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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ
THÀNH PHỐ SẦM SƠN NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 8
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

PART A: LISTENING (15 points)

Part 1. You will hear an interview with a teenager called Amy Manero, who is talking about her interest in
music, particularly jazz piano. Choose the correct answer from A, B, or C for each question. You will hear
the recording twice.
1. When did Amy have lessons with a piano teacher?
A. at the age of four.
B. before she started secondary school.
C. after getting advice from her school music teacher.
2. How did Amy feel at her first big public event?
A. excited because she was wearing a wonderful costume.
B. nervous because it was her first time on stage.
C. surprised because the audience was very big.
3. What does Amy say about playing jazz with the school band?
A. She put lots of effort into learning about it.
B. She was better at it than the rest of the players.
C. She enjoyed it as soon as she started.
4. Amy gives piano lessons so that she can __________.
A. help people who couldn’t normally afford them.
B. encourage lots of young people to play the piano.
C. improve her own playing technique.
5. Why does Amy write a blog on the internet?
A. to get some experience for becoming a journalist.
B. to tell people about her daily life as a musician.
C. to recommend events for people to go to.
Part 2. You will hear a boy, called Adam, telling his class about a hot air balloon flight he went on. Fill in
each blank with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. You will hear the recording twice.
ADAM’S HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHT
6. The flight in the balloon lasted ____________________.
7. Adam could see as far as the ____________________ from the balloon.
8. Adam didn’t recognize a ____________________ from the air.
9. Adam was surprised that it was ____________________ in the balloon basket.
10. Adam didn’t like having to ____________________ in the basket.
Part 3. Listen to Adam and Emma talking about holidays and decide whether each of the following
statements is True (T) or False (F). You will hear the recording twice.
11. Adam has already booked his holiday. __________
12. Emma doesn’t like sitting on beaches all day. __________
13. Emma might not go on holiday this year. __________
14. Adam usually goes to Scotland in the summer. __________
15. Emma thinks that hotels in Scotland are expensive. __________

PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.
(3 points)
1. A. island B. establish C. aspect D. escape
2. A. food B. fool C. foot D. tooth
3. A. exchanged B. coughed C. controlled D. covered

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Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each
question. (2 points)
1. A. realize B. improve C. possible D. comfortable
2. A. important B. especially C. prefer D. influence

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)

Question I. Circle the best option from A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (15 points)
21. It’s not easy to study a foreign language by __________.
A. oneself B. himself C. itself D. herself
22. Shall I put the books on the floor? – No, I want to keep the __________.
A. tidy room B. room tidy C. room is tidy D. room tidy
23. When she looked in her purse, she found she had been __________.
A. broken B. thieved C. stolen D. robbed
24. A lot needs __________ to the house before anyone can move in.
A. be done B. to do C. doing D. done
25. When shall we meet: at 7.30 or 8.00? – I don’t mind __________.
A. either time B. neither of them C. both time D. neither time
26. The programme on TV attracted millions of __________.
A. audience B. spectators C. viewers D. witnesses
27. Florida, __________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is B. known as C. is known as D. that is known as
28. Never before __________ such a wonderful sight.
A. I have seen B. I had seen C. I saw D. have I seen
29. He was __________ speaker.
A. so good a B. what a good C. so a good D. how good a
30. The teacher __________ against talking to strangers.
A. recommended B. suggested C. advised D. said
31. My grandfather was a lovely person who __________ pleasure from helping others.
A. derived B. gathered C. deduced D. collected
32. - Hoa: “Would you mind my smoking?”
- Mai: “__________”
A. OK B. Sorry, I can’t.
C. No. Please go ahead. D. I’d rather you didn’t.
33. __________ his advice, I would have never got the job.
A. Except B. Apart from C. But for D. As for
34. I met __________ one-eyed man at the gate.
A. the B. an C. a D. no article
35. __________ at his lessons, he couldn’t catch up with his classmates.
A. Hardly as he worked B. Hard as he worked
C. Hard as he does D. Hard as he was
Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts).
36. He prefers driving to (drive) ____________________.
37. It’s essential that he (arrive) ____________________ before seven.
38. I’d rather you (not wear) ____________________ jeans to the office.
39. My little sister (read) ____________________ Sleeping Beauty several times.
40. If I (improve) ____________________ my English-speaking skills, I would easily get that job.
Question III. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts).
41. The cities are full of __________ looking for work. (MIGRATE)
42. His boss told him off because he had behaved __________. (RESPONSIBLE)
43. She got very angry but later she apologised for her __________. (PATIENT)
44. Have you got any __________? (SUGGEST)
45. It is usually forbidden to destroy __________ building. (HISTORY)
Question IV. There is one mistake in each sentence, find out and correct it (5 pts).
46. I’m trying to persuade my sister to drive, but I can’t get her to do it.
47. Can you tell me where were you born? - Stockholm.
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48. Each of the students in the class has to do their own assignment this semester.
49. John was upset last night because he had to do too many homework.
50. Fifteen hundred dollars a year were the per capita income in the United States in 1950.

