∆v = 0.1% and n = 2.2 x 10 6 ms-1.
Answer:
Mass of an electron = m = 9.1 x 10-31 kg.
∆v = Uncertainty in velocity = 0.1100 x 2.2 x 103 ms-1 .
∆v = 0.22 x 104 = 2.2 x 103 ms-1
∆x . ∆v . m = h4π
∆x = hΔv.mx4π

= 0.02635 x 10-6
∆x = 2.635 x 10-8
Uncertainty in position = 2.635 x 10-8.
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POSITIVE VIBES 23

Question 35.
Determine the values of all the four quantum numbers of the 8th electron in O – atom and
15th electron in Cl atom and the last electron in chromium.
Answer:
(1) O (Z = 8) 1s2 2s2 2px2 2py1 2pz1
Four quantum numbers for 2px1 electron in oxygen atom:
n = principal quantum number = 2
l = azimuthal quantum number =1
m = magnetic quantum number =+1
s = spin quantum number = +12
(2) Cl (Z = 17) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3px2 3py2 3pz1
Four quantum numbers for 15th electron in chlorine atom:
n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = + ½
(3) Cr (Z = 24) 1s2 2s2 2p2 3s2 3p2 3d2 4s1
n = 3, l = 2, m = +2, s = + ½

Question 36.
The quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom gives the energy value:
En = −13.6n2 eV atom-1
1. use this expression to find ∆E between n = 3 and n = 4
2. Calculate the wavelength corresponding to the above transition.
Answer:
(1) When n = 3
E3 = −13.632 = −13.69 = – 1.511 eV atom-1
When n = 4 E4 = −13.642 = – 0.85 eV atom-1
∆E = E4 – E3 = – 0.85 – (-1.511) = + 0.661 eV atom
∆E = E3 – E4
= – 1.511 – (-0.85)
= – 0.661 eV atom-1
(2) Wave length = λ
∆E = hcλ
λ = hcΔE
h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 x 10-34 Js-1
c = 3 x 108 m/s
λ = 6.626×10−34×3×1080.661
= 10.02 x 10-34 x 3 x 108
= 30 x 10-26
λ = 3 x 10-25 m.
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POSITIVE VIBES 24

Question 37.
How fast must a 54 g tennis ball travel in order to have a de Broglie wavelength that is
equal to that of a photon of green light 5400 Å?
Answer:
m = mass of tennis ball = 54 g = 5.4 x 10-2 kg.
λ = de Broglie wavelength = 5400 Å. = 5400 x 10-10 m.
V = velocity of the ball = ?
λ = hmV
V = hλ.m

= 0.2238 x 10-24
= 2.238 x 10-25 m.

Question 38.
For each of the following, give the sub level designation, the allowable m values and the
number of orbitals.

1. n = 4, l = 2,
2. n = 5, l = 3
3. n = 7, l = 0
Answer:
1. n = 4, l = 2
If l = 2, ‘m’ values are -2, -1, 0, +1, +2
So, 5 orbitals such as dxy,dyz,dxz,dx2−y2 and d
z

2. n = 5 , l = 3
If l = 3, ‘m’ values are -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3
So, 7 orbitals such as f z, fxz, fyz, fxyz, fz(x2 y2)’ ^x(x2-3y2)’ ^y(3×2 ??y

3. n = 7 , l = 0
If l = 0, ‘m’ values are 0. Only one value.
So, 1 orbital such as 7s orbital.
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POSITIVE VIBES 25

Question 39.
Give the electronic configuration of Mn2+ and Cr3+
Answer:

1. Mn (Z = 25) 2. Cr (Z = 24)
Mn → Mn2+ + 2e– Cr → Cr3+ + 3e–
Mn2+ electronic configuration is Cr3+ electronic configuration is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 Is2 2s2 2p6 3s23p6 3d3

Question 40.
Describe the Aufbau principle.
Answer:
In the ground state of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in the order of their increasing
energies. That is the electrons first occupy the lowest energy orbital available to them. Once
the lower energy orbitals are completely filled, then the electrons enter the next higher
energy orbitals.
The order of filling of various orbitals as per Aufbau principle is –
1 s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s < 4d ………..
For e.g., K (Z =19)
The electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1.
After filling 4s orbital only we have to fill up 3d orbital.

Question 41.
A n atom of an element contains 35 electrons and 45 neutrons. Deduce

1. the number of protons

2. the electronic configuration for the element
3. All the four quantum numbers for the last electron
Answer:
An element X contains 35 electrons, 45 neutrons

1. The number of protons must be equal to the number of electrons. So the number of
protons = 35.
2. Number of electrons = 35. So the electronic configuration is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5.
3. The last electron i.e. 5th electron in 4p orbital has the following quantum numbers. n =
4, l = 1, m =+1, s = + 12
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POSITIVE VIBES 26

Question 42.
Show that the circumference of the Bohr orbit for the hydrogen atom is an integral multiple
of the de Broglie wave length associated with the electron revolving around the nucleus.
Answer:
In order for the electron wave to exist in phase, the circumference of the orbit should be an
integral multiple of the wavelength of the electron wave. Otherwise, the electron wave is
out of phase.
mvr = nh / 2π, 2πr = nλ,
where mvr = angular momentum
where 2πr = circumference of the orbit

n = 3, n = 4

Question 43.
Calculate the energy required for the process.
He+(g) → He2+(g) + e–
The ionization energy for the H atom in its ground state is – 13.6 eV atom-1.
Answer:
The ionization energy for the H atom in its ground state =-13.6 eV atom-1.
Ionization energy = 13.6z2n2 eV
Z = atomic number
n = principal quantum number or shell number
For He, n = 1, z = 2
IE = −13.6×2212eV.
Question 44.
An ion with mass number 37 possesses unit negative charge. If the ion contains 11.1% more
neutrons than electrons. Find the symbol of the ion.
Answer:
Let the number of electrons in an ion = x
number of neutrons = n = x + 11.1100 eV = 1.111 x
(As the number of neutrons are 11.1% more than the number of electrons)
In the neutral of atom, number of electron.
e– = x – 1 (as the ion carries -1 charge)
Similarly number of protons = P = x – 1 Number of protons + number of neutrons = mass
number = 37
(x – 1) + 1.111 x = 37 .
2.111 x = 37 +1
2.111 x = 38
x = 382.111 = 18.009 = 18
∴ Number of protons = atomic number – 1 = 18-1 = 17
∴ The symbol of the ion = 3717Cl.
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POSITIVE VIBES 27

Question 45.
The Li2+ ion is a hydrogen like ion that can be described by the Bohr model. Calculate the
Bohr radius of the third orbit and calculate the energy of an electron in 4 th orbit.
Answer:
Li2+ hydrogen like ion.
Bohr radius of the third orbit = r3 = ?
r3 = (0.529)n2Z A
Where n = shell number, Z = atomic number.
r3 = (0.529)323 A [∴for lithium Z = 3, n = 3]
= 0.529x93
r3 = l.587Å
En = (−13.6)Z2n2 eV atom-1.
E4 = Energy of the fourth orbit = ?
E4 = (−13.6)×3242 = −13.6×916 = -7.65 eV atom-1
E4 = – 7.65 eV atom-1

Question 46.
Protons can be accelerated in particle accelerators. Calculate the wavelength (in Å)of such
accelerated proton moving at 2.85 × 108 ms-1 (the mass of proton is 1.673 x 10-27 Kg).
Answer:
m = mass of the proton = 1.673 x 10-27 Kg
v = velocity of the proton = 2.85 x 108 ms-1
λ = hmv
h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 x 1034 Kg m2 s-1

Wavelength of proton = λ = 1.389 x 10-15 m.

Question 47.
What is the de Broglie wavelength (in cm) of a 160g cricket ball travelling at 140 Km hr-1.
Answer:
m = mass of the cricket ball = 160g = 0.16 kg.
v = velocity of the cricket ball =140 Km h-1
= 140x518 = 38.88 ms-1
de Broglie equation = λ = hmv
h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 x 10-34 kg m2 s-1

λ = 1.065 x 10-34m
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POSITIVE VIBES 28

Wave length in cm = 1.065 x 10-34 x 100

= 1.065 x 10-32 cm.

Question 48.
Suppose that the uncertainty in determining the position of an electron in an orbit is 0.6 A.
What is the uncertainty in its momentum?.
Answer:
∆x = uncertainty in position of an electron = 0.6 Å = 0.6 x 10-10 m.
∆p = uncertainty in momentum = ?
Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle states that,
∆x.∆p ≥ h4π
∆p = h4π.Δx
h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 x 10-34 kg m2 s-1

Uncertainty in momentum = 0.8792 x 10-24 kg ms-1 (or) = 8.792 x 10-25 kg ms-1

Question 49.
Show that if the measurement of the uncertainty in .the location of the particle is equal to
its de Broglie wavelength, the minimum uncertainty in its velocity is equal to its velocity /4π
Answer:
If, uncertainty in position = ∆x = λ , the value of uncertainty in velocity = v4π
Heisenberg’s principle states that
∆x.∆v. m = h4π …………(1)
de Broglie equation states that
λ = hmv ………….(2)
∴ h = λ .m.v …………(3)
∆x = hΔv.4π ………….(4)
Substituting the value of h in equation (4)
∆x = λxm.vΔv.4π.m
if ∆x = λ
∆v = = v4π

Question 50.
What is the de Broglie wave length of an electron, which is accelerated from the rest,
through a potential difference of 100V?
Answer:
Potential difference = V = 100 V
Potential energy = eV = 1.609 x 10-19c x 100V
v4π m v2 = 1.609 x 10-19 x 100
v4π m v2 = 1.609 x 10-19 J
v2 = 2×1.609×10−17m
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POSITIVE VIBES 29

m = mass of electron = 9.1 x 10-31 Kg

v = 5.93 x 106 m/s

λ = hmv where h = 6.62 x 10-34 JS
= 6.62×10−349.1×10−31×5.93×106
= 1.2x 10-10m
A= 1.2 Å.

Question 51.
Identify the missing quantum numbers and the sub energy level

Answer:
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POSITIVE VIBES 30

ln – 3 periodic classification of elements .

Choose The Correct Answer from The Following
Question 1. (c) aluminium
What would be the IUPAC name for an element with atomic number (d) silicon table
222? Answer:
(a) bibibiium (c) aluminium
(b) bididium
(c) didibium
(d) bibibium Question 7.
Answer: In the third period, the first ionization potential is of the order
(d) bibibium …………..
(a) Na > Al > Mg > Si > P
Question 2. (b) Na < Al < Mg < Si < P
The electronic configuration of the elements A and B are 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, (c) Mg > Na > Si > P > Al
3s2 and 1s2, 2s2, 2p5, respectively. The formula of the ionic compound (d) Na< Al < Mg < Si < P
that can be formed between these elements is ………. Answer:
(a) AB (b) Na < Al < Mg < Si < P
(b) AB2
(c) A2B Question 8.
(d) none of the above. Identify the wrong statement ……………..
Answer: (a) Among st the iso electronic species, smaller the positive charge
(a) AB2 on cation, smaller is the ionic radius
(b) Among-st iso electric species greater the negative charge on the
anion, larger is the ionic radius
Question 3. (c) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the
The group of elements in which the differentiating electron enters first group of the periodic table
the anti-penultimate shell of atoms are called – (d) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across
(a) p-block elements from left to right in the 2nd period of the periodic table.
(b) d-block elements Answer:
(c) s-block elements (a) Among-st the iso electronic species, smaller the positive charge
(d) f-block elements on cation, smaller is the ionic radius
Answer:
(d) f-block elements Question 9.
Which one of the following arrangements represent the correct order
Question 4. of least negative to most negative electron gain enthalpy?
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not (a) Al< O<C< Ca< F
agree with the variation of property indicated against it? (NEET 2016 (b) Al < Ca<O< C< F
Phase 1) (c) C < F < O < Al < Ca
(a) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy) (d) Ca < Al < C < O < F
(b) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius) Answer:
(c) Al3+< Mg2+< Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size) (d) Ca < Al < C < O < F
(d) B < C < O < N (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
Answer: Question 10.
(a) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy) The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of F,
Cl, Br and I having atomic number 9, 17, 35 and 53, respectively is
………..
Question 5. (a) J > Br > Cl >F
Which of the following elements will have the highest electro (b) F > Cl > Br >I
negativity? (c) Cl > F > Br >I
(a) Chlorine (d) Br > I > Cl > F
(b) Nitrogen Answer:
(c) Cesium (c) Cl > F > Br > I
(d) Fluorine
Answer: Question 11.
(d) Fluorine Which one of the following is the least electro negative element?
(a) Bromine
Question 6. (b) Chlorine
Various successive ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol-1) of an element (c) Iodine
are given below. The element is …………. (d) Hydrogen
IE IE IE IE IE Answer:
577.5 1810 2750 11580 14820 (d) Hydrogen.

(a) phosphorus
(b) sodium
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POSITIVE VIBES 31
Question 12. (d) -527 kcal mol-1

The element with positive electron gain enthalpy is ………. Answer:

(a) hydrogen (c) +527 kcal mol-1
(b) sodium Question 18.
(c) argon In a given shell the order of screening effect is …………..
(d) fluorine (a) s > p > d > f
Answer: (b) s > p > f > d
(c) argon. (c) f > d > p > s
(d) f > p > s > d
Question 13. Answer:
The correct order of decreasing electro negativity values among the (a) s > p > d > f
elements X, Y, Z and A with atomic numbers 4, 8, 7 and 12
respectively – Question 19.
(a) Y > Z > X > A Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correct?
(b) Z > A > Y > X (a) H– > H+ > H
(c) X > Y > Z > A (b) Na+ > F“ > O–
(d) X > Y >A >Z (c) F > O2- > Na+
Answer: (d) None of these
(a) Y > Z > X > A Answer:
(d) None of these
Question 14.
Assertion : Helium has the highest value of ionization energy among Question 20.
all the elements known Reason: Helium has the highest value of The first ionization potential of Na, Mg and Si are 496, 737 and 786
electron affinity among all the elements known – kJ mol-1 respectively. The ionization potential of Al will be closer to
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct (a) 760 kJ mol-1
explanation for the assertion (b) 575 kJ mol-1
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the (c) 801 kJ mol-1
correct explanation for the assertion (d) 419 kJ mol-1
(c) Assertion is true and the reason is false Answer:
(d) Both assertion and the reason are false (b) 575 kJ mol-1
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true and the reason is false
Question 21.
Question 15. Which one of the following is true about metallic character when we
The electronic configuration of the atom having maximum difference move from left to right in a period and top to bottom in a group?
in first and second ionization energies is ………. (a) Decreases in a period and increases along the group
(a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1 (b) Increases in a period and decreases in a group
(b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 (c) Increases both in the period and the group
(c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1 (d) Decreases both in the period and in the group
(d) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1 Answer:
Answer: (a) Decreases in a period and increases along the group
(a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
Question 22.
How does electron affinity change when we move from left to right
Question 16. in a period in the periodic table?
Which of the following is second most electro negative element? (a) Generally increases
(a) Chlorine (b) Generally decreases
(b) Fluorine (c) Remains unchanged
(c) Oxygen (d) First increases and then decreases
(d) Sulphur Answer:
Answer: (a) Generally increases.
(a) Chlorine
Question 23.
Question 17. Which of the following pairs of elements exhibit diagonal
IE1 and IE2 of Mg are 179 and 348 k cal mol-1 respectively. The energy relationship?
required for the reaction (a) Be and Mg
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e– is …….. (b) Li and Mg
(a) +169 kcal mol-1 (c) Be and B
(b) -169 kcal mol-1 (d) Be and Al
(c) +527 kcal mol-1 Answer:
(d) Be and Al

II. Write brief answer to the following questions

Question 24.
Define modern periodic law.
Answer:
The modem periodic law states that, “The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.”
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POSITIVE VIBES 32

Question 25.
What are isoelectronic ions? Give examples.
Answer: There are some ions of different elements having the same number of electrons are called isoelectronic ions.
Example: Na , Mg2+, Al3+, F– , O2- and N3-
+

Question 26.
What is effective nuclear charge?
Answer:
The net nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons in the outermost shell is called the effective nuclear charge.
Zeff = Z – S
Where,
Z = Atomic number
S = Screening constant calculated by using Slater’s rules.

