5.

If Mo and Lo denote the orbital angular

moment and the angular momentum of the
electron due to its orbital motion, then the
gyrornagnetic ratio is given by

Std: MHT CET - 01 Subject: PCB

a) b)
Date :

PHYSICS

1. The v-t graph of an athlete is shown

c) L0M0 d)
below. The distance travelled by him
6. The standard voltage of A.C. mains in
between t = 0 and t = 18 s is
India is
a) 110V b) 220 V
c) 50V d) 150V
7. The escape velocity of a body depends
upon mass as
a) m° b) m1
c) m2 d) m3
8. For which logic gate is the following
statement true?
a) 36m b) 56 m
The output is high, if and only if all inputs
c) 49.5 m d) 78 m
are high.
2. The surface tension of two liquids are
a) AND b) OR
respectively 20 and 60 dyne cm-1. The
c) NAND d) NOR
liquids drop from the ends of two tubes of
9. The equation of a simple harmonic motion
the same radius. The ratio of the weights
is given by, x = 8 sin (8πt) + 6 cos (8πt),
of the two drops is
the initial phase angle is
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3
a) tan-1 (4/3) b) tan-1 (3/4)
c) 2 : 3 d) 3 : 4 -1
c) tan (2/3) d) tan-1(5/8)
3. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a
10. A uniform disc of radius ‘a’ and mass ‘m’
volume V at a pressure P and absolute
temperature T. The mass of each molecule is rotating freely with angular speed ‘ω’ in
of the gas is m. Which of the following a horizontal plane, about a smooth fixed
gives the density of the gas? vertical axis through its centre. A particle
a) mkT b) P /(kT) of mass ‘m’ is then suddenly attached to
c) Pm / (kT) d) P /(kTV) the rim of the disc and rotates with it. The
4. The interference pattern is obtained with new angular speed is
two coherent light sources of intensity
ratio n. In the interference pattern, the ratio
a) b)

will be
c) d)
11. One metallic sphere A is given positive
a) b) charge whereas another identical metallic
sphere B of exactly same mass as of A is
given equal amount of negative charge.
Then
c) d) a) mass of A and mass of B still remain
1 | Page
 equal. 17. The direction of magnetic field produced
b) mass of A increases. around a long straight conductor is given
c) mass of B decreases. by
a) right hand thumb rule.
d) mass of B increases.
b) left hand thumb rule.
12. Shown in the figure below is a metre
bridge set up with null deflection in the c) right hand screw rule.
galvanometer. The value of the unknown d) both a) and c).
resistance R is 18. The magnetic moment of electron due to
orbital motion is proportional to .
(n = principal quantum numbers)

a) b)
c) n2 d) n

19. In a series LCR circuit R = 300 Ω, L = 0.9

H, C = 2 μF, ω = 1000 rad/s. The
impedance of the circuit is
a) 900 Ω b) 400 Ω
a) 55 Ω b) 1375 Ω
c) 1300 Ω d) 500 Ω
c) 220 Ω d) 110 Ω
13. Maximum velocity of photoelectron
emitted is 4.8 m/s. If e/m ratio of electron 20. Mass of the moon is of the mass of the
is 1.76 × 1011 C/kg, then stopping potential
is given by earth. Its diameter is of that of the
earth. If acceleration due to gravity on the
a) 3.5 × 10-10 J/C b) 5.5 × 10 7J/C
−
surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s2, then the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface
c) 6.5 × 10-11 J/C d) 7.5 × 102 J/C of the moon
14. A bomb at rest explodes into 3 parts of
a) 9.8 × 6 m/s2
same mass. The momentum of two parts is
b) m/s2
-2P and 4P respectively. The magnitude
of momentum of the third part is
c) m/s2 d) 9.8 × 3 m/s2
a) P b) P 21. A sound wave has frequency 500 Hz and
c) P d) P velocity 350 m/s. The distance between the
15. A soap bubble of radius 2.0 cm is formed two particles having phase difference of
inside another soap bubble of radius 4.0 60° is nearly
cm. The radius of an another soap bubble a) 7 cm b) 12 cm
which has the same pressure difference as c) 70 cm d) 120 cm
that between the inside of the smaller and 22. Two parallel SHMs have equations
outside of large soap bubble, in metres is y1 = al sin(ωt + 2π) and y2 = a2 sin(ωt +
4π).
a) 1.3 × 10-2 b) 3.3 × 10-2 The amplitude of the resultant is
c) 2.2 × 10-2 d) 4.5 × 10-2 a) ±(a1 + a2) b) ±(a1 - a2)
16. When a gas is in thermal equilibrium, its c) d)
molecules have 21. A parallel plate air condenser of capacity
a) zero energy. 10 μF is charged to a potential of 1000 V.
b) the same energy. The energy of the condenser is
c) a certain constant energy. a) 5 J b) 4 J
d) different energies which remain c) 2.5J d) 10 J
constant. 24. An electric dipole consists of two opposite

