Cswip 3.

1-Difficult questions

1a-5. For full penetration single-side butt joint, root bead penetration and profile are a. Root face
mainly influenced by: b. Bevel angle
c. Root gap
d. Included angle

1a-22. The main cause of undercut is: a. Excessive amps

b. Excessive OCV
c. Excessive travel speed
d. Current too low

1a-43. A fusible insert for TIG welding helps: a. Reduce porosity

b. Give controlled root penetration
c. Avoid the need for a back pure
d. By acting as a backing for the root run

2a-13. When carrying out visual inspection from this list, which defect is most likely a. Linear misalignment
to be missed? b. Cap undercut
c. Clustered porosity
d. Cold lap

2a-23. ISO 17637: a. The minimum light illumination required for visual inspection is 350
Lux
b. The minimum light illumination required for visual inspection is 500
Lux

2a-50. Which of the following elements, which may be added to steel, has the greatest a. Tungsten
effect on creep strength? b. Manganese
c. Carbon
d. Molybdenum

3a-12. A large grain size in the HAZ of a C-Mn steel weld joint may have: a. Low ductility
b. Low toughness
c. High toughness
d. High tensile strength

3a-14. The risk of hydrogen cracking is greater when MMA welding: a. C-Mn steels
b. Austenitic stainless steel
c. Low alloy steel for elevated temperature service
d. Low carbon steels for cryogenical service

Page 1 of 24
Cswip 3.1-Difficult questions

3a-27. For GMAW the burn-off rate of the wire is directly related to: a. Stick out length
b. Wire feed speed
c. Arc voltage
d. Travel speed

3a-38. When welding thin plate distortion canbe minimised by: a. Welding from both sides
b. Using U preparations rather than V types
c. Using strongbacks
d. Using back-step welding

4a-6. Preheat temperature: a. May be increased by an increase in travel speed

b. May be increased by a reduction in material thickness
c. May be increased by an increase in electrode diameter
d. None of the above

4a-7. Which of the following properties may be applicable to a carbon steel weld (CE a. Narrow heat affected zone and hardness value in excess of 350 HV
0.48) weld with a fast travel speed without preheat? b. Broad heat affected zone and hardness value in excess of 350 HV
c. A very tough and narrow heat affected zone
d. Narrow heat affected zone and low hardness values

4a-19. Which of the following Isotopes may be used for a 25mm thick steel pipe to a. Ir 192
pipe weld DWSI (In accordance with EN 1435)? b. Co 60
c. Alr 75
d. Yb 169

4a-47. When considering the advantages of site radiography over conventional a. A permanent record, good for detecting lamellar tearing and defect
ultrasonic inspection which of the following applies? b. identification
A permanent record produced, good for detection of all surface and
sub-surface defects and assessing the through thickness depths of
defects
c. Permanent record produced, good for defect identification and not as
reliant upon surface preparation.
d. No controlled areas required on site, a permanent record produced and
good for assessing pipe wall thickness reductions due to internal
corrosion
4a-48. HICC: a. In C-Mn steel is most susceptible in the weld zone
b. Micro alloyed steel (HSLA) is most susceptible in the weld zone
c. Austenitic steel is most susceptible in the weld zone
d. Both a and b are correct statements

4a-50. A welding process where the welding plant controls the travel speed and the a. A manual MAG process
arc gap but under constant supervision using a shielding gas mixture of 80% b. A semi-automatic MAG process
argon - 20% carbon dioxide is termed:
c. A mechanised MIG process
d. A mechanised MAG process

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Cswip 3.1-Difficult questions

Page 3 of 24
CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T09-22. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the a. 200mm
T6-20. surface to the eye should be a maximum of? b. 600mm
c. 60mm b
d. 6000mm

T09-23. What is the recommended minimum range of illumination required by BS a. 90-125 lux
EN 970 for inspection of a welded surface? b. 150-250 lux
c. 350-500 lux c
d. 35-50 lux

T09-1. Who should have access to the WPS? a. NDT operators

b. Inspectors only
c. Welder only d
d. Welder and Inspectors

T5-2. You have noticed several times that a certain welder is having his welds a. None
rejected due to poor cap profile, what course of action would you take? b. None as long as they pass the radiography
c. Dismiss the welder d
d. Suggest a period of retraining followed by a requalification test

T5-8. Who determines what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, a. The welding engineer
included angle) should be? b. The welding supervisor
c. The welder will decide a
d. The inspector will recommend what is suitable

T09-10. Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct a. The QA department
consumable during fabrication? b. Store man and the welder
c. Welding engineer d
d. The welder and the welding inspector

T5-12. Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct a. The welder and the welding inspector
polarity during welding? b. Store man and the welder
c. Welding engineer a
d. The QA department

T09-13. You notice the welders are adjusting the current on the welding set, is this a. Never
allowable? b. The welder has the final say on voltage and current
c. Only if the current is within the range recorded on the WPS c
d. As long as the welder has approval from the welding foreman

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T09-14. What course of action should be taken upon finding a welder using a. Report the incident and record all relevant information
incorrect welding consumable? b. Allow welding to proceed if the workmanship is good
c. None if the tensile strength of the consumable is the same as the
approved one a
d. Change the electrode for the correct type and continue welding

T6-12. Who should have access to the WPQRs? a. NDT operators

b. Inspectors only
c. Welders only d
d. Welding engineer

T09-20. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on a. The contractor's inspector
completion? b. Site manager
c. The welder d
d. The client's inspector or certifying authority

