2024 Complete Doc For Printing PHSC - FINAL
2024 Complete Doc For Printing PHSC - FINAL
NCS (CAPS)
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
GRADE 12
2024
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PREFACE
This support document serves to assist Physical Sciences learners on how to deal with
curriculum gaps and learning losses. It addresses all the topics in the Grade 10 curriculum.
Activities serve as a guide on how various topics are assessed at different cognitive levels and
to prepare learners for informal and formal tasks in Physical Sciences. It covers the following
topics:
3. Doppler Effect 13 – 17
4. Organic Molecules 18 – 29
5. Rates of Reaction 30 – 35
6. Chemical Equilibrium 36 – 41
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VERTICAL PROJECTILE MOTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1 A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which ONE of the following physical quantities has
a non-zero value at the instant the ball changes direction? (free fall and newton’s
second law)
A Acceleration
B Momentum
C Kinetic energy
D Velocity
2 A 30 kg iron sphere and a 10 kg aluminium sphere with the same diameter fall freely
from the roof of a tall building. Ignore the effects of friction. When the spheres are 5 m
above the ground, they have the same ... (understating free fall and newton’s
second law)
A momentum
B kinetic energy
C acceleration
D potential energy
3 A ball is released from a height above the floor. The ball falls vertically and bounces off
the floor a number of times. Ignore the effects of friction and assume that the collision
of the ball with the floor is elastic. Take the point of release of the ball as the reference
point and downward direction as positive.
Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT representation of the position-time graph
for the motion of the ball?
(2)
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4 When a projectile is moving vertically upwards, it … (understating free fall and
newton’s second law )
A has zero acceleration
B accelerates downwards with a constant acceleration
C loses its mass
D has maximum velocity at its highest point. (2)
5 A small stone is dropped from a height y above the ground. It strikes the ground after
time t, as shown in the diagram below.
Take upwards as the positive direction and the ground as zero reference. Ignore the
effects of air resistance.
Which ONE of the following diagrams shows a correct position-time graph for the
motion of the stone?
(2)
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STRUCTURED QUESTION (VERTICAL PROJECTILE MOTION)
QUESTION 2
A stone is thrown vertically from the ground. It passes a 2,0 m high window whose sill is 10,0 m
above the ground. The stone takes 0,15 s to travel the 2,0 m height of the window. Diagram is not
drawn to scale.
Neglect the effects of air resistance (i.e. the stone moves under the influence of gravitational force
only).
2.1 Write down the term which describes the motion of the stone (1)
2.2 Write down the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the stone at the maximum
height. (free fall) (2)
2.3 USE EQUATIONS OF MOTION to calculate the:
2.3.1 Speed at which the stone is thrown
Hint: The initial velocity from the bottom of the window to the top of the
window, is the final velocity from the ground to the bottom of the window (5)
2.3.2 Maximum height above the ground that the stone reaches (4)
2.4 Sketch the velocity versus time graph to illustrate the motion of the stone from the
moment it leaves the ground until it reaches its maximum height. (Take upwards as the
positive direction). Clearly show the velocity with which the stone leaves the ground.
(graphs of motion) (3)
[15]
QUESTION 3
Ball B is projected vertically upwards at a velocity of 30 m∙s -1 from the ground. Ignore the
effects of air resistance. Use the ground as zero reference.
3.1 Calculate the time taken by the ball B to return to the ground. (4)
3.2 Sketch a velocity-time graph for ball B. (graphs of motion)
Show the following on the graph:
• Initial velocity of ball B.
• Time taken to reach the highest point of the motion.
• Time taken to return to the ground. (4)
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One second after ball B is projected upwards, a second ball, A, is thrown vertically downwards
at a velocity of 12m.s-1 from a balcony 80 m above the ground. Refer to the diagram below.
3.3 Calculate how high above the ground ball B will be the instant the two balls pass each (6)
other.
Hint: Find the variable that links the two objects and solve simultaneously
QUESTION 4
4.1 A hot-air balloon is rising upwards at a constant velocity of 5 m·s -1. When the balloon
is 100 m above the ground, a sandbag is dropped. Ignore air resistance.
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4.3 Calculate the time taken for the sandbag to reach this maximum height after it has been
released. (4)
4.4 Calculate the total time taken for the sandbag to reach the ground after it is released. (3)
4.5 Draw the position versus time graph for the motion of the sandbag from the moment it
was dropped to the time it reaches the ground. Take height it was dropped as the zero
position. (graphs of motions) (4)
Show the following on the graph:
● Time taken to reach maximum height (4)
● Time taken to return to the ground
● Maximum height reached
[18]
QUESTION 5
A ball of mass 0,5 kg is projected vertically downwards towards the ground from a height of
1,8 m at a velocity of 2 m.s-1 The position-time graph for the motion of the ball is shown below.
(from Q5.1 – 5.4 interpretation of graphs and use equations of motion)
5.1 What is the maximum vertical height reached by the ball after the second bounce? (1)
5.2 Calculate the time t1 indicated on the graph. (4)
5.3 Velocity with which the ball rebounds from the ground during the first bounce. (4)
Hint: Work with the second bounce
The ball is in contact with the ground for 0,2 s during the first bounce.
5.4 Calculate the magnitude of the net force exerted on the ball during the first bounce if
the ball strikes the ground at 6,27 m∙s-1.
Hint: An understanding of projectiles, linear momentum & impulse-momentum theorem
is important in answering this question (4)
5.5 Draw a velocity-time graph for the motion of the ball from the time that it is projected to
the time when it rebounds to a height of 0,9 m. (graphs of motion)
Clearly show the following on your graph:
● The time when the ball hits the ground. (4)
● The velocity of the ball when it hits the ground.
