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com//per/g06/pub/32327/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/32327O241/32327O241S8D765/1718614558828982…

Participant ID ACK01015741
Participant Name ASHUTOSH MEHER
Test Center
Government Polytechnic Balangir
Name
Test Date 06/06/2024
Test Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
OUAT UG Common Entrance Examination 2024
Subject
PCB
Marks Obtained 114

Section : Physics

Q.1 An object is placed 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. Find the
position of image formed by mirror.
Ans 1. 10 cm behind the concave mirror

2. 20 cm in front of the concave mirror

3. 10 cm in front of the concave mirror

4. 20 cm behind the concave mirror

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680722384
Option 1 ID : 6306802830806
Option 2 ID : 6306802830803
Option 3 ID : 6306802830804
Option 4 ID : 6306802830805
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.2 In which medium do transverse waves propagate?

Ans 1. Only liquid

2. Liquid and gas

3. Only gas

4. Only solid

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680710159
Option 1 ID : 6306802782309
Option 2 ID : 6306802782311
Option 3 ID : 6306802782310
Option 4 ID : 6306802782308
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.3 Which of the following options is suitable for the given dimension formula M L2 T-2?
Ans 1. Work, energy and moment of force

2. Work, power and impulse

3. Energy, power and acceleration

4. Moment of force, impulse and power

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238682
Option 1 ID : 630680925745
Option 2 ID : 630680925744
Option 3 ID : 630680925747
Option 4 ID : 630680925746
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.4 For an object moving with uniform acceleration, the area under the velocity-time graph
equals ______ of the object in a given time interval.
Ans 1. speed

2. position

3. acceleration

4. displacement

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237046
Option 1 ID : 630680919580
Option 2 ID : 630680919582
Option 3 ID : 630680919583
Option 4 ID : 630680919581
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.5 An atom of helium has 2 protons in its nucleus. If the total number of nucleons in the
helium atom is 4, calculate how many neutrons are present in the helium atom?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680722436
Option 1 ID : 6306802831013
Option 2 ID : 6306802831015
Option 3 ID : 6306802831012
Option 4 ID : 6306802831014
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

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Q.6 The ratio of energy of a hydrogen atom in the second excited state to the fourth
excited state will be:
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237128
Option 1 ID : 630680919910
Option 2 ID : 630680919908
Option 3 ID : 630680919909
Option 4 ID : 630680919911
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.7 A particle executing simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 5 cm. When the
displacement of the particle from the mean position is 3 cm, then the magnitude of its
velocity is equal to the magnitude of its acceleration. The time period of the particle
will be:
Ans
1.

2. 3π

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680696979
Option 1 ID : 6306802730080
Option 2 ID : 6306802730081
Option 3 ID : 6306802730079
Option 4 ID : 6306802730082
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.8 Which of the following is NOT an application of X-rays?

Ans 1. Communication

2. Cancer treatment

3. Medical imaging

4. Airport security

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680734203
Option 1 ID : 6306802877594
Option 2 ID : 6306802877593
Option 3 ID : 6306802877591
Option 4 ID : 6306802877592
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.9 If the pressure in a container of gas is doubled, what happens to the mean free path of
the gas molecules?
Ans 1. It becomes one-eighth

2. It becomes one-fourth

3. It becomes double

4. It becomes half

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680726814
Option 1 ID : 6306802848253
Option 2 ID : 6306802848250
Option 3 ID : 6306802848252
Option 4 ID : 6306802848251
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.10 The relation between Cp and Cv for any ideal gas is:
Ans 1. Cp / Cv = R

2. Cp × Cv = R

3. Cp + Cv = R

4. Cp – Cv = R

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680720304
Option 1 ID : 6306802822630
Option 2 ID : 6306802822628
Option 3 ID : 6306802822627
Option 4 ID : 6306802822629
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.11 When a plane wavefront is incident on a convex lens, then the shape of the refracted
wavefront will be ______ and its radius will be ____________.
Ans 1. elliptical; equal to the focal length of the lens

2. cylindrical; equal to half the focal length of the lens

3. spherical; equal to the focal length of the lens

4. circular; equal to half the focal length of the lens

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680704244
Option 1 ID : 6306802758669
Option 2 ID : 6306802758671
Option 3 ID : 6306802758668
Option 4 ID : 6306802758670
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

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Q.12 A diatomic gas (γ = 5/3) initially is having a temperature of 300 K, this gas is
compressed adiabatically to (1/27) of its original volume, the temperature of the gas
after compression will be:
Ans 1. 1800 K

2. 2700 K

3. 900 K

4. 180 K

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680723124
Option 1 ID : 6306802833726
Option 2 ID : 6306802833728
Option 3 ID : 6306802833727
Option 4 ID : 6306802833725
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.13 Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which lie in the frequency range of :
Ans 1. 4 x 1014 Hz to 7 x 1014 Hz
2. 500 kHz to 1000 MHz

3. 500 Hz to 500 kHz

4. 1000 MHz to 1000 GHz

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238794
Option 1 ID : 630680926195
Option 2 ID : 630680926192
Option 3 ID : 630680926193
Option 4 ID : 630680926194
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.14 The contribution of friction to the circular motion of the car moving on a road can be
reduced by :
Ans 1. Water logging of roads

2. Banking of road

3. Leveling of road

4. Breaking of road

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238754
Option 1 ID : 630680926034
Option 2 ID : 630680926032
Option 3 ID : 630680926035
Option 4 ID : 630680926033
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

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Q.15 Consider two identical coaxial coils A and B carrying the same amount of current I
moving clockwise. When these coils are brought nearer to each other, then the current
in:
Ans 1. both coils A and B decreases

2. both coils A and B increases

3. coil A decreases and that in coil B increases

4. coil A increases and that in coil B decreases

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238897
Option 1 ID : 630680926607
Option 2 ID : 630680926606
Option 3 ID : 630680926605
Option 4 ID : 630680926604
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.16 A car is skidding to a stop on a wet road. The friction acting on the car:
Ans 1. depends on the car's speed

2. is zero

3. ia static friction

4. is kinetic friction

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680721470
Option 1 ID : 6306802827213
Option 2 ID : 6306802827214
Option 3 ID : 6306802827211
Option 4 ID : 6306802827212
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.17 2.8 g of nitrogen is present in a vessel of volume 8.31 L. The temperature of the vessel
is 1800 K. If 40% of molecules are dissociated into atoms at this temperature, then the
pressure will be:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237059
Option 1 ID : 630680919635
Option 2 ID : 630680919634
Option 3 ID : 630680919632
Option 4 ID : 630680919633
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

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Q.18 How is gauge pressure calculated?

Ans 1. By subtracting atmospheric pressure from the pressure at the point inside the liquid

2. By multiplying atmospheric pressure by the pressure at the point inside the liquid

3. By dividing atmospheric pressure by the pressure at the point inside the liquid

4. By adding atmospheric pressure to the pressure at the point inside the liquid

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680721504
Option 1 ID : 6306802827340
Option 2 ID : 6306802827341
Option 3 ID : 6306802827342
Option 4 ID : 6306802827339
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.19 Which liquid would generally exhibit the highest coefficient of volume expansion?
Ans 1. Mercury

2. Alcohol

3. Water

4. Cooking oil

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680725191
Option 1 ID : 6306802841881
Option 2 ID : 6306802841883
Option 3 ID : 6306802841880
Option 4 ID : 6306802841882
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.20 When the voltage drop across a p-n junction diode is 0.80 V, the current flowing
through the diode is 20 mA. The DC resistance of the diode will be:
Ans 1. 4 Ω

2. 40 Ω

3. 4000 Ω

4. 400 Ω

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237130
Option 1 ID : 630680919918
Option 2 ID : 630680919916
Option 3 ID : 630680919919
Option 4 ID : 630680919917
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.21 A 600 μF capacitor ‘C’ is connected to a 60 mH inductor ‘L’ in series. What is the
angular frequency at resonance?
Ans 1. 150 rad/s

2. 160 rad/s

3. 152 rad/s

4. 167 rad/s

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237026
Option 1 ID : 630680919500
Option 2 ID : 630680919501
Option 3 ID : 630680919502
Option 4 ID : 630680919503
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

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Q.22 If E is kinetic energy of a moving particle, then the deBroglie wavelength of the particle
is(given m is mass, h is Planck’s constant and k is the Boltzmann constant in SI units):
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068090088
Option 1 ID : 630680349128
Option 2 ID : 630680349129
Option 3 ID : 630680349127
Option 4 ID : 630680349126
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.23 Two long and parallel straight wires A and B are carrying 4.0 A and 5.0 A current,
respectively, in the same direction and are separated by a distance of 2 cm. The value
and nature of force per unit length on wire A,due to wire B respectively, is:
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237019
Option 1 ID : 630680919473
Option 2 ID : 630680919475
Option 3 ID : 630680919472
Option 4 ID : 630680919474
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.24 For an aircraft, the air flows over the upper surface of the wing with a speed of 360
km/h and it flows below the lower surface with a speed of 288 km/h. If the area of the
wing is 40 m2, then the lift experienced by the wing will be:(Given: The density of air =
1 kg/m3)
Ans 1. 7200 N

2. 72000 N

3. 720 N

4. 36000 N

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237056
Option 1 ID : 630680919621
Option 2 ID : 630680919622
Option 3 ID : 630680919620
Option 4 ID : 630680919623
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

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Q.25 A Si diode is connected in forward bias , the diode will behave as open circuit if
voltage is less than
Ans 1. Rms voltage