2 | Page
 charges each 0.05 μC separated by 30 mm. The work done by the system is
The dipole is placed in an uniform external a) P0V0
electric field of 106 NC-1. The maximum
b) 2P0V0
torque exerted by the field on the dipole is
a) 6 × 10 Nm
−3
b) 3 × 10-3 Nm
c)
c) 15 × 10-3 Nm d) 1.5 × 10-3 Nm
d) zero
25. How the linear velocity ‘v’ of an electron
in the Bohr orbit is related to its quantum 30. A circular coil has 150 turns and a mean
number ‘n’? diameter of 20 cm. It carries a current of
10 A. What is the strength of the magnetic
a) b) field at a point on its axis at a distance of 5
m from the centre of the coil?
c) d) v ∝ n a) 4π × 10-7 T b) 2.4π × 10-7 T
26. The kinetic energy of the most energetic
c) 4π × 10-8 T d) 2.4π × 10-8 T
photoelectron emitted from a metal surface
is doubled when the wavelength of the 31. Faraday’s law is the consequence of
incident radiation is reduced from λ 1 to λ2. conservation of
The work function of the metal is a) energy.
b) energy and magnetic field.
c) charge.
(a)
d) magnetic field.
32. In an LCR circuit, at resonance
(b) a) the current is minimum.
b) the current and voltage are in phase.
(c) c) the current leads the voltage by π/2.
d) the impedance is maximum.
33. In a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor
(d)
impurity produces an energy level
27. When the observer moves towards the
a) just below the valence band.
stationary source with velocity, ‘V1’, the
apparent frequency of emitted note is ‘F1’. b) just below the conduction band.
When the observer moves away from the c) just above the conduction band.
source with velocity ‘V1’, the apparent d) just above the valence band.
frequency is ‘F2’. If ‘V’ is the velocity of 34. If two tuning forks A and B are sounded
together, they produce 4 beats per second.
When A is slightly loaded with wax, they
sound in air and then =?
produce 2 beats when sounded again. The
frequency of A is 256 Hz. The frequency
a) 2 b) of B will be
a) 250 Hz b) 252 Hz
c) 260 Hz d) 262 Hz
c) d) 5
35. Two particles A and B are located at
28. The radius of a soap bubble is blown up to
distances rA and rB respectively from the
double its value under isothermal
centre of a rotating disc such that r A > rB.
conditions. If ‘r’ be the initial radius of
In this case, if angular velocity to of
bubble, and T be the surface tension, then
rotation is constant, then
energy spent in doubling the radius is
a) both A and B do not have any
a) 4πr2T b) 8πr2T
2
c) 16πr T d) 24πr2T acceleration.
29. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic b) both A and B have same acceleration.
process ABCDA as shown in the figure. c) A has greater acceleration than B.

3 | Page
d) B has greater acceleration than A. the pipe is zero.
36. The capacity of the conductor does not c) the magnetic field is zero only on the
depend upon axis of the pipe.
a) charge. d) the magnetic field is different at
b) voltage.
different points inside the pipe.
c) nature of the material.
d) all of these. 43. The pointer of a dead-beat galvanometer
37. The current which flows in a galvanometer gives a steady deflection because
of Wheatstone bridge is directly a) eddy currents are produced in the
proportional to conducting frame over which the coil
a) the resistance of a battery. is wound.
b) the resistance of the galvanometer. b) its magnet is very strong.
c) value of the unknown resistance. c) its pointer is very light.
d) ratio P/Q of ratio arms. d) its frame is made of ebonite.
38. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have 44. Temperature and Heat are
decay constants 10 λ, and λ. respectively. a) same quantities.
If initially they have the same number of b) different quantities.
nuclei, then the ratio of the number of c) closely related quantities but they are
nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be 1/e after a not same things.
time
d) measured in same unit

a) b)
45. For circuit shown in figure IE = 4 mA, IB =
c) d) 40 μA. What are the values of α and Ic
39. A 4.5 cm long needle is placed 10 cm respectively?
away from a convex mirror of focal length a) 0.99, 3.96 mA
16 cm. Locate the image of the needle b) 0.97, 4.04 mA
from the mirror. c) 1.01, 3.96 mA
a) + 4.5 cm b) + 6.2 cm
d) 0.99, 4.04 mA
c) - 4.5 cm d) - 6.2 cm
40. Number of molecules in 100 cc of a gas at 46. Two waves having the same amplitude and
N.T.P. is …………. , if mass of each frequency overlap near a point. The ratio
of the intensities when the two waves
molecule is 4.556 × 10-25 kg and R.M.S. arrive in phase to that when they arrive 90°
speed is 250 m/s. out of phase is
a) 5.4 × 1019 b) 1.05 × 1021 a) 1 : 1 b) :1
c) 2 : 1 d) 4 : 1
c) 5.4 × 1018 d) 1.05 × 1020 47. A stone of mass 1 kg is rotated in a
41. Which of the following is not a property of horizontal circle of radius 0.5 m. If it
light?
a) It requires a material medium for makes rps, then its angular momentum
propagation. is
b) It can travel through vacuum. a) 50 kg m2 s-1
c) It involves transportation of energy. b) 2.5 × 10-3 kg m2 s-1
d) It has finite speed.
42. A current I flows along the length of an c) 5π2 × 10-3 kg m2 s-1
infinitely long, straight and thin-walled
pipe. Then d) 800 kg m2 s-1
a) the magnetic field at all points inside 48. A sphere of radius I cm has potential of
the pipe is the same but not zero. 10000 V. The energy per unit volume near
b) the magnetic field at any point inside surface of a sphere of radius 0.02 m and