● The velocity of the ball when it rebounds from the ground.
[17]
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WORK ENERGY AND POWER
QUESTION 1 (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1.1 Block X is placed on a horizontal table and is connected to block Y by a light inextensible
string passing over a frictionless pulley, as shown below.
A constant frictional force acts on block X while it moves to the right. P, Q and R are
points on the table such that the distance from P to Q is equal to that from Q to R.
When block X reaches point Q, the string is cut and block X continues to move towards
point R. Ignore the effect of air friction.
Consider the following statements:
(i) work done by the frictional force acting on block X is greater when the block
moves from point P to point Q than when the block moves from point Q to
point R
(ii) Both the momentum and kinetic energy of block X decrease when the block
moves from point Q to point.
(iii) The total mechanical energy of block X remains constant when the block
moves from point Q to point R.
A (i) only
B (ii) only
C (i) and (ii) only
D (ii) and (iii) only (2)
1.2 A ball rolls from point A to D as shown in the diagram below. The sections AB and CD
are frictionless, while BC is rough. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
A The total mechanical energy changes when the ball rolls from B to C.
B The total mechanical energy of the ball decreases from C to D
C The total mechanical energy of the ball decreases from C to D
D Kinetic energy is conserved during the complete motion from A to D. (2)
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1.3 The net work done on an object to increase its speed from rest to v is W. How much
net work must be done on the same object to increase its speed from v to 2v?
A W
B 2W
C 3W
D 4W (2)
1.4 When the net work done on an object is positive (greater than zero), the …
A kinetic energy of the object is zero
B kinetic energy of the object is increasing.
C kinetic energy of the object is decreasing.
D kinetic energy of the object remains unchanged. (2)
[8]
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 2
2.1 An electric motor pulls a crate of mass 250 kg up an incline with a constant force by
means of a light, inextensible rope running over a light, frictionless pulley. The
coefficient of kinetic friction between the crate and the incline is 0,15. The incline makes
an angle of 30o with the horizontal.
the average power delivered by the motor while pulling the crate up the incline.
(5)
2.2 An electric motor drives a water pump which is submerged at the bottom of a 10 m deep
borehole. Calculate the minimum average power required to pump the water out of the
borehole at a rate of 150 litres per minute. The mass of 1 litre of water is 1 kg. (4)
[15]
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QUESTION 3
A 2 kg trolley is held stationary at point X, which is at the top of a frictionless track XY. When
the trolley is released, it moves down the track and passes point Y, which is at the bottom of
the track. The trolley then enters a ROUGH path YZ where it comes to a stop at point Z, which
is 5 m from point Y. The height of the track XY is 3 m
3.1 Is the system between points X and Y isolated? Write down YES or NO and give a (2)
reason for your answer.
3.2 State the principle of conservation of mechanical energy in words. (2)
3.3 Calculate the speed of the trolley when it reaches point Y. (4)
3.4 Draw a free-body diagram showing ALL the forces acting on the trolley as it moves
along path YZ. (3)
3.5 Define the term non-conservative force. (2)
3.6 Give the NAME of a conservative force acting on the trolley as it moves along path YZ. (1)
3.7 In which direction is the trolley accelerating as it moves along path YZ? Write down (2)
FROM Y TO Z OR FROM Z TO Y. Give a reason for your choice.
3.8 Use energy principles ONLY to calculate the magnitude of the frictional
force acting on the trolley as it moves along path YZ. (5)
[21]
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QUESTION 4
A box is pushed from rest with a constant applied force of 30 N over a horizontal surface
which has three different regions. Each region is 5 m long and exerts a different frictional
force on the box as it moves through.
The graph below shows the kinetic energy of the object as a function of the distance from
the starting position as the object experiences the constant applied force of 30 N. The first
region is from (0 to 5) m, the second region is from (5 to 10) m and the third region is from
(10 to 15) m.
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QUESTION 5
5.1 The diagram below shows a steel ball of mass 5 kg, suspended from a string of
negligible mass released from rest at point A 0,67 m from its lowest point, B. As the
steel ball swings through its lowest position at point B, it collides with a stationary
block of mass 2 kg. Immediately after the collision, the block moves to the right with a
velocity of 4,95 m∙s-1 on frictionless track BC. Ignore frictional effects and assume no
loss of mechanical energy occurs during the collision.
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6.1 Define a non-conservative force. (2)
6.2 Use ENERGY PRINCIPLES to calculate the speed of the crate when it reaches point
C. (5)
6.3 Calculate the minimum average power dissipated by the electric motor to pull the crate
from point A to point C. (3)
When the crate reaches point C, the rope breaks. The crate continues moving up the inclined
plane, comes to a stop at point D, and then slides down the plane past point B.
6.4 Draw a labelled free-body diagram for the crate as it slides down the plane past point
B. (3)
6.5 Draw a velocity-time graph for the entire motion of the crate starting from point A until
it passes point B again on its motion down the inclined plane. (4)
[17]
QUESTION 7
A 20 kg block is released from rest from the top of a ramp at point A at a construction site as
shown in the diagram below. The ramp is inclined at an angle of 30o to the horizontal and its
top is at a height of 5 m above the ground.
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DOPPLER EFFECT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
1.1 A hooter of a car emits sound waves of constant frequency as the car moves away from
a stationary listener.
Which of the following properties of sound waves heard by the listener will NOT
change?
A velocity
B frequency
C wavelength and frequency
D frequency and loudness (2)
1.2 A trumpet player standing on the stage of a hall is playing some musical notes through
his trumpet.
Which one of the following situations may result in a listener in an audience hearing a
note at a lower pitch?