2. threshold voltage

3. Saturation voltage

4. Reverse bias voltage

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238807
Option 1 ID : 630680926247
Option 2 ID : 630680926244
Option 3 ID : 630680926246
Option 4 ID : 630680926245
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.26 A car is moving on a circular banked road of radius 300 m, banked at an angle of 30°. If
the coefficient of friction between the wheels of the car and the road is 0.2, then the
optimum speed of the car to avoid wear and tear of the tires should be:
Ans 1. less than 41.6 m/s

2. greater than 41.2 m/s and less than 51.3 m/s

3. less than 41.2 km/h

4. greater than 51.3 m/s

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238876
Option 1 ID : 630680926520
Option 2 ID : 630680926522
Option 3 ID : 630680926521
Option 4 ID : 630680926523
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.27 Every action has a reaction in its response. These action-reaction pairs are:
Ans 1. equal in the same direction and acting on different bodies

2. equal, opposite and acting on the same body

3. equal in the same direction and acting on the same body

4. equal, opposite and acting on different bodies

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236417
Option 1 ID : 630680917065
Option 2 ID : 630680917064
Option 3 ID : 630680917067
Option 4 ID : 630680917066
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.28 Suppose a block of mass 2 kg is kept on a frictionless table and attached to a spring
constant of 200 N/m. At t = 0, the block is pulled to a distance x = 8 cm from its
equilibrium position at x = 0 from rest. The kinetic energy of the block when it is 4 cm
away from the mean position is:
Ans 1. 0.48 J

2. 0.53 J

3. 0.59 J

4. 0.44 J

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236675
Option 1 ID : 630680918097
Option 2 ID : 630680918098
Option 3 ID : 630680918099
Option 4 ID : 630680918096
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.29 Which of the following statements holds during a collision, whether it is an elastic or
inelastic collision?
Ans 1. At each instant of the collision, both total linear momentum and kinetic energy are
conserved.
2. At each instant of the collision, total linear momentum conservation does not hold but
kinetic energy is conserved.
3. At each instant of the collision, neither total linear momentum conservation nor kinetic
energy conservation holds.
4. At each instant of the collision, total linear momentum is conserved but kinetic energy
conservation does not hold.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236337
Option 1 ID : 630680916744
Option 2 ID : 630680916746
Option 3 ID : 630680916747
Option 4 ID : 630680916745
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.30 Two satellites, X and Y, have masses m and 3 m, respectively, move in

orbits of radius R and 6R, respectively around the earth. The ratio of the
kinetic energy of X to the kinetic energy of Y will be:
Ans 1. 4 : 1

2. 1 : 2

3. 2 : 1

4. 1 : 4

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680721447
Option 1 ID : 6306802827126
Option 2 ID : 6306802827125
Option 3 ID : 6306802827124
Option 4 ID : 6306802827127
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

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Q.31 If two charges +q and −q are separated by a distance of 2a, then the electric potential
and the magnitude of the electric field, respectively, at a distance ‘a’ from the +q
charge in between the two charges will be:
(Take k = 1/4πεo)
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680701854
Option 1 ID : 6306802749339
Option 2 ID : 6306802749338
Option 3 ID : 6306802749340
Option 4 ID : 6306802749337
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.32 Plane wave fall incident on a reflecting surface, after reflection spherical wave fronts
of radius R/2 are found to be converging at F. Identify the reflecting surface.
Ans 1. Concave mirror

2. Convex lens

3. Convex mirror

4. Plane Mirror

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238798
Option 1 ID : 630680926210
Option 2 ID : 630680926211
Option 3 ID : 630680926208
Option 4 ID : 630680926209
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.33 The resistance of a wire is y Ω. The wire is stretched to twice of its original length. In
the process of doing so, its area of cross-section halved. What will be the new
resistance of the wire?
Ans 1. 8y Ω

2. 6y Ω

3. 2y Ω

4. 4y Ω

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236445
Option 1 ID : 630680917179
Option 2 ID : 630680917178
Option 3 ID : 630680917176
Option 4 ID : 630680917177
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.34 Which of the following conditions are necessary for a body to be considered an ideal
rigid body?
A. The distance between particles remains constant under external force.
B. It has equal mass distribution throughout its solid shape.
C. All points of the body have the same velocity when the rigid body is in pure
translational motion.
D. All points of the body have different accelerations when the rigid body is in motion.
E. Particles of a rigid body can vibrate about their mean positions.
Ans 1. B, C and D

2. C, D and E

3. A, B and C

4. E, A and B

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238882
Option 1 ID : 630680926545
Option 2 ID : 630680926546
Option 3 ID : 630680926544
Option 4 ID : 630680926547
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.35 Which of the following statement(s) about electrostatic field lines is/are NOT correct?
(a) The tangent at each point on a field line gives the direction of the electric field at
that point.
(b) Field lines form closed loops.
(c) The field lines start from the negative charge and end at the positive charge.
(d) In regions of constant electric field, field lines are uniformly spaced parallel
straight lines.
Ans 1. Both (b) and (c)

2. Both (a) and (b)

3. Both (a) and (d)

4. Both (c) and (d)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680729596
Option 1 ID : 6306802858985
Option 2 ID : 6306802858984
Option 3 ID : 6306802858983
Option 4 ID : 6306802858986
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.36 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(i) An intrinsic semiconductor will behave like an insulator at T = – 273°C
(ii) An intrinsic semiconductor will behave like a conductor at T = 0 K
(iii) In an intrinsic semiconductor under the action of an electric field at equilibrium,
the rate of generation is equal to the rate of recombination of charge carriers.
Ans 1. (ii) only

2. (i) and (ii) only

3. (i) and (iii) only

4. (ii) and (iii) only

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238746
Option 1 ID : 630680926003
Option 2 ID : 630680926002
Option 3 ID : 630680926001
Option 4 ID : 630680926000
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

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Q.37 An electron revolving in the 2nd orbit of a hydrogen atom has a time period of 4 × 10-15
sec. The time period of the electron in the 4th orbit will be:
Ans 1. 3.2 × 10-14 sec

2. 3.2 × 10-15 sec

3. 1.6 × 10-14 sec

4. 6.4 × 10-14 sec

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237129
Option 1 ID : 630680919912
Option 2 ID : 630680919915
Option 3 ID : 630680919913
Option 4 ID : 630680919914
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.38 Three identical bar magnets of moment M (say P, Q and R) are cut as follows:
P is cut along the axis into 5 equal parts.
Q is cut along the equatorial line into 5 equal parts.
R is cut along the axial line for 5 times and then, along the equatorial line for 5 times.
What will be the new magnetic moment of each piece, say M/ (corresponding to each
of P/, Q/ and R/, which are single pieces obtained after cutting P, Q and R,
respectively)?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680211077
Option 1 ID : 630680818460
Option 2 ID : 630680818462
Option 3 ID : 630680818461
Option 4 ID : 630680818459
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.39 The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to half of its ______.
Ans 1. aperture

2. diameter

3. radius of curvature

4. volume

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680734204
Option 1 ID : 6306802877597
Option 2 ID : 6306802877596
Option 3 ID : 6306802877595
Option 4 ID : 6306802877598
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

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Q.40 Which of the following rules is useful for finding the direction of magnetic field in
Circular current carrying wire?
Ans 1. No Left hand Palm Rule

2. Right-hand thumb rule

3. Left-hand thumb rule

4. Fleming’s left-hand rule

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237016
Option 1 ID : 630680919463
Option 2 ID : 630680919460
Option 3 ID : 630680919461
Option 4 ID : 630680919462
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.41 What will be the ratio of the speed of sound in helium (γ = 5/3) to the speed of sound in
nitrogen (γ = 7/5) at the same temperature?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680728842
Option 1 ID : 6306802856671
Option 2 ID : 6306802856673
Option 3 ID : 6306802856672
Option 4 ID : 6306802856670
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.42 Two forces F and 2F Newton simultaneously act on a body. If the force F is doubled
and the force 2F is increased by 40 Newton, the direction of the resultant remains
unaltered. The value of F in Newton will be:
Ans 1. 20

2. 30

3. 40

4. 10

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680720162
Option 1 ID : 6306802822090
Option 2 ID : 6306802822091
Option 3 ID : 6306802822088
Option 4 ID : 6306802822089
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.43 Which of the following correctly represents the dimensions of Young's Modulus?
Ans 1. [M1L-2T-2]

2. [M1L-2T1]

3. [M2L-3T-1]

4. [M1L-1T-2]

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680718765
Option 1 ID : 6306802816574
Option 2 ID : 6306802816571
Option 3 ID : 6306802816572
Option 4 ID : 6306802816573
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.44 In a closed circuit, if a battery of EMF 5 V and internal resistance of 0.2 Ω are
connected to a resistor such that the current flowing through the circuit is 1 A, then
the value of the external resistor will be:
Ans 1. 4.8 Ω

2. 5.2 Ω

3. 4 Ω

4. 5.0 Ω

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680702727
Option 1 ID : 6306802752731
Option 2 ID : 6306802752729
Option 3 ID : 6306802752732
Option 4 ID : 6306802752730
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.45 Which of the following devices is NOT used to generate microwaves (electromagnetic
waves)?
Ans 1. Klystron

2. Quartz

3. Magnetron

4. Gunn diode

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680710499
Option 1 ID : 6306802783701
Option 2 ID : 6306802783704
Option 3 ID : 6306802783702
Option 4 ID : 6306802783703
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

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Q.46 Which of the following is NOT a correct property of electric field lines?
Ans 1. Two field lines can never cross each other.

2. Electric field lines start from negative charges and end at positive charges.

3. Electrostatic field lines do not form any closed loops.

4. In a charge-free region, electric field lines can be taken to be continuous curves

without any breaks.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237105
Option 1 ID : 630680919818
Option 2 ID : 630680919816
Option 3 ID : 630680919819
Option 4 ID : 630680919817
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.47 Which of the following will effect the efficiency of a Carnot's Engine?