PART D: READING (30 points)

I. Choose a suitable word that best fits each blank in the following passage.
Most students, in their own countries have had little opportunity to practise using English. When foreign
learners first have the (51) __________ to speak to an English-speaking person they may have a shock: they
often (52) __________ great difficulty in understanding. I’ll just mention three of the possible reasons for this.
First, it seems to students that English people speak very quickly. (53) __________, they speak with a
variety of accents. Third, different styles of speech are used. For all of these reasons (54) __________ will have
difficulty, mainly because they lack everyday practice in listening to English people speaking English.
(55) __________ can a student do then to overcome these difficulties? Obviously, attend English classes and
if a language laboratory is available, use it as (56) __________ as possible. He should listen to programs in
English on the radio and TV. Perhaps, most important of (57) __________, he should take every opportunity to
meet and speak with native English-speaking people.
In addition, the student probably has difficulty in speaking English fluently. The advice here will seem (58)
__________ to follow but it’s necessary. Firstly, he must simplify what he wants to say so that he can express
himself reasonably and clearly. Secondly, he must try to think in English, (59) __________ translate from his
mother tongue. This will only begin to take place when his use of English becomes automatic; using a language
laboratory (60) __________ listening to as much English as possible will help.
II. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green Revolution regimen
depend heavily on technology. One (61) __________, however, depends much (62) __________ on technology
- organic farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (63) __________ chemical fertilizers or pesticides.
(64) __________ chemical soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant parts not used as food, natural,
organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (65) __________. Organic farmers also use alternatives (66)
__________ pesticides; for example, they may rely on natural predators of certain insect pests. (67)
__________ the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae of these natural predators and introduce them into
their crop fields. They use (68) __________ techniques to control pests as well, like planting certain crops
together because one crop repels the other’s pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land; (69) __________
organic farming is perfectly (70) __________ to small farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many
organic farmers’ average yields compare favorably with other farmers’ yields.
61. A. alteration B. alternate C. alternative D. alternation
62. A. more B. less C. better D. worse
63. A. also B. for C. not D. all
64. A. In spite of B. On account of C. In favour of D. Instead of
65. A. resource B. source C. matter D. substance
66. A. of B. to C. for D. from
67. A. Then B. If C. Because D. Though
68. A. others B. another C. the others D. other
69. A. instead B. in one way C. on one hand D. in fact
70. A. suitable B. open C. likely D. suited
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain
a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a
little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg sales to
plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to eating
regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look
somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they
can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching,
or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer' eggs. These
eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice

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bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as
regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in
humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up
their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought
mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person
who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people.
In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol.
Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing
this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
71. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten.
D. To convince people to eat ‘designer’ eggs and egg substitutes.
72. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?
A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins
73. Which of the following could best replace the word ‘somewhat’?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
74. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. increasing price B. decreased production
C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol
75. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily limit for
human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
76. The word ‘portrayed’ could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
77. What is the meaning of ‘back up’?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
78. What is meant by the phrase ‘mixed results’?
A. The results are blended. B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
79. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of eggs
EXCEPT?
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
80. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake

PART E: WRITING (20 points)

Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (5pts)
81. “I will go to Da Nang tomorrow” he said.
 He said
_________________________________________________________________________________
82. Learning English is not difficult.
 I do
____________________________________________________________________________________
83. I last saw Peter when we attended the school meeting.
 I have not
_______________________________________________________________________________
84. Though Mr. Matt works very hard, he is seldom successful in his life.
 However _______________________________________________________________________________
85. She says I caused the accident.
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 She blames
______________________________________________________________________________
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentences printed
before it, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. (5 points)
86. The boy was so tired that he can’t keep on walking. (BOY)
 He was too
______________________________________________________________________________
87. It took us five hours to get to Hai Phong. (SPENT)
 We ____________________________________________________________________________________
88. “You broke my camera!” Minh said to Hoa. (ACCUSED)
 Minh __________________________________________________________________________________
89. House prices have risen sharply this year. (RISE)
 There has
_______________________________________________________________________________
90. Could you watch my bag while I’m away, please? (EYE)
 Could you ______________________________________________________________________________
Question III: Paragraph writing (10 points).
Many people think that living in the countryside is wonderful. Do you agree with them? Write a paragraph of
about 150 words to express your opinion.
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ
THÀNH PHỐ SẦM SƠN NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 8
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

PART A: LISTENING (15pts)

Part 1. You will hear an interview with a teenager called Amy Manero, who is talking about her interest in
music, particularly jazz piano. Choose the correct answer from A, B, or C for each question.
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
Part 2. You will hear a boy called Adam telling his class, about a hot air balloon flight he went on. Fill in
each blank with no more than one word.
6. an hour
7. mountains
8. local bridge
9. warm
10. stand
Part 3. Listen to Adam and Emma talking about holidays and decide whether each of the following
statements is True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)
11. T
12. F
13. F
14. F
15. T

PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)

16. A
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. D

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence (15 pts)
21. A
22. D
23. D
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. A
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30. C
31. A
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. B
Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts).
36. Being driven
37. arrive
38. didn’t wear
39. has read
40. Were - to improve
Question III. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts).
41. migrants
42. irresponsibly
43. impatience
44. suggestions
45. historical
Question IV. There is one mistake in each sentence, find out and correct it (5 pts)
46. do => to do
47. were you => you were
48. their => his/ her
49. many => much
50. were => was

PART D: READING (30 points)

I. Choose a suitable word that best fits each blank in the following passage.
51. opportunity
52. have
53. second/ secondly
54. students
55. what
56. much
57. all
58. difficult
59. not
60. and
II. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
61. C
62. B
63. C
64. D
65. B
66. B
67. B
68. D
69. D
70. D
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
71. B
72. B
73. B
74. D
75. B
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76. D
77. D
78. C
79. C
80. C
PART E: WRITING (20 points)
Question I.
81. He said he would go to Da Nang the next/ following day.
82. I do not find it difficult to learn English.
83. I have not seen Peter since we attended the school meeting.
84. However hard Mr. Matt works, he is seldom successful in his life.
85. She blames causing the accident on me/ me for causing the accident (having caused).
Question II.
86. He was too tired a boy that he couldn’t keep on walking.
87. We spent 5 hours getting to Hai Phong.
88. Minh accused Hoa of breaking her/ his camera.
89. There has been a dramatic rise in the house prices this year.
90. Could you keep an eye on my bag while I am away?
Question III: Paragraph writing.
Making scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 2pts (Coherence, cohesion, style)
The essay includes 3 parts:
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are clearly expressed.
b. Body: should consist of from two or three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic sentence,
reasonings and examples/ explanations.
c. Conclusion: summarize the main reasons, students’ comment.
2. Contents: 5 pts
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
Note:
• Students can totally agree/ disagree or partially agree.
• Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his/ her own opinion
in the conclusion.
3. Language: 3 pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

• Tổng điểm toàn bài là 100 điểm, mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm.
• Cách quy đổi điểm bài thi về thang điểm 20.
Điểm bài thi = Tổng số câu đúng/5
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