0% found this document useful (0 votes)
55 views4 pages

INMO Home Test 2 Solution

Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
55 views4 pages

INMO Home Test 2 Solution

Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 4

Regd.

Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005


Ph.: 011-47623456

INMO-2019 WORKSHOP
HOME TEST-2

SOLUTION

1. Since b is the product of roots of the quadratics, of the form 3k or 3k + 1, where k is any integer.
it must be expressible as a product of integers in Thus there are infinitely many pairs (a, b), given
two different ways. So let us try for b numbers of by (i), where n + 1 is not divisible by 3, satisfying
the form uvw. Suppose that the given conditions.

u + vw = a, uv + w = 2a If n + 1 is divisible by 3, and a, b are given by (i)


then a is divisible by 3 and b is divisible by 9. It
Then 2u + 2vw = uv + w; w(2v – 1) = u(v – 2).
a b
This will be satisfied if u = 2v – 1, w = v – 2 can be seen that  ,  will satisfy our
3 9
where v is any integer. If v = n this gives
conditions. Clearly, if (a, b) satisfies the
a = (2n – 1) + n(n – 2) = n2 – 1, conditions, then (–a, b) also will satisfy the
b = n(n – 2)(2n – 1) ...(i) conditions.

If a and b are chosen like this, then the roots of 2. If p is prime and p 2 then

  
the first equation are p 1 p 1

–u = –(2n – 1), –vw = –n(n – 2); 2 p 1  1  2 2  1 2 2 1


those of the second equation are is divisible by p, by Fermat’s theorem. So either
–uv = –n(2n – 1), –w = –(n – 2). p 1 p 1
2 2  1 or 2 2  1 is divisible by p. They are
These are integers. So if a and b are relatively
prime then the conditions are fulfilled. Let p be relatively prime since they are successive odd
any prime number dividing a = (n – 1)(n + 1). If integers. Suppose that p is an odd prime such
p divides n – 1, then p does not divide any of the 2p  1
numbers: that is a square. First suppose that
p
n – 1 + 1 = n, n – 1 – 1 = n – 2, 2(n – 1) + 1 = p 1
2n – 1; 2 2  1 is divisible by p. We know that if x and
hence p does not divide b. Suppose that p divides y are relatively prime positive integers such that
n + 1. then p does not divide their product xy is a perfect square then x and y
are separately perfect squares.
n + 1 – 1 = n, n + 1 – 3 = n – 2, 2(n + 1) – 3 =
2n – 1,

 
 p 1  p 1
provided p 3. If n + 1 is not divisible by 3 this 2p  1  2 2  1 
requirement also is satisfied. So a and b cannot Since   2
2 1 ,
p  p 
have a common prime divisor if n is any integer

(1)
p 1
a 1 (mod 5) b 1 (mod 5); a 2 (mod 5)
we see that 2 2  2
1  a for some integer a > 2. b 3 (mod 5);
a 3 (mod 5) b 2 (mod 5); a 4 (mod 5)
Thus
b 4 (mod 5);
p 1 pa3 + qa2 + ra + s 0 (mod 5)
2 2  a  1   a  1 a  1 ;
2
(pa3 + qa2 + ra + s)b3 0 (mod 5)
If p(ab)3 + q(ab)2b + r(ab)b2 + sb3 0 (mod 5)
a–1= 2r, a+1= 2s, 0 < r < s, p + qb + rb2 + sb3 0 (mod 5)
2s – 2r = 2, 2s – 1 – 2r – 1 = 1. Hence, for each a, setting b to be its multiplicative
Since 0 r – 1 < s – 1 this is possible only if r – inverse (mod 5) is our desired b.
1 = 0, s – 1 = 1. 4. We seek solutions (x, y, z) which are in arithmetic
Hence progression. Let us put y – x = z – y = d > 0 so
that the equation reduces to the form
p 1
p 1 3y2 + 2d2 = 2d3.
a  1  2, a  3, 2 2  a 2  1  8,  3, p  7
2 Thus we get 3y2 = 2(d – 1)d2. We conclude that
2(d – 1) is 3 times a square. This is satisfied if
p 1
d – 1 = 6n2 for some n. Thus d = 6n2 + 1 and 3y2
Next suppose that 2 2  1 is divisible by p.
= d2. 2(6n2) giving us y2 = 4d2n2. Thus we can
Since take y = 2dn = 2n(6n2 + 1). From this we obtain
x = y – d = (2n – 1)(6n2 + 1), z = y + d = (2n +
1)(6n2 + 1). It is easily verified that
 