(a) Temperature of the source

(b) Temperature of the sink
(c) Volume of the cylinder of the engine
Ans 1. Only (a)

2. Only (c)

3. Both (a) and (b)

4. Both (b) and (c)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680723129
Option 1 ID : 6306802833746
Option 2 ID : 6306802833748
Option 3 ID : 6306802833745
Option 4 ID : 6306802833747
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.48 Which of the following is/are NOT a characteristic of wave motion?

(a) When a wave travels through a medium, actual matter gets transferred from one
point to another.
(b) When a wave travels through a medium, energy gets transferred from one particle
to another.
(c) The velocity with which a wave travels through a medium is always equal to the
velocity with which the particles of the medium vibrate about their mean position.
Ans 1. Both (b) and (c)

2. Both (a) and (c)

3. Only (a)

4. Only (b)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680726907
Option 1 ID : 6306802848612
Option 2 ID : 6306802848611
Option 3 ID : 6306802848610
Option 4 ID : 6306802848613
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.49 To minimise the bending of a beam under a constant load, you should use material
with _______.
Ans 1. Low Bulk Modulus

2. High Bulk Modulus

3. High Young Modulus

4. Low Young Modulus

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680721498
Option 1 ID : 6306802827317
Option 2 ID : 6306802827315
Option 3 ID : 6306802827316
Option 4 ID : 6306802827318
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.50 The poles of a bar magnet of magnetic moment 15 Am2 are 25 cm apart. What will be
the strength of the pole?
Ans 1. 45 A-m

2. 60 A-m

3. 75 A-m

4. 30 A-m

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236447
Option 1 ID : 630680917185
Option 2 ID : 630680917186
Option 3 ID : 630680917187
Option 4 ID : 630680917184
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.51 The instantaneous power is expressed mathematically as:

(F = force, t = time, v = velocity, s = displacement)
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238878
Option 1 ID : 630680926530
Option 2 ID : 630680926531
Option 3 ID : 630680926529
Option 4 ID : 630680926528
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

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Q.52 Which factor is primarily responsible for the increase in blood flow velocity in
narrowed arteries according to the Bernoulli principle?
Ans 1. Increased blood viscosity

2. Increased artery elasticity

3. Decreased blood viscosity

4. Decreased cross-sectional area of the artery

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680708566
Option 1 ID : 6306802775899
Option 2 ID : 6306802775900
Option 3 ID : 6306802775901
Option 4 ID : 6306802775902
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.53 Two identical springs, spring A and Spring B both have a spring constant of 200
dyne/cm . A force of 100 dyne is applied on spring A while a force of – 100 dyne is
applied on spring B. The ratio of potential energy stored in spring A to spring B is :
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238759
Option 1 ID : 630680926054
Option 2 ID : 630680926052
Option 3 ID : 630680926055
Option 4 ID : 630680926053
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.54 In a series LCR circuit an inductance (L) = 5 mH; capacitance (C) = 2 µF and resistance
(R) = 480 Ω respectively are connected to an alternating voltage source. At a frequency
80% lower than the resonant frequency, the phase difference between the applied
voltage and resultant current will be:
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237117
Option 1 ID : 630680919864
Option 2 ID : 630680919867
Option 3 ID : 630680919865
Option 4 ID : 630680919866
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.55 A force F is given by the relation F = Asin(Bx) + Ccos(Dt), where x is displacement and
t denotes time. The ratio of dimensions of B to D?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237044
Option 1 ID : 630680919572
Option 2 ID : 630680919574
Option 3 ID : 630680919575
Option 4 ID : 630680919573
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.56

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237073
Option 1 ID : 630680919688
Option 2 ID : 630680919691
Option 3 ID : 630680919690
Option 4 ID : 630680919689
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.57 Nuclear fission is the process in which _____.

Ans 1. a nucleus emits radiation and decays into a stable state

2. two atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus

3. a nucleus absorbs a neutron and becomes unstable

4. a heavy nucleus splits into two or more lighter nuclei

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680734217
Option 1 ID : 6306802877650
Option 2 ID : 6306802877647
Option 3 ID : 6306802877649
Option 4 ID : 6306802877648
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.58 If a cup of hot coffee (system A) is placed next to a cold cup of milk (system B), what
will happen according to the zeroth law?
Ans 1. Heat will flow from the milk to the coffee until they reach the same temperature.

2. Heat will flow from the coffee to the milk until they reach the same temperature.

3. There will be no change in temperature.

4. The coffee will become colder and the milk will become hotter, but not reach
equilibrium.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680726796
Option 1 ID : 6306802848181
Option 2 ID : 6306802848179
Option 3 ID : 6306802848178
Option 4 ID : 6306802848180
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.59 The energy equivalent of 0.000001 g of a substance will be:

Ans 1. 9 × 1010 J

2. 9 × 107 J

3. 9 × 1011 J

4. 9 × 108 J

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237126
Option 1 ID : 630680919900
Option 2 ID : 630680919901
Option 3 ID : 630680919902
Option 4 ID : 630680919903
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.60 A lift of weight 1000 kg (without passengers' weight) can hold a maximum load of 6
passengers and moves up at a steady speed of 5 m/s. The frictional force opposing
the lift's motion is 7 kN. The minimum power delivered by the lift motor to carry the
maximum load is 100 kW. The weight of the passengers is _____. (Assume, g = 10
m/s2)
Ans 1. 300 kg

2. 1000 kg

3. 150 kg

4. 1300 kg

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238677
Option 1 ID : 630680925726
Option 2 ID : 630680925725
Option 3 ID : 630680925727
Option 4 ID : 630680925724
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.61 In an adiabatic process, which of the following statements is true regarding heat
transfer (∆Q)?
Ans 1. Heat transfer can be either positive or negative.

2. Heat transferring into the system only, is zero.

3. Heat transferring out of the system only, is zero.

4. Heat transferring into and out of the system both, is zero.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680709669
Option 1 ID : 6306802780339
Option 2 ID : 6306802780336
Option 3 ID : 6306802780337
Option 4 ID : 6306802780338
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.62

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238612
Option 1 ID : 630680925465
Option 2 ID : 630680925467
Option 3 ID : 630680925466
Option 4 ID : 630680925464
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.63 In a parallel combination of cells, if one cell fails (becomes open), what happens to the
total EMF of the combination?
Ans 1. Total EMF decreases

2. Total EMF remains the same

3. Total EMF becomes zero

4. Total EMF increases

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680734162
Option 1 ID : 6306802877427
Option 2 ID : 6306802877429
Option 3 ID : 6306802877430
Option 4 ID : 6306802877428
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.64 What is the SI unit of angular frequency?

Ans 1. rad.sec

2. rad/m

3. rad/sec

4. rad.m

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680710148
Option 1 ID : 6306802782264
Option 2 ID : 6306802782267
Option 3 ID : 6306802782266
Option 4 ID : 6306802782265
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.65 The Electric flux passing through a square of 10 cm side is 5 NC-1m2 and the angle
between electric field and area vector is 60°. What is value of the electric field through
this square?
Ans 1. 2000 NC-1

2. 1000 NC-1

3. 50 NC-1

4. 100 NC-1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237012
Option 1 ID : 630680919446
Option 2 ID : 630680919444
Option 3 ID : 630680919447
Option 4 ID : 630680919445
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.66

Ans 1. 15 m

2. 25 m

3. 5 m

4. 20 m

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237084
Option 1 ID : 630680919735
Option 2 ID : 630680919733
Option 3 ID : 630680919732
Option 4 ID : 630680919734
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Section : Chemistry

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Q.67 The standard reduction potential values of X, Y and Z are 0.52, −3.03 and −1.18,
respectively. The order of reducing power of X, Y and Z is:
Ans 1. X > Y > Z

2. Y > Z > X

3. Z > Y > X

4. Z > X > Y

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680373772
Option 1 ID : 6306801456360
Option 2 ID : 6306801456362
Option 3 ID : 6306801456361
Option 4 ID : 6306801456359
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.68 Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to formwater.This is an example of which of the

following types of reaction ?
Ans 1. Displacement reaction

2. Oxidation reaction

3. Combination reaction

4. Redox reaction

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680387504
Option 1 ID : 6306801510697
Option 2 ID : 6306801510694
Option 3 ID : 6306801510695
Option 4 ID : 6306801510696
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.69 In aniline, what is directly attached to the benzene ring?

Ans 1. -NH2

2. -OH

3. -COOH

4. -CH3

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236317
Option 1 ID : 630680916665
Option 2 ID : 630680916666
Option 3 ID : 630680916667
Option 4 ID : 630680916664
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.70 How many moles of aluminium atoms are present in 18.022 × 1023 atoms of
aluminium?
Ans 1. 30 moles

2. 3 moles

3. 1 mole

4. 3 × 10−23 moles

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680684583
Option 1 ID : 6306802683502
Option 2 ID : 6306802683500
Option 3 ID : 6306802683503
Option 4 ID : 6306802683501
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

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Q.71 Which of the following are the correct roles of the anode and cathode in
an electrode process during a redox reaction?
Ans 1. Both the anode and cathode lose electrons.

2. The anode gains electrons, and the cathode loses electrons.

3. The anode loses electrons, and the cathode gains electrons.

4. Both the anode and cathode gain electrons.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680729274
Option 1 ID : 6306802857819
Option 2 ID : 6306802857816
Option 3 ID : 6306802857817
Option 4 ID : 6306802857818
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.72 Which of the following elements belongs to the lanthanoid series?