G5-1. A code give the acceptance standard for excess weld metal "h" as h ≤ 1mm a. b = 15 h = 3.0
G09-3. + 0.1b, max. 5mm, where "b" is the width of the weld cap. For which of the b. b = 22 h = 3.0
following situations is the excess weld metal acceptable?
c. b = 28 h = 4.0 b
d. b = 40 h = 5.4

G09-24. A long centreline crack has been detected in a submerged arc weld bead a. Use of a high manganese filler wire
this may be due to: b. Use of a damp flux
c. Weld bead is deep and narrow c
d. Use of too high voltage

G6-24. Which of the following defects will have the more severe effect on the load- a. Undercut
bearing capacity of a weld? b. Incompletely filled groove
c. Irregular width b
d. Excess penetration

T6-37. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick high carbon steel plate with a … a. None I am only inspecting the weld
the weld is visually acceptable, however the parent material has severse … b. Recommend that the area be dressed smooth
the weld approximately 3mm deep, what course of action would you …
c. Recommend that the area be dressed smooth followed by MPI
c
d. High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld
over …

T6-29. Which of these statements are true concerning Lamellar tearing? a. As hydrogen levels increase Lamellar tearing is more likely
b. As material thickness increases ductility decreases making
Lamellar tearing more likely
c
c. Lamellar tearing occurs in the HAZ
d. Lamellar tearing affects all joint types

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions c

G09-20. Which of the following types of imperfection is generally considered to be a. Surface breaking planar
the most serious? b. Root concavity
c. Buried planar a
d. Surface breaking non-planar

G5-22. Burn through may occur because the: a. Current is too high
G09-30. b. Root gap is too small
c. Travel speed is too fast a
d. Current is too low

T5-1. On inspecting a completed 150mm OD pipe weld some small smooth, a. Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small
shallow areas of undercut have been found < 0.25mm deep. The welder b. Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut
says he can quickly put this right by depositing a thin narrow bead along providing the wall thickness remains within the specification
the undercut. In this situation would you? tolerances
b
c. Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50oC above original
d. Cut out the joint and re-weld

T09-60. On inspecting a completed weld which has Charpy impact requirements a. Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small
some small areas of undercut have been found. The welder says he can b. Agree to go ahead with the same preheat as the original weld
quickly put this right by depositing a thin narrow bead along the undercut.
In this situation would you? c. Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50oC above original d
d. Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut

T09-19. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a a. It is the most difficult area to weld
cross country pipeline be important? b. It is the dirtiest part of the pipe as it is near the ground
c. Welders always forget to weld the bottom a
d. It is the most difficult area to radiograph

T09-21. Why is it essential to clean the excess weld metal on completion of the a. So it can be ready for painting
production weld? b. To remove any rust
c. To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT c
d. To remove slag from the undercut

T5-14. During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of a. The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
T09-12. excess penetration? b. Preheat not used
c. The current is too high c
d. Root face is too large

T5-16. At what level is H2 considered to be more critical in cracking? a. Less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
T09-54. b. Between 5 and 10ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
c. Between 10 and 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited d
d. Over 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited

Page 6 of 24
CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T6-57. With regards to Lamellar tearing, a buttering layer will: a. Improve ductility
b. Disperse heat
c. Improve toughness b
d. Improve hardness

T5-21. Lamellar tearing can be detected by which of the following NDE methods? a. Radiography
b. Ultrasonics
c. Eddy current b
d. MPI using AC

G5-2. A fatigue fracture fracture can be indentified (from examination of the a. The presence of beach marks
G09-9. fracture …) b. The presence of plastic deformation
G6-21. c. Being rough and torn a
d. Being flat and rough

G5-8. A steel designated as "Z" quality will have: a. Through thickness ductility > 20%
G09-25. b. Through thickness ductility < 20%
c. Been specially heat treated a
d. Zirconium added to improve weldability

G6-10. Which of the following types of destructive test is sometimes used for a. Hardness test
welder qualification testing b. Fracture test
c. Charpy V notch impact test b
d. CTOD test

T6-8. Which one of these tests would most probably be used for welder a. CTOD
qualificaiton on a plate butt weld using 13mm low carbon steel b. Nick break test
c. Fracture fillet test b
d. IZOD

G5-9. A transverse tensile test piece from a weld joint will give the: a. Tensile strength of the weld
G09-14. b. Tensile strength of the joint
c. Stress/Strain characteristics of the weld d
d. Stress/Strain characteristics of the joint

T5-22. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following a. 50kN/mm2
T09-25. observations were made. The specimen CSA was recorded as 25mm x b. 5500N/mm2
12mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as 150kN. What is the
UTS? c. 500N/mm2 c
d. 50N/mm2

T6-31. In welder qualification testing of 10mm plates, 2 root and 2 face bends a. Accept them as 75% were acceptable, you are allowed one failure
were test … what course of action would you follow?
b. 2 more root bends should be prepared and tested
c. 2 more root and 2 more face bends should be prepared and d
tested
d. Retest the welder

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T5-23. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, a. %A is 50
T09-27. and after the test the increased gauge length was 60mm, what is the b. %A is 20
elongation percentage?
c. %A is 29 b
d. %A is 36

T5-24. Some codes require the excess weld metal (weld cap) on cross weld joint a. Flushed caps will always break in the weld metal area
T09-28. tensile specimens to be flush, this is because: b. This is to remove any porosity in the excess weld metal (weld
cap)
c. It is easier to calculate the cross sectional area of the joint when c
flushed
d. Flushed caps have fewer stress raisers and therefore give a more
accurate result
T6-47. When transverse tensile testing a welded joint the excess weld metal is a. Allow the test piece to fit accurately into the equipment
often removed. This action is done to: b. Reduce stress concentrations to the weld toes
c. Allow strain gauges to be placed over the weld face area b
d. Allow weld metal ductility to be measured