4 | Page
 maintained at a potential of 103 V is (c) Ampere
a) 1.1 × 105 J/m3
(d) Kelvin (K)
55. An organic compound containing carbon,
b) 1.1 × 10 J/m
2 3 hydrogen and oxygen is soluble in dil.
H2SO4 and does not react with sodium
c) 1.1 × 1 0-5J/m3 metal or KMn04. When it is heated with
HI in excess, a single alkyl halide is
d) 1.1 × 10-2 J/m3 obtained. The original compound can be
49. An ammeter having resistance Ro is
converted into an ammeter of range nI. (a) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - OH
The effective resistance of the instrument (b) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CHO
is (c) CH3 - CH2 - O - CH2 - CH3
(d) CH3 - O - CH2 - CH3
a) b) 56. ............... will NOT undergo acetylation.
(a) (CH3)2NH (b) (C2H5)3N
(c) CH3NH2 (d) (C6H5)2NH
c) d) Ro(n - 1) 57. Gas ‘X’ is prepared by treating sodium
50. A radioactive substance of half-life 69.3 sulfite with dilute sulfuric acid. When gas
days is kept in a container. The time in ‘X’ is oxidised by dioxygen in presence of
which 80% of the substance will vanadium(V) oxide, gas ‘Y’ is formed.
disintegrate will be Identify X and Y.
[take ln(5) = 1.61] (a) H2S, SO2 (b) SO2, SO3
a) 1.61 days b) 16.1 days (c) SO3, SO2 (d) H2S, SO3
c) 161 days d) 1610 days
58. In a reaction 2A+ P → A2P, the reactant
‘A’ disappears at .
CHEMISTRY (a) half the rate as that of disappearance
of P
51. The CORRECT relationship between heat
of fusion (ΔfusH), heat of vapourization (b) same rate as that of disappearance of P
(ΔvapH) and heat of sublimation (ΔsubH) is (c) same rate as formation of A2P
(a) ΔfusH = ΔvapH + ΔsubH (d) twice the rate of formation of A2P
(b) ΔvapH = AfusH + ΔsubH 59. The energy associated with the first orbit
(c) ΔsubH = ΔfusH + AvapH of He+ is ............... J.
-18
(d) ΔsubH = ΔvapH - AfusH (a) - 2.18 × 10 (b) - 0.54 × 10 18
52. Which of the following statements is (c) - 8.72 × 1018 (d) - 4.69 × 10 18
INCORRECT? 60. Alkynes when passed through warm 40%
(a) LiCl and MgC12 are soluble in ethanol. H2SO4 in the presence of ............... , gives
(b) LiC1 and MgC12 form corresponding corresponding aldehydes/ketones.
hydrates on crystallization from their (a) 1% HgSO4 (b) 2% HgSO4
aqueous solutions. (c) 3% HgSO4 (d) 4% HgSO4
(c) Li2O and MgO form super oxides on 61. The normal boiling point of ethyl acetate is
reaction with excess of O2. 77.06 °C. A solution of 50 g of a
(d) Li and Mg form corresponding nonvolatile solute in 150 g of ethyl acetate
nitrides on reaction with N2. boils at 84.27 °C. The molar mass of
53. ................ is used for treatment of lead solute is .................
poisoning. (Kb for ethyl acetate is 2.77 °C kg mol-1.)
(a) K[Ag(CN)2] (a) 64 g mol-1 (b) 256 g mo1-1
(b) Cisplatin (c) 128 g mol -1
(d) 100 g mol-1
(c) EDTA 62. Thin films, layers and coatings are
(d) Ethylenediamine examples of ............... nanostructures.
54. The SI unit of Luminous intensity is . (a) zero-dimensional
(a) Candela (Cd) (b) one-dimensional
(b) metre
(c) two-dimensional
5 | Page
 (d) three-dimensional (c) their , melting points are higher than
63. Which of the following is the simplest the pure metals
amino acid? (d) they are poor conductors of heat and
(a) valeric acid (b) glycine electricity
(c) alanine (d) leucine
72. In Clemmensen’s reaction, ketone
64. The carbonyl compound required for the
gives ...............
preparation of cyclohexylmethanol in
(a) alcohol (b) alkane
presence of suitable Grignard reagent
(c) alkyne (d) alkene
is ...............
73. In ABCABC type arrangement of spheres,
(a) methanal (b) ethanal
the coordination number of any sphere
(c) propanone (d) cyclohexanone
is ...............
65. Select the INCORRECT statement
(a) 6 (b) 8
regarding galvanic cell notation.
(c) 10 (d) 12
(a) A double vertical line between two
74. The sum of oxidation states of all atoms in
solutions indicates that they are SnO22- and CO2 are ............... respectively.
connected by salt bridge. (a) 0 and - 1 (b) -2 and -1
(b) The right hand side electrode is anode (c) -2 and -2 (d) -2 and 0
and left hand side electrode is cathode. 75. If 1 mole of ................ is added to 1 dm3 of
(c) A single vertical line between two water, the boiling point of water will
decrease.
