Internet Fundamentals – Practice questions

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is a valid class C IP address for a host?

a. 193.255.101.18
b. 200.258.243.201
c. 215.12.63.0
d. 225.192.159.23

2. Throughput is usually measured in ___ per second.

a. bits
b. packets
c. frames
d. segments

3. In IPv6, normally the first ____ bits identify the network.

a. 32
b. 48
c. 64
d. 96

4. What is the maximum segment length for twisted pair cables?

a. 10m
b. 30m
c. 100m
d. 300m

5. The protocol data unit (PDU) for the Network layer is the ______.
a. packet
b. frame
c. segment
d. payload

6. In Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), "asymmetric" indicates that:

a. maximum downstream throughput differs from maximum upstream throughput
b. downstream data link protocol differs from upstream data link protocol
c. downstream physical connection differs from upstream physical connection
d. nothing; it is purely a marketing term

7. Which of the following describes the broadcast address on a IPv4 network?

a. all host bits set to 1
b. all host bits set to 0
c. final octet is always 255
d. router defined - can be anything

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8. Which class of IP addresses is used for multicasting?
a. Class C
b. Class D
c. Class E
d. Class M

9. Tone generators are used to determine:

a. cable characteristics
b. where a wired pair terminates
c. level of noise
d. attenuation

10. The segment is the protocol data unit (PDU) for:

a. TCP
b. UDP
c. Network layer
d. Data link layer

11. In cloud computing terminology, IaaS refers to:

a. Infrastructure as a Service
b. Internet as a Service
c. Integration as a Service
d. Internationalisation as a Service

12. ________ is the process of a wireless device gaining Internet access through an AP (access point).
a. association
b. synchronisation
c. connection
d. activation

13. The trailer of an Ethernet frame:

a. signals to the receiving node that the bytes following are the actual frame
b. provides the MAC address of the source and destination nodes
c. specifies the transport layer protocol carried in the frame
d. ensures that the data received by the destination exactly matches the data issued from the source

14. Switches make forwarding decisions based on:

a. MAC address
b. IP address
c. random allocation
d. nothing; switches forward all frames on all ports

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15. The subnet mask 255.0.0.0 is equivalent to ________.
a. /8
b. /16
c. /24
d. /255

16. A standard network switch operates at what layer of the OSI model?
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4

17. Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?
a. They lack scalability
b. They are not necessarily secure
c. They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers
d. They centralise user account logins

18. Text that has been scrambled by an encryption algorithm is known as:
a. ciphertext
b. cryptotext
c. secret text
d. private text

19. Which of the following is a routed protocol?

a. IPv4
b. RIP
c. IS-IS
d. BGP

20. The decimal number 189 is ________ in binary.

a. 1011 1101
b. 1101 1101
c. 1001 1011
d. 1010 1011

21. The WLAN architecture in which wireless nodes transmit directly to each other is referred to as an ______ WLAN.
a. infrastructure
b. arbitrary
c. extensible
d. ad hoc

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22. Routers make forwarding decisions based on:
a. MAC address
b. IP address
c. random allocation
d. nothing; routers forward all frames on all ports

23. The window size field of a TCP segment indicates:

a. how many bytes the host is willing to receive in subsequent transmissions
b. how many bytes are in the segment
c. how many acknowledgments the host expects
d. the version of Windows OS that the host is using

24. IP is __________ and ___________.

a. unreliable, connectionless
b. reliable, connectionless
c. unreliable, connection-oriented
d. reliable, connection-oriented

25. Which of the following is false?

a. bridging tables associate interfaces (ports) and MAC addresses
b. bridging tables are used by switches
c. bridging tables are used by hubs
d. bridging tables are initially empty and are created by learning from traffic on the network

26. The _____ layer describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the
receiving application.
a. Synchronization
b. Application
c. Session
d. Data link

27. HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model?
a. Layer 4
b. Layer 5
c. Layer 6
d. Layer 7

28. Which of the following is a public IP address?

a. 10.110.15.1
b. 172.24.50.240
c. 192.168.10.38
d. 128.14.42.70

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29. Which tool could you use to identify the path that a packet takes between routers?
a. tracert
b. netstat
c. ping
d. ipconfig

30. Wireless signals may be subject to reflection, which refers to signals:

a. bouncing back to the source
b. splitting into secondary waves
c. diffusing in multiple different directions
d. being absorbed by obstacles

31. A port number, which identifies an application on a host, exists at what level of the OSI model?
a. Application
b. Transport
c. Network
d. Data link