Ans 1. Fm

2. Am

3. Cm

4. Sm

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347692
Option 1 ID : 6306801353059
Option 2 ID : 6306801353060
Option 3 ID : 6306801353057
Option 4 ID : 6306801353058
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.73 The amount of heat measured for a reaction at constant volume in a bomb calorimeter
is:
Ans 1. qv = nRCVT

2. qv = nRCV

3. qv = CvT

4. qv = nRT

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680387374
Option 1 ID : 6306801510184
Option 2 ID : 6306801510185
Option 3 ID : 6306801510183
Option 4 ID : 6306801510182
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.74 Which of the following elements is a transition metal?

Ans 1. Zinc

2. Potassium

3. Sodium

4. Aluminium

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680711816
Option 1 ID : 6306802788916
Option 2 ID : 6306802788919
Option 3 ID : 6306802788918
Option 4 ID : 6306802788917
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

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Q.75 Secondary alcohols are oxidised to ketones by which of the following reagents?
Ans 1. Chromic anhydride (CrO3)

2. Potassium permanganate (KMnO4)

3. Zinc dust

4. Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347405
Option 1 ID : 6306801351930
Option 2 ID : 6306801351929
Option 3 ID : 6306801351932
Option 4 ID : 6306801351931
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.76 Which of the following is NOT a bases of RNA?

Ans 1. Guanine

2. Cytosine

3. Adenine

4. Thymine

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068083115
Option 1 ID : 630680322321
Option 2 ID : 630680322322
Option 3 ID : 630680322320
Option 4 ID : 630680322323
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.77 For the physical process, measurable properties of the system at equilibrium
________.
Ans 1. increases

2. remains zero

3. decreases

4. remains constant

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347397
Option 1 ID : 6306801351898
Option 2 ID : 6306801351897
Option 3 ID : 6306801351899
Option 4 ID : 6306801351900
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

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Q.78 The chemical reaction, 4HBr + O2 → 2H2O + 2Br2, proceeds through the following
mechanism.

Step 1: HBr + O2 → HOOBr (slow)

Step 2: HOOBr + HBr → 2HOBr (fast)
Step 3: [HOBr + HBr → H2O + Br2] x 2 (fast)

The rate law for the reaction is given as first order with respect to both HBr and O2.
What is the order of the overall reaction and the molecularity of each elementary step
for the given reaction mechanism?
Ans 1.
Overall reaction order = 3; Molecularity of Step 1 = 2, Step 2 = 3, Step 3 = 2
2.
Overall reaction order = 2; Molecularity of the reaction = 5
3. Overall reaction order = 3; Molecularity of the reaction = 5

4.
Overall reaction order = 2; Molecularity of Step 1 = 2, Step 2 = 2, Step 3 = 2

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680711326
Option 1 ID : 6306802786963
Option 2 ID : 6306802786960
Option 3 ID : 6306802786961
Option 4 ID : 6306802786962
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.79 Match the ions (Column I) with their magnetic moment (Column II).
ions Magnetic moment (B.M)
(i) Cr3+ (a) √35

(ii) Mn2+ (b) √3

(iii) Fe2+ (c) √15

(iv) 2+ (d) 0
Sc
(e) √24

Ans 1. (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(b)

2. (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(e); (iv)-(b)

3. (i)-(e); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(b)

4. (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(e); (iv)-(d)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680730083
Option 1 ID : 6306802860929
Option 2 ID : 6306802860928
Option 3 ID : 6306802860927
Option 4 ID : 6306802860930
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.80 According to Werner's co-ordination theory, the total number of valence shell
electrons (VSE) in a complex ion is given by the formula, VSE = Σ(n + x), where n is the
number of electrons in the metal ion and x is the charge on the ligand. Which of the
following is true for the complex ion [Co(NH3)6]3+?
Ans 1. VSE = 21

2. VSE = 18

3. VSE = 24

4. VSE = 15

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680722126
Option 1 ID : 6306802829779
Option 2 ID : 6306802829778
Option 3 ID : 6306802829780
Option 4 ID : 6306802829777
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.81 Choose the correct statement about equilibrium constant.

Ans 1. Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is equal to the equilibrium constant of
forward reaction.
2. Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the negative of equilibrium constant of
forward reaction.
3. Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the independent of equilibrium
constant of forward reaction.
4. Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of equilibrium constant of
forward reaction.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068086631
Option 1 ID : 630680335932
Option 2 ID : 630680335935
Option 3 ID : 630680335933
Option 4 ID : 630680335934
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.82 Which of the following is NOT a method for the preparation of ethyne?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236508
Option 1 ID : 630680917428
Option 2 ID : 630680917431
Option 3 ID : 630680917430
Option 4 ID : 630680917429
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.83

Ans 1. Mesityl oxide

2. Formaldehyde

3. Aniline

4. Diisopropyl ketone

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236315
Option 1 ID : 630680916659
Option 2 ID : 630680916657
Option 3 ID : 630680916658
Option 4 ID : 630680916656
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.84 What is the electronic configuration of Gadolinium?

Ans 1. 4f8 6s2

2. 4f7 5d1 6s2

3. [ Xe ] 4f7 5d1 6s2

4. [Xe ] 4f8 6s2

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068080207
Option 1 ID : 630680310856
Option 2 ID : 630680310855
Option 3 ID : 630680310854
Option 4 ID : 630680310853
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.85 Which of the following formulas is used for calculating angular velocity?
Ans 1. ω = v/r2

2. ω = v/r

3. ω = mr2

4. ω = mvr

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347689
Option 1 ID : 6306801353048
Option 2 ID : 6306801353045
Option 3 ID : 6306801353046
Option 4 ID : 6306801353047
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.86 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Ans 1. Boiling point of a liquid depends on the atmospheric pressure.

2. The boiling point of water is 100°C at 1.013 bar pressure.

3. Boiling point of a liquid depends on the altitude of the place.

4. At a high altitude, the boiling point increases.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236491
Option 1 ID : 630680917361
Option 2 ID : 630680917360
Option 3 ID : 630680917362
Option 4 ID : 630680917363
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.87 In Rosenmund Reaction, which of the following catalysts is used?

Ans 1. A Pd-BaSO4

2. Fe-BaSO4

3. Ni-BaSO44

4. Pt-BaSO44

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680325621
Option 1 ID : 6306801266821
Option 2 ID : 6306801266823
Option 3 ID : 6306801266822
Option 4 ID : 6306801266824
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.88 In a substitution reaction of haloarenes, which mechanism is more likely to result in

the formation of a racemic mixture?
Ans 1. Only SN1 mechanism

2. Only SN2 mechanism

3. Both SN1 and SN2 mechanisms

4. Neither SN1 nor SN2 mechanism

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680725216
Option 1 ID : 6306802841980
Option 2 ID : 6306802841981
Option 3 ID : 6306802841982
Option 4 ID : 6306802841983
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.89 What are organic reactions proceeded by homolytic fissions called?

Ans 1. Homopolar or non-polar reactions only

2. Free radical, homopolar or non-polar reactions

3. Ionic reactions only

4. Free radical reactions only

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238828
Option 1 ID : 630680926329
Option 2 ID : 630680926331
Option 3 ID : 630680926330
Option 4 ID : 630680926328
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.90 Which of the following statements is true about transition metal ions?
Ans 1. All ions are colourless.

2. Only Zn2+ ion is colourless.

3. All ions are coloured.

4. Some ions are coloured and some ions are coloureless.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236305
Option 1 ID : 630680916619
Option 2 ID : 630680916618
Option 3 ID : 630680916617
Option 4 ID : 630680916616
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q
.
9
1
A 1.
n
s
2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680734213
Option 1 ID : 6306802877634
Option 2 ID : 6306802877631
Option 3 ID : 6306802877633
Option 4 ID : 6306802877632
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.92 Which of the following factors is NOT responsible for increase in boiling points of
alcohol?
Ans 1. Presence ofintermolecular hydrogen bonding

2. Decrease in the number of carbon atom in alcohol

3. Decrease of branching in the carbon chain

4. Absence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680387391
Option 1 ID : 6306801510251
Option 2 ID : 6306801510250
Option 3 ID : 6306801510252
Option 4 ID : 6306801510253
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.93 Which of the following is used for preserving biological specimens?

Ans 1. Ether

2. Ethanal

3. Methanal

4. Propanone

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068087353
Option 1 ID : 630680338804
Option 2 ID : 630680338802
Option 3 ID : 630680338801
Option 4 ID : 630680338803
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

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Q.94 Which of the following alkanes are solids at 298 K?

Ans 1. Alkanes containing C2

2. Alkanes containing C5 to C17

3. Alkanes containing C1 to C4

4. Alkanes containing more than C18

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347426
Option 1 ID : 6306801351996
Option 2 ID : 6306801351994
Option 3 ID : 6306801351993
Option 4 ID : 6306801351995
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.95 Which of the following statements about denaturation of proteins is FALSE?

Ans 1. Alters the tertiary structures

2. Alters the secondary structures

3. Loss of biological activity

4. Alters the primary structures

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068079920
Option 1 ID : 630680309707
Option 2 ID : 630680309706
Option 3 ID : 630680309708
Option 4 ID : 630680309705
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.96 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding

disproportionation redox reaction?

Statement I: Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is a disproportionation

redox reaction.
Statement II: Oxygen in hydrogen peroxide is in an intermediate oxidation
state, which changes to both -2 and 0 oxidation states during the
disproportionation reaction.
Ans 1. Only statement I is correct.

2.
Neither statement I nor II is correct.
3. Only statement II is correct.

4.
Both statements I and II are correct.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680729954
Option 1 ID : 6306802860431
Option 2 ID : 6306802860434
Option 3 ID : 6306802860432
Option 4 ID : 6306802860433
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.97 Which symbol is used for Luminous Intensity?