T5-25. In welder qualification testing of 20mm plates, why are side bends used a. They are easier to produce
T09-29. instead of root and face bends: b. The testing equipment cannot handle thick root/face bends
c. Root defects are not important for welder qualification d
d. They give more accurate indications

T5-26. Mechanical tests are divided into two areas, identify these from the list a. Destructive and non destructive tests
T09-30. below: b. Qualitative and quantitative
c. Visual and mechanical b
d. Qualitative and visual

T5-27. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to a. The bends should be considered as falled
T09-31. be 175o. The testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed b. They should be bent to 180o then re-examined
through 180o.
c. They should be acceptable as the reduction in angle is due to
material spring back b
d. They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be
acceptable

T5-28. Charpy testing is carried out on a welding procedure test plate because? a. It gives an indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z
direction)
T09-32. b. The impact test results can be used to verify that the material has
not been adversely affected by the heat of the welding
b
c. It gives an indication of the materials elongation properties
d. It gives a quick indication of the weld quality for welder
qualification tests

T6-48. Charpy impact tests show a 50% rough torn surface and a 50% flat a. Fatigue to brittle
crystalline surface after the completed test, this would indicate which type b. Ductile to brittle
of failure?
c. Ductile with gross yielding b
d. Fatigue to ductile

T09-33. Charpy impact test showing a flat through surface after the completed test, a. Fatigue
this would indicate which type of faiture? b. Ductile
c. Fatigue to ductile d
d. Brittle

T6-49. A STRA test is carried out to determine which of the following? a. A quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification
tests
b. The test results can be used to verify that the material has not
been adversely mechanically damage by the heat during welding
d
c. An indication of the materials' elongation properties
d. An indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z
direction)

T5-29. In a transverse WELD tensile test, if the break was in the Parent material, a. Rejected
T09-26. the sample would be: b. Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS
of the plate
c. Rejected b
d. Acceptable if the UTS is between 80 - 90% of the specified UTS of
the plate

Page 8 of 24
CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T6-39. What unit of measurement is used for Charpy impact test … a. Joules
b. N/mm2
c. kJ a
d. VPN

T6-2. During a transverse tensile test, the first stage the specimen goes through a. Plastic stage
is known as: b. Elastic stage
c. Deformed stage b
d. UTS stage

T5-30. Root and Face bends from an 8mm thick butt weld require testing. The a. 80mm radius
specimens are cut to 20mm wide. The Code calls for a 4t bend. Which one b. 80mm diameter
of the following former should be selected for the testing:
c. 32mm radius d
d. 32mm diameter

G5-10. Which NDT method is associated with Burmah Castrol strips? a. Radiographic testing
G6-1. b. Helium leak testing
c. Magnetic particle testing c
d. Ultrasonic testing

G09-13. Which NDT method is associated with the use of a yoke? a. Radiographic testing
b. Helium leak testing
c. Magnetic particle testing c
d. Ultrasonic testing

Page 9 of 24
CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

G5-11. The penetrating power of an X-ray set is expressed in: a. Curies

G09-26. b. kV
c. IQI values b
d. The number after the isotope type

T5-4. You find out that the contractor has carried out radiography as per the a. As long as the other radiographed butt weld is acceptable its OK
10% contractual percentage required by the specification/Code. The as the 10% contractual percentage required by the
specification also insists that an additional 2 welds are radiographed for specification/Code has been satisfied
every weld that has failed. One of the pipe spools had an unacceptable
defect which the contractor has ignored and radiographed another weld in b. This is usual practice as 10% NDT is not really important
its place which is acceptable, what would your course of action be?
c. Review the original failed weld and insist that they have the d
additional 2 welds radiographed
d. Review the original failed weld and have it repaired,
radiographed. Then I would insist that they have an additional 2
welds radiographed

T5-31. With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both a. Visual
T09-43. surface and slight sub-surface defects up to 2mm below the surface: b. Dye penetrant
c. Magnetic particle using DC c
d. Magnetic particle using AC

T09-44. For MPI using the prods method, which of the following statements is true: a. It may cause arc damage on the specimen material surface
b. It requires fewer operators therefore is easier
c. It can be used with ferritic and non-ferritic materials a
d. It is quicker than using a yoke type electromagnet

T5-32. With the DPI method of inspection, after the contact time has elapsed the a. Spraying the surface with the remover till all dye has gone then
dye should be removed by: wipe with a clean cloth
T09-45. b. Spraying with the developer then wiping with a cloth
c. Wipe clean, using a lint free cloth soaked in a solvent remover c
d. It doesn’t matter how it is done as long as all traces of dye are
removed

T5-33. Which of the following commonly used radio active isotopes has the a. Iridium 192
T09-46. longest half life? b. Cobalt 60
T6-40. c. Thulium 170 b
d. Ytterbium 169

T5-34. A 300mm diameter pipe, 10mm wall thickness is to be radiographically a. It should not be done as the thickness is below that
tested using the double wall single image technique (DWSI). The source to recommended
be used is Iridium 192. Which of the following statements is true?
T09-47. b. It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
c. There is no problem with the technique c
d. Only the double wall, double image technique should be used
with Iridium

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T5-35. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection? a. Its inability to size defects accurately
T6-26. b. The physical size of the equipment
T09-49. c. The skill level of the operators d
d. The harmful effects of ionising radiation

T09-48. Half life is a term used to describe a. The penetrating ability a gamma source
T6-13. b. Half the total time a gamma source will be useful
c. The time taken for the gamma source to reduce its strength by
half c
d. The rate of decay of an X-ray tube