A Listener must be facing away from the stage
B Listener must run away from the stage
C Listener must run towards the stage
D The trumpet player must play seated on stage (2)
1.3 A source of sound approaches a stationary listener in a straight line at constant velocity.
It passes the listener and moves away from him in the same straight line at the same
constant velocity. Which ONE of the following graphs best represents the change in
observed frequency against time
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1.5 An observer moves away from a stationary source. The pitch heard by the observer
appears to change because …
A loudness of the source appears to increase
B frequency of the source appears to increase
C frequency of the source appears to decrease
D wavelength of the source appears to decrease (2)
1.6 A train moving at a constant velocity towards a stationary listener emits sound
waves of constant frequency.
Which ONE the following statements about the sound waves observed by
the listener is CORRECT?
The observed …
A frequency is higher than the emitted frequency
B wavelength is longer than the emitted wavelength
C frequency is lower than the emitted frequency
D wavelength is equal to the emitted wavelength (2)
1.7 A learner standing at a roadside records the frequency of sound waves produced by
the siren of an ambulance. The ambulance is moving at constant velocity along a
straight horizontal road.
1.8
A approaches the learner and then passes the learner.
B moves away from the learner, then turns and approaches the learner
C approaches the learner, then turns and moves away from the learner
D moves away from the learner and then stops (2)
[14]
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STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 2
2.1 Name and state the scientific phenomenon upon which this technology is based. (3)
2.2 Calculate the wavelength of the waves being generated by the device. (4)
2.3 How will the frequency of the wave detected by the device change when it is reflected
off an object moving towards the device? (Choose from INCREASE, DECREASE,
REMAINS THE SAME) (1)
2.4 A wave reflected off a moving object in the room is detected at a frequency of 29 500
Hz. Calculate the velocity of the object. (6)
[14]
QUESTION 3
A stationery source emits a sound wave of frequency 5000 Hz. An object approaches this
source with an unknown velocity. The sound wave is reflected from the moving object which
is detected by the source.
(Take the speed of sound in the air as 340 m.s-1)
3.1 State the definition of Doppler effect. (2)
3.2 Calculate the wavelength of the waves being generated by the source. (3)
3.3 Calculate the velocity of the object if the detected wave, by the source, has frequency
of 5104 Hz. (6)
3.4 State TWO applications of the Doppler Effect in Medical Science. (2)
[13]
QUESTION 4
A man mounts a siren on the roof of his car. The siren produces a constant frequency
of 600 Hz. He drives the car at a constant speed up and down a straight road while a
stationary listener takes some readings. After a while, the listener obtains the
following pressure-time graph from the readings taken.
[11]
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QUESTION 5
The alarm of a vehicle parked next to a straight horizontal road goes off, emitting sound
with wavelength 0,34 m. A patrol car is moving at a constant speed on the same road.
The driver of the patrol car hears a sound with a frequency of 50 Hz lower than the
sound emitted by an alarm. Take the speed of sound in air as 340 m.s -1.
5.1 Is the patrol car moving TOWARDS or AWAY from the parked vehicle? Give a reason
for your answer. (2)
5.2 Calculate the frequency of the sound emitted by the alarm. (3)
5.3 The patrol car moves a distance of x in 10 seconds. Calculate the distance x. (6)
[11]
QUESTION 6
An ambulance approaches a stationary observer at constant speed of 10,6 m.s -
1
, while its siren produces sound at a constant frequency of 954,3 Hz. The stationary
observer measures the frequency of the sound 3,25 % higher than the frequency of
the siren.
6.1 Name the medical instrument that makes use of the Doppler Effect. (1)
6.2 Calculate the frequency measured by the stationary observer. (2)
6.3 Calculate the speed of sound. (4)
6.4 How would the wavelength of the sound wave produced by the siren of the ambulance
change if the frequency of the wave were higher than 954,3Hz? Write down only
INCREASE, DECREASE or STAYS THE SAME. (1)
6.5 Give a reason for the answer to QUESTION 5.4. (2)
[10]
QUESTION 7
A patrol car is moving at a constant speed towards a stationary observer. The driver switches
on the siren of the car when it is 300 m away from the observer. The observer records the
detected frequency of the sound waves of the siren as the patrol car approaches, passes and
moves away from him. The information obtained is shown in the graph. Take the speed of
sound in air as 340 m∙s-1.
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QUESTION 8
8.1 A car moves at a constant velocity of 22 m∙s-1 on a straight horizontal road
TOWARDS a stationary device, which can both emit and detect sound waves.
The device emits sound waves with a frequency of 24 000 Hz. These sound waves are
reflected off the car and the reflected sound waves are then detected by the device, as
shown in the diagram below
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ORGANIC MOLECULES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which ONE of the compounds below is an aldehyde? (Identify the molecular (2)
formula of functional group of an aldehyde)
A CH3CHO
B CH3COCH3
C CH3COOH
D CH3OH
2. The reaction represented by the equation below takes place in the presence of (2)
a catalyst.
C13H28 (l) ⟶ C2H4 (g) + C3H6 (g) + C8H18 (l)
This reaction is an example of … (Use knowledge of the different type of
organic reactions)
A addition.
B cracking.
C substitution.
D oxidation
Which ONE of the following is the correct IUPAC name of this compound?
(Review rules for IUPAC Nomenclature. Remember: Functional group
takes preference over branches/ substituents)
A 2,2,4-trimethylpent-2-ene
B 2,2,4-trimethylpent-3-ene
C 2,4,4-trimethylpent-2-ene
D 2,4,4-trimethylpent-3-ene
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5. When 2-chlorobutane is strongly heated in the presence of concentrated
sodium hydroxide, the major product formed is … (Identify reaction as a type
of elimination reaction that will form a major product by applying
Zaitsev’s rule.)