Question 27.
Is the definition given below for ionization enthalpy is correct?
“Ionization enthalpy is defined as the energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from the valence shell of an atom”
Answer:
No. It is not correct. The accurate and absolute definition is as follows:
Ionization energy is defined as the minimum amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from the valence shell of the
isolated neutral gaseous atom in its ground state.

Question 28.
Magnesium loses electrons successively to form Mg+, Mg2+ and Mg3+ ions. Which step will have the highest ionization energy and why?
Answer:

• The third step will have the highest ionization energy. I.E3>I.E2>I.E1
• Because from a neutral gaseous atom, the electron removal is easy and less amount of
energy is required. But from a di positive cation, there will be more number of protons
than the electrons and there is more forces of attraction between the nucleus and
electron. So the removal of electron in a di positive cation, becomes highly difficult and
more energy is required.

Question 29.
Define electro negativity.
Answer:
Electro negativity is the relative tendency of an element present in a covalently bonded molecule, to attract the shared pair of electrons towards
itself.

Question 30.
How would you explain the fact that the second ionization potential is always higher than first ionization potential?
Answer:

• Second ionization potential is always higher than first ionization potential.

• Removal of one electron from the valence orbit of a neutral gaseous atom is easy so first ionization energy is less. But from a uni positive
ion, removal of one more electron becomes difficult due to the more forces of attraction between the excess of protons and less number
of electrons.
• Due to greater nuclear attraction, second ionization energy is higher than first ionization energy.

Question 31.
Energy of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is -2.18 x 10-18 J. Calculate the ionization enthalpy of atomic hydrogen in terms of
kJ mol-1.
Answer:
Energy of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom = -2.18 x 10-18 J
H → H + + e–
Energy required to ionize 1 mole of hydrogen atoms, we multiply by the Avogadro constant.
E = 2.18 x 10-18 x 6.023 x 1023
= 13.123 x 105 J mol-1
I.E = +1312 K J mol-1
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POSITIVE VIBES 33

Question 32.
The electronic configuration of an atom is one of the important factor which affects the value of ionization potential and electron gain enthalpy.
Explain.
Answer:

• Electronic configuration of an atom affects the value of ionization potential and electron gain enthalpy.
• Half filled valence shell electronic configuration and completely filled valence shell electronic configuration are more stable than partially
filled electronic configuration.
• For e.g. Beryllium (Z = 4) 1s2 2s2 (completely filled electronic configuration)
Nitrogen (Z = 7) 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1 (half filled electronic configuration) Both beryllium and nitrogen have high ionization energy due to
more stable nature.
• In the case of beryllium (1s2 2s2), nitrogen (1s2 2s2 2p3) the addition of extra electron will disturb their stable electronic configuration and
they have almost zero electron affinity.
• Noble gases have stable ns2 np6 configuration and the addition of further electron is unfavorable and they have zero electron affinity.

Question 33.
In what period and group will an element with Z = 118 will be present?
Answer:
The element with atomic number Z = 118 is present in 7th period and 18th group.

Question 34.
Justify that the fifth period of the periodic table should have 18 elements on the basis of quantum numbers.
Answer:
Fifth period of the periodic table have 18 elements. 5th period starts from Rb to Xe (18 elements). 5th period starts with principal quantum number
n = 5 and 1 = 0, 1,2,3 and 4. When n = 5, the number of orbitals = 9.
1 for 5s
5 for 4d
3 for 5p
Total number of orbitals = 9.
Total number of electrons that can be accommodated in 9
orbitals = 9 x 2 = 18. Hence the number of elements in 5th period is 18.

Question 35.
Elements a, b, c and d have the following electronic configurations:
a : 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
b : 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
c : 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 3s2,3p6
d : 1s2, 2s2, 2p1
Which elements among these will belong to the same group of periodic table?
Answer:

1. In the above elements, Ne and Ar belong to same group (Noble gases – 18th group).
2. Al and B belong to the same group (13th group).

Question 36.
Give the general electronic configuration of lanthanides and actinides?
Answer:

• The electronic configuration of lanthanides is 4f1-14 5d0-16s2.

• The electronic configuration of actinides is 5f1-14 6d0-1 7s2.

Question 37.
Why halogens act as oxidizing agents?
Answer:
Halogens act as oxidizing agents. Their electronic configuration is ns2 np5. So all the halogens are ready to gain one electron to attain the nearest
inert gas configuration. An oxidizing agent is the one which is ready to gain an electron. So all the halogens act as oxidizing agents. Also
halogens are highly electro negative with low dissociation energy and high negative electron gain enthalpies. Therefore, the halogens have a high
tendency to gain an electron. Hence they act as oxidizing agents.
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POSITIVE VIBES 34

Question 38.
Mention any two anomalous properties of second period elements.
Answer:

• In the 1st group, lithium forms compounds with more covalent character while the other elements of this group form only ionic
compounds.
• In the 2nd group, beryllium forms compounds with more covalent character while the other elements of this family form only ionic
compounds.

Question 39.
Explain the Pauling’s method for the determination of ionic radius.
Answer:
1. Ionic radius is defined as the distance from the center of the nucleus of the ion up-to which it exerts its influence on the electron cloud of the
ion.
2. Ionic radius of uni-univalent crystal can be calculated from the inter-ionic distance between the nuclei of the cation and anion.
3. Pauling assumed that ions present in a crystal lattice are perfect spheres and they are in contact with each other, therefore
d = rC + rA ………(1)
+ –

Where, d = distance between the center of the nucleus of cation C+ and the anion A-
rC = radius of cation
+

rA = radius of anion.
–

4. Pauling assumed that the radius of the ion having noble gas configuration (Na+ and F– having 1s2, 252, 2p6 configuration) is inversely
proportional to the effective nuclear charge felt at the periphery of the ion.

Where Zeff is the effective nuclear charge

Zeff = Z – S
5. Dividing the equation (2) by (3)

On solving equation (1) and (4), the values of rC and rA can be obtained.
+ –

Question 40.
Explain the periodic trend of ionization potential.
Answer:
(a) The energy required to remove the most loosely held electron from an isolated gaseous atom is called as ionization energy.
(b) Variation in a period:
Ionization energy is a periodic property. On moving across a period from left to right, the ionization enthalpy value increases. This is due to the
following reasons.

•Increase of nuclear charge in a period

• Decrease of atomic size in a period
Because of these reasons, the valence electrons are held more tightly by the nucleus. Therefore, ionization enthalpy increases.

(c) Variation in a group:

As we move from top to bottom along a group, the ionization enthalpy decreases. This is due to the following reasons.

•A gradual increase in atomic size

• Increase of screening effect on the outermost electrons due to the increase of number of inner electrons.
Hence, ionization enthalpy is a periodic property.

Question 41.
Explain the diagonal relationship.
Answer:

• On moving diagonally across the periodic table, the second and the third period elements show certain similarities.
• Even though the similarity is not same as we see in a group, it is quite pronounced in the following pair of elements.

•
• The similarity in properties existing between the diagonally placed elements is called “diagonal relationship”.
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POSITIVE VIBES 35

Question 42.
Why the first ionization enthalpy of sodium is lower than that of magnesium while its second ionization enthalpy is higher than that of
magnesium?
Answer:
The 1st ionization enthalpy of magnesium is higher than that of Na due to higher nuclear charge and slightly smaller atomic radius of Mg than
Na. After the loss of first electron, Na+ formed has the electronic configuration of neon (2,8). The higher stability of the completely filled noble gas
configuration leads to very high second ionization enthalpy for sodium. On the other hand, Mg+ formed after losing first electron still has one
more electron in its outermost (3 s) orbital. As a result, the second ionization enthalpy of magnesium is much smaller than that of sodium.

Question 43.
By using Pauling’s method calculate the ionic radii of K+ and Cl– ions in the potassium chloride crystal. Given that dK+−cl− = 3.14 Å
Answer:
Given

We know that,

(Zeff)Cl = Z – S
–

= 17 – [(0.35 x 7) + (0.85 x 8) + (1 x 2)]

= 17 – 11.25 = 5.75
(Zeff)K = Z – S
+

= 19 – [(0.35 x 7) + (0.85 x 8) + (1 x 2)]

= 19 – 11.25 = 7.75

r(K ) = 0.74 r(Cl )

+ –

Substitute the value of r(K ) in equation (1)

+

0.74 r(Cl ) + r(Cl ) = 3.14 Å

– –

1.74 r(Cl ) = 3.14Å1.74 = 1.81 Å.

–

Question 44.
Explain the following, give appropriate reasons.

1. Ionization potential of N is greater than that of O

2. First ionization potential of C-atom is greater than that of B-atom, where as the reverse is true for second ionization potential.
3. The electron affinity values of Be, Mg and noble gases are zero and those of N (0.02 eV) and P (0.80 eV) are very low
4. The formation of F– (g) from F(g) is exothermic while that of O2-(g) from O (g) is endothermic.
Answer:
1. N (Z = 7) 1s2 2s2 2px1 12py1 2pz1. It has exactly half filled electronic configuration and it is more stable. Due to stability, ionization energy of
nitrogen is high.
O (Z = 8) 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1. It has incomplete electronic configuration and it requires less ionization energy.
I.E1 N > I.E1O
2. C (Z = 6) 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1. The electron removal from p orbital is very difficult. So carbon has highest first ionization potential. B (Z = 5)
1s2 2s2 2p1. In boron nuclear charge is less than that of carbon, so boron has lowest first ionization potential.
I.E1 C > I.E1 B
But it is reverse in the case of second ionization energy. Because in case of B+ the electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2, which is completely filled and
it has high ionization energy. But in C+ the electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p1, one electron removal is easy so it has low ionization energy.
I.E2 B > I.E2 C
3. Be (Z = 4) 1s2 2s2
Mg (Z = 12) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Noble gases has the electronic configuration of ns2 np6. All these are completely filled and are more stable. For all these elements Be, Mg and
noble gases, addition of electron is unfavorable and so they have zero electron affinity.
Nitrogen (Z = 7) 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1. It has half filled electronic configuration. So addition of electron is unfavorable and it has very low electron
affinity value of 0.02 eV. Phosphorus (Z = 15) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3px1 3py1 3pz1. It also has half filled electronic configuration. Due to the symmetry and
more stability, it has very low electron affinity value of 0.80 eV.
4. F(g) + e– → F(g)– exothermic
F (Z = 9) 1s2 2s2 2p5. It is ready to gain one electron to attain the nearest inert gas configuration. By gaining one electron, energy is released, so it
is an exothermic reaction.
O(g) + 2e– → O2-(g) endothermic
O (Z = 8) 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1. It is the small atom with high electron density. The first electron affinity is negative because energy is released in
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POSITIVE VIBES 36
the process of adding one electron to the neutral oxygen atom. Second electron affinity is always endothermic (positive) because the electron is
added to an ion which is already negative, therefore it must overcome the repulsion.
Question 45.
What is screening effect? Briefly give the basis for Pauling’s scale of electro negativity. Screening effect:
Answer:
The repulsive force between inner shell electrons and the valence electrons leads to a decrease in the electrostatic attractive forces acting on the
valence electrons by the nucleus. Thus the inner shell electrons act as a shield between the nucleus and the valence electrons. This effect . is
called shielding effect (or) screening effect.

Pauling’s scale:

• Electro negativity is the relative tendency of an element present in a covalently bonded molecule to attract the shared pair of electrons
towards itself.
• Pauling assigned arbitrary value of electronegativities for hydrogen and fluorine as 2.2 and 4, respectively.
• Based on this the electronegativity values for other elements can be calculated using the following expression.
(XA-XB) = 0.182 √EAB – (EAA EBB)
Where EAB , EAA and EBB are the bond dissociation energies of AB, A2 and B2 molecules respectively.
XA and XB are electronegativity values of A and B.

Question 46.
State the trends in the variation of electro negativity in period and group.
Answer:
Variation of electron negativity in a period:
The electro negativity increases across a period from left to right. Since the atomic radius decreases in a period, the attraction between the
valence electron and the nucleus increases. Hence the tendency to attract shared pair of electrons increases. Therefore, electro negativity
increases in a period.

Variation of electro negativity in a group:

The electro negativity decreases down a group. As we move down a group, the atomic radius increases and the nuclear attractive force on the
valence electron decreases. Hence electro negativity decreases in a group.