T09-50. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal a. Intergranular corrosion cracking
T6-21. radiographic techniques? b. Porosity
c. Slag a
d. Lack of penetration

T6-43. Which of the following would be most unlikely to be found in a butt welded a. Linear elongated slag inclusions in the root (wagon tracks)
butt joint using … conventional radiographic method of NDT? b. Burn through
c. Lack of sidewall fusion c
d. An elongated gas cavity

T6-19. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual a. Anyone can select …
T09.24. percentage required by the Specification/Code? b. The welder as he knows which …
c. This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
c
d. Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the
use of percentage NDT …

T09-51. For ultrasonic testing, which of the following statements is true? a. It is easy to identify all defects
b. The equipment should be calibrated before use
c. The equipment cannot be automated b
d. Sound waves will not travel through copper

G09-23. Which of the following standards is concerned with welder approval? a. BS EN 499
b. BS EN 288
c. BS EN 22553 d
d. BS EN 287

G6-8. Which of the following standards is concerned with welder approval? a. BS EN ISO 2560
b. BS EN 15614
c. BS EN ISO 22553 d
d. BS EN 287

T6-4. The WPS calls for a root gap to be between 2 and 3mm, the actual a. Accept it as its only 1mm
measured gap is 4mm, … of action would you like? b. Reject it
c. The welder will decide, if it fails it will be his problem
b
d. The welder insists he can weld the butt joint easily so let him go
ahead

Page 11 of 24
CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions b

G5-24. What is the abbreviation for a Welding Procedure Specification that has a. WPS
been written for the purpose of qualifying a Weld Procedure Test weld? b. pWPS
c. uWPS b
d. pWPT

T5-5. How are the lengths of tack welds during assembly and fit up determined? a. By the welders as they have extensive knowledge
T09-3. b. The fabrication specification will give minimum tack length
requirements
b
T5-9. c. The fabrication drawing will give all the information
d. Any length of tack weld will do for assembly

T5-7. What does the term WPS mean? a. Weld productivity specification
T09-6. b. Weld production scheme
c. Welding procedure specification c
d. Work productivity standard

T6-55. What does the term WPQR mean? a. Weld productivity quality review
b. Weld productivity quality requirements
c. Welding procedure qualification record c
d. Work production quantity review

T09-4. Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding? a. Not on a sunny day
b. Only in accordance with the WPS
c. If the quipment is available it must be used b
d. If using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat

T09-5. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before a. The welding consumables
welding? b. The weld root gap
c. PWHT temperature range c
d. The weld preparation

T09-2. How do we determines what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root a. By consulting the WPSs
face, included angle) should be? b. The fabrication drawing will give all the information
c. The welder will decide a
d. The inspectors will recommend what is suitable

T5-10. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before a. The welding consumable
welding? b. The welder qualification
c. Calibration of the welding equipment d
d. The workshop humidity

T5-11. Is it permissible to allow a trainee welder to carry out production welding? a. Never
b. Yes as long as the supervisor is happy with his workmanship
standard
c. Yes as long as he has the approved qualification to cover the a
intended scopr of work
d. Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld

Page 12 of 24
CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T09-17. What information should be recorded as a minimum, on a completed a. Size and type of electrode used
production weld? b. Welding supervisor's name
c. Welder's identification, date and weld number c
d. Welding inspectors name

T09-7. Which standard is used for the basic requirements for visual inspection? a. BS EN 970
b. API 1104
c. BS EN 7079 a
d. BS EN 4515

G6-19. Which standard is used for European welding procedure qualifications? a. ASME IX
b. BS EN ISO 4872
c. BS EN ISO 15614 c
d. BS EN ISO 287

T6-6. A procedure is a document which: a. Specifies the way to carry out an activity or a process
b. Provides binding legistative rules that are adopted by an
authority
c. Specifies which resources shall be applied by whom and when, to
a specific project, product process or contract a
d. A written and verbal description of the precise steps to be
followed

T6-23. Which BS EN standard is used for welding symbols on drawings? a. BS EN 970

b. BS EN287
c. BS EN 22553 c
d. BS EN 4515

T5-50. A document that is established by consensus and approved by a recognised a. Normative document
body and provides, for common and repeated use, guidelines, rules, b. Regulation
characteristics for activities or their results, aimed at the achievement of
the optimum degree of order in a given context is called: c. Specification d
d. Standard

G09-4. A fillet weld has a design throat thickness of 8mm. What is the minimum a. 5.6mm
leg length that is required? b. 11.2mm
c. 11.8mm b
d. It cannot be determined from the information given

G6-25. Which of the following actions can help to prevent the production of a. Switch to AC power
spatter during a welding process b. Use dry electrodes
c. Reduce arc current d
d. All of the above

G09-17. A drawing with symbols to BS EN 22553 will show a 5mm leg filler by a. a5
G6-9. which of the following: b. t5
c. z5 c
d. 5Z

T6-3. Which of the following joint designs is preferred in cyclic loading a. View A
condition?
b. View B
d
c. View C
d. View D

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

G09-5. The number 111 is shown at the tail-end of a weld symbol reference line. a. Welding process
According to BS EN ISO 22553, what does this number indicate? b. Type of welding electrode
c. Welding position a
d. Total weld length

T5-58. According to EN 22553, if the symbol is on the identification line, where a. On both sides
does the weld go? b. On the arrow side
c. Opposite arrow side c
d. It does not matter

T5-59. According to AWS 2.4, where does the symbol go for welding on the arrow a. Below solid line
side? b. Above solid line
T5-60. c. Depends on the joint a
d. Always weld where the arrow is pointing