phases indicates the direct contact
(a) methyl alcohol
between them. (b) sucrose
(d) The aqueous solutions of ions are (c) NaC1
placed at the middle of the cell (d) glucose
formula. 76. Select the CORRECT statement regarding
66. Zinc forms hcp structure. What is the adsorption of gases on solids.
number of tetrahedral voids formed in 0.3 (a) The extent of adsorption decreases
mol of it? with increase in surface area of
(a) 1.2 × 1023 (b) 1.8 × 1 023 adsorbent.
(c) 2.4 × 1023 (d) 3.6 × 1023 (b) Gases having low critical temperature
67. Which is NOT present in Grignard liquefy easily and can readily be
reagent? adsorbed.
(a) Alkyl group (b) Magnesium (c) The amount of gas adsorbed is directly
(c) Halogen (d) -COOH group proportional to temperature.
68. The bond angle is minimum in (d) At very high pressures, the extent of
(a) CH4 (b) BH3 adsorption becomes independent of the
(c) SO2 (d) C1F3 pressure.
69. Which is the most common oxidation state 77. Which of the following will have lowest
for thorium in its compounds? value of electronegativity?
(a) +2 (b) +3 (a) Cl (b) F
(c) +4 (d) +5 (c) Br (d) I
70. Identify semisynthetic polymer. 78. Which of the following carboxylic acids
(a) Orlon will have the highest acidity?
(b) Cellulose nitrate (a) o-Nitrobenzoic acid
(b) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
(c) Linen
(c) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
(d) Silk (d) Benzoic acid
71. The statement that is INCORRECT about 79. The coordination number of central metal
the interstitial compounds is: atom/ion in a complex is ................
(a) their chemical properties are similar to (a) the number of only the monodentate
the parent metal ligands directly attached to it
(b) their densities are less than the parent (b) the number of ligand donor atoms
metal directly attached to it
6 | Page
 (c) the number of only the anionic ligands (b) At a constant temperature, the pressure
directly attached to it is directly proportional to the volume
(d) twice the number of neutral ligands on a gas.
directly attached to it (c) At a constant pressure, the volume is
80. The order of the reaction occurring by inversely proportional to the
following mechanism should be temperature of a gas.
(i) A2 + B2 → AB2 + A (slow) (d) At a constant volume, pressure is
(0) A + B2 → AB2 (fast) inversely proportional to the
temperature of a gas.
87. Which of the following carbocation is the
(a) 1 (b) 3 most stable?
(c) 2 (d) 3 (a) CH3
81. If mole fraction of the solvent in a solution
⎜
decreases, then ................
CH3 - C - CH2
(a) vapour pressure of solution increases
⎜
(b) boiling point decreases
CH3
(c) osmotic pressure decreases
(d) freezing point decreases +
82. The enthalpy change for two reactions are (b) CH3 - CH2 - CH - CH2
given by the equations ⎜
2Cr(s) + 1.5 O2(g) → Cr2O3(s) ; CH3
ΔH1 = -1130 kJ ....(i) +
C(s) + 0.5 O2(g) → CO(g) ; (c) CH3 - C - CH2- CH3
ΔH2 = -110 kJ ....(ii) ⎜
What is the enthalpy change, in kJ, for the CH3
following reaction? +
3C(g) + Cr2O3(s) 2Cr(s) + 3CO(g) ; (d) CH3 - CH2 - C -CH3
(a) -1460 (b) 1460 ⎜
(c) -800 (d) 800 H
83. The oxidation state of halogen atom in 88. Which of the following salts do not
perhalic acid and hypohalous acid are undergo hydrolysis?
respectively i. CH3COONa ii. CuSO4
(a) +1, +5 (b) +7, +1 iii. NaC1 iv. NH4NO3
(c) +7, +3 (d) +5, +1 v. K2SO4
84. Alkaline hydrolysis of which among the (a) i and ii (b) i, ii and v
following compounds leads to the (c) iii and v (d) iii, iv and v
formation of a racemate? 89. For the first order reaction, plot of logio
(a) 2-Chloro-2-phenylbutane against time ‘t’ is a straight line with a
(b) 1-Chlorobutane negative slope equal to
(c) 1-Chloropropane
(d) Bromomethane (a) - 2.303 k (b)
85. Which of the following reactions is
appropriate for converting benzamide to
aniline? (c) (d)
(a) Hofmann bromamide degradation 90. Which of the following is a hetero-
(b) Mendius reduction’ aromatic benzenoid compound?
(c) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(d) Ammonolysis reaction
(a) (b)
86. For a given mass of an ideal gas, which of
the following statements is CORRECT?
(a) At a constant temperature, the pressure
(c) (d)
is directly proportional to the density
of a gas.