Positive Vibes
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POSITIVE VIBES 37
Chapter 4 Hydrogen (a) palladium, vanadium
(b) carbon, nickel
I. Choose The Correct Answer:
(c) manganese, lithium
Question 1. (d) nitrogen, chlorine
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect Answer:
? (NEET – 2016) (a) palladium, vanadium
(a) Hydrogen ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution.
(b) Dihydrogen acts a,s a reducing agent. Question 7.
(c) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most Assertion : Permanent hardness of water is removed by
treatment with washing soda.
common.
Reason : Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and
(d) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.
magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form
Answer: insoluble carbonates
(c) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
common. explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Question 2.
Answer:
Water gas is ………..
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
(a) H2 O(g) explanation of assertion.
(b) CO + H2O
(C) CO + H2
(d) CO + N2 Question 8.
Answer: If a body of a fish contains 1.2 g hydrogen in its total body
(c) CO + H2 mass, if all the hydrogen is replaced with deuterium then the
increase in body weight of the fish will be ……………
(a) 1.2 g
(b) 2.4 g
Question 3.
(c) 3.6 g
Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard
(d) 4.8−−−√ g
to ortho and para dihydrogen ?
Answer:
(a) They are nuclear spin isomers
(a) 1.2 g
(b) Ortho isomer has zero nuclear spin whereas the para isomer
has one nuclear spin
Question 9.
(c) The para isomer is favoured at low temperatures
The hardness of water can be determined by volumetrically
(d) The thermal conductivity of the para isomer is 50% greater
using the reagent …………..
than that of the ortho isomer.
(a) sodium thio sulphate
Answer:
(b) potassium permanganate
(b) Ortho isomer has zero nuclear spin whereas the para isomer
(c) hydrogen peroxide
has one nuclear spin
(d) EDTA
Answer:
(d) EDTA
Question 4.
Ionic hydrides are formed by …………….
Question 10.
(a) halogens
The cause of permanent hardness of water is due to ………….
(b) chalogens
(a) Ca(HCO3)2
(c) inert gases
(b) Mg(HCO3k)3
(d) group one elements
(c) CaCl2
Answer:
(d) MgCO3
(d) group one elements
Answer:
(c) CaCl2
Question 5.
Tritium nucleus contains ……………..
Question 11.
(a) 1p + 0n
Zeolite used to soften hardness of water is, hydrated ………….
(b) 2p + 1n
(a) Sodium aluminium silicate
(c) 1p + 2n
(b) Calcium aluminium silicate
(d) none of these
(c) Zinc aluminium borate
Answer:
(d) Lithium aluminium hydride
(c) lp + 2n
Answer:
(a) Sodium aluminium silicate
Question 6.
Non-stoichiometric hydrides are formed by……………..
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POSITIVE VIBES 38
Question 12. Answer:
A commercial sample of hydrogen peroxide marked as 100 (d) sp3 and sp3
volume H2O2, it means that ……………
(a) 1 ml of H2O2 will give 100 ml O2 at STP Question 17.
(b) 1 L of H2O2 will give 100 ml O2 at STP The reaction H3PO2 + D2O → H2DPO2 + HDO indicates that
(c) 1 L of H2O2 will give 22.4 L O2 hypo-phosphorus acid is ……………
(d) 1 ml of H2O2 will give 1 mole of O2 at STP (a) tri basic acid
Answer: (b) di basic acid
(a) 1 ml of H2O2 will give 100 ml O2 at STP (c) mono basic acid
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) mono basic acid

Question 18.
Question 13. In solid ice, oxygen atom is surrounded
When hydrogen peroxide is shaken with an acidified solution of (a) tetrahedrally by 4 hydrogen atoms
potassium dichromate in presence of ether, the ethereal layer (b) octahedrally by 2 oxygen and 4 hydrogen atoms
turns blue due to the formation of (c) tetrahedrally by 2 hydrogen and 2 oxygen atoms
(a) Cr2 O3 (d) octahedrally by 6 hydrogen atoms
(b) CrO42- Answer:
(c) CrO(O2)2 (a) tetrahedrally by 4 hydrogen atoms
(d) none of these
Answer: Question 19.
(c) CrO(O2)2 CrO(O2)2 The type of H-bonding present in ortho nitro phenol and p-
nitro phenol are respectively ……………
Question 14. (a) inter molecular H-bonding and intra molecular H-bonding
For de colorization of 1 mole of acidified KMnO4, the moles of (b) intra molecular H-bonding and inter molecular H-bonding
H2O2 required is ……………. (c) intra molecular H – bonding and no H – bonding
(a) 12 (d) intra molecular H – bonding and intra molecular H –
(b) 32 bonding
(c) 52 Answer:
(d) 72 (A) intra molecular H-bonding and inter molecular H-bonding
Answer:
(c) 52 Question 20.
Heavy water is used as ……………
Question 15. (a) modulator in nuclear reactions
Volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 is …………….. (b) coolant in nuclear reactions
(a) 1.5 (c) both (a) and (b)
(b) 4.5 (d) none of these
(c) 16.8 Answer:
(d) 8.4 (c) both (a) and (A)
Answer:
(d) 8.4
Question 21.
Question 16. Water is a ……………
The hybridization of oxygen atom is H2O and H2O2 are (a) basic oxide
respectively (b) acidic oxide
(a) sp and sp3 (c) amphoteric oxide
(b) sp and sp (d) none of these
(c) sp and sp2 Answer:
(d) sp3 and sp3 (c) amphoteric oxide
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POSITIVE VIBES 39
II. Write brief answer to the following questions
Question 22.
Explain why hydrogen is not placed with the halogen in the periodic table.
Answer:

• Hydrogen resembles alkali metals as well as halogens.

• Hydrogen resembles more alkali metals than halogens.
• Electron affinity of hydrogen is much less than that of halogen atom. Hence the tendency to form hydride ion is low compared
to that of halogens.
• In most of its compounds hydrogen exists in +1 oxidation state. Therefore it is reasonable to place the hydrogen in group 1
along with alkali metals as shown in the latest periodic table published by IUPAC.

Question 23.
the cube at 0°C is placed in some liquid water at 0°C, the ice cube sinks – Why ?
Answer:

• In an ice cube, each atom is surrounded tetrahedrally by four water molecules through hydrogen bond and its density is low.
• Liquid water at 0°C has the density as 999.82 kg/cm3. Maximum density is attained by water only at 4°C as 1000 kg/cm 3.
• When the temperature changed from 4°C to 0°C, the density of water decreases rather than increases. This is called anomalous
expansion of water.
• The reason for this phenomenon lies in the structure of ice lattice and hydrogen bonding in water.
• At 0°C, ice cube sinks in liquid water at 0°C because of the lesser density and greater volume of water.

Question 24.
Discuss the three types of Covalent hydrides.
Answer:

1. They are the compounds in which hydrogen is attached to another element by sharing of electrons.
2. The most common examples of covalent hydrides are methane, ammonia, water and hydrogen chloride.
3. Molecular hydrides of hydrogen are further classified into three categories as,
• Electron precise (CH4, C2 H6 , SiH4 , GeH4 )
• Electron-deficient (B2 H6 ) and
• Electron-rich hydrides (NH3 , H2O)
4. Since most of the covalent hydrides consist of discrete, small molecules that have relatively weak intermolecular forces, they are
generally gases or volatile liquids.

Question 25.
Predict which of the following hydrides is a gas on a solid (a) HCl (b) NaH. Give your reason.
Answer:

• At room temperature, HCl is a colourless gas and the solution of HCl in water is called hydrochloric acid and it is in liquid state.
• Sodium hydride NaH is an ionic compound and it is made of sodium cations (Na +) and hydride (H–) anions. It has the octahedral
crystal structure. It is an alkali metal hydride.

Question 26.
Write the expected formulas for the hydrides of 4th period elements. What is the trend in the formulas? In what way the first two
numbers of the series different from the others ?
Answer:
The expected formulas for the hydrides of 4th period elements MH4 (electron precise). M2H6 (electron deficient) and MH3 (electron
rich).
The trend in formula is –
• Electron precise hydrides – CH4 C2H6, SiH4, GeH4
• Electron deficient hydrides – B2H6
• Electron rich hydrides – NH3, H2O
The first two members of the series KH, CaH 2 are ionic hydrides whereas the other members of the series CH 4, C2H6, SiH4, B2H6,
NH3 are covalent hydrides.
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POSITIVE VIBES 40
Question 27.
Write chemical equation for the following reactions.

1. reaction of hydrogen with tungsten (VI) oxide NO3 on heating.

2. hydrogen gas and chlorine gas.
Answer:

1. 3H2 + WO2 → W + 3H2O

Hydrogen reduces tungsten (VI) oxide. WO3 to tungsten at high temperature.
2. H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl (Hydrogen Chloride)
Hydrogen reacts with chlorine at room temperature under light to give hydrogen chloride.

Question 28.
Complete the following chemical reactions and classify them in to (a) hydrolysis (b) redox (c) hydration reactions.

1. KMnO4 + H2O2 →
2. CrCl3+ H4O →
3. CaO + H2O →
Answer:

1. 2KMnO4 + 3H2O2 → 2MnO2 + 2KOH + 3H2O + 3O2(g)

This reaction is a redox reaction.
2. CrCl3 + 6H2O2 → [Cr(H2O)6)] Cl3
This reaction is a hydration reaction.
3. CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
This reaction is a hydrolysis reaction.

Question 29.
Hydrogen peroxide can function as an oxidizing agent as well as reducing agent. Substantiate this statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide can function as an oxidizing agent as well as reducing agent.

• H2O2 act as oxidizing agent in acidic medium. For example,

• H2O2 act as reducing agent in basic medium. For example,

>

Question 30.
Do you think that heavy water can be used for drinking purposes ?
Answer:

• Heavy water (D2O) contains a proton and a neutron. This makes deuterium about twice as heavy as protium, but it is not
radioactive. So heavy water is not radioactive.
• If you drink heavy water, you don’t need to worry about radiation poisoning. But it is not completely safe to drink, because the
biochemical reaction in our cells are affected by the difference in the mass of hydrogen atoms.
• If you drink an appreciable volume of heavy water, you might feel dizzy because of the density difference. It would change the
density of fluid in your inner ear. So it is unlikely to drink heavy water.

Question 31.
What is water-gas shift reaction?
Answer:
The carbon monoxide of water gas can be converted to carbon dioxide by mixing the gas mixture with more steam at 400°C and
passed over a shift converter containing iron/copper catalysts. This reaction is called water-gas shift reaction.
CO + H2O → CO2 + H2↑
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POSITIVE VIBES 41
Question 32.
Justify the position of hydrogen in the periodic table?
Answer:
Hydrogen resembles alkali metals in the following aspects.

1. Electronic configuration Is1 as alkali metals have ns1.

2. Hydrogen forms unipositive H+ ion like alkali metals Na+, K+.
3. Hydrogen form halides (HX), oxides (H2O) peroxide (H2O2) like alkali metals (NaX. Na2O, Na2O2).
4. Hydrogen also acts as reducing agent like alkali metals. Hydrogen resembles halogens in the following aspects.
5. Hydrogen has a tendency to gain one electron to form hydride ion (H–) as halogens to form halide ion. (X–).
6. Comparing the properties of hydrogen with alkali metals and with halogens, we can conclude that hydrogen resembles more
alkali metals. In most of the compounds hydrogen exist in +1 oxidation state.
7. Therefore, it is reasonable to place the hydrogen in group 1 along with alkali metals as shown in the latest periodic table
published by IUPAC.

Question 33.
What are isotopes? Write the names of isotopes of hydrogen.
Answer:

1. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same atomic number but having different mass numbers (or) Isotopes
are atoms with the same number of protons and electrons but differ in number of neutrons.
2. Hydrogen has three naturally occuring isotopes namely Protium ( 1H1), Deuterium (1H2) and Tritium (1H3).

Question 34.
Give the uses of heavy water.
Answer:

1. Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear reactors as it can lower the energies of fast moving neutrons.
2. D2O is commonly used as an tracer to study organic reaction mechanisms and mechanism of metabolic reactions.
3. It is also used as a coolant in nuclear reactors as it absorbs the heat generated.

Question 35.
Explain the exchange reactions of deuterium.
Answer:
Deuterium can replace reversibly hydrogen in compounds either partially or completely depending upon the reaction conditions.
These reactions occur in the presence of deuterium.

Question 36.
How do you convert para hydrogen into ortho hydrogen ?
Answer:
Para hydrogen can be converted into ortho hydrogen by the following ways:

• By treating with catalysts platinum or iron.

• By passing an electric discharge
• By heating > 800°C.
• By mixing with paramagnetic molecules such as O2, NO, NO2.
• By treating with nascent/atomic hydrogen.

Question 37.
Mention the uses of deuterium.
Answer:

• Deuterium is used as a tracer element.

• Deuterium is used to study the movement of ground water by isotopic effect.
Question 38.
Explain preparation of hydrogen using electrolysis.
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POSITIVE VIBES 42
Answer:
High purity of hydrogen (>99.9%) is obtained by the electrolysis of water containing traces of acid or alkali or electrolysis of aqueous
solution of sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide using a nickel anode and iron cathode. This process is not economical for large
scale production.
At anode : 2OH– → H2O + ½ O2 + 2e–
At cathode : 2H2O + 2e– → 2OH– + H2
Overall reaction : H2O → H2 + 14 O2

Question 39.
A groups metal (A) which is present in common salt reacts with (B) to give compound (C) in which hydrogen is present in -1 oxidation
state. (B) on reaction with a gas (C) to give universal solvent (D). The compound (D) on reacts with (A) to give (B), a strong base.
Identify A, B, C, D and E. Explain the reactions.
Answer:
1.Group (1) metal (A) is present in common salt NaCl. So, (A) is sodium – Na.
2. Sodium reacts with hydrogen (B) to give sodium hydride – NaH (C) in which hydrogen is in -1 oxidation state.

3. Hydrogen on reaction with oxygen (O2) gas which is (C) to give a universal solvent water (D).

4. Water (D) reacts with sodium metal (A) to give a strong base sodium hydroxide NaOH which is (E).

Question 40.
An isotope of hydrogen (A) reacts with diatomic molecule of element which occupies group number 16 and period number 2 to give
compound (B) is used as a modulator in nuclear reaction. (A) adds on to a compound (C), which has the molecular formula C 3H6 to
give (D). Identify A, B, C and D.
Answer:
1. An isotope of hydrogen Deuterium (A) reacts with diatomic molecule of element belongs to group number 16 and period number 2
oxygen O2 to give a compound (B) which is heavy water D 2O. D2O is used as a moderator in nuclear reaction.

2. Deuterium reacts with C3H6 propane (C) to give Deutero propane C2D6 (D).

Question 41.
NH3 has exceptionally high melting point and boiling point as compared to those of the hydrides of the remaining element of group
15- Explain.
Answer:
1. NH3 has exceptionally high melting point and boiling point due to hydrogen bonding between NH 3 molecules.
2. Each molecule can form a maximum of 4 hydrogen bonds but on average 1 hydrogen bond per molecule as there is only one
lone pair on NH3 available for hydrogen bonding.
3. Hydrogen bonding is strong intermolecular attraction as H on NH 3 acts like a proton due to partial positive on it whole N has
the partial negative charge. Thus when the very polarized H comes close to a N atom in another NH 3 molecule, a very strong
hydrogen bond is formed.
4. Due to much strong intermolecular interactions compared to weaker permanent dipole-dipole interactions between other
XH3 molecules in group 15, large amount of energy are required to overcome the forces, giving it the highest boiling point and
highest melting point.
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POSITIVE VIBES 43
Question 42.
Why interstitial hydrides have a lower density than the parent metal.
Answer:

• d block elements form metallic or interstitial hydrides, on heating with dihydrogen under pressure.
• Hydrogen atom being small in size occupy some in the metallic lattice producing distortion without any change in its type.
• The densities of these hydrides are lower than those of metals from which they are formed since the crystal lattice expands due
to the inclusion of dihydrogen.

Question 43.
How do you expect the metallic hydrides to be useful for hydrogen storage?
Answer:
In metallic hydrides, hydrogen is adsorbed as H-atoms. Due to the adsorption of H atoms the metal lattice expands and become
unstable. Thus, when metallic hydride is heated, it decomposes to form hydrogen and finely divided metal. The hydrogen evolved can
be used as fuel.

Question 44.
Arrange NH3, H2O and HF in the order of increasing magnitude of hydrogen bonding and explain the basis for your arrangement.
Answer:
• Increasing magnitude of hydrogen bonding among NH 3, H2O and HF is
HF>H2O>NH3
• The extent of hydrogen bonding depends upon electronegativity and the number of hydrogne atoms available for bonding.
• Among N, F nd O the increasing order of their electronegativities are
N<O H2O>NH3.

Question 45.
Compare the structures of H 2O and H2O2.
Answer:
In water, O is sp3 hybridized. Due to stronger lone pair-lone pair repulsions than bond pair-bond pair repulsions, the HOH bond angle
decreases from 109.5° to 104.5°. Thus water molecule has a bent structure.