T5-60. Asymmetrical weld symbols to EN 22553 are: a. The same both sides of the arrow
b. Different each side of the arrow
c. Show fillet welds only b
d. Show butt welds only

T6-60. While making a symbol for a symmetrical fillet weld a. the size does not need not be mentioned
______________________________ b. the length can be mentioned to the left of the symbol
c. the finish is assumed to be flat d
d. the broken line can be omitted

G6-18. Which of the following is normally true? a. Impact energy is specified in N/mm2
b. Heat input is specified in kJ/mm2
c. Yield strength is specified in N/mm2 c
d. Diffusible hydrogen is specified in ml

G6-22. An effective weld metal volume reduction can be achieved … a. Changing from double V to single V
b. Changing from single V to single U
c. Changing from double U to single V b
d. Changing from single J to single V

G5-6. The typical included angle used for MMA welding of a 15mm thick steel a. 30o
G09-27. single "V" butt joint is most likely to be: b. 120o
c. 70o c
d. 90o

G09-16. When measuring arc voltage, where should the measuring … a. Across the terminals of the power source
b. Across the arc and as near as practical to the arc
c. Across the power source positive terminal and earth cable b
d. It does not matter - anywhere in the circuit

G5-28. Which of the following is NOT a fusion welding process? a. Friction welding
G09-28. b. Gas tungsten arc welding
c. Resistance welding a
d. Laser welding

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T09-15. What is the maximum OCV allowable to initiate an arc when using AC a. 1000V
current? b. 10V
c. 90V c
d. 900V

T09-16. Why is the OCV capped at this voltage setting? a. To save electricity
T6-15. b. To prevent exploding of the consumable
c. Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range d
d. To reduce the risk of fatality

T6-34. A typical minimum OCV requirements for MMA (111) using filler rutile a. 40V
electrode … b. 120V
c. 100V d
d. 50V

T6-14. A typical minimum OCV requirements for MMA (111) using basic electrode a. 70V
would be: b. 40V
c. 100V a
d. 20V

T6-45. Heat input can be altered from the original procedure according to a. +10%
EN1011, … b. +20%
c. +25% c
d. +30%

T5-36. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel a. Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
plate. The welding electrode used was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The
measured welding parameters for one of the runs was 220 amps, 21 volts,
T09-34. using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 270mm per min. What would be the arc b. 1.54kJ/mm
c
energy? c. 1.026kJ/mm
d. 2.82kJ/mm

T5-44. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel a. Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
plate. The welding electrode use was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The b. 1.9kJ/mm
measured welding parameters for one of the runs was 250 amps, 24 volts,
using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 180mm per min. What would be the Arc c. 1.87kJ/mm d
energy? d. 2.0kJ/mm

T5-37. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV? a. 10-40V
b. 50-90V
c. 100-140V b
d. 200-240V

T09-35. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV? a. 20V
b. 50V
c. 90V c
d. 240V

T5-38. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was a. None
T09-36. changed from DC+ve to AC b. It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc
c. It would slightly increase the depth of penetration d
d. It would give less penetration

T5-39. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC+ve to DC- a. None
T09-37. ve? b. Greater deposition rate
c. Greater penetration b
d. Less deposition rate

T5-48. Which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic? a. MAG (GMAW)
T09.39. b. Oxy-fuel gas welding
c. Resistance spot welding a
d. SAW using more than 1000 amps

T6-1. How could arc blow be avoided? a. Use AC

b. Use DC+
c. Use DC- a
d. Increase travel speed

T6-41. Which process uses a constant current characteristic? a. MIG/MAG

b. MMA
c. FCAW b

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 Which process uses a constant current characteristic?
CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions
b
d. All processes use this

G6-6. If the maximum inter pass temperature is exceeded in a carbon a. Hardness

manganese butt weld … affected most b. Toughness
c. Fusion b
d. Penetration

G6-7. What is meant by the term duty cycle? a. How long a welder can weld for in a given period
b. The amount of time the electrode is being used
c. The amount of time a welding machine can be used c
d. The amount of electricity being consumed

G6-20. The term manual welding is often used when the welder controls: a. Arc length
b. Wire speed
c. Burn off rate a
d. Transfer mode

G6-23. Which welding process develops the lowest level of hydrogen … a. TIG
b. SAW
c. a
d.

G6-28. Cast and Helix are terms that refer to: a. Ingredients in the flux covering
b. Bead deposition techniques for distortion control
c. Quality of the welding wires c
d. Sources from which wires are drawn

T5-6. … base material before welding? a. …

b. … with the WPS
c. … equipment is availuable it must be used
d. … using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

G5-18. A MMA electrode which is classified as an E7024 (according to AWS) is a: a. Basic type
G09-1. b. Cellulosic type
c. Rutile type d
d. Thick coated iron powder

G5-20. An electrode is classified to BS EN ISO 2560 as E 35 3 B. What does 35 a. 350 N/mm2 yield strength
G09-11. signify? b. 35 Joules -30oC
c. 35 N/mm2 tensile strength a
d. 35ksi tensile strength

G5-21. A large diameter pipe with a wall thickness of 10mm is to be used for a a. Basic covered
G09-12. cross-country pipeline. Which electrode type could be used to combine b. Cellulosic covered
high welding speed and deep penetration?
c. Rutile covered b
d. Iron powder loaded

T5-17. Which of the following electrode types would produce the highest levels of a. Basic electrode when baked correctly
T09-55. hydrogen? b. Cellulosic in a sealed tin
c. Rutile b
d. Heavy rutile