p 1  p 1 
2p  1  2 2  1
, 2 2  1  (x, y, z) = ((2n – 1)(6n2 + 1), 2n(6n2 + 1), (2n +
p  p  1)(6n2 + 1)),
is indeed a solution for a fixed n and this gives an
p 1
we see, exactly as before, that 2 2  1 b 2 for infinite set of solutions as n varies over natural
numbers.
some integer b > 0.
5. We show that the answer is NO. Suppose, if
p 1 possible, let a, b, c be three distinct positive real
If  2 then this implies that b2 –1 (mod 4) numbers such that a, b, c, b + c – a, c + a – b,
2
a + b – c and a + b + c form a 7-term arithmetic
p 1 progression in some order. We may assume that
which is not possible. Hence  1; p  3, p
2 a < b < c. Then there are only two cases we need
being odd. to check: (I) a + b – c < a < c + a – b < b < c <
b + c – a < a + b + c and (II) a + b – c < a < b <
 2p  1  1  9 c + a – b < c < b + c – a < a + b + c.
Finally, if p = 7 then , and if p = 3
p Case I. Suppose the chain of inequalities a + b –
c<a<c+a–b<b<c<b+c–a<a+b+c

then
 2p  1  1  1 . Thus the desired primes are holds good. Let d be the common difference.
p Thus we see that

3 and 7. c = a + b + c – 2d, b = a + b + c – 3d, a = a + b


+ c – 5d.
3. Note that if 5 | a, then 5 | pa3 + qa2 + ra and since
Additing these, we see that a + b + c = 5d. But
a 3 + qa 2 + ra + s.
5 s , we obtain that 5 pa
then a = 0 contradicting the positively of a.
Hence, 5 a . This means a ±1, ±2 (mod 5). For
Case II. Suppose the inequalities a + b – c < a
every such a, there exists b z, such that ab
< b < c + a – b < c < b + c – a < a + b + c are
1 (mod 5).
true. Again we see that

(2)
c = a + b + c – 2d, b = a + b + c – 4d, a = a + b p(pn – 1 + pn – 2 + ... + 1) = q(q + 1).
+ c – 5d.
If q pn/2 – 1, then q < pn/2 and hence we see
that q2 < pn. Thus we obtain
 11 
We thus obtain a + b + c =   d . This gives
2 q2 + q < pn + pn/2 < pn + pn – 1 + ... + p,
since n > 2. It follows that q pn/2. Since n > 2
1 3 7 and is an even number, n/2 is a natural number
a d , b  d, c  d .
2 2 2 larger than 1. This implies that q pn/2 by the
given condition that q is a prime. We conclude
 1 that q pn/2 + 1. We may also write the above
Note that a + b – c = a + b + c – 6d = –   d .
2 relation in the form
However we also get a + b – c p(pn/2 – 1)(pn/2 + 1) = (p – 1)q(q + 1).
This shows that q divides (pn/2 – 1)(pn/2 + 1). But
 1   3      3
=          d     d . It fllows that 3e q pn/2 + 1 and q is a prime. Hence the only
 2   2   2   2
possibility is q = pn/2 + 1. This gives
= e giving d = 0. But this is impossible.
p(pn/2 – 1) = (p – 1)(q + 1) = (p – 1)(pn/2 + 2).
Thus there are no three distinct positive real
Simiplification leads to 3p = pn/2 + 2. This shows
numbers a, b, c such that a, b, c, b + c – a, c +
that p divides 2. Thus p = 2 and hence q = 5,
a – b, a + b – c and a + b + c form a 7-term
n = 4. It is easy to verify that these indeed satisfy
arithmetic progression in some order.
the given equation.
6. Obviously p q. We write this in the form



(3)

You might also like