A but-1-ene
B but-2-ene
C butan-1-ol
D butan-2-ol
(2)
6. Which ONE of the following compounds is an ester? (Identify the naming
suffix of organic molecules.)
A Pentanal
B Pentan-2-ol
C Pentan-2-one
D Ethyl propanoate
(2)
7. Consider the reaction represented by the equation below:
CH3CHCH2 + H2 ⟶ CH3CH2CH3
This reaction is an example of … (Identify type of organic reaction.)
A hydration.
B dehydration.
C substitution.
D hydrogenation.
(2)
8. Consider the structural formula of a compound below.
Which ONE of the following pairs of reactants can be used to prepare this
compound in the laboratory? (Recall of esterification reactions.)
A Propanoic acid and ethanol
B Propanoic acid and methanol
C Ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol
D Methanoic acid and propan-1-ol
(2)
9. Which ONE of the following compounds has dipole-dipole forces between its
molecules? (Review intermolecular forces of different organic molecules.)
A Ethanal
B Ethane
C Ethene
D Ethyne (2)
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10. Which ONE of the following is a product formed during the hydrolysis of
bromoethane? (Recall the type of substitution reactions and their specific
products.)
A Water
B Ethene
C Ethanol
D Bromine
(2)
11. For which ONE of the following molecular formulae are CHAIN isomers (2)
possible?
A C4H10
B C3H8
C C 2 H 6O
D C 3 H 8O
12. Which one of the following compounds has the LOWEST vapour pressure
under the same conditions?
(2)
13. The type of organic compounds formed when a haloalkane is heated in the
presence of a concentrated strong base is an …..
A alkane
B alkene
C alkyne
D alcohol
(2)
14. Which ONE of the following is a SECONDARY alcohol?
A C(CH3)3OH
B CH3(CH2)3OH
C CH3(CH2)2CHO
D CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
(2)
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15. Which one of the following is a HYDROLYSIS reaction?
A CH3CH2Br + H2O → CH3CH2OH + HBr
B CH3CH2OH + HBr → CH3CH2Br + H2O
C CH2CH2 + H2O → CH3CH2OH
D CH2CH2 + H2 → CH3CH3
(2)
[30]
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 2
The letters A to F in the table below represent six organic compounds. (Relates to Organic Molecules)
2.1. Is compound C SATURATED or UNSATURATED? Provide a reason for the answer. (2)
2.2. Write down the LETTER that represents each of the following:
2.2.1 An ester (1)
2.2.2 A FUNCTIONAL ISOMER of butanal (1)
2.2.3 A compound with the general formula CnH2n-2 (1)
2.2.4 A compound used as reactant in the preparation of compound D (1)
2.3. Write down the STRUCTURAL FORMULA of:
2.3.1 The functional group of compound C (1)
2.3.2 Compound D (2)
2.3.3 A CHAIN ISOMER of compound A (2)
2.4. Write down the:
2.4.1 IUPAC name of compound F (3)
2.4.2 Balanced equation, using MOLECULAR FORMULAE, for the (3)
complete combustion of compound A
[17]
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QUESTION 3
Study the table below and answer the questions that follow
3.3 The formula C4H8O represents two compounds that are functional isomers of each
other.
3.3.1 Define the term functional isomer. (2)
3.3.2 Write down the STRUCTURAL FORMULAE of each of these two (4)
FUNCTIONAL isomers.
3.4 A 2 g sample of compound E contains 1,09 g carbon and 0,18 g hydrogen. The
molecular mass of compound E is 88 g.mol-1.
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QUESTION 4
The relationship between boiling point and the number of carbon atoms in straight chain molecules of
aldehydes, alkanes and primary alcohols is investigated.
Curves A, B and C are obtained.
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QUESTION 5
Learners investigate the boiling points of four organic compounds given below.
The curves P,Q, R and S below were obtained from the results of the investigation. X
represents a specific temperature.
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QUESTION 6
The boiling points of five organic compounds (P, Q, R, S and T) are studied.
COMPOUND IUPAC NAME
P Pentanal
Q 2,2-dimethylbutane
R 3-methylpentane
S Hexane
T Pentan-1-ol
6.1. Define the term boiling point. (2)
The boiling points of compounds Q, R and S are compared.
6.2. Give a reason why this is a fair comparison. (1)
The boiling points of Q, R and S are given below (NOT necessarily in correct order).
55 °C 49.7 °C 68 °C
6.3. Which ONE of the three boiling points is most likely the boiling point of compound R? (4)
Explain the answer.
6.4. A mixture of equal amounts of P and T is placed in a flask and heated to a temperature
below their boiling points. Assume that no reaction or condensation takes place. The
vapour produced is collected in a syringe.
QUESTION 7
Four compounds of comparable molecular mass are used to investigate the effect of functional groups
on vapour pressure. The results obtained are shown in the table below.
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7.3. Refer to the type of intermolecular forces to explain the difference between the vapour (3)
pressure of compound A and compound B.
7.4. The vapour pressures of compounds C and D are much lower than those of compounds (1)
A and B. Name the type of intermolecular force in A and B that is responsible for this
difference.
7.5. Briefly explain the difference in vapour pressure between compound C and compound (2)
D.
7.6. During a combustion reaction in a closed container of adjustable volume, 8 cm 3 of (5)
compound A (butane) reacts in excess oxygen according to the following balanced
equation:
If the initial volume of the oxygen in the container was 60 cm 3, calculate the TOTAL
volume of the gases that are present in the container at the end of the reaction. All the
gases in the container are at the same temperature and pressure.
[16]
QUESTION 8
The melting points and boiling points of four straight-chain ALKANES are shown in the table below.