T6-56. Which of the following electrode types would produces the lowest levels of a. Cellulose coated electrodes sealed in a tin immediately after
hydrogen? manyfature
b. Basic coated electrodes when baked correctly immediately prior
to use
b
c. Rutile coated electrodes when dried at 150oC prior to use
d. Heavy rutile coated electrodes when dried at 150oC for 2 hours
prior to use

T09-59. Basic electrodes are often sold vacuum packed. The reason is: a. They have been packed at the manufactures at a hydrogen level
less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
b. They are mass produced which makes these electrodes cheap
c. They require less baking time after removal from the packet d
d. They are formulated that once open they will pick up no more
moisture

T5-18. A general terms which of the following would required the highest preheat a. MMA weld with cellulosic electrodes
T09-57. if all other factors were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011? b. MMA weld with rutile electrodes
T6-22. c. MMA weld with basic electrodes a
d. MAG weld with solid wire

T5-40. Would you consider using a 5mm electrode for vertical up root runs in a a. Yes, it is compatible
T09-38. 6G (HL045) fixed position pipe? b. Yes but this would depend upon the welder skill
c. No, it is not the most suitable electrode coating type d
d. No the electrode should have been smaller in diameter

T5-49. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 100mm in thickness a. None if they were in a vacuum pack opened 8 hours prior to use
T09-40. would basic electrodes require any pre-treatment before use? b. None if they were in a sealed vacuum pack prior to use
c. Heat to 500oC for 2 hours if used outside b
d. Baked at 150oC for 4 hours prior to use

T5-41. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 90mm in thickness would a. None if they were in a vacuum pack
the basic electrode require any pre-treatment before use? b. None if they were used in a factory
c. Heat to 500oC for 2 hours if used outside a
d. Baked at 150oC for 4 hours prior to use

T6-36. An advantage of the MMA (111) welding process is that if: a. Has higher current density than SAW (121) welding
b. Has a very large range of consumable for most welding
applications
b
c. No core wire is lost during the process
d. Requires a lower skill level than other manual forms of welding

T6-30. Rutile electrodes are often sold packed in a cardboard box covered with a a. Use them as rutile electrodes are only for general purpose
plastic film … you found they were damp and the ends were rusty what welding
course of action would you …
b. Re-dry them at 125oC and issue to the shop floor
c
c. Quarantine them
d. Only use them for tack welding

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions c

T5-42. Which of the following defects are not associated with the MMA (SMAW) a. Isolated pores
T09-41. welding process? b. Lack of fusion
c. Undercut d
d. Tungsten inclusions

T5-43. Slag lines found in MMA welds are usually associated with: a. The voltage being too low
T09-42. b. The open circuit current being too high
c. Improper cleaning between weld runs c
d. Low open circuit voltage

T5-46. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was a. None
channged from AC to DC-ve? b. Lower deposition rate
c. It would be less penetration or a slight increase in deposition
rate c
d. The arc would become unstable

G6-29. Which of the following electrodes don't require re-baking at higher a. Cellulosic types
temperature … b. Vacuum packed types
c. Hydrogen types b
d.

T6-42. Using the MMA process, which polarity produces the greatest penetration? a. AC
b. DC-
c. DC+ c
d. Depends on electrode size

T6-52. When welding vertically up with the MMA process weaving is sometimes a. Reduce the overall width of the weld
restricted diameter, this restriction is mainly applied to: b. Limit the heat input into the joint
c. Reduce the number of electrodes used in the joint b
d. Reduce the time required to finish the weld

G09-29. A typical baking temperature for basic low hydrogen electrodes is: a. 120oC
b. 350oC
c. 500oC b
d. 200oC

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

G5-23. Which of the following imperfection types is NOT usually associated with a. Tungsten inclusion
TIG welding? b. Lack of root fusion
c. Crater pipe d
d. Spatter

G5-25. Which polarity is normally used for GTAW welding of aluminium? a. AC

G09-2. b. DC electrode negative
c. DC electrode positive a
d. It would make little difference which was used

T5-45. What is a typical arc voltage setting when welding with the TIG (GTAW) a. 18-20V
process? b. 24-26V
c. 10-12V b
d. 70-90V

G6-4. In TIG welding hydrogen is added to argon for the welding of which type of a. Carbon steel
steel? b. Copper
c. Carbon manganese steel d
d. Austenitic stainless steel

T6-50. Due to the high heating effect in the electrode when TIG welding (141) a. Ground to a fine vertex angle of < 30o before welding
with AC it is importance … tungsten electrode used for AC welding is: b. Used straight from the packet without any grinding
c. Lightly ground to a slight chamfer (comers only removed)
c
d. Used without grinding and baked at 300oC for an hour before use

T6-5. Which Tungsten electrode is usually used to weld Aluminium? a. Zirconiated

b. Thoriated
c. Large diameter a
d. Pointed electrodes

G6-5. What may be a reason for using nitrogen gas in TIG welding? a. To stabilized the arc when welding carbon steel
b. It can be used to weld copper
c. The gas used is always the choice of the welder b
d. It is the very best gas to weld Nickel Alloys

T5-47. What is the mode of metal transfer for the TIG (GTAW) welding process? a. Spray transfer
b. Globular transfer
c. Dip transfer d
d. None of the above

G09-7. When MIG/MAG welding, wire feed speed is proportional to: a. Travel speed
G5-26. b. Welding current
c. Arc length b
d. Inductance

T6-38. When reviewing a radiograph of a weld made by the MAG (GSMAW) … a. Tungsten inclusion
white inclusion in the weld, which of the following best describes b. Spatter on the cap
c. Copper inclusion c
d. It is most likely to be a film mark