7 | Page
 CORRECT?
91. Which one of the following has AS° (a) TeO2 serves as a reducing agent.
greater than zero? (b) PbC12 is more covalent than PbC14.
(a) CaO(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ CaCO3(s) (c) SeO3 is amphoteric in nature.
(b) NaCl(aq) ⇌ NaCl(s) (d) SeF4 has sp3d hybridization.
(c) NaNO3(s) ⇌ Na+(aq) + NO+3(aq) 100. The pH of a monoacidic weak base is 11.5.
(d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) The concentration of OW ions in this
92. The number of lone pair of electrons solution is ................ M.
present on central atom in the interhalogen (a) 10-2.5
XX’3 molecule: (b) 10-45
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 10-70
(c) 2 (d) 3 (d) 10-11.5
93. Phenoxide ion is more stable than phenol
due to the BIOLOGY
(a) resonating structures of benzene ring
(b) delocalisation of positive charge in 101. …………. refers to the transmission of
phenoxide ion genetic information from parental
(c) delocalisation of negative charge in generation to next generation.
phenoxide ion a) Variation b) Heredity
(d) negative charge on oxygen atom c) Hybridization d) Crossing over
94. Which of the following has completely 102. …………. were used by Friedrich
filled d orbital in its ground state? Miescher for his experiments.
(a) Ti (b) Fe a) RBCs b) Platelets
(c) Zn (d) Cr c) WBCs d) Nerve cells
0. Epiphytic plants like orchids absorb water
95. The reduction potential of a half-cell vapours from air with the help of epiphytic
consisting of nickel electrode in 0.1 M roots having special tissue called
NiSO4 solution at 25 °C is ................
a) phloem b) velamen
(E° = -0.257 V)
c) lenticels d) hydathodes
(a) -0.2274V
1. Which class of the following
(b) 0.1978 V
(c) -0.2866V phytohormone does kinetin belong to?
(d) -0.3162 V a) ABA b) Gibberellin
96. What is the IUPAC name of a-methyl c) Auxin d) Cytokinin
butyraldehyde? 105. …………. refers to a biochemical process
(a) Pentanal of oxidation of organic compounds in an
(b) 3-Methylbutanal orderly manner for the liberation of
(c) 2-Methylbutanal chemical energy in the form of ATP.
(d) Methylbutanal a) Transpiration b) Respiration
97. In ethers, two C - O sigma bonds are c) Transcription d) Reduction
formed by ................ overlap. 106. Which of the following is CORRECT with
(a) sp - sp respect to biofortification?
(b) sp2 - sp2 a) It is a method of developing disease
(c) sp2 - sp3 resistance crops.
(d) sp3 sp3 b) It is a method of breeding crops to
98. The INCORRECT match for complex with increase nutritional value.
its geometry is: c) It is a method of developing semi-
(a) [Ni(CN)4]2 : square planar
dwarf crops.
(b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ : octahedral
d) It is a method of developing insect
(c) [CoF6]3- : octahedral
resistance crops.
(d) [Ni(C1)4]2- : square planar
107. …………. refers to the development and .
99. Which of the following statements are utilization of biological forms, products or
8 | Page
 processes for obtaining maximum benefits both natural selection as well as mutation?
to man and other forms of life. a) Modern synthetic theory of evolution
a) Botany b) Biotechnology b) Theory of biogenesis
c) Zoology d) Nanotechnology c) Theory of panspermia
108. By which of the following process
d) Theory of special creation
formation of glycosidic bond occurs?
a) Oxidation b) Isomerization 115. Diffuse type of nervous system is found in
c) Cohdensation d) Reduction a) Hydra b) Planaria
109. Respiration refers to c) Vertebrates d) Sponges
a) a reduction process that uses oxygen, 116. ………. is a foreign substance capable of
stimulating an immune response.
produces carbon dioxide and converts
a) Antigen b) Paratope
released energy into ATP c) APC d) Antibody
b) an anabolic process that uses oxygen 117. Identify the correct sequence of ecological
and carbon dioxide to form ATP hierarchy?
c) a catabolic process that uses carbon, a) Population
dioxide, produces oxygen and converts →Organisms→Community Biome
released energy to ATP b) Biome→Community→Organisms→
d) a catabolic process wherein complex
organic substrate is oxidized to simple Population
components to generate biological c) Organisms→Population→Biome→
energy. Community
110. Which of the following is diploid at the
d) Organisms→Population→Communit
time of fertilization in a gametophyte of a
normal angiosperm? y→ Biome
a) Antipodal cell and synergids 118. What is the term used to denote the
b) Generative cell gradual and predictable change in the
c) Secondary nucleus species composition of a given area?
d) Prothalial cell/vegetative cell a) Ecological succession
111. Identify the process in which complex, b) Stratification
c) Zonation
non-diffusible and non-absorbable food
d) Speciation
substances are converted into simple, 119. Correlate the following.
diffusible and assimilable substances. Intraspecific diversity: Genetic diversity::
a) Assimilation b) Egestion Interspecific diversity:
c) Digestion d) Ingestion a) Species diversity
112. Identify the INCORRECT match. b) Ecological diversity
a) Potassium - Urine c) Allelic diversity
b) Carbon dioxide - Lungs d) Ecosystem diversity
c) Vitamins - Urine 120. …………. is interaction between two
d) Volatile substances in spices - Sweat alleles which are present on the same gene
113. Which organs/ glands produce eggs and locus of two homologous chromosomes.
sperms? a) Intragenic interaction
a) accessory sex glands - Cowper’s gland b) Intergenic interaction
in males and Vestibular gland in c) Non-allelic interaction
females d) Both a) and b)
b) accessory sex glands - testis in males 121. Which of the following is the CORRECT
and ovary in females statement with respect to formation of
c) primary sex organs - testis in males nucleosome?
and ovary in females a) The positively charged DNA molecule
d) secondary sex organs - testis in males is wrapped around the negatively
and ovary in females charged histone tetramer.
114. Which theory provides explanation for b) The positively charged DNA molecule
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 is wrapped around negatively charged c) Phosphorylation is the formation of
histone octamer. ATP, by addition inorganic phosphate
c) The neutral histone octamer is wrapped to ADP.
around negatively charged DNA d) Phosphorylation is the formation of
molecule. GTP, by addition inorganic phosphate
d) The negatively charged DNA is to AMP.
wrapped around the positively charged 129. Where does the endothecium layer of
histone octamer anther lobes is present?
122. Identify the type of water that is available a) In the middle region
to the plants. b) Inner to epidermis
a) Combined water c) Outside the epidermis
b) Gravitational water d) In the innermost region
c) Hygroscopic water 30. The amount of heat liberated by
d) Capillary water combustion of 1 g. of food in a bomb
123. Why are gibberellins used to promote seed calorimeter is called
germination in monocotyledons? a) calorie
a) They induce dedifferentiation. b) gross calorific value /gross energy
c) physiological value
b) They produce hydrolysing enzymes.
d) heat energy
c) They induce cell division. 131. The point where the ureter arises from the
d) They soften the seed coat. kidney to where it opens into the urinary
124. …………. is the uppermost part of bladder is about …………. cm.
pharynx. a) 25 - 30 b) 50 - 70
a) Laryngo-pharynx b) Oro-pharynx c) 30 - 40 d) 10 - 20
c) Naso-pharynx d) Vestibule 132. What is the other term used for fallopian
125. Identify the example/ of biofortification tube?
from the following. a) Endometrium b) Fundus
a) Vitamin C - biofortification of bitter c) Oviduct d) Uterus
gourd, tomato 133. Which of the following is TRUE for
b) Vitamin A - biofortification of carrot zygote mortality?
and spinach a) Egg is fertilized and zygote is formed.
b) Sperm transfer takes place but egg is
c) Amino acid- biofortification of Maize
not fertilized.
d) All of these c) Egg is fertilized but zygote dies.
126. Which of the following term represents d) Hybrids are sterile.
pairing of primers to the ssDNA segment 134. Neurotransmitters are removed from
during PCR? synaptic cleft by ……… after transmission
a) Annealing b) Polymerisation of impulse.
c) Denaturation d) De-annealing a) calcium channels
127. ………….. refers to enzymes that act at a b) hormones
site far away from the site of its synthesis. c) cholinesterase
a) Endoenzymes b) Coenzymes d) astrocytes
c) Apoenzymes d) Exoenzymes 135. …………. is released during rupture of
128. Identify the statement that correctly oocyst of malarial parasite.
describes phosphorylation. a) Gametocytes b) Sporozoites
a) Phosphorylation is the formation of c) Hepatocyst d) Ookinete
136. Identify the type of growth in the given
AMP, by addition inorganic phosphate
figure of age pyramid.
to ADP.
b) Phosphorylation is the formation of
ADP, by addition inorganic phosphate
to ATP.