H2O2 has a non-planar structure. The 0 – H bonds are in different planes. Thus, the structure of H2O2 is like an open book.

POSITIVE VIBES
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POSITIVE VIBES 44
Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

I. Choose The Correct Answer: (a) superoxide and paramagnetic

Question 1.
For alkali metals, which one of the following trends are Question 7.
incorrect? Find the wrong statement …………
(a) Hydration energy : Li > Na > K > Rb (a) sodium metal is used in organic qualitative analysis
(b) Ionization energy : Li > Na > K > Rb (b) sodium carbonate is soluble in water and it is used in
(c) Density : Li < Na < K < Rb inorganic qualitative analysis
(d) Atomic size : Li < Na < K < Rb (c) potassium carbonate can be prepared by Solvay process
Answer: (d) potassium bicarbonate is acidic salt
(c) Density : Li < Na < K < Rb Answer:
(c) Potassium carbonate can be prepared by Solvay process
Question 2.
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Li+ has minimum degree of hydration among alkali metal Question 8.
cations. Lithium shows diagonal relationship with
(b) The oxidation state of K in KO2 is +1. (a) sodium
(c) Sodium is used to make Na/Pb alloy. (b) magnesium
(d) MgSO4 is readily soluble in water. (c) calcium
Answer: (d) aluminium
(a) Li+ has minimum degree of hydration among alkali metal Answer:
cations. (b) magnesium (diagram pending)

Question 3. Question 9.
Which of the following compounds will not evolve H 2 gas on In case of alkali metal halides, the ionic character increases in
reaction with alkali metals? the order
(a) ethanoic acid (a) MF < MCl < MBr < MI
(b) ethanol (b) MI < MBr < MCl < MF
(c) phenol (c) MI < MBr < MF < MCl
(d) none of these (d) none of these
Answer: Answer:
(d) none of these (b) MI < MBr < MCl < MF

Question 4.
Which of the following has the highest tendency to give the Question 10.
reaction Aqueous – In which process, fused sodium hydroxide is electrolysed for
extraction of sodium?
(a) Na (a) Castner’s process
(b) Li (b) cyanide process
(c) Rb (c) Down process
(d) K (d) All of these
Answer: Answer:
(b) Li. (a) Castners process

Question 5. Question 11.

Sodium is stored in ……….. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with
(a) alcohol CaC2 is (NEET – Phase I)
(b) water (a) Ca(CN)3
(c) kerosene (b) CaN2
(d) none of these (c) Ca(CN)2
Answer: (d) Ca3N2
(c) kerosene Answer:
(c) Ca(CN)2
Question 6.
RbO2 is …………. Question 12.
(a) superoxide and paramagnetic Which of the following has highest hydration energy?
(b) peroxide and diamagnetic (a) MgCl2
(c) superoxide and diamagnetic (b) CaCl2
(d) peroxide and paramagnetic (c) BaCl2
Answer: (d) SrCl2
Answer:
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POSITIVE VIBES 45
(a) MgCl2 Answer:
(c) Its salts are rarely hydrolyzed
Question 13. Hint:
Match the flame colours of the alkali and alkaline earth metal Correct statement is beryllium salts are easily hydrolyzed
salts in the bunsen burner Question 18.
(p) Sodium – (1) Brick red The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as (NEET Phase
(q) Calcium – (2) Yellow – II)
(r) Barium – (3) Violet (a) lime water
(s) Strontium – (4) Apple green (b) quick lime
(t) Cesium – (5) Crimson red (c) milk of lime
(u) Potassium – (6) Blue (d) aqueous solution of slaked lime
(a) p – 2, q – 1, r- 4, s – 5, t- 6, u – 3 Answer:
(b) p – 1, q – 2, r – 4, s – 5, t – 6, u – 3 (c) milk of lime
(c) p – 4, q – 1, r – 2, s – 3, t – 5, u – 6
(d) p – 6, q – 5, r – 4, s – 3, t – 1,u – 2 Question 19.
Answer: A colourless solid substance (A) on heating evolved CO2 and
(a) p – 2, q – 1, r – 4, s – 5, t – 6, u – 3 also gave a white residue, soluble in water. Residue also gave
CO2 when treated with dilute HCl.
(a) Na2CO3
Question 14. (b) NaHCO3
Assertion : Generally alkali and alkaline earth metals form (c) CaCO3
superoxides Reason : There is a single bond between O and O (d) Ca(HCO3)2
in superoxides. Answer:
(a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct (b) NaHCO3
explanation of assertion
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the Question 20.
correct explanation of assertion The compound (X) on heating gives a colourless gas and a
(c) assertion is true but reason is false residue that is dissolved in water to obtain (B). Excess of CO2 is
(d) both assertion and reason are false bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed. Solid (C)
Answer: on heating gives back X. (B) is ………..
(d) both assertion and reason are false (a) CaCO3
(b) Ca(OH)2
Question 15. (c) Na2CO3
Assertion : BeSO4 is soluble in water while BaSO4 is not (d) NaHCO3
Reason: Hydration energy decreases down the group from Be Answer:
to Ba and lattice energy remains almost constant. (b) Ca(OH)2
(a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion Question 21.
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the Which of the following statement is false ? (NEET – Phase -1)
correct explanation of assertion (a) Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular
(c) assertion is true but reason is false beating of the heart
(d) both assertion and reason are false (b) Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of the plants
Answer: (c) Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP
(a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct (d) Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
explanation of assertion Answer:
(a) Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular
Question 16. beating of the heart
Which is the correct sequence of solubility of carbonates of
alkaline earth metals? Question 22.
(a) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 The name ‘Blue John’ is given to which of the following
(b) MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3 compounds?
(c) CaCO3 > BaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 (a) CaH2
(d) BaCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3> MgCO3 (b) CaF2
Answer: (c) Ca3(PO4)2
(b) MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3 (d) CaO
Answer:
Question 17. (b) CaF2
In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements
is incorrect? Question 23.
(a) It is rendered passive by nitric acid Formula of gypsum is ………….
(b) It forms Be2C (a) CaSO4.2H2O
(c) Its salts are rarely hydrolyzed (b) CaSO4. ½2H2O
(d) Its hydride is electron deficient and polymeric (c) 3CaSO4.H2O
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POSITIVE VIBES 46
(d) 2CaSO4.2H2O (b) CaNCN
Answer:
(a) CaSO4.2H2O Question 25.
Among the following the least thermally stable is
Question 24. (a) K2CO3
When CaC2 is heated in atmospheric nitrogen in an electric (b) Na2CO3
furnace the compound formed is (c) BaCO3
(a) Ca(CN)2 (d) Li2CO3
(b) CaNCN Answer:
(c) CaC2N2 (d) Li2CO3
(d) CaNC2 Hint:
Answer: Li2CO3 is least stable.

II. Write brief answer to the following questions

Question 26.
Why sodium hydroxide is much more water soluble than chloride?
Answer:
NaOH + H2O ⇌ Na+ + OH–
1. This reaction is an exothermic reaction. Sodium hydroxide being a strong base, completely dissociated in aqueous medium. The
heat evolved increases the stability. This phenomenon is strong enough to prove that sodium hydroxide crystals are readily dissolved
in water.
2. NaCl is geologically stable. If kept dry, it will remain a free flowing solid for years. Water can dissolve NaCl because the Na + ions are
attracted by OH– in water and Cl– ions are attracted by H+ in water. The solubility of NaCl does not increase the temperature. Based on
this, NaOH is much more soluble due to exothermic nature than sodium chloride.

Question 27.
Explain what to meant by efflorescence?
Answer:

1. Efflorescence is the formation of powdery deposit on the surface of rock as a result of loss of moisture or water on exposure to
air.
2. Efflorescence is the formation of whitish powdery deposit on the surface of rocks like gypsum in dry regions. It is formed as
mineral rich water, rises to the surface through capillary action and then evaporates.
3. Gypsum crystals are sometimes found to occur in the form that resembles the petals of flower. This happens mostly in arid areas
or desert terrains, where there is rapid loss of water. This phenomenon is called as efflorescence.

Question 28.
Write the chemical equations for the reactions involved in Solvay process of preparation of sodium carbonate.
Answer:
Solvay process:
The Solvay process is represented by the below chemical equations:

Question 29.
An alkali metal (x) forms a hydrated sulphate, X 2SO2. 10H2O. Is the metal more likely to he sodium (or) potassium.
Answer:
X forms X2SO2. 10H2O. The metal is more likely be sodium. So X is Na2SO4. 10H2O. It is otherwise called as Glauber’s salt.

Question 30.
Write balanced chemical equation for each of the following chemical reactions.
(i) Lithium metal with nitrogen gas
(ii) Heating solid sodium bicarbonate
(iii) Rubidium with oxygen gas
(iv) Solid potassium hydroxide with CO2
(v) Heating calcium carbonate
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POSITIVE VIBES 47
(vi) Heating calcium with oxygen

Answer:

Question 31.
Discuss briefly the similarities between beryllium and aluminium.
Answer:
Diagonal relationship:
As observed in alkali metals, beryllium shows a diagonal relationship with aluminium. Similarities between beryllium and aluminium:

1. Beryllium and aluminium have same electronegativity values.

2. Their changes per unit area is closer.
3. BeCl2 and AlCl3 forms dimeric structure. Both are soluble in organic solvents and are strong Lewis acids.
4. Be(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 dissolves in excess alkali to give beryllate ion [Be(OH)4]2- and aluminate ion [Al(OH)4]–, respectively.
5. Be and Al ions have strong tendency to form complexes, e.g. BeF42- and AlF63-
6. Both Be(OFI)2 and Al(OH)3 are amphoteric in nature.
7. Carbide of Be – beryllium carbide (Be2C) and Al – aluminium carbide (Al4C3) give methane on hydrolysis.
8. Both beryllium and aluminium are rendered passive by nitric acid.

Question 32.
Give the systematic names for the following:

1. milk of magnesia
2. lye
3. lime
4. caustic potash
5. washing soda
6. soda ash and
7. trona.
Answer:

1. Milk of magnesia – Mg(OH)2 – Magnesium hydroxide

2. Lye – NaOH – Sodium hydroxide
3. Lime – Ca(OH)2 Calcium hydroxide
4. Caustic potash – KOH – Potassium hydroxidc
5. Washing soda – Na2CO3. 10H2O – Sodium carbonate decahydrate
6. Soda ash – Na2CO3 – Sodium carbonate (anhydrous)
7. Trona – NaCO3.NaHCO3.2H2O – Sodium sesqui carbonate

Question 33.
Substantiate lithium fluoride has the lowest solubility among group one metal fluorides.
Answer:
Lithium fluoride has high lattice enthalpy due to the small size of Li + and F– . So, due to the high lattice enthalpy, LiF is less soluble in
water.
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POSITIVE VIBES 48
Question 34.
Mention the uses of Plaster of Paris.
Answer:

• The largest use of Plaster of Paris is in the building industry as well as plasters.
• It is used for immobilizing the affected part of organ, where there is a bone fracture or sprain.
• It is also employed in dentistry, in ornamental work and for making casts of statues and busts.

Question 35.
Beryllium halides are covalent whereas magnesium halides are ionic why?
Answer:
Beryllium ion (Be2+) is smaller in size and it is involved in equal sharing of electrons with halogens to form covalent bond, whereas
magnesium ion (Mg2+) is bigger and it is involved in transfer of electrons to form ionic bond.

Question 36.
Alkaline earth metal (A), belongs to 3rd period reacts with oxygen and nitrogen to form compound (B) and (C) respectively. It undergo
metal displacement reaction with AgNO3 solution to form compound (D).
Answer:
1. An alkaline earth (A) metal belongs to third period is magnesium (Mg).
2. Magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide (MgO) (B).

3. Magnesium reacts with nitrogen to form magnesium nitride Mg 3N2 (C).

4. Magnesium undergoes metal displacement reaction with AgNO 3 solution to form magnesium nitrate Mg(NO3)3 (D).

Question 37.
Write balanced chemical equation for the following processes:
(a) heating calcium in oxygen
(b) heating calcium carbonate
(c) evaporating a solution of calcium hydrogen carbonate
(d) heating calcium oxide with carbon
Answer:

Question 38.
Explain the important common features of group 2 elements. Important common features of group 2 elements.
Answer:

1. Group 2 elements except beryllium are commonly known as alkaline earth metals because their oxides and hydroxides are
alkaline in nature and these metal oxides are found in the Earth’s crust.
2. Many alkaline earth metals are used in creating colours and used in fireworks.
3. Their general electronic configuration is ns2.
4. Atomic and ionic radii of alkaline earth metals are smaller than alkali metals, on moving down the group, the radii increases.
5. These elements exhibit +2 oxidation state in their compounds.
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POSITIVE VIBES 49
6. Alkaline earth metals have higher ionizatoin enthalpy values than alkali metals and they are less electropositive than alkali
metals.
7. Hydration enthalpies of alkaline earth metals decreases as we go down the group.
8. Electronegativity values of alkaline earth metals decrease down the group.
9. Alkaline earth metal salts moistened with concentrated hydrochloric acid gave a characteristic coloured flame, when heated on
a platinum wire in a flame.

Question 39.
Discuss the similarities between beryllium and aluminium.
Answer:
Diagonal relationship:
As observed in alkali metals, beryllium shows a diagonal relationship with aluminium. Similarities between beryllium and aluminium:

• Beryllium and aluminium have same electronegativity values.

• Their changes per unit area is closer.
• BeCl2 and AlCl3 forms dimeric structure. Both are soluble in organic solvents and are strong Lewis acids.
• Be(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 dissolves in excess alkali to give beryllate ion [Be(OH) 4]2- and aluminate ion [Al(OH)4]–, respectively.
• Be and Al ions have strong tendency to form complexes, e.g. BeF42- and AlF63-
• Both Be(OFI)2 and Al(OH)3 are amphoteric in nature.
• Carbide of Be – beryllium carbide (Be2C) and Al – aluminium carbide (Al4C3) give methane on hydrolysis.
• Both beryllium and aluminium are rendered passive by nitric acid.

Question 40.
Why alkaline earth metals are harder than alkali metals?
Answer:
1. The strength of metallic bond in alkaline earth metals is higher than alkali metals due to the presence of 2 electrons in its outermost
shell as compared to alkali metals, which have only 1 electron in valence shell. Therefore, alkaline earth metals are harder than alkali
metals.

2. The alkaline earth metals have greater nuclear charge and more valence electrons, thus metallic bonding is more effective. Due to
this they are harder than alkali metals.

Question 41.
How is plaster of paris prepared?
Answer:
Plaster of paris is a hemihydrate of calcium sulphate CaSO4. H2O. It is obtained by heating gypsum at 393 K.

Question 42.
Give the uses of gypsum.
Answer:

• The Alabaster variety of gypsum was used by the sculptors.