[13]
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QUESTION 9
The flow diagram below shows the preparation of the organic compounds using.
CH3CH=CH2 as starting material. X, Y, Z and P represent different organic reactions.
[10]
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QUESTION 10
The flow diagram below shows how various organic compounds can be prepared using compound P
as starting reagent.
[15]
QUESTION 11
11.1. I, II and III represent organic reactions.
11.1.1 Name the type of reaction represented by I. (1)
11.1.2 Is 2-methylbutan-1-ol a PRIMARY, SECONDARY or TERTIARY alcohol? Give (2)
a reason for the answer.
11.1.3 Write down the STRUCTURAL FORMULA of compound P. (3)
11.1.4 Name the type of reaction represented by II. (1)
11.1.5 To which homologous series does compound Q belong? (1)
11.1.6 Name the type of reaction represented by III. (1)
Choose from ADDITION, ELIMINATION or SUBSTITUTION.
11.1.7 Write down the IUPAC name of compound R. (2)
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11.2. 1,2-dibromopropane can be prepared from but-2-ene by a three-step process as shown in the
flow diagram below.
Write down:
12.1.1 The TYPE of addition reaction (1)
12.1.2 ONE observable change which occurs in the container during the reaction (1)
12.1.3 The STRUCTURAL FORMULA of compound Q (2)
Consider reaction 2.
12.1.4 Write down the IUPAC name of compound R (2)
For reaction 3, write down:
12.1.5 A balanced equation using STRUCTURAL FORMULAE for the organic (6)
compounds.
12.1.6 The IUPAC name of alcohol P. (2)
Reaction 4 is an elimination reaction.
12.1.7 Write down the TYPE of elimination reaction. (1)
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RATES OF REACTION
1.1 Which of the following would NOT increase the rate of reaction.
A. Increasing the concentration of the reactants
B. Increasing the volume of the container
C. Adding a catalyst
D. Raising the temperature (2)
1.2 Activation energy can best be described as the minimum energy required to…
A cause effective collisions.
B make reactant molecules collide
C change the orientation of reactant molecules.
D increase the kinetic energy of reactant molecules. (2)
1.3 The graphs below represent the molecular distribution for a reaction at different
temperatures.
Which ONE of the graphs represents the reaction at the highest temperature?
A P
B Q
C R
D S (2)
1.4 The activation energy for a certain reaction is 50 kJ.mol -1. Energy is absorbed when
this reaction takes place. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for the REVERSE
reaction?
ACTIVATION ENERGY(EA) HEATOF REACTION(∆H)
A EA > 50kJ.mol-1 ∆H > 0
B EA > 50kJ.mol -1
∆H < 0
C EA < 50kJ.mol -1
∆H < 0
D EA < 50kJ.mol -1
∆H > 0 (2)
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STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 2
The group of learners perform a series of experiments to test the effect of certain factors on
the rate when magnesium metal is added to EXCESS hydrochloric acid.
Mg(s) + 2HCℓ(aq) ⟶ MgCℓ2(aq) + H2(g) ∆H < 0
The results of Experiment 1 were collected and plotted on the graph paper.
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QUESTION 3
The reaction of zinc and EXCESS dilute hydrochloric acid is used to investigate factors that
affect reaction rate. The balanced equation for the reaction is:
The reaction conditions used and the results obtained for each experiment are
summarised in the table below. The same mass of zinc is used in all the experiments.
The zinc is completely covered in all reactions. The reaction time is the time it takes the
reaction to be completed.
3.1 Experiment 1 and experiment 5 are compared. Write down the independent variable. (1)
3.2 Write down the value of x in experiment 4. (2)
3.3
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QUESTION 4
The reaction of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) and EXCESS dilute hydrochloric acid (HCℓ) is
used to investigate one of the factors that affects reaction rate. The balanced equation for
the reaction is: CaCO3(s) + 2HCℓ(aq) → CaCℓ2(aq) + H2O(ℓ) + CO2(g)
The same mass of CaCO3 is used in all the experiments and the temperature of the
hydrochloric acid in all experiments is 40 °C.
The reaction conditions for each experiment are summarised in the table below.
4.2 What can be deduced from the graph regarding the RATE OF THE REACTION
during the time interval:
4.2.1 20 s to 40 s (1)
4.2.2 60 s to 120 s (1)
4.3 Calculate the average rate (in cm3 ∙s-1) at which CO2(g) is produced in the (3)
experiment.
4.4 How will the volume of CO2(g) produced in experiment B compare to that produced in (1)
experiment A? Choose from GREATER THAN, SMALLER THAN or EQUAL TO.
4.5 A graph is now drawn for experiment C on the same set of axes. How will the
gradient of this graph compare to the gradient of the graph for experiment A? Choose
from GREATER THAN, SMALLER THAN or EQUAL TO.
Use the collision theory to fully explain the answer. (4)
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4.6 Assume that the molar gas volume at 40 °C is 25,7 dm3 ∙mol-1. Calculate the mass of
CaCO3 (s) used in experiment A. (4)
[16]
QUESTION 5
Calcium carbonate chips are added to excess dilute hydrochloric acid solution in a flask
placed on a balance as illustrated below.
The cotton wool plug placed in the mouth of the flask prevents spillage of reactants and
products, while simultaneously allowing the formed gas to escape. The balanced equation
for the reaction that takes place is:
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) +CO2(g) + H2O(l)
The mass of the flask and its contents is recorded in the intervals of 30 seconds. The results
obtained are shown in table below.
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5.7 Calculate the total volume of carbon dioxide produced during the above reaction at
STP. (6)
5.8 It observed that when a catalyst is added to the above reaction, the reaction reaches
completion in shorter time.