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 d) Alveoli
144. Identify the CORRECT statement/s.
a) Some mushrooms and truffles produce
a Zero b) Slow edible fruiting bodies.
c) Negative d) Rapid b) Some . mushrooms and truffles have
137. What is the sum total of all the population fruiting bodies that are rich in proteins,
in a given habitat? vitamins, minerals and amino acids.
a) Community c) Some mushrooms and truffles contain
b) Adaptations fruiting bodies that are sugar and fat
c) Biological interactions free.
d) Ecosystem d) All of these
138. Acronym for 1UCN is 145. Vectors are …………. molecules that
a) International Union for Conservation carry a foreign gene and replicate inside
of Nature and Natural Resources. the host cell.
b) International Union for Conservation a) lipid b) protein
of Natural habitat. c) DNA d) RNA
c) International Union for Conservation 146. …………. is NOT a simple protein.
of Nature. a) Albumin b) Histone
d) International Union for Conservation c) Haemoglobin d) Both b) and c)
of Natural Resources. 147. From the following identify the correct
139. Identify the scientists who proposed description of anaerobic respiration.
chromosomal theory of inheritance. a) It is the substrate level
a) Mendel dephosphorylation that does not
b) Norman Borlaug involve atmospheric oxygen.
c) Sutton and Boveri b) It is the extracellular anabolic process
d) Watson and Crick that involves atmospheric oxygen.
140. DNA replication begins at specific sites c) It is the cellular respiration that does
situated on the molecule. Such sites are not involve atmospheric oxygen.
called d) It is the extracellular respiration that
a) origin points b) unzipping sites involves atmospheric oxygen.
c) binding sites d) unwinding sites 148. The intine of a pollen grain is made up of
141. From the following which is NOT a which of the following?
property of water? a) Cellulose and pectin
a) It is a best transporting medium for b) Lignin and cutin
dissolved minerals and food molecules. c) Pectin and lignin
b) It provides energy necessary for most d) Lipid and protein
of the chemical reactions. 149. The crown of the tooth is covered by the
c) It is a best aqueous medium for all hardest substance of the body called the
biochemical reactions occurring in the a) dentine b) pulp
cells. c) enamel d) dental tubules
d) It is a best solvent for most of the 150. If a person is sweating and does not drink
solutes. enough water, the concentration of urine is
ATP provides energy necessary for most likely to be …………. mOsm/L.
of the chemical reactions and not a) 300 b) 1200
water. c) 50 d) 100
142. Among the following which is a natural 151. During which phase of the menstrual cycle
auxin? does ‘the endometrium thicken up to 8-10
a) NAA b) 2,4 D mm?
c) 2, 4, 5 - T d) IAA a) Follicular phase
143. Into which of the following does the b) Secretory phase
terminal bronchiole end? . c) Proliferative phase
a) Tertiary bronchioles
d) Menstrual phase
b) Bronchi
c) Primary bronchiole 152. Identify the INCORRECT statement.