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

G5-17. In the MAG welding process which gas type gives good penetration but an a. Pure Carbon dioxide
unstable arc and high levels of spatter? b. Pure argon
c. Argon +5-20% Carbon dioxide a
d. Argon +1-2% Oxygen or Carbon dioxide

T6-10. If the torch was trailing when using the MIG/MAG process, which of the a. No undercut and shallow penetration
following appear … weld is most likely to be observed during visual b. Severe undercut and deep penetration
inspection?
c. Moderate undercut and penetration b
d. Minimum undercut and excess weld metal

G5-27. The output characteristic of a typical MAG set is: a. Constant voltage
G09-22. b. Constant current
c. Drooping a
d. Pulsing

T6-28. Which of the following inspection points is most critical in affecting arc a. All electrical connections and contacts
conditions during the … transfer MAG welding (135) process? DIP b. Gas flow rate
MODE???
c. Inductance settings c
d. Electrode coating type

T5-20. Prior to commencing production welding using the MAG (GMAW) you a. Nothing
notice the earth clamp is in a very poor condition, what would you do? b. Insist the welder have it replaced before commencing welding
c. It will not affect the welding so wait untill it eventually melts of
then have it replaced b
d. It will be OK for welding but ensure that nobody touches it
because they may get burnt

T6-11. The welders have increased the electrode stickout length of the SAW set, a. No effect
what … the weld? b. The weld width would be narrower
c. Penetration will be increased
d
d. The deposition rate would be greater if wire feed rate is
increased also

T6-44. The welders have increased the voltage on the SAW set, what would be the a. No effect
effect … appearance? b. The weld width would be narrower
c. Penetration will be increased d
d. The weld width would be wider

T6-51. An advantage of the SAW process is that: a. It can be used in the vertical down (PG) position
b. Little or no ozone or UV light is produced/emitted
c. It is not affected by arc blow b
d. It is not prone to solidification cracking

G5-19. Which type of submerged arc flux can be described as sharp? a. Agglomerated
G09-10. b. Fused
c. Basic b
d. Neutral

G5-14. Standard oxy-fuel gas cutting equipment can be applied to: a. Aluminium alloys
G09-19. b. Carbon steels
G6-3. c. Austenitic stainless steels b
d. Copper

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions
b

G5-7. Which of the following alloying elements is used mainly to improve the a. Chrome
G09-6. toughness of steel? b. Managanese
c. Sulphur b
d. Carbon

G5-15. Weldment in Carbon-Manganese steels, made by low heat input welding a. Greater ductility
G09-15. may show: b. Higher distortion
c. Higher dilution d
d. Higher hardness

G09-21. Weldments in C-Mn steels, made using a heat input higher than the a. Higher integrity
maximum specified by the WPS, may show: b. Lower distortion
c. Lower toughness c
d. Higher hardness

G5-16. Using a stabilised stainless steel will reduce the risk of: a. Excessive distortion
G09-18. b. Weld decay
c. Formation of iron-sulphides b
d. Sour service cracking

T5-19. Which of the following microstructures is critical to the likely formation of a. Austenite
T09-58. hydrogen cracks? b. Ferrite
c. Pearlite d
d. Martensite

T6-9. An arc strike on a high carbon steel plate is likely to have the following a. Austenite
microstructure beneath surface b. Martensite
c. Ferrite b
d. Pearlite

T5-51. Which of the following processes is most prone to solidification cracks? a. MMA with basic coated electrodes
b. MMA with rutile coated electrodes
c. TIG d
d. SAW

T5-52. Which of the following could be used to minimise the occurrence of a. Increase sulphur levels to a minimum of 0.5%
solidification cracks in steels welds? b. Reduce the dilution into the base metal
c. Increase carbon content in the weld metal b
d. Reduce the manganese content in the weld metal

T09-52. Hydrogen cracking is considered a cold crack as it will not form till the a. 500oC
weldment cools to below: b. 300oC
c. 300oF b
d. 730oC

T5-53. In a heavy plate fabrication where S is residual @0.3%, which may cause a. Laminations in the plate through thickness
problems in the welded joint, additions of Mn may be added to prevent b. Stress corrosion cracks
c. Manganese sulphides (MnS) d
d. Solidification cracking

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T09-53. Inspection for hydrogen cracking is often specified to be done between 48 a. The stress level will have reduced by then
T5-15. to 72 hrs after completion of the weld, this is because? b. It is the maximum time it taken for all the H2 to diffuse out of the
weld
c. Usually after 48 hrs such cracking is unlikely to occur b
d. It is to ensure the weld has property cooled down to ambient
temperature

T5-54. Preheats are used on steel joints of high hardenability mainly to: a. Slow the cooling rate of the steel
b. Remove surface moisture from the joint
c. Reduce the formation of surface oxides a
d. Increase the diffusion rate of hydrogen into the HAZ

T5-55. Sensitisation is a term applied to the formation of which intermetallic a. Chromium carbide
compound at the grain boundaries in the HAZ of austenitic stainless steels? b. Titanium carbide
c. Niobium carbide a
d. Molybdenum carbide

G6-27. When comparing the properties of plain carbon steels and austenitic a. Carbon steels have better thermal conductivity
stainless steels … which of the following statements is true? b. Stainless steels have low expansion and contraction
c. Carbon steels have higher expansion rates in the Z direction a
d. Stainless steels have lower chromium

T5-56. Weld decay occurs in which of the following steel types: a. Carbon Manganese
b. Low alloy
c. Any stainless steels d
d. Austenitic stainless steels

G6-13. Which of the following materials is most susceptible to hydrogen cracking? a. Low carbon steel
b. Austenitic stainless steel
c. High strength low alloy steel c
d. Aluminium