Use collision theory to explain this observation (3)
5.9 The CaCO3 chips are replaced with an equal mass of CaCO3 powder. How will each
of the following be affected by this chance? (choose from INCREASES,
DECREASES or REMAINS THE SAME)
5.9.1 The mass in grams represented by Y. (1)
5.9.2 Time taken to reach the mass represented by X. (1)
[25]
QUESTION 6
In an investigation of the rate of reaction, an EXCESS 200cm 3 solution of HCl, concentration
0,5 mol.dm-1 reacts with zinc powder at STP. The following spontaneous reaction takes place.
Zn(s) 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
The volume of hydrogen gas produced is measured at regular time intervals and the following
is drawn:
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
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ACTIVITIES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1.1 The graph below shows a change made to a chemical equilibrium in a closed
container at a time t1. The equation for the reaction is
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) ∆H < 0
TEMPERATURE PRESSURE
A Decrease Decrease
B Decrease Increase
C Increase Decrease
D Increase Increase (2)
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1.3 The graph below represent the change in the rate of reaction versus time for a
reversible reaction that took place when an amount of hydrogen gas and iodine gas
were sealed in a container. The equation for a reaction is.
What change in conditions was made at 10 minutes to change the rate of the reaction
as indicated on the graph.
A Catalyst was added
B Temperature was increased
C Temperature was decreased
D The external pressure of the reaction was decreased (2)
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1.5 How does the rate of the forward reaction compare to that of the reverse reaction at 4
minutes?
A Equal to.
B Higher than
C Lower than
D Half of. (2)
1.6 The reaction, H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) ∆H < 0, reaches equilibrium at a temperature
of 445 ºC in a sealed container.
Which ONE of the following changes will INCREASE the concentration of HI(g)?
I. Adding a catalyst
II. Decreasing the temperature
III. Increasing the pressure by reducing the volume
1.7 Which ONE of the following changes will INCREASE the concentration of HI(g)?
A Only II
B Only III
C I and II only
B II and III only (2)
[10]
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 2
The rapidly increasing human population is resulting in an ever-increasing demand for food.
To meet this demand, farmers apply fertiliser to the same cultivated land EACH YEAR.
Sulphuric acid is an important substance used in the manufacture fertilisers. The equation
below represents one of the steps in the industrial preparation of sulphuric acid.
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2.5 The temperature is NOW increased and the reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium
for the second time at the new temperature.
On analysis of this new equilibrium mixture, it is found that 0,2 mole of SO 3 (g)
is present in the container.
Calculate the equilibrium constant for this reaction at the new temperature. (8)
[21]
QUESTION 3
Consider the balanced equation below for a hypothetical reaction that takes place in a sealed
2 dm3 container at 300 K.
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QUESTION 4
4.1 The following reaction reaches equilibrium at a temperature of 327 °C.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) ΔH < 0
4.1.1 What is the meaning of the double arrow “⇌”? (1)
How does the rate of the forward reaction compare to the rate of the reverse reaction
during the following time intervals?
Choose from HIGHER THAN, LOWER THAN or EQUAL TO.
4.1.2 Before equilibrium is reached for the first time (2)
4.1.3 At equilibrium (1)
4.2 The graph below shows how the percentage yield of NH 3 varies with pressure at
different temperature values.
Which graph (A, B or C) represents percentage yield values obtained at the HIGHEST
pressure? Explain the answer by referring to Le Chatelier’s principle. (4)
4.3 Hydrogen gas, H2(g), of mass 3,50 g and iodine gas, I2(g), of mass 635 g were placed
in a sealed container of volume 1,50 dm3 and allowed to react. The reaction reached
equilibrium at 300 °C. The balanced equation for the reaction that takes place is given
below:
H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g)
When equilibrium is reached, 1,45 moles of I2(g) is present.
Calculate the value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) at 300 °C for this reaction. (8)
[16]
QUESTION 5
Carbon dioxide reacts with carbon in a closed system to produce carbon monoxide, CO(g),
according to the following balanced equation:
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Give a reason for the answer. (No calculation is required.) (2)
5.4 Calculate the initial amount (in moles) of CO2(g) present. (9)
5.5 State how EACH of the following will affect the yield of CO(g) at equilibrium. Choose
from INCREASES, DECREASES or REMAINS THE SAME.
5.5.1 More carbon is added at constant temperature. (1)
5.5.2 The pressure is increased. (1)
5.5.3 The temperature is increased. (1)
QUESTION 6
A sample of N2O4 gas is sealed in a container and heated. The N2O4 gas decomposes to NO2
gas and the reaction reaches equilibrium according to the following balanced equation:
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) ΔH > 0
The graph below shows how the concentrations of the two gases change because of changes
made to the reaction conditions.
6.1 Give a reason why this reaction will only reach equilibrium in a SEALED container. (1)
6.2 How does the rate of the forward reaction compare to that of the reverse reaction at
each of the following times? Only write down HIGHER THAN, LOWER THAN or EQUAL
TO.
6.2.1 t1 (1)
6.2.2 t2 (1)
6.3 What change was made to the reaction conditions at each of the following times? In
both instances, the equilibrium constant for the reaction did not change.
6.3.1 t3 (1)
6.3.2 t4 (1)
6.4 How will an increase in temperature influence the yield of NO 2(g)? Write down
INCREASES, DECREASES or REMAINS THE SAME. Use Le Chatelier's principle to
explain the answer. (3)
6.5 Initially 0,92 mol N2O4 gas is sealed in a 2 dm3 container and heated to 100 °C. At
equilibrium it is found that 20,7% of the N2O4 gas has decomposed to NO2 gas.