• Gypsum is used in making dry walls or plaster boards.
• Gypsum is used in the production of Plaster of Paris, which is used as a sculpting material
• Gypsum is used in making surgical and orthopedic casts.
• It plays an important role in agriculture as a soil additive, conditioner and fertilizer
• Gypsum is used in toothpaste, shampoo and hair products.
• Calcium sulphate acts as a coagulator in making tofu.
• It is also used in baking as a dough conditioner.
• Gypsum is a component of Portland cement, where it acts as a hardening retarder to control the speed at which concrete sets.
• Gypsum is used to give colour to cosmetics and drugs.
• Gypsum plays a very important role in wine making.
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POSITIVE VIBES 50
Question 43.
Describe briefly the biological importance of calcium and magnesium.
Answer:

1. An adult body contains about 25 g of Mg and 1200 g of Ca. The daily requirement in the human body has been estimated to be
200-300 mg.
2. Magnesium is the co-factor of all enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer and energy release.
3. The main pigment for the absorption of light in plants is chlorophyll which contains magnesium.
4. About 99% of body calcium is present in bones and teeth.
5. Calcium plays important roles in neuromuscular function, intemeuronal transmission, cell membrane integrity and blood
coagulation.
6. The calcium concentration in plasma is regulated at about 100 mgL -1. It is maintained by two hormones: calcitonin and
parathyroid hormone.
7. Deficiency of magnesium results into convulsion and neuromuscular irritation.
8. 2% of adult weight is made up of calcium. Calcium phosphate is present in teeth and Calcium carbonate is present in bones.
They make the teeth and bone hard.
9. Water in the human body such as inside the cell and in the blood contain dissolved calcium ions. These ions are involved in
making muscles move and in sending electricity around the brain and along the nerves.
10. Magnesium is an essential element in both plant and animal life.

Question 44.
Which would you expect to have a higher melting point, magnesium oxide or magnesium fluoride? Explain your reasoning.
Answer:

• Magnesium oxide has very strong ionic bonds as compared to magnesium fluoride.
• Mg2+ and O2- have charges of +2 and -2, respectively.
• Oxygen ion is smaller than fluoride ion.
• The smaller the ionic radii, the smaller the bond length in MgO and the bond is stronger than MgF2.
• Due to more strong bond nature in MgO, it has high melting point than MgF 2.
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POSITIVE VIBES 51
Chapter 6 Gaseous State (c) 2/3
(d) 1/3 × 273 × 298
Answer:
I. Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) 1/3
Question 1.
Gases deviate from ideal behavior at high pressure. Which of
Question 6.
the following statement (s) is correct for non – ideality?
The temperatures at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws
(a) at high pressure the collision between the gas molecule
over a wide range of pressure is called …………
become enormous
(a) Critical temperature
(b) at high pressure the gas molecules move only in one
(b) Boyle temperature
direction
(c) Inversion temperature
(c) at high pressure, the volume of gas become insignificant
(d) Reduced temperature
(d) at high pressure the inter molecular interactions become
Answer:
significant
(b) Boyle temperature
Answer:
Hint:
(d) at high pressure the inter molecular interactions become
The temperature at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws
significant
over a wide range of pressure is called Boyle temperature

Question 2.
Question 7.
Rate of diffusion of a gas is …………
In a closed room of 1000 m3 a perfume bottle is opened up. The
(a) directly proportional to its density
room develops a smell. This is due to which property of gases?
(b) directly proportional to its molecular weight
(a) Viscosity
(c) directly proportional to its square root of its molecular
(b) Density
weight
(c) Diffusion
(d) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular
(d) None
weight
Answer:
Answer:
(c) Diffusion
(d) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular
weight
Question 8.
A bottle of ammonia and a bottle of HCl connected through a
Question 3. long tube are opened simultaneously at both ends. The white
Which of the following is the correct expression for the ammonium chloride ring first formed will be ………….
equation of state of van der Waals gas? (a) At the center of the tube
(b) Near the hydrogen chloride bottle
(c) Near the ammonia bottle
(d) Throughout the length of the tube
Answer:
(b) Near the hydrogen chloride bottle

Question 9.
The value of universal gas constant depends upon ………..
(a) Temperature of the gas
(b) Volume of the gas
Answer:
(c) Number of moles of the gas
(d) units of Pressure and volume
Answer:
(d) units of Pressure and volume
Question 4.
When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no Question 10.
cooling occurs because the molecules …………. The value of the gas constant R is …………
(a) are above inversion temperature (a) 0.082 dm3 atm.
(b) exert no attractive forces on each other (b) 0.987 cal mol-1 K-1
(c) do work equal to the loss in kinetic energy (c) 8.3 J mol-1K-1
(d) colide without loss of energy (d) 8 erg mol-1K-1
Answer: Answer:
(b) exert no attractive forces on each other (c) 8.3 J mol-1K-1

Question 5.
Equal weights of methane and oxygen is mixed in an empty Question 11.
container at 298 K. The fraction of total pressure exerted by Use of hot air balloon in sports at meteorological observation is
oxygen ……….. an application of
(a) 1/3 (a) Boyle’s law
(b) 1/2 (b) Newton’s law
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POSITIVE VIBES 52
(c) Kelvin’s law container, with a pin-hole through which both can escape what
(d) Brown’s law fraction of oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of
Answer: the hydrogen to escape. (NEET phase 1)
(a) Boyle’s law (a) 3/8
(b) 1/2
Question 12. (c) 1/8
The table indicates the value of van der Waals constant ‘a’ in (d) 1/4
(dm3)2 atm. mol-2 Answer:
(c) 1/8

The gas which can be most easily liquefied is ………….

Question 18
(a) O2
The variation of volume V, with temperature T, keeping pressure
(b) N2
constant is called the coefficient of thermal expansion ie α
(c) NH3
= 1V(∂V∂T)PFor an ideal gas α is equal to ………..
Answer: (c) NH3
(a) T
(b) 1/T
Question 13.
(c) P
Consider the following statements.
(d) none of these
(i) Atmospheric pressure is less at the top of a mountain than at
Answer:
sea level
(b) 1/T
(ii) Gases are much more compressible than solids or liquids
Hint:
(iii) When the atmospheric pressure increases the height of the
mercury column rises Select the correct statement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 14. Question 19.

Compressibility factor for CO2 at 400 K and 71.0 bar is 0.8697. Four gases P, Q, R and S have almost same values of ‘b’ but
The molar volume of CO2 under these conditions is ……….. their ‘a’ values (a, b are Van der Waals Constants) are in the
(a) 22.04 dm3 order Q < R < S < P. At a particular temperature, among the
(b) 2.24 dm3 four gases the most easily liquefiable one is ………….
(c) 0.41 dm3 (a) P
(d) 19.5 dm3 (b) Q
Answer: (c) R
(c) 0.41 dm3 (d) S
Answer:
Question 15. (a) P
If temperature and volume of an ideal gas is increased to twice
its values, the initial pressure P becomes ………….
(a) 4P Question 20.
(b) 2P Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from (NEET)
(c) P (a) CH4(g)
(d) 3P (b) NH3(g)
Answer: (c) H2(g)
(c) P (d) N2(g)
Answer:
Question 16. (b) NH3(g)
At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of
hydrogen gas is 33–√ times that of a hydrocarbon having Question 21.
molecular formula What is the value of n? The units of Van der Waals constants ‘b’ and ‘a’ respectively
(a) 8 (a) mol L-1 and L atm2 mol-1
(b) 4 (b) mol L and L atm mol2
(c) 3 (c) mol-1 L and L2 atm mol-1
(d) 1 (d) none of these
Answer: Answer:
(b) 4. (c) mol-1 L and L2 atm mol-1

Question 17.
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a
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POSITIVE VIBES 53
Question 22.
Assertion : Critical temperature of CO2 is 304 K, it can be
liquefied above 304 K.
Reason : For a given mass of gas, volume is to directly
proportional to pressure at constant temperature.
(a) both assertion and reason arc true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(d) both assertion and reason are false

Question 23.
What is the density of N, gas at 227°C and 5.00 atm pressure?
(R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1)
(a) 1.40 g/L
(b) 2.81 g/L Answer:
(c) 3.41 g/L
(d) 0.29 g/L
Answer:
(c) 3.41 g/L

Question 24.
Which of the following diagrams correctly describes the
behaviour of a fixed mass of an ideal gas ? (T is measured in K) Question 25.
25 g of each of the following gases are taken at 27°C and 600
mm Hg pressure. Which of these will have the least volume?
(a) HBr
(b) HCl
(c) HF
(d) HI
Answer:
(d) HI

II. Answer these questions briefly.

Question 26.
State Boyle’s law.
Answer:
Boyle’s law states that at a given temperature. the volume occupied by a fixed mass of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
V α 1P;
where T and n are fixed or PV = Constant = k

Question 27.
A balloon filled with air at room temperature and cooled to a much lower temperalure can be used as a model for Charles’ law.
Answer:
Charles’ law:

• V T at constant P and n (or) VT = Constant

• A balloon filled with air at room temperature and cooled to a much lower temperature. the size of the balloon is reduced.
Because if the temperature of the gas decreases, the volume also decreases in a direct proportion.
• When temperature is reduced, the gas molecules inside in over slower due to decreased temperature and hence the volume
decreases.
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POSITIVE VIBES 54
Question 28.
Name two items that can serve as a model for Gay Lussac’s law and explain.
Answer:
Gay Lussac’s law:
1. P α T at constant volume (or) = VT
2. Example – 1:
You fill the car type completely full of air on the hottest day of summer. The type cannot change it shape and volume. But when winter
comes, the pressure inside the lyre is reduced and the shape is also reduced. This confirms that pressure and temperature are direct
related to each other.
3. Example – 2:
The egg in the bottle experiment.

Positive Vibes Study Materials ,

CCc

A glass bottle is taken, inside the bottle put some pieces of cotton with fire. Then place a boiled egg (shell removed) at the top of the
bottle. The temperature inside the bottle increases from the fire, rising (he pressure. By scaling the bottle with egg, the fire goes on,
dropping the temperature and pressure. This causes the egg to be sucked into the bottle.
P α T is proved (or) = P1V1=P2V2

Question 29.
Give the mathematical expression that relates gas volume and moles. Describe in words what the mathematical expression means.
Answer:

1. The mathematical relationship betwêen the volume of a gas and the number of moles is V α n
2. V1n1=V2n2 = Constant
Where V1 and n1 are the volume and number of moles of a gas and V2 and n2 are the values of volume and number of moles of
same gas at a different set of conditions.
3. If the volume of the gas increase then the number of moles of the gas also increases.
4. At a certain temperature and pressure, the volume of a gas is dirctly proportional to the number of the moles of the gas.

Question 30.
What are ideal gases? In what way real gases differ from ideal gases.
Answer:

1. Ideal gases are the gases that obey gas laws or gas equation PV = nRT.
2. Real gases do not obey gas equation. PV = nRT.
3. The deviation of real gases from ideal behaviour is measure in terms of a ratio of PV to nRT. This is termed as compression
factor (Z). Z = PVnRT
4. For ideal gases Z = 1.
5. For real gases Z > 1 or Z < 1. For example, at high pressure real gases have Z >1 and at intermediate pressure Z < 1.
6. Above the Boyle point Z> 1 for real gases and below the Boyle point, the real gases first show a decrease for Z, reaches a
minimum and then increases with the increase in pressure.
7. So, it is clear that at low pressure and high temperature, the real gases behave as ideal gases.

Question 31.
Can a Van der Waals gas with a = 0 be liquefied? Explain.
Answer:

• a = 0 for a Van der Waals gas i.e. for a real gas. Van der Waals constant a = 0. It cannot be liquefied.
• If a = 0, there is a very less interaction between the molecules of gas.
• ‘a’ is the measure of strength of Van der Waals force of attraction between the molecules of the gas.
• If a is equal to zero, the Van der Waals force of attraction is very less and the gas cannot be liquefied.
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POSITIVE VIBES 55
Question 32.
Suppose there ¡s a tiny sticky area on the wan of a container of gas. Molecules hitting this area stick there permanently. Is the pressure
greater or less than on the ordinary area of walls?
Answer:
* Molecules hitting the tiny sticky area on the wall of the container of gas moves faster as they get closer to adhesive surface, but this
effect is not permanent.
* The pressure on the sticky wall is greater than on the ordinary area of walls.

Question 33.
Explain the following observations
(a) Aerated water bottles are kept under water during summer
(b) Liquid ammonia bottle is cooled before opening the seal
(c) The type of an automobile is inflated to slightly lesser pressure in summer than in winter
(d) The size of a weather balloon becomes larger and larger as it ascends up into larger altitude
Answer:
(a) In aerated water bottles, CO2 gas is passed through the aqueous solution under pressure because the solubility of the gas in water
is not very high. In summer, the solubility of the gas in water is likely to decrease because of the rise in temperature. Thus, in summer,
more of gas will be present above the liquid surface in the glass bottle. In case, the pressure of the gas becomes too high, the glass
will not be able to withstand the pressure and the bottle may explode. To avoid this, the bottles are kept under water. As a result, the
temperature is likely to decrease and the solubility of CO2 is likely to increase in aqueous solution resulting in decreased pressure.

(b) Liquid ammonia bottle contains the gas under very high pressure. If the bottle is opened as such, then the sudden decrease in
pressure will lead to a large increase in volume of the gas. As a result, the gas will come out of the bottle all of a sudden with force.
This will lead to the breakage of the bottle and also causes accident.

However, if the bottle is cooled under tap water for sometime, there will be a decrease in the volume of a gas to a large extent. if the
seal is opened now, the gas will corne out of the bottle at a slower rate, reduces the chances of accident.

(c) The pressure of air is directly proportional to the temperature. Since the temperature is higher in summer than in higher, the
pressure of the air in the tube of the lyre is likely to be quite high as compared to winter. It is quite likely that the tube may burst
under high pressure in summer, Therefore, it is advisable to inflate the types to lesser pressure in summer than in winter.

(d) The volume of the gas is inversely proportional to pressure at a given temperature according to Boyle’s law. As the weather balloon
ascends, the pressure tends to decrease. As a result, the volume of the gas inside the balloon or the size of the balloon is likely to
increase.

Question 34.
Give suitable explanation for the following facts about gases.
(a) Gases don’t settle at the bottom of a container
(b) Gases diffuse through all the space available to them and
(c) Explain with an increase in temperature
Answer:
(a) Gases by definition are the least dense state of matter. They have negligible intermolecular forces of attraction. So they are all free
to roam separately. So the least dense gas particles will not sink at the bottom of a container.

(b) When a sample of a gas introduced to one part of a closed container, its molecules very quickly disperse throughout the container,
this process by which molecules disperse in space in response to differences in concentration is called diffusion. For e.g., you can smell
perfume in a room, because it difluses into the air totally inside the room.

(c) Diffusion is faster at higher temperature because the gas molecules have greater kinetic energy. Since heat increase the motion,
then diffusion happens faster.

Question 35.
Suggest why there ¡s no hydrogen (H2) in our atmosphere. Why does the moon have no atmosphere?
Answer:
1. Hydrogen is the lightest element thus when produced in free state, it rises above all the other gases to the top of the atmosphere,
where it is open to cosmic storms and solar flares. There it literally leaks from the atmosphere to the empty space. Hydrogen easily
gains velocity required to escape Earth’s magnetic field. Hydrogen is very reactive in nature. So it would have reacted with O2 , in its
way to produce H2O. So majority portion of H2 reacts and very less amount of it present in the upper level of atmosphere and gains
velocity to escape the atmosphere.
2. Moon has no atmosphere because the value of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on the surface of the moon is small. Therefore, the
value of escape velocity on the surface of the moon is very small. The molecule of the atmospheric gases on the surface of the moon
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POSITIVE VIBES 56
have thermal velocities greater than the escape velocity. That’s why all the molecules of gases have escaped and there is no
atmosphere in the moon. The moon has insufficient gravity to retain an atmosphere. So we conclude that moon has no atmosphere.