Ans 1. In

2. I

3. Iv

4. A

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068086606
Option 1 ID : 630680335834
Option 2 ID : 630680335833
Option 3 ID : 630680335832
Option 4 ID : 630680335835
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.98 Which of the following amines shows the lowest value of pKb in the aqueous phase?
Ans 1. N,N-Dimethylaniline

2. Methanamine

3. N-Methylaniline

4. Ethanamine

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680235649
Option 1 ID : 630680913992
Option 2 ID : 630680913994
Option 3 ID : 630680913993
Option 4 ID : 630680913995
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.99

Ans 1. 3,3,7,7-tetramethyloctane

2. 2,2-methyl-6,6-methylethyloctane

3. 2,2,6,6-tetramethyloctane

4. 2,2-methylethyl-6,6-methyloctane

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068083185
Option 1 ID : 630680322601
Option 2 ID : 630680322603
Option 3 ID : 630680322600
Option 4 ID : 630680322602
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

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Q.100 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the electrolysis of

aqueous solution of CuSO4 using copper electrodes?
Ans 1. Copper will deposit at anode while it will dissolve at cathode.

2. Copper will deposit at cathode and oxygen will be released at anode.

3. Pure copper strip is made anode while impure copper strip acts as
cathode.
4. Copper will deposit at cathode while it will dissolve at anode.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680737235
Option 1 ID : 6306802889538
Option 2 ID : 6306802889536
Option 3 ID : 6306802889537
Option 4 ID : 6306802889539
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.101 Which of the following spectra does NOT show a continuous spectrum? They rather
emit light only at a specific wavelength, with dark spaces present between them.
Ans 1. Line spectrum

2. Absorption spectrum

3. Hydrogen spectrum

4. Continuous spectrum

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347688
Option 1 ID : 6306801353041
Option 2 ID : 6306801353043
Option 3 ID : 6306801353042
Option 4 ID : 6306801353044
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.102 Which of the following statements about VBT is NOT correct?

Ans 1. It fails to explain the difference between a weak and a strong ligand.

2. It fails to explain tetravalency of carbon.

3. VBT explain the electronic spectra of complex compunds.

4. It fails to explain colour exhibited by coordination compound.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068087379
Option 1 ID : 630680338907
Option 2 ID : 630680338905
Option 3 ID : 630680338908
Option 4 ID : 630680338906
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

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Q.103 Consider the given electrode reaction.

Al3+ (l) + 3e- → Al (s)
What mass of Al is deposited at the cathode when 3 A of current is passed through
Al(NO3)3 solution for 600 s? (Given 1 F ≅ 96500 C mol1-)
Ans 1. 0.50 g

2. 5.0 g

3. 1.7 g

4. 0.17 g

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680708991
Option 1 ID : 6306802777621
Option 2 ID : 6306802777622
Option 3 ID : 6306802777624
Option 4 ID : 6306802777623
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.104 What is the IUPAC name of salicylic acid?

Ans 1. 4-hydroxyacetophenone

2. 3-hydroxybenzoic acid

3. 2-hydroxybenzaldehyde

4. 2-hydroxybenzoic acid

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068080202
Option 1 ID : 630680310835
Option 2 ID : 630680310836
Option 3 ID : 630680310833
Option 4 ID : 630680310834
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.105 Which of the following is the correct decreasing bond order?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347685
Option 1 ID : 6306801353029
Option 2 ID : 6306801353031
Option 3 ID : 6306801353032
Option 4 ID : 6306801353030
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

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Q.106 Considering the energies associated with the orbitals, which of the following
statements is correct?
Ans 1.
The energies of the 3d and 4p orbitals vary, making direct comparison difficult.
2. The 3d orbital has lower energy than the 4p orbital.
3.
The 3d orbital has higher energy than the 4p orbital.
4. The energies of the 3d and 4p orbitals are equal.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680727159
Option 1 ID : 6306802849608
Option 2 ID : 6306802849605
Option 3 ID : 6306802849606
Option 4 ID : 6306802849607
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.107 The correct electronic configuration for the element [Na] is _____.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680373753
Option 1 ID : 6306801456283
Option 2 ID : 6306801456284
Option 3 ID : 6306801456286
Option 4 ID : 6306801456285
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.108 What is the primary difference between a co-ordinate covalent bond and a dative
covalent bond?
Ans 1. In a co-ordinate covalent bond, the electron pair is donated by one atom only, while
in a dative covalent bond, the electron pair is donated by two atoms.
2. In a co-ordinate covalent bond, the electron pair is donated by two atoms, while in a
dative covalent bond, the electron pair is donated by one atom only.
3. There is no difference between the two.

4. Co-ordinate covalent bonds are found in co-ordination compounds, while dative

covalent bonds are found in simple covalent compounds.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680722043
Option 1 ID : 6306802829453
Option 2 ID : 6306802829454
Option 3 ID : 6306802829455
Option 4 ID : 6306802829456
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.109 Which of the following statement is correct for Gibb's energy change?
Ans 1. The reaction is not favourable, means non-spontaneous, if the value of ΔG is
negative.
2. The reaction is said to be imbalanced if the value of ΔG is zero.

3. The reaction is favourable, means spontaneous, if the value of ΔG is positive.

4. The reaction is favourable, means spontaneous, if the value of ΔG is negative.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068091444
Option 1 ID : 630680354512
Option 2 ID : 630680354513
Option 3 ID : 630680354510
Option 4 ID : 630680354511
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.110 Which of the following pairs of transition metals shows zero magnetic moment?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238842
Option 1 ID : 630680926384
Option 2 ID : 630680926385
Option 3 ID : 630680926386
Option 4 ID : 630680926387
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.111 What is the nature of the carbon-halogen (C-X) bond in

haloarenes?
Ans 1. Metallic

2. Purely ionic

3. Polar covalent

4. Purely covalent

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680691629
Option 1 ID : 6306802708983
Option 2 ID : 6306802708981
Option 3 ID : 6306802708984
Option 4 ID : 6306802708982
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

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Q.112 Which of the following has the maximum bond length?

Ans 1. H2

2. F2

3. Br2

4. Cl2

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680233170
Option 1 ID : 630680904657
Option 2 ID : 630680904658
Option 3 ID : 630680904660
Option 4 ID : 630680904659
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.113 Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

Ans 1. Phenols

2. Amino acids

3. Carbonyl compounds

4. Heterocyclic compounds

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068083110
Option 1 ID : 630680322302
Option 2 ID : 630680322301
Option 3 ID : 630680322300
Option 4 ID : 630680322303
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q
.
1
1
4

A 1.
n
s
2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680735480
Option 1 ID : 630680288264
Option 2 ID : 630680288264
Option 3 ID : 630680288264
Option 4 ID : 630680288264
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

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Q.115 Which of the following amines is used to form diazonium salts?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068083102
Option 1 ID : 630680322271
Option 2 ID : 630680322269
Option 3 ID : 630680322270
Option 4 ID : 630680322268
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.116 What is the IUPAC name of the element with atomic number 110?
Ans 1. Unniloctium

2. Unnilseptium

3. Unnilennium

4. Ununnillium

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347690
Option 1 ID : 6306801353051
Option 2 ID : 6306801353052
Option 3 ID : 6306801353050
Option 4 ID : 6306801353049
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.117 1.10 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 55 g of benzene lowered the freezing

point of benzene by 0.45 K. The freezing point depression constant of benzene is 5.12
K kg mol−1. What is the molar mass of the solute?
Ans 1. 227.5 g mol−1

2. 220.5 g mol−1

3. 230 g mol−1

4. 258 g mol−1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236291
Option 1 ID : 630680916562
Option 2 ID : 630680916561
Option 3 ID : 630680916560
Option 4 ID : 630680916563
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.118 What is the IUPAC nomenclature of the following molecule?

Ans 1. 1-Methylpropan-1-ol

2. 1,1-dimethylethane-1-ol

3. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol

4. 2,2-dimethylethane-2-ol

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347736
Option 1 ID : 6306801353234
Option 2 ID : 6306801353236
Option 3 ID : 6306801353233
Option 4 ID : 6306801353235
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.119

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680233503
Option 1 ID : 630680905932
Option 2 ID : 630680905933
Option 3 ID : 630680905934
Option 4 ID : 630680905935
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.120 Which of the following is an application of internal energy in thermodynamics?

Ans 1. Work done by the system

2. Enthalpy

3. Heat capacity

4. Entropy

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680711824
Option 1 ID : 6306802788950
Option 2 ID : 6306802788949
Option 3 ID : 6306802788948
Option 4 ID : 6306802788951
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.121 On treating the sodium fusion extract of an organic compound with FeCl3 solution, the
appearance of a blood red colour confirms the presence of:
Ans 1. iodine only

2. both nitrogen and sulphur

3. both nitrogen and iodine

4. both sulphur and iodine

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236506
Option 1 ID : 630680917423
Option 2 ID : 630680917422
Option 3 ID : 630680917420
Option 4 ID : 630680917421
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.122 When 20 g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 600 g of ethanol, the freezing

point of ethanol is lowered by 0.20 K. Find the molar mass of the solute. (Given:
The freezing point depression constant of ethanol is 1.99 K kg mol−1.)
Ans 1. 3.35 g mol−1
2.
480 g mol−1
3. 3.98 g mol−1
1
4. 332 g mol−

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680712778
Option 1 ID : 6306802792767
Option 2 ID : 6306802792764
Option 3 ID : 6306802792766
Option 4 ID : 6306802792765
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.123 If the rate of a reaction is 2.1 × 10−2 (mol/l)(min−1), then the order of reaction is:
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 0

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347727
Option 1 ID : 6306801353199
Option 2 ID : 6306801353198
Option 3 ID : 6306801353200
Option 4 ID : 6306801353197
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.124 α-D-glucopyranose is:

Ans 1. a hemiacetal

2. an acetal

3. a hemiketal

4. a ketal

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068083109
Option 1 ID : 630680322296
Option 2 ID : 630680322298
Option 3 ID : 630680322297
Option 4 ID : 630680322299
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.125

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680373778
Option 1 ID : 6306801456385
Option 2 ID : 6306801456384
Option 3 ID : 6306801456383
Option 4 ID : 6306801456386
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.126 Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the rate of reaction?