Calculate the equilibrium constant (Kc) for this reaction at 100 °C. (7)
[16]
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ACIDS AND BASES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1.1 Which ONE of the following represents the products formed during the hydrolysis of
ammonium chloride?
A. NH4+(aq) and H3O+(aq)
B. NH4+ (aq) and Cℓ-(aq)
C. HCℓ(aq) and OH- (aq)
D. Cℓ -(aq) and H3O+(aq) (2)
1.3 The EQUIVALENCE POINT, when nitric acid is titrated with an sodium hydroxide
solution, is the point where …
A. neither the acid nor the base is in excess.
B. the concentration of the indicator changes.
C. [H3O+] = [OH−].
D. the pH = 7. (2)
1.5 Which ONE the substances can act as an ampholyte in some reactions?
A. CH3COO-
B. HSO4 -
C. H3O+
D. NH4+ (2)
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1.6 A hydrochloric acid solution, HCℓ(aq), and an acetic acid solution, CH 3COOH(aq), of
EQUAL CONCENTRATIONS are compared.
How do the H3O+(aq) concentration of HCℓ(aq) and the pH of HCℓ(aq) compare to that
of CH3COOH(aq)?
[H3O+] of HCℓ(aq) pH of HCℓ(aq)
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The equations below represent the ionisation of sulphuric acid.
Equation I: H2SO4(aq) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + HSO4-(aq)
Equation II: HSO4-(aq) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + SO42− (aq)
3.1.2 Write down the FORMULA of a species that acts as ampholyte in the above
reactions. (1)
3.1.3 Write down the NAME of the conjugate base of the hydrogen sulphate ion. (1)
3.2 A learner adds an impure sample of sodium carbonate into a flask containing 50 cm3
of a hydrochloric acid solution with a pH = 0. The hydrochloric acid is in excess. The
balanced equation for the reaction that takes place is:
Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
3.2.1 Calculate the number of moles of hydrochloric acid present in the flask. (5)
3.2.2 Write down a balanced equation that explains why a sodium carbonate
solution has a pH greater than 7. (3)
3.2.3 The apparatus illustrated below is used during a titration to determine the
mass of sodium carbonate present in the sample.
Write down the name of the apparatus labelled A.
A
(1)
3
3.2.4 During the titration, the excess hydrochloric acid is neutralised by 30 cm of
a 0,4 mol.dm-3 sodium hydroxide solution. Calculate the mass of sodium
carbonate in the sample. (6)
[18]
QUESTION 4
You are given the following ionisation reaction of ethanoic acid in water:
CH3COOH (aq) ⇌ CH3COO- (aq) + H+ (aq) Ka=1,8 x 10-5
4.1 What mass of Mg(OH)2 must be dissolved in distilled water to prepare 500 cm3 of a
solution with a concentration of 0,20 mol∙dm-3? (3)
4.2 What will the concentration of the hydroxide ions in the solution be?
Assume 100% dissociation of magnesium hydroxide in water. (2)
4.3 The pH of any medicine safe for human consumption must lie between pH = 4 and pH
=9.
Will this solution that the learners prepare be safe for human consumption? Show all
calculations. (5)
[10]
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QUESTION 5
5.1 Anhydrous oxalic acid is an example of a diprotic acid and thus ionises in two steps
as represented by the equations below:
I: (COOH)2 (aq) + H2O (l) ⇄ H3O+ (aq) + H(COO)- (aq)
II: H(COO)- (aq) + H2O (l) ⇄H3O+ (aq) + (COO)2- (aq)
Write down:
5.1.1 What is meant by a diprotic acid? (1)
5.1.2 the FORMULAE of each of the TWO bases in reaction II. (2)
5.1.3 the FORMULA of the substance that acts as an ampholyte in reactions I and
II. (1)
5.2 “Oxalic acid is a weak acid and thus will always form a dilute solution.”
5.2.1 Is a weak acid always a dilute acid? (1)
5.2.2 Explain your answer to QUESTION 5.2.1 (2)
5.3 A standard solution of (COOH)2 of concentration 0,2 mol∙dm-3 is prepared by
dissolving a certain amount of hydrous oxalic acid, (COOH) 2•2H2O, in water in a 250
cm3 volumetric flask. Calculate the mass of oxalic acid needed to prepare the
standard solution. (4)
5.4 During a titration 25 cm3 of the standard solution of (COOH)2 prepared in QUESTION
5.3 is neutralised by a sodium hydroxide solution from a burette. The balanced
equation for the reaction is:
(COOH)2 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) → (COONa)2 (aq) + 2H2O (l)
The diagrams below show the burette readings before the titration commenced and at
the endpoint respectively.
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5.4.5 Write down a balanced equation that explains your answer to QUESTION
5.4.4. (3)
5.4.6 Use the answer obtained in QUESTION 5.4.3 to calculate the pH of the
sodium hydroxide solution. (4)
[26]
QUESTION 6
6.1 Consider the equation for the ionisation of the HSO3- ion:
HSO3-(aq) + H2O ⇌ SO32-(aq) + SO32-(aq) + H3O+ Ka = 6,5 × 10-8
6.1.1 Define ionisation. (2)
6.1.2 Define an amphiprotic substance. (2)
6.1.3 Give the formulae of TWO amphiprotic substances shown in the above
equation. (2)
6.1.4 Define a base in terms of the Bronsted – Lowry model. (2)
6.1.5 Give the formulae of TWO substances that act as bases in the above
equation. (2)
6.1.6 Explain what the size of the Ka value for this reaction indicates about HSO3-. (2)
6.1.7 Give the NAME of the conjugate acid of HSO3-. (3)
6.1.8 Draw the graph sketch below to show the relationship between the
hydroxide and hydronium concentration in aqueous solution.