Question 36.
Explain whether a gas approaches ideal behaviour or deviates from ideal behaviour if –
(a) it is compressed to a smaller volume at constant temperature
(b) the temperature is raised while keeping the volume constant
(c) more gas is introduced into the same volume and at the same temperature
Answer:
(a) it a gas is compressed to a smaller volume at constant temperature, pressure is increased. At high pressure with a smaller volume,
the gas deviates from ideal behaviour.

(b) If a gas temperature is raised keeping the volume constant, the pressure of the gas will increase. At high pressure, the gas deviates
from ideal behaviour.

(c) if more gas is introduced into the same volume and at the same temperature, the number of moles are increasing. if the volume
remains same, the increased number of moles collide with each other and kinetic energy increases and pressure decreases. At
increased pressure, the gas deviates from ideal behaviour.

Question 37.
Which of the following gases would you expect to deviate from ¡deal behaviour under conditions of low temperature F Cl 2, or Br2?
Explain.
Answer:
1. Bromine deviates (Br2) from the ideal gas maximum than Cl2 and F2. Because Br2 has biggest size (atomic weight 79.9) provides
maximum attraction between bromine molecules which is directly proportional to the size of the molecule and the boiling point of the
liquid made from those molecules.
2. Br2 deviates from ideal behaviour because it has largest atomic radii compared to Cl 2 and F2. So it contains more electrons than
other two, and the Vander Waals forces are stronger in Br2 than in Cl2 and F2. So Br2 deviates from ideal behaviour.

Question 38.
Distinguish between diffusion and effusion.
Answer:

Diffusion Effusion

• Diffusion is the spreading of molecules of a substance • Effusion is the escape of gas molecules through a very
throughout a space or a second substance. small hole in a membrane into an evacuated area.
• Diffusion refers to the ability of the gases to mix with each • Effusion is a ability of a gas to travel through a small pin-
other. hole.
• E.g.. Spreading of something such as brown tea liquid • E.g., pouring out something like the soap studs bubbling
spreading through the water in a tea cup. out from a bucket of water.

Question 39.
Aerosol cans carry clear warning of heating of the can. Why?
Answer:
Aerosol cans carry clear warning of heating of the can. As the temperature rises, pressure in the can will increase and ambient
temperatures about 120°F may lead to explosions. So aerosol cans should always be stored in dry areas where they will not be
exposed to excessive temperatures. You should never throw an aerosol can onto a fire or leave it in the direct sunlight. even it is
empty. This is because the pressure will build up so much that the can will burst. It is due to 2 reasons.

• The gas pressure increases.

• More of the liquefied propellant turns into a gas.
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POSITIVE VIBES 57
Question 40.
When the driver of an automobile applies brake, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car but a helium balloon is pushed
toward back of the car. Upon forward acceleration the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car. Why?
Answer:
1. When the driver of an automobile applies brake, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car due to inertia of the body,
but a helium balloon pushed toward back of the car. Helium balloon responds to the air around it. Helium molecules are lighter than
air of our atmosphere, and so they move toward back by gravity as a result of the accelerating frame.

2. Upon forward acceleration, the passengers arc pushed toward the front of the car, because the body in motion tends to stay in
motion until acted upon by an outside force. Helium balloon is going to move opposite to this pseudo gravitational force.

Question 41.
Would it be easier to drink water with a straw on the top of Mount Everest?
Answer:
It is difficult to drink water with a straw on the top of Mount Everest. This is because the reduced atmospheric pressure is less effective
in pushing water into the straw at the top of the mountain because gravity falls off gradually with height. The air pressure falls off,
there isn’t enough atmospheric pressure to push the water up in the straw all the way to the mouth.

Question 42.
Write the Van der Waals equation for a real gas. Explain the correction term for pressure and volume.
Answer:
Van der Waals equation of state for real gases is –
(P+an2V2)(V−nb) = nRT
Correction term for pressure:
an2V2 is the pressure correction. It represents the intermolecular interaction that causes the non ideal behaviour.
Correction term for Volume:
V – nb is the volume correction. it is the effective volume occupied by real gas.

Question 43.
Derive the values of critical constants from the Van der Waals constants.
Answer:
Derivation of critical constants from the Van der Waals constants:
Van der Waals equation is,
(P+an2V2)(V−nb) = nRT for 1 mole
From this equation, the values of critical constant PCVC and TC arc derived in terms of a and b the Van der Waals constants.
(P+an2V2)(V–b) = RT ………..(1)
On expanding the equestion (1)
P V + aV – pb – abV2 – RT = 0 ………(2)
Multiplying eqestion (2) by V2P,

equation (3) is rearranged in the powers of V

V3 – [RTP+b] V2 + aVP –
= 0 ………..(4)
The above equation (4) is an cubic equation of V, which can have three roots. At the critical point. all the three values of V are equal to
the critical volume VC.
i.e. V = VC.
V – VC = O ……….(5)
(V – VC)3 = O ………(6)
(V3 – 3VCV2 + 3VC3V – VC3 = 0 ………(7)
As the equation (4) is identical with equation (7), comparing the ‘V’ ternis in (4) and (7),

Divide equation (11) by (10)

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POSITIVE VIBES 58

When equation (12) is substituted in (10)

substituting the values of Vc and Pc in equation (9)

Critical constant a and b can be calculated using Van der Waals Constant as follows:

Positive Vibes Study Materials , Nagammanaickenpalayam , Coimbatore

Question 44.
Why do astronauts have to wear protective suits when they are on the surface of moon?
Answer:
In space, there is no pressure, if we do wear a pressurised suit, our body will die. In space, we have to wear a pressurised suit,
otherwise our body will continue to push out and blow up like a balloon. It would look cool, but we will be dead. So the astronauts in
space must wear a pressurised suit (protective suits).

Question 45.
When ammonia combines with HCl, NH4 Cl is formed as white dense fumes. Why do more funies appear near HCl?
Answer:
1. When ammonia combines with HCl, NH4 Cl is formed as white dense fumes. The reaction takes place in neutralization between a
weak base and a strong acid.
2. The property of the gas is diffusion.
3. Diffusion of gases Ammonia and hydrogen chloride. Concentrated ammonia solution is placed on a pad in one end of a tube
and concentrated HCl on the pad at the other. After about a minute, the gases diffuses far enough to meet and a ring of solid
ammonium chloride is formed near the HCl end.
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POSITIVE VIBES 59
Question 46.
A sample of gas at 15°C at 1 atm has a volume of 2.58 dm 3. Vhen the temperature is raised to 38°C at I atm does the volume of the
gas increase? if so, calculate the final volume.
Answer:

V2 = 2.78 dm3 i.e. volume increased from 2.58 dm3 to 2.78 dm3.

Question 47.
A sample of gas has a volume of 8.5 dm3 at an unknown temperature. When the sample is submerged in ice water at 0°C, its volume
gets reduced to 6.37 dm3. What ¡s its initial temperature?
Answer:

T1 = 364.28 K

Question 48.
Of two samples of nitrogen gas, sample A contains 1.5 moles of nitrogen in a vessel of volume of 37.6 dm 3 at 298K, and the sample B
is in a vessel of volume 16.5 dm3 at 298 K. Calculate the number of moles in sample B.
Answer:
nA = 1.5 mol nB = ?
VA = 37.6 dm3 VB = 16.5 dm3
(T = 298 K constant)

Question 49.
Sulphur hexafluoride is a colourless, odourless gas; calculate the pressure exerted by 1.82 moles of the gas in a steel vessel of volume
5.43 dm3 at 69.5°C, assuming ¡deal gas behaviour.
Answer:
n = 1.82 mole
V = 5.43 dm3
T = 69.5 + 273 = 342.5
P=?
PV = nRT
P = nRTV

P = 94.25 atm.
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POSITIVE VIBES 60
Question 50.
Argon is an inert gas used in light bulbs to retard the vapourlzation of the tungsten filament. A certain light bulb containing argon at
1.2 atm and 18°C is heated to 85°C at constant volume. Calculate its final pressure in atm.
Answer:
P1 = 1.2 atm
T1 = 18°C + 273 = 291 K
T2 = 85°C + 273 = 358 K
P2 = ?
P1T1=P2T2

Question 51.
A small bubble rises from the bottom of a lake, where the temperature and pressure are 6°C and 4 atm. to the water surface, where
the temperature is 25°C and pressure is 1 atm. Calculate the final volume in (mL) of the bubble, if its initial volume is 1.5 mL.
Answer:
T1 = 6°C + 273 = 279 K
P1 = 4 atm V1 = 1.5m
T2 = 25°C + 273 = 298 K
P2 = 1 atm V 1 = ?
P1V1T1=P2V2T2

V2 = 6.41 mol.

Question 52.
Hydrochloric acid is treated with a metal to produce hydrogen gas. Suppose a student carries out this reaction and collects a volume
of 154.4 x 10-3 dm3 of a gas at a pressure of 742 mm of Hg at a temperature of 298 K. What mass of hydrogen gas (in mg) did the
student collect?
Answer:
V = 154.4 x 10-3dm3
P = 742 mm of Hg
T = 298 K m = ?

n = PVRT =
= 0.006 mol
n = PVRT
n = MassMolarMass
Mass = n x Molar mass
= 0.006 x 2.016
= 0.0121 g = 12.1 mg.
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POSITIVE VIBES 61
Question 53.
It takes 192 sec for an unknown gas to diffuse through a porous wall and 84 sec for N2 gas to effuse at the same temperature and
pressure. What is the molar mass of the unknown gas?
Answer:

Question 54.
A tank contains a mixture of 52.5 g of oxygen and 65.1 g of CO2 at 300 K the total pressure in the tank ¡s 9.21 atm. Calculate the
partial pressure (in atm.) of each gas in the mixture.
Answer:
mO2 = 52.5 g
PO2 = ?
mCO2 = 65.1 g
PCO2 = ?
T = 300 K P = 9.21 atm
PO2 = XO2 x total pressure

PO2 = XO2 x Total pressure

= 0.53 x 9.21 atm = 4.88 atm
PCO2 = XCO2 x Total pressure
= 0.47 x 9.21 atm = 4.33 atm

Question 55.
A combustible gas Is stored in a metal tank at a pressure of 2.98 atm at 25 °C. The tank can withstand a maximum pressure of 12 atm
after which it will explode. The building in which the tank has been stored catches fire. Now predict whether the tank will blow up first
or start melting? (Melting point of the metal = 1100 K).
Answer:

T1 = 298 K; -- P1T1=P2T2
P1 = 2.98 atm; P2 = P1T1×T2
T2 = 1100K; = 2.98atm298K×1100K = 11 atm
P2 = ?
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POSITIVE VIBES 62
Chapter 7 Thermodynamics Question 7.
An ideal gas expands from the volume of 1 x 10-3 m3 to
1 x 102 m3 at 300K against a constant pressure at 1 x 10 5 Nm-2.
I. Choose :
The work done is ………..
Question 1.
(a) – 900 J
The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at
(b) 900 kJ
constant temperature and pressure is called ………
(c) 270 kJ
(a) ΔE
(d) – 900 kJ
(b) ΔH
Answer:
(c) ΔS
(a) – 900 J
(d) ΔG
Answer:
Question 8.
(b) ΔH
Heat of combustion is always
(a) positive
Question 2. (b) negative
All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in (c) zero
a direction which leads to (d) either positive or negative
(a) decrease in entropy Answer:
(b) increase in enthalpy (b) negative
(c) increase in free energy
(d) decrease in free energy
Question 9.
Answer:
The heat of formation of CO and CO 2 are -26.4 kcal and -94
(d) decrease in free energy
kcal, respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will
be
Question 3. (a) +26.4 kcal
In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true? (b) -67.6 kcal
(a) q = w (c) -120.6 kcal
(b) q = 0 (d) +52.8 kcal
(c) ΔE = q Answer:
(d) PΔV = 0 (b) -67.6 kcal
Answer:
(a) q = 0 Question 10.
C(diamond) → C(graphite), ∆H = -ve, this indicates that ………..
Question 4. (a) graphite is more stable than diamond
In a reversible process, the change in entropy of the universe is ‘ (b) graphite has more energy than diamond
(a) >0 (c) both are equally stable
(b) > 0 (d) stability cannot be predicted
(c) < 0 Answer:
(d) = 0 (a) graphite is more stable than diamond
Answer:
(d) = 0 Question 11.
The enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and Cr2O3 are -1596 kJ and
Question 5. -1134 kJ, respectively. ∆H for reaction 2Al + Cr2O3 → 2Cr +
In an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas Al2O3 is ……….
(a) w = -∆u (a) -1365 kJ
(b) w = ∆u + ∆H (b) 2730 kJ
(c) ∆u = 0 (c) -2730 kJ
(d) w = 0 (d) -462 kJ
Answer: Answer:
(a) w = -∆u (d) -462 kJ

Question 6. Question 12.

The intensive property among the quantities below is Which of the following is not a thermodynamic function?
(a) mass (a) internal energy
(b) volume (b) enthalpy
(c) enthalpy (c) entropy
(d) mass/volume (d) frictional energy
Answer: Answer:
(d) mass/volume (d) frictional energy
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POSITIVE VIBES 63
Question 13. (c) -3180 kJ
If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are (d) -653.66 kJ
mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, Answer:
then ………… (d) -653.66 kJ
(a) ∆H > ∆U
(b) ∆H – ∆U = 0 Question 19.
(c) ∆H + ∆U = 0 The bond dissociation energy of methane and ethane are 360 kJ
(d) ∆H < ∆U mol-1 and 620 Id mol-1 respectively. Then, the bond dissociation
Answer: energy of C-C bond is …………
(d) ∆H < ∆U (a) 170 kJ mol-1
(b) 50 kJ mol-1
Question 14. (c) 80 kJ mol-1
Change in internal energy, when 4 kJ of work is done on the (d) 220 kJ mol-1
system and 1 kJ of heat is given out by the system is …………. Answer:
(a) +1 kJ (c) 80 kJ mol-1
(b) -5 kJ
(c) +3 kJ
(d) -3 kJ
Answer: Question 20.
(c) +3 kJ The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous
reaction at all temperature is (NEET phase – I)
(a) ∆H<0 and ∆S>0
Question 15. (b) ∆H<0 and ∆S<0
The work done by the liberated gas when 55.85 g of iron (molar (c) ∆S>0 and ∆S = 0
mass 55.85 g mol-1) reacts with hydrochloric acid in an open (d) ∆H<0 and ∆S>0
beaker at 25°C ………… Answer:
(a) -2.48 kJ (a) ∆H<0 and ∆S>0
(b) -2.22 kJ
(c) +2.22 kJ Question 21.
(d) + 2.48 kJ The temperature of the system, decreases in an …………
Answer: (a) isothermal expansion
(a)-2.48 kJ (b) isothermal compression
(c) adiabatic expansion
Question 16. (d) adiabatic compression
The value of AH for cooling 2 moles of an ideal mono atomic Answer:
gas from 125°C to 25°C at constant pressure will be [given (c) adiabatic expansion
CP = 52 R] …………..
(a) -250 R Question 22.
(b) -500 R In an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas the sign
(c) 500 R of q, AS and w are respectively
(d) +250 R (a) +, -, –
Answer: (b) -, +, –
(b) -500 R (c) +, -, +
(d) -, -, +
Question 17. Answer:
Given that C(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ∆H°= a kJ; 2 CO(g) + O2(g) → (d) -, -, +
2CO2(g) ∆H° = -b kJ; Calculate the ∆H° for the reaction C(g) +
H2O2(g) → CO(g)
(a) b+2a2 Question 23.
(b) 2a – b Molar heat of vaporization of a liquid is 4.8 kJ mol-1. If the
(c) 2a–b2 entropy change is 16 J mol-1 K-1. the boiling point of the liquid
(d) b–2a2 is ………..
Answer: (a) 323 K
(d) b–2a2 (b) 27°C
(c) 164 K
Question 18. (d) 0.3 K
When 15.68 litres of a gas mixture of methane and propane are Answer:
fully combusted at 0°C and 1 atmosphere, 32 litres of oxygen at (b) 27°C
the same temperature and pressure are consumed. The amount
of heat released from this combustion in kJ is (∆H C (CH4) = –
890 kJ mol-1 and ∆HC (C3H8) = -2220 kJ mol-1) Question 24.
(a) -889 kJ ∆S is expected to be maximum for the reaction
(b) -1390 kJ (a) Ca(S) + O2(g) → CaO(S)
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POSITIVE VIBES 64
(b) C(S) + O2(g) → CO2(g) 30 kJ mol and loo kJ mol . Then the temperature above which
-1 -1

(c) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) the reaction will become spontaneous is ………….
(d) CaCO3(S) → CaO(S) + CO2(g) (a) 300 K
Answer: (b) 30 K
(d) CaCO3(S) → CaO(S) + CO2(g) (c) 100 K
(d) 20°C
Answer:
(a) 300 K
Question 25.
The values of H and S for a reaction are respectively

II . Answer these questions briefly.