Ans 1. The activation energy of the reaction

2. The frequency of collisions between reactant particles

3. The concentration of reactants

4. The volume of the reaction vessel

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680721922
Option 1 ID : 6306802828979
Option 2 ID : 6306802828978
Option 3 ID : 6306802828980
Option 4 ID : 6306802828981
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.127 What is the number of electrons present in a helium molecule?

Ans 1. Four

2. Five

3. Three

4. Two

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347393
Option 1 ID : 6306801351883
Option 2 ID : 6306801351884
Option 3 ID : 6306801351882
Option 4 ID : 6306801351881
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

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Q.128 What is the nature of bonding in CH4 and NF3 molecules?

Ans 1. Covalent in both CH4 and NF3

2. Covalent in NF3 and electrovalent in CH4

3. Electrovalent in both CH4 and NF3

4. Covalent in CH4 and electrovalent in NF3

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236484
Option 1 ID : 630680917335
Option 2 ID : 630680917333
Option 3 ID : 630680917334
Option 4 ID : 630680917332
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.129 Match the elements (Column I) with the electronic configuration (Column
II).
Element Electronic configuration
(i) Fe (a) [Ne]10 3s2 3p1
(ii) Al (b) [Ar]18 4s2 3d10 4p6
(iii) Cu (c) [Ar]18 4s2 3d6
(iv) Kr (d) [Ar]18 4s1 3d10
(e) [Ar]18 4s1 3d6
Ans 1. (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(b)

2. (i)-(e); (ii)-(b); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(d)

3. (i)-(e); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(b)

4. (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(e); (iv)-(b)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680727177
Option 1 ID : 6306802849679
Option 2 ID : 6306802849680
Option 3 ID : 6306802849677
Option 4 ID : 6306802849678
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.130 Which of the following factors is NOT responsible for creating the centres of different
electron densities in covalent bonds susceptible to attack by the reagents?
Ans 1. Mesomeric effect

2. Hyperconjugation

3. Electromeric effect

4. Inductive effect

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680145512
Option 1 ID : 630680563023
Option 2 ID : 630680563025
Option 3 ID : 630680563024
Option 4 ID : 630680563022
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

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Q.131 The number of significant figures in 1000.0 is ______.

Ans 1. five

2. two

3. four

4. one

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680687061
Option 1 ID : 6306802690910
Option 2 ID : 6306802690908
Option 3 ID : 6306802690909
Option 4 ID : 6306802690907
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.132 Which component in a solution determines the physical state in which the solution
exists?
Ans 1. Solute

2. Mixture

3. Solution

4. Solvent

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680712955
Option 1 ID : 6306802793472
Option 2 ID : 6306802793474
Option 3 ID : 6306802793475
Option 4 ID : 6306802793473
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Section : Life Science

Q.133 The term glycolysis has originated from the ________ words, glycos for sugar and
lysis for splitting.
Ans 1. Latin

2. Greek

3. German

4. French

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238922
Option 1 ID : 630680926705
Option 2 ID : 630680926706
Option 3 ID : 630680926707
Option 4 ID : 630680926704
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

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Q.134 Which are the three types of ecological pyramids?

Ans 1. Pyramid of number; Pyramid of size; and, Pyramid of energy

2. Pyramid of number; Pyramid of size; and, Pyramid of activity

3. Pyramid of number; Pyramid of biomass; and, Pyramid of energy

4. Pyramid of food; Pyramid of nutrition; and, Pyramid of energy

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238304
Option 1 ID : 630680924232
Option 2 ID : 630680924235
Option 3 ID : 630680924233
Option 4 ID : 630680924234
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.135 When did life on earth begin?

Ans 1. 200 million years ago

2. 2000 million years ago

3. 2000 years ago

4. 2000 billion years ago

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285101
Option 1 ID : 6306801108379
Option 2 ID : 6306801108380
Option 3 ID : 6306801108382
Option 4 ID : 6306801108381
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.136 Which of the following statement(s) about enzyme is/are INCORRECT?

(i) Almost all enzymes are lipids.

(ii) Some enzymes are carbohydrates.
(iii) Ribozymes are vitamins.
Ans 1. Only (i)

2. All (i), (ii) and (iii)

3. Only (ii)

4. Only (i), (ii)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680721999
Option 1 ID : 6306802829278
Option 2 ID : 6306802858593
Option 3 ID : 6306802829279
Option 4 ID : 6306802858592
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

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Q.137 The Melatonin hormone belongs to which gland that help in maintaining the normal
rhythm of sleep wake cycle, body temperature, influence metabolism, menstrual cycle
as well as our defence capability?
Ans 1. Parathyroid gland

2. The pineal gland

3. Thyroid gland

4. Thymus gland

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680230231
Option 1 ID : 630680893088
Option 2 ID : 630680893087
Option 3 ID : 630680893085
Option 4 ID : 630680893086
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.138 A person is injected with preformed antibodies. What type of immunity is this?
Ans 1. Naturally acquired active immunity

2. Artificially acquired active immunity

3. Artificially acquired passive immunity

4. Naturally acquired passive immunity

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347659
Option 1 ID : 6306801352927
Option 2 ID : 6306801352928
Option 3 ID : 6306801352926
Option 4 ID : 6306801352925
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.139 Which of the following is a correct statement related to genetic disorder?

Ans 1. Haemophilia is a sex-linked dominant disease.

2. Phenylketonuria is an sex-linked recessive genetic disorder.

3. Turner’s syndrome is due to trisomy.

4. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680235899
Option 1 ID : 630680914992
Option 2 ID : 630680914993
Option 3 ID : 630680914994
Option 4 ID : 630680914995
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.140 A couple is infertile due to the male partner having a low sperm count and unable to
inseminate the female. Which of the following assisted reproductive technologies can
be used for treating the couple?
Ans 1. Zygote intrafallopian transfer

2. Intra uterine transfer

3. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection

4. Intra uterine insemination

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347652
Option 1 ID : 6306801352897
Option 2 ID : 6306801352898
Option 3 ID : 6306801352900
Option 4 ID : 6306801352899
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

Q.141 Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after addition of _____.

Ans 1. lysozyme

2. chilled ethanol

3. ice

4. proteas

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680722889
Option 1 ID : 6306802857365
Option 2 ID : 6306802832800
Option 3 ID : 6306802832801
Option 4 ID : 6306802857364
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.142

Ans 1. central dogma

2. replication fork

3. DNA double helix

4. translocation

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238957
Option 1 ID : 630680926845
Option 2 ID : 630680926846
Option 3 ID : 630680926844
Option 4 ID : 630680926847
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.143 According to HH Cousins (1910), ripe oranges produce a volatile chemical called
________ that ripens bananas.
Ans 1. gibberellin

2. cytokinin

3. ethylene

4. auxin

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238179
Option 1 ID : 630680923735
Option 2 ID : 630680923733
Option 3 ID : 630680923734
Option 4 ID : 630680923732
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.144 Which of the following is NOT a feature of non-chordates?

Ans 1. Absence of notochord

2. Ventrally located central nervous system

3. Absence of gill slits

4. Ventrally located heart

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680235853
Option 1 ID : 630680914809
Option 2 ID : 630680914810
Option 3 ID : 630680914811
Option 4 ID : 630680914808
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.145 All of the following features represent the causes of cancer, EXCEPT:
Ans 1. transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells may be induced by
physical, chemical or biological agents called carcinogens
2. cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes

3. ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations like UV
cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation
4. virus enters into helper T-lymphocytes (TH), replicates and produces progeny viruses
due to decrease in the number of helper T lymphocytes, the person starts suffering from
infections

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680230264
Option 1 ID : 630680893217
Option 2 ID : 630680893219
Option 3 ID : 630680893218
Option 4 ID : 630680893220
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

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Q.146 Select the INCORRECTLY matched pair from among the following.
Ans 1. Glycolysis - Cytoplasm

2. End products of lactic acid fermentation - Lactic acid + CO2

3. Key products of glycolysis - Pyruvic acid

4. End products of alcoholic fermentation - Ethanol + CO2

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680722104
Option 1 ID : 6306802829691
Option 2 ID : 6306802829692
Option 3 ID : 6306802858518
Option 4 ID : 6306802858519
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.147 In an ecosystem, vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is

called ___________.