32. Which cloud computing category would you choose if you only needed to access to hardware and network services,
but were planning to install your own OS and applications?
a. IaaS
b. PaaS
c. SaaS
d. TaaS

33. The binary number 0011 0010 is ___ in decimal.

a. 50
b. 76
c. 98
d. 104

34. Ethernet exists at which layers of the OSI model?

a. Layer 1 & 2
b. Layer 2 & 3
c. Layer 3 & 4
d. Layer 4 & 5

35. What command below can be used to display a complete summary of all network interfaces in a Windows computer?
a. ipconfig /a
b. ipconfig /all
c. ipconfig /list
d. ipconfig /show

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36. Analog signals are boosted by:
a. switches
b. hubs
c. repeaters
d. amplifiers

37. There are ____ different port numbers.

a. 256
b. 8192
c. 65536
d. about 4.3 billion

38. Which subnet mask below is equivalent to /24 in CIDR notation?

a. 255.0.0.0
b. 255.255.0.0
c. 255.255.255.0
d. 255.255.255.24

39. Select the layer of the OSI model that is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way
that the application on the receiving end can read:
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Transport

40. UDP is preferable to TCP for:

a. live video or audio
b. email
c. downloading files
d. secure applications

41. ARP is used to associate ________ and _________.

a. MAC addresses, IP addresses
b. MAC addresses, port numbers
c. IP addresses, port numbers
d. Port numbers, domain names

42. What is the default subnet mask for a class B network?

a. 255.0.0.0
b. 255.255.0.0
c. 255.255.255.0
d. 255.255.255.255

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43. In fibre-optic terminology, SMF stands for __________.
a. single-mode fibre
b. short-mode fibre
c. semi-mode fibre
d. simple-mode fibre

44. A port that can carry traffic for multiple VLANs is known as a(n) ___________ port.
a. access
b. trunk
c. multi
d. traffic

45. TCP and UDP are ____ layer protocols.

a. Transport
b. Transmission
c. Network
d. Application

46. Which of the following is an EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol)?

a. BGP
b. IS-IS
c. RIP
d. IPv6

47. What are the last two parts of a host name known as?
a. top level domain
b. fully qualified domain name (FQDN)
c. domain name
d. host qualifier

48. Which of the following statements is true?

a. VLANs are logical broadcast domains
b. VLANs are defined at the Transport layer
c. all switches support the creation of VLANs
d. VLANs use access ports to exchange VLAN information

49. The ______ layer is responsible for breaking down application layer data and ensuring it crosses the network reliably.
a. Network
b. Transport
c. Data link
d. Presentation

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50. Which of these is not a main step in the network troubleshooting process?
a. Identify the problem.
b. Establish a theory of probable cause.
c. Test the theory to determine case.
d. Train staff in the use of software and equipment.

51. The process of adding a header to the data inherited from the layer above is called _____.
a. segmenting
b. encapsulation
c. fragmenting
d. appending

52. Choose the option below that shows the correct order for units of bytes:
a. kilobytes, megabytes, gigabytes, terabytes
b. kilobytes, megabytes, terabytes, gigabytes
c. megabytes, kilobytes, gigabytes, terabytes
d. megabytes, kilobytes, terabytes, gigabytes

53. Which of the following is not a broadcast address?

a. 10.0.0.127/24
b. 10.0.0.127/25
c. 10.0.0.127/26
d. 10.0.0.127/27

54. Wireless signals may be subject to scattering, which refers to signals:

a. bouncing back to the source
b. splitting into secondary waves
c. diffusing in multiple different directions
d. being absorbed by obstacles

55. Which of the following is a routing protocol?

a. OSPF
b. IPv4
c. IPv6
d. TCP

56. ___ is any undesirable influence degrading or distorting a signal.

a. attenuation
b. latency
c. jitter
d. noise

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57. What is the smallest subnet that will accommodate 40 hosts?
a. /24
b. /25
c. /26
d. /27

58. Layer 1 of the OSI model is known as the _____ layer.

a. Transmission
b. Physical
c. Transport
d. Presentation

59. In networking, a socket refers to a combination of ____ and _____.

a. domain name, IP address
b. IP address, port number
c. IP address, MAC address
d. MAC address, port number

60. Which of the following is not a wireless technology used to connect PAN devices?
a. bluetooth
b. infrared (IR)
c. near-field communication (NFC)
d. Wi-Max

61. Which of the following statements about CSMA/CD is false?

a. nodes listen to make sure that the wire is free before attempting to transmit
b. if a collision is detected, nodes stop transmitting and broadcast a jam signal
c. nodes wait a random back-off time before attempting to resubmit
d. nodes with high priority may re-transmit immediately

62. 220.33.219.11 is a ______ address.