Question 26.
State the first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The first law of thermodynamics states that “the total energy of an isolated system remains constant though it may change from one
form to another”
(or)
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but may be converted from one form to another.

Question 27.
Define Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
Answer:
Hess’s law:
The enthalpy change of a reaction either at constant volume or constant pressure is the same whether it takes place in a single or
multiple steps.

Question 28.
Explain intensive properties with two examples.
Answer:
The property that is independent of the mass or size of the system is called as intensive property.
e.g., Refractive index and surface tension.

Question 29.
Define the following terms:
(a) isothermal process
(b) adiabatic process
(c) isobaric process
(d) isochoric process
Answer:
(a) isothermal process:
It is defined as one in which the temperature of the system remains constant, during the change from its initial to final states.

(b) Adiabatic process:

It is def’ined as one in which there is no exchange of heat (q) between the system and surrounding during operations.

(c) Isobaric process:

It is defined as one in which the pressure of the system remains constant during its change from the initial to final state.

(d) Isochoric process:

It is defined as one in which the volume of system remains constant during its change from initial to final state of the process.
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POSITIVE VIBES 65
Question 30.
What is the usual definition of entropy? What ¡s the unit of entropy?
Answer:

1. Entropy is a thermodynamic state function that is a measure of the randomness or disorderliness of the system.
2. For a reversible change taking place at a constant temperature (T). the change in entropy
3. of the system is equal to heat energy absorbed or evolved (q) by the system divided by the constant temperature (T).

4. SI unit of entropy is J K-1

Question 31.
Predict the feasibility of a reaction when

1. both ∆H and ∆S positive

2. both ∆H and ∆S negative
3. AH decreases but ∆S increases
Answer:

1. When both ∆H and ∆S are positive, the reaction is not feasible.

2. When both ∆H and ∆S are negative, the reaction is not feasible.
3. When ∆H decreases but ∆S increases, the reaction is feasible.

Question 32.
Define Gibb’s free energy.
Answer:
Gibbs free energy is defined as the part of total energy of a system that can be converted (or) available for conversion into work.
G = H -TS,
where G = Gibb’s free energy
H = enthalpy
T = temperature
S = entropy

Question 33.
Define enthalpy of combustion.
Answer:
Enthalpy of combustion of a substance is defined as “the change in enthalpy of a system when one mole of the substance is
completely burnt in excess of air or oxygen”. it is denoted as AH.

Question 34.
Define molar heat capacity. Give its unit.
Answer:
Molar heat capacity is defined as “the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance in raising the temperature by I Kelvin”. It
is denoted as Cm
Unit of Molar heat capacity: SI unit of Cm is JK-1 mol-1.

Question 35.
Define the calorific value of food. What is the unit of calorific value?
Answer:

• The calorific value of food is defined as the amount of heat produced in calories (or Joules) when one gram of food is
completely burnt.
• Unit of calorific value (a) Cal g-1 (b) J Kg-1

Question 36.
Define enthalpy of neutralization.
Answer: The enthalpy of neutralization is defined as the change in enthalpy of the system when one gram equivalent of an
acid is neutralized by one gram equivalent of a base or vice versa in dilute solution.
H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) = 57.32 kJ.
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POSITIVE VIBES 66
Question 37.
What is lattice energy?
Answer:
Lattice energy is defined as the amount of energy required to completely separate one mole of a solid ionic compound into gaseous
constituent.

Question 38.
What are state and path functions? Give two examples.
Answer:

• The variables like P. V, T and ‘n’ that are used to describe the state of the system are called as state functions. e.g.. pressure,
volume, temperature, internal energy, enthalpy and free energy.
• A path function is a thermodynamic property of the system whose value depends on the path or manner by which the system
goes from its initial to final state. e.g., work (w) and heat (q).

Question 39.
Give Kelvin statement of second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
Kelvin-Planck statement:
It is impossible to take heat from a hotter reservoir and convert a cyclic process heat to a cooler reservoir.

Question 40.
The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 10, what will be the sign of ∆G? Will this reaction be spontaneous?
Answer:
∆G° = -2.303 RT log Keq
Keq = 10
∴ ∆G° = -ve value.
So the reaction will be spontaneous.

Question 41.
Enthalpy of neutralization is always a constant when a strong acid is neutralized by a strong base: account for the statement.
Answer:

1. Enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base is always a constant and it is equal to -57.32 kJ irrespective of which
acid or base is used.
2. Because strong acid or strong base means it is completely ionized in solution state. For e.g., NaOH (strong base) is neutralized
by HCl (strong acid), due to their complete ionization, the net reaction take place is only water formation.
So the enthalpy of neutralization is always constant for strong acid by a strong base.
H+Cl– + Na+OH– → Na+Cl– + H2O
H+NO3+ + K+OH– → K+NO3++ H2O
(Net reaction) H+ + OH– → H2O ∆H = -57.32 kJ

Question 42.
State the third law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
It states that the entropy of pure crystalline substance at absolute zero is zero.
(or)
It can be stated as “it is impossible to lower the temperature of an object to absolute zero in a

finite number of steps”. Mathematically

Question 43.
Write down the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of CaCl2
Answer:
Born – Haber cycle for the formation of CaCl2
Ca(S) + Cl2(l) → CaC2(S) ∆Hf°
Sublimation : Ca(S) → Ca(S) ∆H1°
Ionization : Ca(g) → Ca2+(g) + 2e– = ∆H2°
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POSITIVE VIBES 67
Vapourisation : Cl2(l) → Cl2(g) = ∆H3°
Dissociation : Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) = ∆H4°
Electron affinity : 2Cl2(g) + 2e– → 2Cl–2(g)(g) = ∆H5°
Lattice enthalpy : Ca2+(g) + 2Cl–(g) → CaCl2(S) = ∆H6°
∆Hf° = ∆H1° + ∆H2° + ∆H3° + ∆H4° + ∆H5° + ∆H6°

Question 44.
Identify the state and path functions out of the following
(a) Enthalpy
(b) Entropy
(c) Heat
(d) Temperature
(e) Work
(f) Free energy.
Answer:
State function : Enthalpy, entropy, temperature and free energy.
Path function : Heat and work.

Question 45.
State the various statements of second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
1. Entropy statement:
Whenever a spontaneous process takes place, it is accompanied by an increase in the total entropy of the universe”.

2. Kelvin-Planck statement:
it is impossible to take heat from a hotter reservoir and convert it completely into work by a cyclic process without transferring a part
of heat to a cooler reservoir.

3. Efficiency statement:
Even an ideal, frictionless engine cannot convert 100% of its input heat into work.
Efficiency = T1−T2T1
% Efficiency = [T1−T2T1] x 100
% Efficiency = [ Output Input ] x 100
% Efficiency < 100%

4. Clausius statement:
Heat flows spontaneously from hot objects to cold objects and to get it flow in the opposite direction, we have to spend some work.

Question 46.
What are spontaneous reactions? What are the conditions for the spontaneity of a process?
Answer:

1. A reaction that does occur under the given set of conditions is called a spontaneous reaction.
2. The expansion of a gas into a evacuated bulb is a spontaneous process, the reverse process that is gathering of all molecules
into one bulb is not spontaneous. This example shows that processes that occur spontaneously in one direction cannot take
place in opposite
direction spontaneously.
3. Increase in randomness favours a spontaneous change.
4. If enthalpy change of a process is negative, then the process is exothermic and occurs spontaneously. Therefore ∆H should be
negative.
5. if entropy change of a process is positive, then the process occurs spontaneously, therefore ∆S should be positive.
6. If free energy of a process is negative, then the process occurs spontaneously, therefore ∆G should be negative.
7. For a spontaneous. irreversible process. ∆H <0, ∆S > 0, ∆G < 0. i.e., ∆H = -ve, ∆S = +ve and ∆G = -ve.
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POSITIVE VIBES 68
Question 47.
List the characteristics of internal energy.
Answer:

• Internal energy of a system is an extensive property. It depends on the amount of the substances present in the system.
• Internal energy of a system is a state function. It depends only upon the state variables (T, P, V. n) of the system.
• The change in internal energy is as ∆U = U2 – U1
• In a cyclic process, there is no energy change. ∆U(cyclic) = 0.
• If the internal energy of the system at final state (U f) is less than the internal energy of the
system at its initial state (Ui), then ∆U would be negative.
• if Uf < Ui ∆U = Uf – Ui = -ve
if Uf > Ui ∆U = Uf – Ui = +ve

Question 48.
Explain how heat absorbed at constant volume is measured using bomb calorimeter with a neat diagram.
Answer:
1. For chemical reactions, heal absorbed at constant volume, is measured in a bomb calorimeter.

2. Description of the apparatus and procedure:

The inner vessel and its cover are made of strong steel. The cover is fitted tightly to the vessel by means of metal lid and screws. A
weighed amount of the substance is taken in a platinum cup connected with electrical wires for striking an arc instantly to kindle
combustion. The bomb is then tightly closed and pressurizcd with excess

oxygen. The bomb is lowered in water, which is placed inside the calorimeter. A stirreris placed in the bomb to stir the water uniformly.
The reaction is started by striking the substance through electrical heating.

3. During burning, the exothermic heat generated inside the bomb raises the temperature of the surrounding water bath. Temperature
change can be measured accurately using Beckmann thermometer. Since the bomb calorimeter is sealed, its volume does not change,
so the heat measurements in this case corresponds to the heat of reaction at constant
volume.

4. In a bomb calorimeter experiment, a weighed sample of benzoic acid (w) is placed in the
bomb which is then filled with excess oxygen and sealed. Ignition is brought about electrically.
The rise in temperature (AT) is noted. Water equivalent or calorimetry equivalent of the
calorimeter is known from the standard value of enthalpy of combustion of benzoic acid.

5. ∆HC(C6H5COOH) = -3227 kJ mol-1

6. By knowing o value, the enthalpy of combustion of any other substance is determined

adopting the similar procedure and using the substance in place of’ benzoic acid. By this
experiment, the enthalpy of combustion at constant volume (AU C°) is known,
∆UC° = ωe. ∆T

7. Enthalpy of combustion at constant pressure of the substance is calculated from the

equation
∆U°C(pressure) = ∆U°C(volume) + ∆ng RT
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POSITIVE VIBES 69
0Question 49.
Calculate the work involved in expansion and compression process.
Answer:
1. The essential condition of expansion or compression of a system is, there should be difference between external pressure P ext and
internal pressure (Pint).
2. If the volume of the system is increased against the external pressure. the work is done by the system. By convention work done by
the system is given a negative sign (-w).

3. If the volume of the system decreased, the work is done on the system. By convention work done on the
system is given a positive sign (+w).

4. For understanding pressure-volume work, let us consider a cylinder which contains one mole of an ideal
gas fitted with a frictionless piston. Total volume of the gas is V i and pressure of the gas inside is Pint.

5. If external pressure is Pext which is greater than Pint piston is moved inward till the pressure inside
becomes equal to Pint It is achieved in a single step and the final volume be Vf.

6. During this compression, piston moves a distance x) and is cross-sectional area of the piston is A, then,
Change in volume = x A = ∆V = Vf – Vi ………..(1)
Pext = Force(F)Area(A) ………(2)
F = Pext.A

7. if work is done by the system by pushing out the piston against external pressure (P ext) then according to the equation,
-w = F.x ………(3)
-w = Pext . A . x …….(4)
-w = Pext.∆V ……….(5)
-w = Pext . (Vf– Vi.) …..(6)
Simply w = – P∆V ………..(7)

8. From the above equation, we can predict the sign of work (w).

9. During expansion, work is done by the system, since Vf>Vi the sign obtained for work will be negative.

10. During compression, work is done on the system, since Vf<Vi the sign obtained for work will be positive.

Question 50.
Derive the relation between ∆H and ∆U for an ideal gas. Explain each term involved in the equation.
Answer:
1. When the system at constant pressure undergoes changes from an initial state with H 1, U1, V1 and P parameters to a final
state with H2, U2, V2 and P parameters, the change in enthalpy ∆H, is given by
AH = U + PV
2. At initial state H1 = U1 + PV1 ………(1)
At final state H1 = U1 + PV1 ……..(2)
(2) – (1) ⇒ (H2 – H1) = (U2 – U1) + P(V2 – V1)
∆H = ∆U + P∆V …………(3)
Considering ∆U = q + w ; w = -P∆V
∆H = q + w + P∆V
∆H = qp – P∆V+ P∆V
∆H = qp …………(4)
qp is the heat absorbed at constant pressure and is considered as heat content.
3. Consider a closed system of gases which are chemically reacting to produce product gases at constant temperature and
pressure with V. and as the total volumes of the reactant and product gases respectively, and n1 and n f are the number of moles of
gaseous reactants
and products. Then,
For reactants: P Vi = ni RT
For products: P Vf = nf RT
Then considering reactants as initial state and products as final state,
P (Vi – Vi) = (ni – ni) RT
P∆V = ∆ng RT
∆H = ∆U + P∆V
∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT ……….(5)
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POSITIVE VIBES 70
Question 51.
Suggest and explain an indirect method to calculate lattice enthalpy of sodium chloride crystal.
Answer:
The Born – Haber cycle is used to determine the lattice enthalpy of NaCl as follows:

Positive Vibes , CBE

Formation of NaCl can be considered in 5 steps. The sum of the enthalpy changes of these steps is equal to the enthalpy change for
the overall reaction from which the lattice enthalpy of NaCl is calculated.
Na(s) + Vi Cl2(g) → NaCl(s) ∆Hf = -411.3 kJ mol-1
Sublimation : Na(s) → Na(g) ∆H1°
Dissociation : ½ Cl2(g) → Cl(g) ∆H2°
Ionisation : Na(s) → Na+(g) + e– ∆H3°
E1etron affinity : Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g) ∆H4°
Lattice enthalpy : Na+(g) + Cl–(g) → NaCl(s) ∆H5° =?
∆H = ∆H1° + ∆H4° + ∆H4° + ∆H4° + ∆H4°
∆H = ∆Hf° – (∆H1° + ∆H2°+ ∆H3°+∆H4°)
∆H5°= Lattice enthalpy of NaCl.
By the above method, indirectly lattice enthalpy of NaCl is calculated, if the values of
∆Hf°, ∆H1°, ∆H2°- ∆H3° and ∆H4° are given.