T6-16. Austenitic stainless steels are not susceptible to HICC becausse: a. They are non-magnetic
b. They are stainless and contain chromium
c. They don't harden during heating and cooling c
d. They are highly ductile

T6-24. The higher the alloy content of steels: a. The lower the tendency for HICC to occur
b. The higher the tendency for HICC to occur
c. High alloy steels do not influence HICC susceptible b
d. None of the above

T6-7. Which one of these statements is true concerning solidification cracking? a. Only occurs in MMA welding
b. Increased depth to width ratio will increase stress
c. Never occurs in MIG/MAG welding b
d. All of the above

T6-27. A solidification crack normally occurs where? a. Through the HAZ

b. Longitudinal through the weld centre line
c. Transverse through the weld b
d. Can occur anywhere

T5-57. Weld decay is caused by the formation of a compound with carbon. The a. Manganese
other element in this compound is: b. Sulphur
c. Chromium c
d. Nickel

G5-12. The directions of shrinkage in a welded joint are: a. Transverse and diagonal
b. Transverse, short transverse and conical
c. Transverse, short transverse and longitudinal c
d. Angular, diagonal and transgranular

G6-2. In a single pass weld, the width of the zone in which longitudinal residual a. Independent of the weld width
stresses are … b. Narrower than the weld metal
c. The same width as the weld metal d
d. Wider than the weld metal and the heat affected zone

G6-11. What does the term "back-step" refer to during welding? a. A QA term referring to inspection points
b. Use of step wedges on the root of the joint
d

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions
What does the term "back-step" refer to during welding?

c. Use of step wedges for radiography d

d. A weld run sequence

G5-13. Sequential welding is referred to with reference to which of the following? a. Distortion
b. Residual stress
c. Fatigue life a
d. Not associated with any of the above

G5-4. A typical temperature for stress relieving C-Mn steel weldmet is: a. 580oC - 620oC
G09-8. b. 5000oC - 6200oC
G6-12. c. 75oC - 80oC a
d. 1500oC - 1800oC

G5-5. A typical temperature for normalising C-Mn steel is: a. Approximately 200oC
b. Approximately 300oC
c. Approximately 900oC c
d. Approximately 1200oC

T6-46. A maximum interpass temperature is generally given to control: a. High HAZ hardness
b. Low HAZ toughness
c. Lack of inter-run fusion b
d. Excess levels of penetration

T5-3. During post weld heat treatment what is the sequence for the PWHT chart? a. Restricted heating rate, soak time, unrestricted cooling rate
b. Unrestricted heating rate, restricted heating rate, soak time,
restricted cooling rate, unrestricted cooling rate
c. Unrestricted heating rate, soak time, restricted cooling rate b
d. Restricted heating rate, unrestricted heating rate, soak time,
unrestricted cooling rate, restricted cooling rate

T6-53. A post weld heat-treatment may also be of benefit in minimising the risk of a. Stress relief
… treatment would be called: DECAY b. Normalising
c. Quench and Tempering a
d. Solution treatment over 1000oC

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CSWIP 3.1 -Real Questions

T6-54. After PWHT, it has been noticed that a repair must be carried out. How a. With the minimum amount of heat input
should this be done? b. Welded, checked and PWHT again
c. Defect removed via non-thermal process then checked b
d. Welded and allowed to cool in air

G6-17. Preheating may not be necessary during welding in which of the following a. Welding of cast iron
material? b. Welding of low alloy steels
c. Welding of martensitic stainless steels d
d. Welding of austenitic stainless steels

T6-35. The main problem with solution treatment of stainless steels is that: a. Controlling the rate of the temperature use
b. Controlling the cooling rate
c. The length of the soak period d
d. High risk of distortion

T5-13. … temperature? a. …
b. … prior to commencing the first pass and subsequent passes
c. When the welding is complete
d. Minimum preheat temperature measurement is only required if
the heat input is lower than that specified in WPS

T09-11. When would you measure the interpass temperature? a. The highest temperature recorded in the weld joint immediately
prior to depositing the next runs
b. Immediately prior to commencing the first pass
c. When the welding is complete a
d. Only required if the heat input is lower than that specified in WPS

G6-16. If pre heating is decreased, which of the following would be most greatly a. Impact value
affected? b. Hardness
c. Tensile strength b
d. Toughness

T6-32. Assuming the same materials and welding procedure were used, which of a. Butt weld in 35mm plate
T09-56. the following is the highest preheat? b. Cruciform joint in 25mm plate
c. Tee joint butt welded in 30mm plate b
d. Tee joint fillet welded in 20mm plate

T6-58. Why is it sometimes necessary to preheat the base material before a. Remove oil and grease
welding? b. Remove moisture from the inside of the material
c. Prevent the possible risk of cracking
c
d. Not required if using cellulosic electrodes, as these will provide
enough heat

T09-18. What is meant by the term PWHT? a. Pipe weld heat treatment
b. Pre weld heat treatment
c. Post weld hydrogen tearing d
d. Post weld heat treatment

G5-3. Ultraviolet and infrared radiation, produced during arc welding, may: a. Make arc striking easier
b. Be used for weld testing
c. Increase the welding speed d
d. Cause skin burns

T09-8. Who is responsible for site safety? a. Site engineer

b. Welding supervisor
c. An approved inspector d
d. Everyone

T09-9. Is it permissible to allow welding to be carried out in bad weather? a. Never

b. Yes as long as there is adequare protection from the poor
weather conditions
b
c. Yes as long as basic low hydrogen welding electrodes are used
d. Yes as long as the welder is prepared to work in the rain

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