Calculate:
6.2.1 The initial (total) number of moles of sulphuric acid to which the impure
magnesium carbonate was added. (3)
6.2.2 The number of moles of sulphuric acid in excess. (3)
6.2.3 The number of moles of sulphuric acid that reacted with the pure magnesium
in Reaction (i). (2)
6.2.4 The percentage purity of the magnesium carbonate. (4)
[27]
QUESTION 7
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7.1 The conductivity of three acid solutions, A, B, and C, as shown below is investigated
at same temperature.
A 0,1 mol.dm-3 H2SO4(aq)
B 0,1 mol.dm-3 HNO3(aq)
C 0,1 mol.dm-3 CH3COOH(aq)
The brightness of the bulb in apparatus shown below is used as a measure of the
conductivity of the solutions. The acid solutions are electrolytes
20 cm3 of ChemClean is added to a 250 cm3 flask. The flask is then filled to the 250
cm3 mark with distilled water.
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The diluted solution is titrated against the hydrochloric acid solution of the concentration
as calculated in QUESTION 7.2.1
During the titration, 22 cm3 of the diluted ChemClean solution is neutralised by 18,7
cm3 of the HCℓ solution. The balanced equation for the reaction is:
NH3(aq) + HCℓ(aq) → NH4+(aq) + Cℓ-(aq)
7.2.3 Calculate the mass of ammonia in 1 dm3 of ChemClean. (7)
7.2.4 Will the pH of the solution at the end of the titration be GREATER THAN 7,
EQUAL TO 7 or LESS THAN 7?
Write down the relevant equation as motivation for the answer. (3)
[21]
QUESTION 8
The Ka values for two weak acids, oxalic acid and carbonic acid, are as follows:
NAME FORMULA Ka
Oxalic acid (COOH)2 5,6 x 10-2
Carbonic acid H2CO3 4,3 x 10-7
8.1 Define the term weak acid. (2)
8.2 Which acid, OXALIC ACID or CARBONIC ACID, is stronger? Give a reason for the
answer. (2)
8.3 Oxalic acid ionises in water according to the following balanced equation:
(COOH)2(s) + 2H2O(ℓ) ⇌ (COO)-22(aq) + 2H3O+(aq)
Write down the FORMULAE of the TWO bases in this equation. (2)
8.4 Learners prepare 2 dm3 of a sodium hydroxide solution of concentration: Calculate
the pH of the solution. (4)
8.5 During a titration of the sodium hydroxide solution in QUESTION 1.4 with dilute oxalic
acid, the learners find that 25,1 cm3 of the NaOH(aq) neutralises exactly 14,2 cm3 of
the (COOH)2(aq).
The balanced equation for the reaction is as follows:
2NaOH(aq) + (COOH)2(aq) → (COO)2Na2(aq) + 2H2O(ℓ)
8.5.1 Calculate the concentration of the oxalic acid solution. (5)
The following indicators are available for the titration:
INDICATOR pH RANGE
A 3,1–4,4
B 6,0–7,6
C 8,3–10,0
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8.5.2 Which ONE of the indicators above is most suitable for this titration? Give a
reason for the answer. (2)
[17]
QUESTION 9
9.1 Define a base in terms of the Arrhenius theory. (2)
9.2 Explain how a weak base differs from a strong base. (2)
9.3 Write down the balanced equation for the hydrolysis of NaHCO3. (3)
9.4 A learner wishes to identify element X in the hydrogen carbonate, XHCO3.
To do this she dissolves 0,4 g of XHCO3 in 100 cm3 of water. She then titrates all of
this solution with a 0,2 mol.dm-3 hydrochloric acid (HCℓ) solution. Methyl orange is
used as the indicator during the titration.
9.4.1 Calculate the pH of the hydrochloric acid solution. (3)
9.4.2 Give a reason why methyl orange is a suitable indicator in this titration. (1)
At the endpoint she finds that 20 cm3 of the acid neutralised ALL the
hydrogen carbonate solution. The balanced equation for the reaction is:
XHCO3(aq) + HCℓ(aq) → XCℓ(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(ℓ)
9.4.3 Identify element X by means of a calculation. (6)
[17]
QUESTION 10
10.1 The equations below show the reactions occurring in hydrochloric acid (HCℓ) and
ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) solutions. Both acids have a concentration of 1 mol·dm-3,
and are kept at a temperature of 25° C.
I: HCℓ (aq) + H2O (ℓ) ⇌ Cℓ – (aq) + H3O+ (aq) Ka = 1,3 ×106
II: CH3COOH (aq) + H2O (ℓ) ⇌ CH3COO– (aq) + H3O+ (aq) Ka = 1,8 × 10-5
10.1.1 Define an acid according to the Lowry-Brønsted theory. (2)
10.1.2 Write down ONE conjugate acid pair-base pair in reaction I. (2)
10.1.3 Which solution, I or II, will have the lower pH value?
Explain the answer. (3)
10.2 10 cm3 of a 1 mol·dm-3 sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution is diluted with water until
its pH is 13.
10.2.1 Calculate the number of moles of NaOH in the 10 cm3 of the initial solution. (3)
10.2.2 Calculate the volume of the diluted solution in dm3. (5)
All of the diluted sodium hydroxide solution is poured into a burette. During a titration,
15 cm3 of oxalic acid of concentration 0,09 mol·dm-3 is exactly neutralised by a certain
volume of the diluted sodium hydroxide solution.
The balanced equation for the reaction is:
2 NaOH (aq) + H2C2O4 (aq) → Na2C2O4 (aq) + 2 H2O (ℓ)
10.2.3 Calculate the volume of the diluted sodium hydroxide that is left in the
burette after the titration. (5)
[20]
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