Question 52.
List the characteristics of Gibbs free energy.
Answer:
Characteristics of Gibbs free energy:
1. Gibbs free energy is defined as the part of total energy of a system that can be converted (or) available for conversion into work.
G = H – TS ………..(1)
Where
H = enthalpy, T = temperature and S = entropy

2. G is a state function and is a single value function.

3. G is an extensive property, whereas ∆G becomes intensive property for a closed system. Both G and ∆G values correspond to the
system only.

4. ∆G gives a criteria for spontaneity at constant pressure and temperature.

• If ∆G is negative (∆G < O), the process is spontaneous.

• If ∆G is positive (∆G > O), the process is non-spontaneous.
• If ∆G is zero (AG = O), the process is equilibrium.

5. For any system at constant pressure and temperature,

∆G = ∆H – T∆S ……….. (2)
We know AH = ∆U + P∆V
∆G = ∆U + P∆V – T∆S ………(3)

6. For the first law of thermodynamics, ∆U = q + w

∆G= q+ w+P∆V – T∆S …………(4)

For second law of thermodynamics, ∆S = qT

∆G = q + w + P∆V – TqT
∆G = w + P∆V …………(5)
∆G = – w – P∆V ……….(6)
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POSITIVE VIBES 71
7. – P∆V represent the work done due to expansion against a constant external pressure. Therefore, it is clear that the decrease in free
energy (-∆G) accompanying a process taking place at constant temperature and pressure is equal to the maximum work obtainable
from the system other than the work of expansion.

8. Unit of Gibb’s free energy is J mol -1

Question 53.
Calculate the work done when 2 moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermally from a volume of 500 ml to a volume of 2 L
at 25°C and normal pressure.
Answer:
Given
n = 2 moles
Vi = 500 ml = 0.5 lit
Vf = 2 lit
T = 25°C = 298 K
w = -2.303 nRT log (VVi)
w = -2.303 x 2 x 8.314 x 298 x log 20.5
w = -2.303 x 2 x 8.314 x 298 x log(4)
w = -2.303 x 2 x 8.314 x 298 x 0.6021
w = -6871 J
w =-6.871 kJ.

Question 54.
In a constant volume calorimeter, 3.5 g of a gas with molecular weight 28 was burnt ¡n excess oxygen at 298 K. The temperature of the
calorimeter was found to increase from 298 K to 298.45 K due to the combustion process. Given that the calorimeter constant is 2.5 kJ
K-1. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of the gas in kJ mol -1.
Answer:
Given,
Ti = 298 K
Tf = 298.45 K
k = 2.5 kJ K
m = 3.5g
Mm = 28
heat evolved = k∆T
∆HC = k (Tf – Ti)
∆HC = 2.5 kJ K’ (298.45 – 298) K-1
∆HC = 1.125 kJ
∆HC = 1.1253.5 x 28 kJ mol-1
∆HC = 9 kJ mol-1

Question 55.
Calculate the entropy change in the system and surroundings, and the total entropy change in the universe during a process in which
245 J of heat flow out of the system at 77°C to the surrounding at 33°C.
Answer:
Given:
Tsys = 77°C = (77 + 273) = 350K
Tsys = 33°C = (33 + 273) = 306K
q = 245 J

∆Suniv = ∆Ssys + ∆Ssurr-245 = —07 3K’

∆Suniv = -0.7 JK-1 + 0.8 JK-1
∆Suniv = 0.1 JK-1
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POSITIVE VIBES 72
Question 56.
1 mole of an ideal gas, maintained at 4.1 atm and at a certain temperature, absorbs heat 3710 J and expands to 2 litres. Calculate the
entropy change in expansion process.
Answer:
Given,
n = 1 mole
P = 4.1 atm
V = 2Lit
T=?
q = 3710 J
∆S = qT

∆S = 37.10 JK-1

Question 57.
30.4 kJ is required to melt one mole of sodium chloride. The entropy change during melting is 28.4 JK -1 mol-1. Calculate the melting
point of sodium chloride.
Answer:
Given,
∆Hf(NaCl) = 30.4 kJ = 30400 J mol-1
∆Sf (NaCl) = 28.4 JK-1 mol-1
Tf = ?

Tf = 1070.4 K.
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POSITIVE VIBES 73
Question 58.
Calculate the standard heat of formation of propane, if its heat of combustion is -2220.2 KJ mol-1, the heats of formation of CO2(g) and
H2O(l) are – 393.5 and -285.8 kJ mol-1 respectively.
Answer:
Given,

Standard heat of formation of propane is ∆Hf0(C3H8) = -103.5 kJ mol-1.

Question 59.
You are given normal boiling points and standard enthalpies of vaporization. Calculate the entropy of vaporization of liquids listed
below.

Answer:
For ethanol:
Given:
Tb = 78.4°C = (78.4 + 273) = 351.4 K
∆Hv(ethanol) = + 42.4 kJ mol-1

∆Hv = + 91.76 J K-1 mol-1

For Toluene:
Given:
Tb = 110.6°C = (110.6 + 273) = 383.6 K
∆SV (toluene) = + 35.2 KJ mol-1

∆SV = + 91.76 J KJ mol-1

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POSITIVE VIBES 74
Question 60.
For the reaction Ag2O(s) → 2Ag(s) + ½ O2(g): ∆H = 30.56 kJ mol-1 and ∆S = 6.66 JK-1 mol-1 (at 1 atm). Calculate the temperature at which
AG is equal to zero. Also predict the direction of the reaction (i) at this temperature and (ii) below this temperature.
Answer:
Given,
∆H = 30.56 kJ mol-1
∆H = 30560 J mol-1
∆S = 6.66 x 10-3 kJ K-1 mol-1
T = ? at which ∆G = 0
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
0 = ∆H – T∆S
T = ΔHΔS

T = 4589K
(i) At 4589K ; ∆G = 0, the reaction is in equilibrium.
(ii) At temperature below 4598 K, ∆H > T ∆ S
∆G = ∆H – T∆S > 0, the reaction in the forward direction, is non-spontaneous. In other words the reaction occurs in the backward
direction.

Question 61.
What is the equilibrium constant Keq for the following reaction at 400K.
2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) given that AH° = 77.2 kJ mol-1 and ∆S° = 122 JK-1 mol-1
Answer:
Given,
T = 400 K ; ∆H° = 77.2 kJ mol-1 = 77200 J mol-1;
∆S° = 122 JK-1 mol-1
∆G° = -2.303 RT log Keq

log Keq = -3.7080

Keq = anti log(-3.7080)
Keq = 1.95 x 10-4

Question 62.
Cyan-amide (NH2CN) ¡s completely burnt in excess oxygen in a bomb calorimeter, ∆U was found to be -742.4 kJ mol-1 calculate the
enthalpy change of the reaction at 298K.
NH2CN(s) + 3/2 O2(g) → N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) ∆H = ?
Answer:
Given,
T = 298K ; ∆U = -742.4 kJ mol-1
∆H = ?
∆H = ∆U + ∆n(g)RT
∆H = ∆U + (np – nr) RT
∆H = – 742.4 +[2 – 32] x 8.314 x 10-3 x 298
∆H = -742.4 + (0.5 x 8.314 x 10-3 x 298)
∆H = -742.4 + 1.24 .
∆H = -741.16 kJ mol-1
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POSITIVE VIBES 75
Question 63.
Calculate the enthalpy of hydrogenation of ethylene from the following data. Bond energies of C H, C – C, C = C and H – H are 414,
347, 618 and 435 kJ mol-1.
Answer:
Given,
EC-H = 414 kJ mol-1
EC-H = 347 kJ mol-1
EC-H = 618 kJ mol-1
EH-H = 435 kJ mol-1

∆Hr = ∑(Bond energy)r – ∑(Bond energy)P

∆Hr = (EC=C + 4EC-H + EH-H) – (EC-C + 6EC-H)
∆Hr = (618 + (4 x 414) + 435) – (347 + (6 x 414))
∆Hr = 2709 – 2831
∆Hr = -122 KJ mol-1

Question 64.
Calculate the lattice enegry of CaCl2 from the given data
Ca(s) + Cl2(g) → CaCl2(s) ∆Hf0 = -795 KJ mol-1
Atomisation : Ca(s) → Ca(g) ∆H1° = + 121 KJ mol-1
Ionization : Ca(g) → Ca2+(g) + 2e– ∆H2° = + 242.8 KJ mol-1
Dissociation : Cl2(g) → 2 Cl(g) ∆H3° = +242.8 KJ mol-1
Electron affinity : Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g) ∆H3° = -355 KJ mol-1
Answer:

∆Hf = ∆H1 + ∆H2 + ∆H3 + 2∆H4 + u

-795 = 121 + 2422 + 242.8 + (2 x—355) + u
-795 = 2785.8 – 710 + u
-795 = 2075.8 + u
u = -795 – 2075.8
u = -2870.8 KJ mol-1

Question 65.
Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 from the following data.
2Fe + 32 O2 → Fe2O3; ∆H = -741 kJ
C + 12 O2 → CO; ∆H = -137 KJ
C + O2 → CO2 ∆H = -394.5 KJ
Answer:
Given,
∆Hf (Fe2O3) = -741 kJ mol-1
∆Hf(CO) = -137 kJ mol-1
∆Hf(CO2) = -394.5 kJ mol-1
Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 ∆Hr = ?
∆Hr = ∑(∆Hf)products – ∑(∆Hf)reactants
∆Hr = [2 ∆Hf(Fe) + 3 ∆Hf(CO2)] – [∆Hf(Fe2O3) + 3∆Hf(CO)]
∆Hr = [- 1183.5 ] – [-1152]
∆Hr = – 1183.5 + 1152
∆Hr = -31.5 KJ mol-1
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POSITIVE VIBES 76
Question 66.
When 1-pentyne (A) is treated with 4N alcoholic KOH at 175°C, it is converted slowly into an equilibrium mixture of 13% 1-pentyne(A),
95.2% 2-pentyne(B) and 3.5% of 1,2 pentadiene (C) the equilibrium was maintained at 175°C, calculate AG° for the following equilibria.
B ⇌ A ∆G1° = ?
B ⇌ C ∆G2° = ?
Answer:
T = 175°C = 175 + 273 = 448 K
Concentration of 1 – pentyne [A] = 1.3%
Concentration of 2 – pentyne [B] = 95.2%
Concentration of 1, 2 – pentadiene [C] = 3.5%
At equiLibrium
B⇌A
95.2% 1.3% ⇒ K1 = 3.595.2 = 0.0 136
B⇌C
95.2% 3.5% ⇒ K1 = 1.395.2 = 0.0367
⇒ ∆G1° = -2.303 RT log K1
∆G1° = – 2.303 x 8.3 14 x 448 x log 0.0136
∆G1° = + 16010 J
∆G1° = + 16 kJ
⇒ ∆G2°= – 2.303 RT log K2
∆G2° = -2.303 x 8.314 x 448 x log 0.0367
∆G2° = + 12312 J
∆G2° = +12.312 kJ.

Question 67.
At 33K. N2H4 is fifty percent dissociated. Calculate the standard free energy change at this temperature and at one atmosphere.
Answer:
T = 33K
N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2
Initial concentration 100%
Concentration dissociated 50%
Concentration remaining at equilibrium 50% – 100%
Keq = 10050 = 2
∆G° = -2.303 RT log Keq
∆G° = -2.303 x 8.31 x 33 x 1og 2
∆G° = -190.18 J mol-1

Question 68.
The standard enthaipies of formation, of SO2 and SO3 are -297, kJ. rnol-1 and -396 kJ mol-1 respectively. Calculate the standard
enthalpy of reaction for the reaction:
SO2 + 12 O2 → SO3
Answer:
Given,
∆Gf°(SO2) = – 297 KJ mol-1
∆Gf°(SO2) = – 297 KJ mol-1
SO2 + 12O2 → SO3 ∆Hr° = ?
∆Hr° = (∆Hf°)compound – ∑(∆Hf°)elements
∆Hr° = ∆Hf° (SO3) – [∆Hf° (SO2) + 12 ∆Hf° (O2)]
∆Hr° = – 396 kJ mol-1 – (- 297 kJ mol-1 + 0)
∆Hr° = – 396 kJ mol-1+297
∆Hr° = – 99 kJmol-1
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POSITIVE VIBES 77
Question 69.
For the reaction at 298 K : 2A + B → C
∆H = 400 J mol-1 ∆S = 0.2 JK-1 mol-1
Determine the temperature at which the reaction would be spontaneous.
Answer:
Given,
T = 298K
∆H = 400 J mol-1
∆S = 0.2 J K-1 mol-1
∆G = ∆H – ThS
if T = 2000K
∆G = 400 – (0.2 x 2000) = 0
if T > 2000 K
∆G will be negative.
The reaction would be spontaneous only beyond 2000 K.

Question 70.
Find out the Value ofequilibrium constant for the following reaction at 298K,
2 NH3(g) + CO2(g) ⇌ NH2CONH2(aq) + H2O(l)
Standard Gibbs energy change, AGr° at the given temperature is – 13.6 kJ mol-1.
Answer:
Given,
T = 298 K
∆Gr° = – 13.6 kJ mol-1
= – 13600 J mol-1
∆G° = – 2.303 RT log Keq
log Keq = −ΔG°2.303RT

log Keq
log Keq = 2.38
Keq = anti log(2.38)
Keq = 239.88.

Question 71.
A gas mixture of 3.67 lit of ethylene and methane on complete combustion at 25°C and at I atm pressure produce 6.11 lit of carbon
dioxide. Find out the amount of heat evolved in kJ, during this combustion. (∆H C(CH4) = – 890 kJ mol-1 and (∆HC(C2H4)= -1423 kJ mol-
1
.
Answer:
Given,
∆HC (CH4) = – 890 kJ mol-1
∆HC (C2H4) = -1423 kJ mol-1
Let the mixture contain x lit of CH4 and (3.67 – x) lit of ethylene.

Volume of carbon dioxide formed x + 2 (3.67 – x) 6.11 lit

x + 7.34 – 2x = 6.11
x = 1.23 lit
Given mixture contains 1.23 lit of methane and 2.44 lit of ethylene, hence

∆HC = [-48.87 kJ mol-1] + [-155 kJ mol-1]

∆HC = -203.87 kJ mol-1
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