Ans 1. Stratification

2. Terrestrial Ecosystem

3. Marine Ecosystem

4. Species Diversity

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680713054
Option 1 ID : 6306802793864
Option 2 ID : 6306802793866
Option 3 ID : 6306802793867
Option 4 ID : 6306802793865
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.148 Who showed that sunlight is essential to the plant process that somehow purifies
fouled air in the jar from burning of a candles or breathing of animals?
Ans 1. Jan Ingenhousz

2. Joseph Priestly

3. Julius Von Sachs

4. TW Englemann

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236640
Option 1 ID : 630680917957
Option 2 ID : 630680917956
Option 3 ID : 630680917958
Option 4 ID : 630680917959
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.149 Which of the following is correct regarding the function of the luteinising hormone?
Ans 1. Breakage of corpus luteum

2. Disintegration of part of Graafian follicle to allow the release of the egg

3. Formation of mature follicle from primary follicle

4. Thickening of the endometrial lining

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347649
Option 1 ID : 6306801352888
Option 2 ID : 6306801352885
Option 3 ID : 6306801352887
Option 4 ID : 6306801352886
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.150 What are the structures formed as a result of double fertilisation in angiosperms?
Ans 1. Synergids and antipodals

2. Embryo and endosperm

3. Zygote and primary endosperm nucleus

4. Antipodals and embryo

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347653
Option 1 ID : 6306801352904
Option 2 ID : 6306801352902
Option 3 ID : 6306801352903
Option 4 ID : 6306801352901
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.151 When several factors affect any [bio] chemical process, which of the following comes
into effect?
Ans 1. Blackman’s (1905) Law of Limiting Factors

2. Photorespiration

3. Calvin cycle

4. Photophosphorylation

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680230212
Option 1 ID : 630680893011
Option 2 ID : 630680893009
Option 3 ID : 630680893012
Option 4 ID : 630680893010
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.152 What is the ploidy of cells present in endosperm generally?

Ans 1. Haploid

2. Triploid

3. Pentaploid

4. Tetraploid

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238280
Option 1 ID : 630680924136
Option 2 ID : 630680924138
Option 3 ID : 630680924137
Option 4 ID : 630680924139
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.153 What is the nervous system made up of?

Ans 1. Synapse

2. Juxtamedullary nephron

3. Glomerulus

4. Neurons

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238264
Option 1 ID : 630680924074
Option 2 ID : 630680924072
Option 3 ID : 630680924073
Option 4 ID : 630680924075
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.154 Many living organisms show polymorphism; two basic forms polyp and medusa are
exhibited by which of the following organisms?

Ans 1. Liver fluke

2. Sea horse

3. Cnidarians

4. Tapeworm

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680711842
Option 1 ID : 6306802789026
Option 2 ID : 6306802789027
Option 3 ID : 6306802789024
Option 4 ID : 6306802789025
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.155 What is the storage site of neurotransmitters?

Ans 1. Nucleus of the neuron

2. Inside the axon of the neuron

3. Synaptic vesicles in the neuron

4. Nissl’s granules in the neuron

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238274
Option 1 ID : 630680924112
Option 2 ID : 630680924115
Option 3 ID : 630680924113
Option 4 ID : 630680924114
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.156 What is the coconut water from tender coconut?

Ans 1. Free-nuclear endosperm

2. Stem

3. Leaves

4. Root

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680722202
Option 1 ID : 6306802830080
Option 2 ID : 6306802858418
Option 3 ID : 6306802830079
Option 4 ID : 6306802858419
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.157 In monocotyledonous seeds, such as maize, the outer covering of endosperms

separates the embryo by a proteinous layer called __________.
Ans 1. Plumule

2. Coleoptile

3. Aleurone Layer

4. Radicle

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680712633
Option 1 ID : 6306802792180
Option 2 ID : 6306802792179
Option 3 ID : 6306802792181
Option 4 ID : 6306802792182
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.158 What is the ratio of the net gain of ATP in aerobic respiration and fermentation?
Ans 1. 34ATP : 2ATP

2. 34ATP : 4ATP

3. 38ATP : 2ATP

4. 36ATP : 4ATP

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285094
Option 1 ID : 6306801108353
Option 2 ID : 6306801108351
Option 3 ID : 6306801108354
Option 4 ID : 6306801108352
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.159 Which of the following is NOT a component of a DNA nucleotide?

Ans 1. Heterocyclic compound

2. Amino acid

3. Monosaccharide pentose

4. Phosphoric acid

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347625
Option 1 ID : 6306801352789
Option 2 ID : 6306801352792
Option 3 ID : 6306801352790
Option 4 ID : 6306801352791
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 0

Q.160 According to scientists, the current species extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to
1000 times faster than in the pre-human times. What is the reason behind this
increase?
Ans 1. Human activities

2. Frequent climate change

3. Spread of invasive species

4. Increase in cosmic radiation

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285107
Option 1 ID : 6306801108404
Option 2 ID : 6306801108403
Option 3 ID : 6306801108406
Option 4 ID : 6306801108405
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.161 Which of the following is/are the key concept(s) of Darwinian Theory of Evolution?
Ans 1. Both branching descent and natural selection

2. Neither branching descent nor natural selection

3. Natural Selection

4. Branching Descent

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238952
Option 1 ID : 630680926826
Option 2 ID : 630680926827
Option 3 ID : 630680926825
Option 4 ID : 630680926824
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.162 Which type of phyllotaxy is present in China rose and mustard?

Ans 1. Opposite

2. Whorled

3. Alternate

4. Polysepalous

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680712611
Option 1 ID : 6306802792092
Option 2 ID : 6306802792093
Option 3 ID : 6306802792091
Option 4 ID : 6306802792094
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.163 Which of the following granulated cells secrete renin, a proteolytic hormone, in the
wall of the afferent arterioles of the kidney?
Ans 1. Juxtaglomerular cells

2. Liver sinusoidal endothelial cells

3. Glial cells

4. Kupffer cells

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238659
Option 1 ID : 630680925652
Option 2 ID : 630680925653
Option 3 ID : 630680925654
Option 4 ID : 630680925655
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.164 In humans, on an average, how much urea is excreted out per day?
Ans 1. 250-300 gm

2. 1500-1800 gm

3. 2500-3000 gm

4. 25-30 gm

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238660
Option 1 ID : 630680925657
Option 2 ID : 630680925659
Option 3 ID : 630680925658
Option 4 ID : 630680925656
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.165 The flow of energy in ecological pyramids is unidirectional across the various trophic
levels. Choose the option which is indicating this direction of flow.
Ans 1. Towards middle trophic levels

2. Towards first and second trophic levels

3. Towards higher trophic levels

4. Towards lower trophic levels

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068051367
Option 1 ID : 630680197727
Option 2 ID : 630680197729
Option 3 ID : 630680197728
Option 4 ID : 630680197726
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.166 DNA fragments are _________.

Ans 1. neutral

2. positively charged

3. negatively charged

4. either positively or negatively charged depending on their size

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680235905
Option 1 ID : 630680915019
Option 2 ID : 630680915016
Option 3 ID : 630680915017
Option 4 ID : 630680915018
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.167 Which of the following specialised structures is responsible for asexual reproduction
in liverworts formed by fragmentation of thalli?

Ans 1. Frond

2. Gemmae

3. Algin

4. Stipe

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680711901
Option 1 ID : 6306802789271
Option 2 ID : 6306802789268
Option 3 ID : 6306802789269
Option 4 ID : 6306802789270
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 0

Q.168 Name the four pigments responsible for the colour of the leaves.
Ans 1. Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Xanthophylls and Carotenoids

2. Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Anthocyanidins and Carotenoids

3. Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Xanthophylls and Hemocyanin

4. Chlorophyll a, Hemocyanin, Anthocyanidins and Carotenoids

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238248
Option 1 ID : 630680924008
Option 2 ID : 630680924009
Option 3 ID : 630680924011
Option 4 ID : 630680924010
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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Q.169 Which of the following does NOT belong to the category of eukaryotic cells?
Ans 1. Fungi

2. Plant

3. Protista

4. Mycoplasma

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238173
Option 1 ID : 630680923711
Option 2 ID : 630680923710
Option 3 ID : 630680923708
Option 4 ID : 630680923709
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.170 From the tissues, the deoxygenated blood is collected by a system of venules, veins
and vena cava and emptied into the ___________.
Ans 1. right ventricle

2. left atrium

3. right atrium

4. left ventricle

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238653
Option 1 ID : 630680925630
Option 2 ID : 630680925629
Option 3 ID : 630680925628
Option 4 ID : 630680925631
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.171 Which of the following is a correct statement for disorder of the respiratory system?
Ans 1. Emphysema is the chronic disorder caused mainly by pollen grain.

2. Occupational respiratory disorder is caused by cigarette smoking.

3. Fibrosis is a serious lung disease caused by bacteria.

4. Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi

and bronchioles.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680235870
Option 1 ID : 630680914876
Option 2 ID : 630680914878
Option 3 ID : 630680914879
Option 4 ID : 630680914877
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.172 Which plants are adapted to C4 pathway?

Ans 1. Plants that are adapted to dry tropical regions

2. Plants that are adapted to temperate regions

3. Plants that are adapted to the Arctic region

4. Plants that are adapted to tropical monsoon regions

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285090
Option 1 ID : 6306801108335
Option 2 ID : 6306801108337
Option 3 ID : 6306801108338
Option 4 ID : 6306801108336
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

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Q.173 Which of these are the smallest known living cells that can survive without oxygen
and completely lack a cell wall?
Ans 1. Mycoplasma

2. Cyanobacteria

3. Halophiles

4. Dinoflagellates

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238648
Option 1 ID : 630680925611
Option 2 ID : 630680925610
Option 3 ID : 630680925609
Option 4 ID : 630680925608
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.174 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the transport of gases in
humans?
A) O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin.
B) Partial pressure of O2, partial pressure of CO2, hydrogen ion concentration and
temperature are the factors affecting the binding of oxygen with haemoglobin.
C) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues
under normal physiological conditions.
D)Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the
alveoli.
Ans 1. Only A, B and D

2. Only A and B

3. A, B, C, D

4. Only C and D

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238930
Option 1 ID : 630680926738
Option 2 ID : 630680926736
Option 3 ID : 630680926739
Option 4 ID : 630680926737
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.175 Which gene is inserted in a transgenic animal that is used for toxicology study?
Ans 1. A gene that make them grow faster

2. A gene that make them sensitive to toxic substances

3. Gene for a specific disease

4. Human growth promoter gene

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238297
Option 1 ID : 630680924207
Option 2 ID : 630680924206
Option 3 ID : 630680924205
Option 4 ID : 630680924204
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.176 Which of the following are blue-green algae, have chlorophyll ‘a’ similar to green
plants and are photosynthetic autotrophs?
Ans 1. Methanogens

2. Euglena

3. Cyanobacteria

4. Archaebacteria

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680711867
Option 1 ID : 6306802789130
Option 2 ID : 6306802789131
Option 3 ID : 6306802789128
Option 4 ID : 6306802789129
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.177
State the significance of the alternation of generations in plants.
Ans 1. It allows for only sexual reproduction.