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 a) White winged moths camouflaged well A Molluscs Other Crustaceans Insects
animals
with the lichen covered trees. group
b) Black sooty smoke made black winged B Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other
moths easy victims for predatory birds. animals
groups
c) Industrial revolution was an advantage C Insects Crustaceans Other Molluscs
for black winged moths. animal
d) After industrial revolution the number groups
D Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other
of white winged moths reduced animal
drastically. groups
153. Which lobe is responsible for somaesthetic 157. Which of the following refers to tendency
sensation of pain? of genes to inherit together?
a) Occipital lobe b) Parietal lobe a) Crossing over b) Chiasmata
c) Temporal lobe d) Frontal lobe c) Synapsis d) Linkage
154. Identify the correct set of antiretroviral 158. …………. refers to the process of copying
drugs for AIDS. of genetic information from one (template)
a) Efavirenz, Lamivudine, Tenofovir strand of DNA into a single stranded RNA
b) Fluconazole, Itraconazole, Nystatin transcript. a) Translocation b)
c) Chloromycetin, Diethylcarbamazine, Transcription c) Transformation d)
Translation
Nystatin
159. …………. refers to water present in the
d) Penicillin, Chloramphenicol, form of hydrated oxides of silicon,
Atripicillin aluminium, etc.
155. All of the following are true with respect a) Hygroscopic water
to b) Chemical water
Opuntia, EXCEPT c) Combined water
a) Stomata remains closed during day d) Capillary water
time. 160. In plant tissue culture auxin is used for
b) Leaf spines perform the function of ………….
a) root initiation
photosynthesis.
b) ripening of fruits
c) Opuntia show CAM pathway. c) delayed senescence
d) Leaves are reduced to spines. d) leaf senescence
In Opuntia, flattened stem performs the 161. Which of the following is CORRECT with
function of photosynthesis. respect to vital capacity?
a) It is the maximum amount of air that
156. Extent of global diversity of invertebrates can be breathed out after a maximum
is shown in the pie diagram below. Choose inspiration.
the most appropriate alternative that the b) It is the volume of air inspired or
four portions (a-d) represent. expired during normal breathing.
c) It is about 1100 to 1500 mL
d) It is the sum total of TV, ERV and RV.