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

63. The 1000Base-T Ethernet standard specifies a maximum throughput of:

a. 1000 bps (kilobit)
b. 1000 Kbps (megabit)
c. 1000 Mbps (gigabit)
d. 1000 Gbps (terabit)

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64. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for defining the format of logical addresses?
a. Data link
b. Network
c. Transport
d. Application

65. The binary number 1111 1110 is ___ in decimal.

a. 240
b. 251
c. 254
d. 255

66. Which of the following is the most widely used networking medium for modern Ethernet LANs?
a. twisted pair cable
b. coaxial cable
c. fibre-optics
d. infrared

67. What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with
the network?
a. arp
b. ifconfig
c. ping
d. route

68. Ethernet uses _______ transmission.

a. broadband
b. baseband
c. wideband
d. narrowband

69. If a router cannot find a network address in its routing table, it will forward packets to the:
a. gateway of last resort
b. authoritative gateway
c. root-level gateway
d. nowhere - it will drop packets to unknown destinations

70. Which of the following is an advantage of fibre-optic cable over copper cable?
a. less expensive
b. able to carry signals for longer distances
c. easier to install
d. can plug directly into most workstations

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71. A loopback IP address begins with what number?
a. 254
b. 127
c. 169
d. 192

72. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?

a. 255.0.0.0
b. 255.255.0.0
c. 255.255.255.0
d. 255.255.255.255

73. What physical network topology consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch?
a. bus topology
b. ring topology
c. hub topology
d. star topology

74. Frame Relay is a _________ layer protocol, generally used for ____.
a. data link, WANs
b. data link, LANs
c. physical, WANs
d. physical, LANs

75. ____ extend broadcast domains.

a. hubs and repeaters
b. only repeaters
c. only hubs
d. hubs, repeaters, and switches

76. The smallest network is a ______________________, which is a network of personal devices, such as the network
you use when you sync your mobile phone and your computer.
a. PAN (Personal Area Network)
b. LAN (Local Area Network)
c. SAN (Small Area Network)
d. MAN (Mobile Area Network)

77. Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously?
a. half duplex
b. simplex
c. full-duplex
d. multiplex

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78. How is traffic from multiple VLANs distinguished?
a. A VLAN identifier is sent in a separate packet and frame.
b. A VLAN identifier is added to the packet.
c. A VLAN identifier is added to the frame.
d. A VLAN identifier is added to the application data.

79. DHCP is used to:

a. Dynamically assign IP addresses
b. Dynamically assign port numbers
c. Dynamically assign MAC addresses
d. Dynamically assign domain names

80. An IPv6 address consists of how many bits?

a. 32
b. 48
c. 96
d. 128

81. The major difference between IPv4 and IPv6 is that:

a. IPv6 is a Transport layer protocol
b. IPv6 can carry more types of data than IPv4
c. IPv6 has a much larger address space
d. IPv6 uses domain names directly, rather than numeric addresses

82. The number of usable host addresses on a /29 subnet is:

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

83. Application layer protocols fall into two categories: those that provide services to users; and those that provide utility
services to the ______.
a. system
b. network
c. packet
d. NIC

84. Wireless signals may be subject to diffraction, which refers to signals:

a. bouncing back to the source
b. splitting into secondary waves
c. diffusing in multiple different directions
d. being absorbed by obstacles

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85. The decimal number 101 is _______ in binary.
a. 0110 0101
b. 1100 1011
c. 0110 0111
d. 0011 0101

86. In IPv4, a subnet mask is used to determine _______.

a. the network portion of an IP address
b. the host portion of an IP address
c. the destination MAC address
d. the source MAC address

87. DNS exists at the ___ layer.

a. network
b. transport
c. presentation
d. application

88. What is the name for the protocol data unit (PDU) of the Data Link layer?
a. packet
b. data
c. bit
d. frame

89. _____ extend collision domains.

a. hubs and repeaters
b. only repeaters
c. only hubs
d. hubs, repeaters, and switches

90. ____ refers to the loss of a signal's strength as it travels away from the source.
a. attenuation
b. latency
c. jitter
d. noise

91. The preamble of an Ethernet frame:

a. signals to the receiving node that the bytes following are the actual frame
b. provides the MAC address of the source and destination nodes
c. specifies the transport layer protocol carried in the frame
d. ensures that the data the destination exactly matches the data issued from the source