2. It ensures genetic diversity.

3. It allows for only asexual reproduction.

4. It does not allow for adaptation to changing environmental conditions

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285084
Option 1 ID : 6306801108311
Option 2 ID : 6306801108314
Option 3 ID : 6306801108312
Option 4 ID : 6306801108313
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.178 Which of the following statements about gel electrophoresis in recombinant DNA
technology is correct?

Ans 1. DNA fragments are stained with eosin

2. DNA is negatively charged molecule and moves towards anode under an electric
field
3. Band of DNA is blue colour in ethidium bromide stained gel

4. Bands of DNA after staining visualised by X-ray

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680722899
Option 1 ID : 6306802832839
Option 2 ID : 6306802832838
Option 3 ID : 6306802857316
Option 4 ID : 6306802857315
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

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Q.179 Hugo de Vries based on his work on evening primrose brought forth the idea of
mutations, which he believed caused speciation and hence called it ________.

Ans 1. Natural Selection

2. Saltation

3. Adoptation

4. Struggle for Existence

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680712943
Option 1 ID : 6306802793424
Option 2 ID : 6306802793425
Option 3 ID : 6306802793426
Option 4 ID : 6306802793427
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.180 Which of the following is NOT an example of adaptive radiation?

Ans 1. Finches in Galapagos island

2. Placental mammals in Australia

3. Penguin birds in Gulf of Mannar

4. Evolution of marsupials

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285102
Option 1 ID : 6306801108383
Option 2 ID : 6306801108386
Option 3 ID : 6306801108385
Option 4 ID : 6306801108384
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.181 Why are lipids NOT strictly macromolecules?

Ans 1. Lipids are acid soluble.

2. Lipids molecular weight is less than 800 Daltons and come under acid insoluble
fraction.
3. Lipids are abundant in the cells.

4. Lipids form vesicles after grinding, which are water soluble.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285088
Option 1 ID : 6306801108328
Option 2 ID : 6306801108327
Option 3 ID : 6306801108329
Option 4 ID : 6306801108330
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

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Q.182 An angiospermic plant has diploid male plant and hexaploid female plant. What will be
the ploidy of the endosperm formed after triple fusion?
Ans 1. Heptaploid

2. Tetraploid

3. Pentaploid

4. Hexaploid

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347654
Option 1 ID : 6306801352908
Option 2 ID : 6306801352906
Option 3 ID : 6306801352907
Option 4 ID : 6306801352905
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.183 Which phase of the menstrual cycle in human females lasts for 7-8 days?
Ans 1. Proliferative phase

2. Luteal phase

3. Bleeding phase

4. Ovulatory phase

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347648
Option 1 ID : 6306801352882
Option 2 ID : 6306801352883
Option 3 ID : 6306801352881
Option 4 ID : 6306801352884
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.184 Which of the following flowers is an example of actinomorphic symmetry?

Ans 1. Gulmohar

2. Bean

3. Mustard

4. Pea

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680712582
Option 1 ID : 6306802791977
Option 2 ID : 6306802791978
Option 3 ID : 6306802791975
Option 4 ID : 6306802791976
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.185 Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement?

Ans 1. VNTR belongs to a class of mini-satellites.

2. Satellite DNA normally does not code for proteins.

3. DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys.

4. DNA fingerprinting involvesidentifying similarities in repetitive DNA.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680235894
Option 1 ID : 630680914975
Option 2 ID : 630680914972
Option 3 ID : 630680914973
Option 4 ID : 630680914974
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 0

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Q.186 Which organism completes its mitotic cycle in 90 minutes?

Ans 1. Algae

2. Human cells

3. Yeast

4. Bacteria

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236942
Option 1 ID : 630680919166
Option 2 ID : 630680919167
Option 3 ID : 630680919165
Option 4 ID : 630680919164
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.187 An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of a factor,
which causes vasodilation and decrease in blood pressure. This factor is called
_________.
Ans 1. Hageman factor

2. Stuart power factor

3. Atrial natriuretic factor

4. Christmas factor

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680235454
Option 1 ID : 630680913212
Option 2 ID : 630680913215
Option 3 ID : 630680913213
Option 4 ID : 630680913214
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.188 The first organisms that invaded land were ________.

Ans 1. Crocodiles

2. Plants

3. Dinosaurs

4. Turtles

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680712933
Option 1 ID : 6306802793385
Option 2 ID : 6306802793386
Option 3 ID : 6306802793387
Option 4 ID : 6306802793384
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.189 Which of the following alcoholic drink is produced without distillation?

Ans 1. Rum

2. Whisky

3. Wine

4. Brandy

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238966
Option 1 ID : 630680926881
Option 2 ID : 630680926880
Option 3 ID : 630680926882
Option 4 ID : 630680926883
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

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Q.190 What is the use of spent slurry produced in biogas plants?

Ans 1. It can be used as fertilizer.

2. It can be used as fuel.

3. It can be used as pesticide.

4. It can be used as raw material for industrial processes.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285104
Option 1 ID : 6306801108391
Option 2 ID : 6306801108393
Option 3 ID : 6306801108392
Option 4 ID : 6306801108394
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 0

Q.191 Which of the following characters is NOT found in a Monocot stem?

Ans 1. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.

2. The monocot stem has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis.

3. The phloem parenchyma are present.

4. Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than the centrally located ones.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680709151
Option 1 ID : 6306802778273
Option 2 ID : 6306802778272
Option 3 ID : 6306802778274
Option 4 ID : 6306802778275
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.192 Which of the following is a correct statement?

Ans 1. The Government of India legalised MTP in 1972.

2. First trimester abortions are much more risky.

3. MTPs are relatively safe during the second trimester.

4. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680236643
Option 1 ID : 630680917968
Option 2 ID : 630680917971
Option 3 ID : 630680917970
Option 4 ID : 630680917969
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

Q.193 Which of the following carbohydrates is the end result of photosynthesis?

Ans 1. Galactose

2. Fructose

3. Sucrose

4. Glucose

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680237140
Option 1 ID : 630680919958
Option 2 ID : 630680919957
Option 3 ID : 630680919959
Option 4 ID : 630680919956
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.194 A certain disease is controlled by a recessive allele. In a population of 100 individuals,

36 individuals suffer from the disease. What would be the number of homozygous
dominant individuals?
(Based on Hardy Weinberg principle )
Ans 1. 64

2. 48

3. 16

4. 32

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347657
Option 1 ID : 6306801352917
Option 2 ID : 6306801352918
Option 3 ID : 6306801352919
Option 4 ID : 6306801352920
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Marks : 1

Q.195 Which of the following correctly represents the group of biocontrol agents?
Ans 1. Glomus, baculovirus, nostoc

2. Trichoderma, bacillus thuringiensis, baculovirus

3. Anabaena, baculovirus, Oscillatoria

4. Trichoderma, glomus, rhizobium

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680347664
Option 1 ID : 6306801352947
Option 2 ID : 6306801352946
Option 3 ID : 6306801352948
Option 4 ID : 6306801352945
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.196 Erythropoietin stimulates ________.

Ans 1. formation of platelets

2. formation of RBCs

3. formation of lymph nodes

4. formation of WBCs

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238656
Option 1 ID : 630680925641
Option 2 ID : 630680925643
Option 3 ID : 630680925642
Option 4 ID : 630680925640
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

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Q.197 Solanaceae is a large family and is widely distributed in tropics, subtropics and even
temperate zones. They are commonly called _________.
Ans 1. Potato family

2. Lily family

3. Tulip family

4. Pulses family

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680712568
Option 1 ID : 6306802791923
Option 2 ID : 6306802791925
Option 3 ID : 6306802791926
Option 4 ID : 6306802791924
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

Q.198 Which of the following groups of organisms have a protein rich layer called pellicle
that makes their bodies flexible?
Ans 1. Slime moulds

2. Euglenoids

3. Dinoflagellates

4. Chrysophytes

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680235850
Option 1 ID : 630680914797
Option 2 ID : 630680914798
Option 3 ID : 630680914796
Option 4 ID : 630680914799
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Marks : 1

Q.199 Who among the following worked in Malay Archipelago and came to similar
conclusions around the same time as Charles Darwin?
Ans 1. Neither Alfred Wallace Nor Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

2. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

3. Both Alfred Wallace and Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

4. Alfred Wallace

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238955
Option 1 ID : 630680926839
Option 2 ID : 630680926837
Option 3 ID : 630680926838
Option 4 ID : 630680926836
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Marks : 1

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Q.200 Which of the following genera of pteridophytes is heterosporous?

Ans 1. Selaginella

2. Lycopodium

3. Equisetum

4. Psilotum

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680238908
Option 1 ID : 630680926648
Option 2 ID : 630680926650
Option 3 ID : 630680926649
Option 4 ID : 630680926651
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Marks : 1

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