162. Which of the following is known as

brewer’s yeast?
a) Aspergillus niger
b) Propionibacterium shermanii
c) Penicillium roqueforti
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
163. Insect resistant plants contain either a gene
from B. thuringiensis or the ………….
a) Aspergillus niger
b) cowpea trypsin inhibitor gene
a b c d c) Acetobacter aceti
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 d) Rhizopus arrhizus c) Thermal springs, and compost pits
164. Repeating units of chromatin are known as d) Rainforests, Deserts, Thermal springs
a) nucleosomes b) nucleoids and Compost pits
c) nucleosides d) nucleoplasm 173. …………. refers to transmission of body
165. Identify the CORRECT statements with characters other than the sex linked traits
respect to aerobic respiration. from parents to their offsprings through
a) It involves glycolysis, acetyl CoA autosomes.
formation, Krebs cycle, electron a) Polygenic inheritance
transfer chain reaction and terminal b) Incomplete inheritance
oxidation. c) Autosomal inheritance
b) It involves complete oxidation of d) Sex linked inheritance
glucose to CO2 and .H2O with release 174. From the following identify the features of
of large amount of energy. “Genetic code”.
c) It occurs in the presence of free (i) It is a triplet or three letter code.
molecular oxygen. (ii) The code is overlapping.
d) All of the above (iii) The code is commaless.
166. In which of the following manner the (iv) The genetic code was deciphered by
arrangement of megaspores in a tetrad is Watson and Crick
observed in angiosperms? a) The statements (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
a) Isobilateral b) Tetrahedral but (iv) is wrong.
c) Linear d) Decussate b) The statements (i) and (iii) are correct,
167. Match the Column I with Column II and but (ii) and (iv) are wrong.
select the correct option. c) All are wrong.
Column A Column B d) All are correct.
i Heterodont A Teeth embedded in 175. Approximately what percent of carbon
separate sockets in dioxide released by tissue cells diffuses
jaw bone into the plasma and then into RBCs?
ii Diphyodont b Four sets of teeth a) 7% b) 30%
iii Thecodont c Two sets of teeth in c) 10% d) 70%
lifetime 176. Study the following statements regarding
a) i - a, ii - b, iii - c proteins that are being produced by
b) i- c, ii - a, iii - b transgenic crop plants and select the
c) i - b, ii - c, iii - a correct option.
d) i - c, ii - b, iii - a i. Human testosterone hormone is produced
168. Glucose is reabsorbed from the glomerular by gene inserted into the chloroplast DNA
filtrate mainly in the of tobacco plants.
a) collecting tube ii. Protein antigens to be used in vaccines for
b) loop of Henle e.g. Patient-specific antilymphoma (a
c) proximal convoluted tubule cancer) vaccines.
d) distal convoluted tubule 0. In transgenic plants, Humanized antibodies
169. Which of the following is a hormone can be produced against HIV, Respiratory
releasing IUD? syncytial virus (RSV), Herpes simplex
a) Cu7 b) Cu-T virus (HSV).
c) Multiload 375 d) LNG-20 a) ii and iii are correct.
170. The ‘eye muscles’ are controlled by which b) i, ii and iii are correct.
cranial nerves? c) i and iii are correct
a) III, V and VII b) IV, V and VII d) i and ii are correct.
c) III, IV and VI d) III, IV and V 177. From the following identify an example of
171. Sensitized helper T-cells produce disaccharides.
a) lymphokines b) lysine a) Fructose b) Sedoheptulose
c) perforins d) lysozyme c) Erythrose d) Maltose
172. Identify the correct set of biomes. 178. For which of the following reasons
a) Rainforests, Deserts, Thermal springs stepwise cellular respiration is useful?
b) Rainforests and Deserts a) The energy produced can be regulated
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 according to needs. a) mother to daughter
b) The wastage of energy is avoided. b) father to daughter
c) It prevents sudden increase in c) father to son
temperature. d) mother to son
d) All of these 186. …………. refers to the mechanism in
179. Identify the term that correctly describes which codons of mRNA are translated and
the transfer of pollen grains through wind. specific amino acids in a sequence form a
a) Ornithophily b) Anemophily polypeptide on ribosomes.
c) Hydrophily d) Entomophily a) Transcription b) Translation
180. Identify the CORRECT combinations in c) Transformation d) Trans location
the given table. 187. By which of the following emphysema is
Part or Location Function characterized?
nephrun a) Breakdown of alveoli
i Malpighian Cortex Filtering b) Constriction of bronchioles
body blood c) Inflammation of larynx
ii Proximal Cortex Absorption of d) Inflammation of trachea
convoluted useful 188. Which of the following induces pollen
tubule substances germination and tube growth in vitro?
ii Distal Only Absorption of a) Abscisic acid b) Sucrose
convoluted Medulla urea by action c) Conc. H2SO4 d) Dilute HCl
tubule of ADH 189. The human kidney is histologically
i Collecting Either Collection of divided into
duct Cortex or urine a) outer renal cortex and inner pith
Medulla b) outer cortex and inner medulla
a) i, ii b) ii, iii c) outer fascia and inner medulla
c) iii, iv d) i, iv d) outer pelvis and inner cortex
181. Complete the analogy. 190. How many ovum are formed when a
1 primary spermatocyte : 4 diploid cell undergoes meiosis, during
spermatozoa” :: 1 primary oocyte : oogenesis?
a) 2 ova b) 1 ovum a) 1 b) 4
c) 4 ova d) 16 ova c) 3 d) 2
0. Downward extension of …………. is 191. Which hormone is responsible for the
called neurohypophysis. reabsorption of Na+, and water?
a) hypothalamus b) thalamus a) Aldosterone b) Vasopressin
c) diencephalon d) thyroid gland c) Adrenaline d) Testosterone
1. Which type of cells are responsible for 192. Genetic material in HIV is in the form of
humoral immunity? a) ds RNA b) ss RNA
a) B-lymphocytes b) T-lymphocytes c) ds DNA d) ss DNA
c) Neutrophils d) Both a) and b) 193. The criss-cross pattern of inheritance is
2. Complete the given analogy. observed in
Mortality: No. of deaths in a population a) haemophilia
during a given period:: Emigration: b) colour blindness
…………. c) hypertrichosis
a) No. of individuals who have left the d) both a) and b)
particular habitat at a given period of 194. Which of the following gene is responsible
time. for the synthesis of repressor in operon?
b) No. of births during a given period in a a) Promoter gene b) Structural gene
population. c) Regulator gene d) Operator gene
c) No. of individuals of same species who 195. Identify the TRUE statements regarding
have come into a particular habitat in a plasma.
given time. a) It contains 7 to 8 % proteins.
d) None of these b) It contains 1 % inorganic solutes.
185. Inheritance of hypertrichosis occurs c) It is straw coloured.
directly from d) All of the above
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196. Which of the following happens during
triple fusion?
a) Fusion of two eggs with a male gamete
b) Fusion of two antipodals with male
gametes
c) Fusion of two male gametes with one
egg
d) Fusion of one male gamete with
secondary nucleus
197. Which of the following are known as the
nourishing cells present in the
seminiferoiis tubules?
a) Spermatogonia
b) Leydig cells
c) Sertoli cells
d) Follicular cells
198. Branches of which nerve innervate the
parotid salivary glands?
a) Facial
b) Spinal accessory
c) Vagus
d) Glossopharyngeal
199. Uterine contraction during parturition are
triggered by
a) Prolactin b) Vasopressin
c) Oxytocin d) Relaxin
200. ACTH is
a) Anticorticotropic hormone
b) Adrenalcorticotropic hormone
c) Adrenocorticothyroid hormone
d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

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