2021 Paper 1
2021 Paper 1
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks: 180
for
JEE (Advanced)-2021
PAPER - 1
PART-I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. The smallest division on the main scale of a Vernier calipers is 0.1 cm. Ten divisions of the Vernier scale
correspond to nine divisions of the main scale. The figure below on the left shows the reading of this calipers
with no gap between its two jaws. The figure on the right shows the reading with a solid sphere held between
the jaws. The correct diameter of the sphere is
(A) 3.07 cm
(B) 3.11 cm
(C) 3.15 cm
(D) 3.17 cm
Answer (C)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
P 4 2
V
(A) steps 1 and 2
Answer (C)
Sol. Given P – V diagram
For process (1)
Q1 = nCPT
1
As P = constant and V increases
so T will increase
P 4 2
So Q1 > 0
For process (2)
3
Q2 = nCVT
V
V = constant, P , So T
3. An extended object is placed at point O, 10 cm in front of a convex lens L1 and a concave lens L2 is placed
10 cm behind it, as shown in the figure. The radii of curvature of all the curved surfaces in both the lenses are
20 cm. The refractive index of both the lenses is 1.5. The total magnification of this lens system is
L1 L2
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.8
(C) 1.3
(D) 1.6 O
10 cm 10 cm
Answer (B)
1 1 1
Sol.
v 1 10 20
1 1 1 1 1 3 2
1
v 1 20 10 20 f 1 2 20
1
v 1 20 cm
20
v 20
m1 2
u1 10
1 1 1
again
v 2 30 20
1 1 1 5 1
v2 30 20 60 12
12 2
m2
30 5
2
m m1 m 2 2 = 0.8
5
4. A heavy nucleus Q of half-life 20 minutes undergoes alpha-decay with probability of 60% and beta-decay with
probability of 40%. Initially, the number of Q nuclei is 1000. The number of alpha-decays of Q in the first one
hour is
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 350
(D) 525
Answer (D)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Sol: t1/2 = 20 min
In 60 min, no. of half-life = 3
1000
NA 1000 0.6
23
7
= 1000 0.6
8
= 525
SECTION - 2
This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated place using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
A projectile is thrown from a point O on the ground at an angle 45° from the vertical and with a speed 5 2 m/s .
The projectile at the highest point of its trajectory splits into two equal parts. One part falls vertically down to
the ground, 0.5 s after the splitting. The other part, t seconds after the splitting, falls to the ground at a distance
x meters from the point O. The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2.
5. The value of t is ________.
Answer (00.50)
u 2 sin2
Sol. H
2g
50 1 5
=
2 10 2 4
2H 25
t
g 4 10
1
t s 0.5 sec
2
Ans. 00.50
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
6. The value of x is ________.
Answer (07.50)
3R
Sol. X as Xcm = R
2
u 2 sin2 50
R 5
g 10
3R 15
X 7.5 m
2 2
Ans.: 07.50
Question Stem for Question Nos. 7 and 8
Question Stem
In the circuit shown below, the switch S is connected to position P for a long time so that the charge on the
capacitor becomes q1 µC. Then S is switched to position Q. After a long time, the charge on the capacitor is
q2 µC.
S 1 2
P
Q
1V 1F 2V
Answer (01.33)
Sol. With switch S at position P after long time potential difference across capacitor branch
2 1 22 4
=
2 1
v
1 1 3 3
2 1
4
Charge on capacitor q1C C
3
4
q1 1.33
3
8. The magnitude of q2 is_____.
Answer (00.67)
Sol. With switch S at position Q after long time potential difference across capacitor
= potential difference across resistance of 1 ohm.
2
= v
3
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
2
charge on capacitor q2C C
3
q2 = 0.67
Question Stem for Question Nos. 9 and 10
Question Stem
Two point charges –Q and + Q / 3 are placed in the xy-plane at the origin (0, 0) and a point (2, 0), respectively, as
shown in the figure. This results in an equipotential circle of radius R and potential V = 0 in the xy-plane with its
center at (b, 0). All lengths are measured in meters.
–Q
x
Q
3
Answer (R = 01.73)
10. The value of b is ___ meter
Answer (b = 03.00)
Solution for Q. Nos. 9 & 10
Q
–Q
3
x
(0,0) (2,0)
1 Q Q
V ( x, y )
4 0 x2 y 2 3 ( x 2)2 y 2
3( x 2)2 3 y 2 x 2 y 2
( x 3)2 y 2 ( 3)2
SECTION - 3
· This section contains SIX (06) questions.
· Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
· For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
· Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
· For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
11. A horizontal force F is applied at the center of mass of a cylindrical object of mass m and radius R, perpendicular
to its axis as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the object and the ground is . The center
of mass of the object has an acceleration a. The acceleration due to gravity is g. Given that the object rolls
without slipping, which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) For the same F, the value of a does not depend on whether the cylinder is solid or hollow
(C) The magnitude of the frictional force on the object due to the ground is always mg
F
(D) For a thin-walled hollow cylinder, a
2m
Answer (B, D)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Sol. For solid cylinder,
3 2 a
F R mR
2 R
2F
a 3m
a F
F R (2 mR 2 )
R
F
a
2m
For solid cylinder
2F F
f F m mg
3m 3
F 3mg
2
a (3 mg )
3m
amax = 2g
12. A wide slab consisting of two media of refractive indices n1 and n2 is placed in air as shown in the figure. A
1
ray of light is incident from medium n1 to n2 at an angle , where sin is slightly larger than n . Take refractive
1
index of air as 1. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
air
n2
n1
Answer (B, C, D)
air
1
Sol. sin ... (i) n2
n
1
n1
and, n1sin = 1 × sinr ... (ii)
sinr > 1
refraction into air is not possible.
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
13. A particle of mass M = 0.2 kg is initially at rest in the xy-plane at a point (x = –l, y = –h), where
l = 10 m and h = 1 m. The particle is accelerated at time t = 0 with a constant acceleration a = 10 m/s2
along the positive x-direction. Its angular momentum and torque with respect to the origin, in SI units, are
represented by L and , respectively.. iˆ, jˆ and kˆ are unit vectors along the positive x, y and z-directions
(C) L 4kˆ when the particle passes through the point (x = l, y = –h)
(D) k̂ when the particle passes through the point (x = 0, y = –h)
Answer (A, B, C)
O x
Sol.
F = ma
(–10, –1)
2 (20)
t 2s
10
(0.2 10 1) kˆ 2kˆ
L [0.2 (10 2) 1] kˆ 4kˆ
14. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about the spectrum of hydrogen atom?
9
(A) The ratio of the longest wavelength to the shortest wavelength in Balmer series is
5
(B) There is an overlap between the wavelength ranges of Balmer and Paschen series
1
(C) The wavelengths of Lyman series are given by 1 2 0 , where 0 is the shortest wavelength of Lyman
m
series and m is an integer
(D) The wavelength ranges of Lyman and Balmer series do not overlap
Answer (A, D)
Sol. For Balmer series :
1 1 1
R n 3,4,5.....
2 2
2 n
1 1 1
R
4 9
max
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
1 1
R
4
min
9
max
5
min
1 1
R 1 n 2,3,4......
2
n
1
R
min
2
n
0
2
n 1
15. A long straight wire carries a current, l = 2 ampere. A semi-circular conducting rod is placed beside it on two
conducting parallel rails of negligible resistance. Both the rails are parallel to the wire. The wire, the rod and
the rails lie in the same horizontal plane, as shown in the figure. Two ends of the semi-circular rod are at
distances 1 cm and 4 cm from the wire. At time t = 0, the rod starts moving on the rails with a speed v =
3.0 m/s (see the figure).
A resistor R = 1.4 and a capacitor C0 = 5.0 F are connected in series between the rails. At time
t = 0, C0 is uncharged. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? [0 = 4 × 10–7 SI units. Take ln 2
= 0.7]
1 cm
4 cm
R C0
Answer (A, C)
Sol. Equivalent circuit of the given arrangement is :
R C0
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Iv b
0
Where ln
2 a
= 1.68 × 10–6 V
6
1.68 10 6
At t = 0, i 1.2 10 A
max R 1.4
16. A cylindrical tube, with its base as shown in the figure, is filled with water. It is moving down with a constant
acceleration a along a fixed inclined plane with angle = 45º. P1 and P2 are pressures at points 1 and 2,
(P1 P2 )
respectively, located at the base of the tube. Let , where is density of water, d is the inner
(gd )
diameter of the tube and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
d
2 a
1
= 45°
g
(A) 0 when a
2
g
(B) 0 when a
2
2 1 g
(C) when a
2 2
1 g
(D) when a
2 2
Answer (A, C)
P P 2a
1 2 1
gd g
g
0 for a
2
2 d
a
1
2 1 g 45°
for a
2 2
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
SECTION 4
· This section contains THREE (03) questions.