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Internet Fundamentals – Practice questions
92. What is the default subnet mask for a class A network?
a. 255.0.0.0
b. 255.255.0.0
c. 255.255.255.0
d. 255.255.255.255

93. Which of the following is not performed by TCP?

a. three-way handshake
b. sequencing
c. acknowledgements
d. packet fragmentation

94. The header of an Ethernet frame:

a. signals to the receiving node that the bytes following are the actual frame
b. provides the MAC address of the source and destination nodes
c. specifies the transport layer protocol carried in the frame
d. ensures that the data the destination exactly matches the data issued from the source

95. In the strict technical sense, (analog) bandwidth refers to:

a. the difference between the highest and lowest frequencies a medium can transmit
b. the difference between the highest and lowest amplitudes a medium can transmit
c. the number of bits that can be transmitted in a given time period
d. the number of frames that can be transmitted in a given time period

96. What range of ports is referred to as the "well-known" range of ports?

a. 0-1023
b. 512-1023
c. 1024-49151
d. 49152-65535

97. In fibre-optic terminology, MMF stands for __________.

a. mixed-mode fibre
b. multi-mode fibre
c. maximum-mode fibre
d. minimum-mode fibre

98. At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?
a. Application
b. Session
c. Transport
d. Network

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99. Routing protocols are used to:
a. determine the best path through a network
b. determine the formatting of logical addresses
c. determine the formatting of packet headers
d. determine whether a router is functioning correctly

100. Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium but in only one direction at a
time?
a. full duplex
b. half duplex
c. simplex
d. multiplex

101. What do the first 24 bits of a MAC address represent?

a. Organizationally Unique Identifier
b. device ID
c. extension ID
d. network ID

102. Which tool could you use to identify which application is using a particular port number?
a. netstat
b. ipconfig
c. ping
d. tracert

103. The TLD (top-level domain) in http://www.google.com is:

a. http
b. www
c. google
d. com

104. Hubs make forwarding decisions based on:

a. MAC address
b. IP address
c. random allocation
d. nothing; hubs forward all frames on all ports

105. The subnet mask 255.255.255.128 is equivalent to ___ in CIDR notation.

a. /24
b. /25
c. /26
d. /27

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Internet Fundamentals – Practice questions
106. Which of the following options is not a likely source of electromagnetic interference?
a. power lines
b. motors
c. fiber optic cables
d. microwaves

107. Which of these routing protocols is not used within an autonomous system?
a. BGP
b. IS-IS
c. OSPF
d. RIP

108. List two (2) advantages and two (2) disadvantages of fibre-optic cable compared to UTP.

109. Briefly describe VLANs and why they are used.

110. Briefly explain the steps of the CSMA/CA process used by Wi-Fi.

111. What is a VPN?

112. What is the purpose of ARP, and how does it work?

113. Describe war driving and war chalking.

114. Briefly explain the steps of the CSMA/CD process used by Ethernet.

115. Describe the steps taken by a switch to build its bridging table.

116. Describe the steps taken to resolve a FQDN in DNS.

117. Compare and contrast the features and purpose of TCP and UDP.

118. List two (2) advantages of virtualisation, and two (2) disadvantages.

119. List four (4) different routing metrics.

120. List each layer of the OSI model and its corresponding PDU (protocol data unit).

121. What is the purpose of the TTL field in an IP packet header? How is it dealt with by routers?

122. Briefly explain how TCP uses sequence numbers and acknowledgements to provide reliable data transfer.

123. Describe NAT and its purpose.

124. Compare and contrast public key and private key encryption.

125. What advantages do Client-Server networks have over Peer-to-Peer networks?

126. Explain the difference between a routing protocol and a routed protocol.
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Internet Fundamentals – Practice questions

127. Both an IP address and port number are needed to communicate to an application on a remote server. What is the
purpose of the IP address, and what is the purpose of the port number?

128. Explain how a router uses its routing table to make forwarding decisions.

129.

Consider the network above and use VLSM to subnet the network using the most efficient subnetting scheme for the
LANs and the WANs. The WAN links are to be allocated from the network range directly following the LANs. The LAN
subnets must be large enough to accommodate the number of actual host machines and no larger.
For the task you are to select a public network address (class A, B or C) to provide the most efficient solution.

Location Number of Actual Host machines

Dublin 1200
Odessa 450
Moscow 200
London 50
Athens 40

Once subnetted you are to allocate the first useable network address to each router interface along with its
subnet mask.

130. What is the supernet address, with mask, for the networks below:
100.15.129.0/24
100.15.130.0/24
100.15.131.0/24
100.15.133.0/24

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