· The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
· For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
· Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered
17. An -particle (mass 4 amu) and a singly charged sulfur ion (mass 32 amu) are initially at rest. They are
accelerated through a potential V and then allowed to pass into a region of uniform magnetic field which is
normal to the velocities of the particles. Within this region, the -particle and the sulfur ion move in circular orbits
rs
of radii r and rs, respectively. The ratio r is ________.
Answer (4)
mv
0
Sol. r
qB
1 2
mv qV
2 0
2mqV
r
qB
1 2mV
r
B q
r m q
s s
2 8
r q m
s
r
s
4
r
18. A thin rod of mass M and length a is free to rotate in horizontal plane about a fixed vertical axis passing through
a a
point O. A thin circular disc of mass M and of radius is pivoted on this rod with its center at a distance
4 4
from the free end so that it can rotate freely about its vertical axis, as shown in the figure. Assume that both
the rod and the disc have uniform density and they remain horizontal during the motion. An outside stationary
observer finds the rod rotating with an angular velocity and the disc rotating about its vertical axis with angular
Ma2
velocity 4. The total angular momentum of the system about the point O is 48 n . The value of n is
______.
M 4
M
O
a a/4
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Answer (49)
Sol. Ls= Ldisc + Lrod
L r pI 4
disc cm
Ma 2 3a 3a
= 4 M
32 4 4
11
= Ma2
16
Ma 2
L
rod 3
Ma 2 11 2
L Ma
system 3 16
49
= Ma 2
48
n = 49
19. A small object is placed at the center of a large evacuated hollow spherical container. Assume that the container
is maintained at 0 K. At time t = 0, the temperature of the object is 200 K. The temperature of the object
becomes 100 K at t = t1 and 50 K at t = t2. Assume the object and the container to be ideal black bodies.
t2
The heat capacity of the object does not depend on temperature. The ratio t is ______.
1
Answer (9)
Sol. Heat radiated = eAT4
= KT4
dT
mS KT 4
dt
100
dT
mS 4
Kt
1
200 T
1 1 1 1 7
t
1 K 1003 2003 K 2003
1 1
1 1 1 1 63
t 3
2 K 50 3 3
1 200 K1 200
t
2
9
t
1
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
NaNH 2
Na
liq. NH3
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Answer (B)
Sol. It is a case of Birch reduction. Alkynes on reaction with alkali metal in liq. NH3 gives trans-alkene. But terminal
alkynes do not get reduced.
NaNH 2
Na
liq. NH3
2. Among the following, the conformation that corresponds to the most stable conformation of meso-butane-2,3-diol
is
OH OH
H Me H OH
(A) (B)
Me H H Me
OH Me
OH OH
Me OH H OH
(C) (D)
H Me Me H
H Me
Answer (B)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Sol. Meso compounds have plane of symmetry. In case of butan-2, 3-diol, gauche form is the most stable due to
intra-molecular H-bonding.
H H-bonding
O
H O H
H Me
Me
3. For the given close packed structure of a salt made of cation X and anion Y shown below (ions of only one face
packing efficiency
are shown for clarity), the packing fraction is approximately (packing fraction = )
100
Answer (B)
Sol. a = edge length of unit cell
2ry = a
(
2 rx + ry = 2a)
2rx + a = 2a
2rx = a ( 2 –1 )
rx = 0.207 a
3 × vol. of x + vol. of y
Packing fraction = vol. of unit cell
4 4
3× × πrx3 + × π × ry3
= 3 3
a3
4
4 × π × (0.207a)3 + × π × (0.5 a)3
= 3
a3
≈ 0.63
4. The calculated spin only magnetic moments of [Cr(NH3)6]3+ and [CuF6]3– in BM, respectively, are
(Atomic numbers of Cr and Cu are 24 and 29, respectively)
(A) 3.87 and 2.84 (B) 4.90 and 1.73
(C) 3.87 and 1.73 (D) 4.90 and 2.84
Answer (A)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Sol. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ = Cr3+
Cr3+ = 3d3 4s0
It has 3 unpaired electrons
μ = n(n + 2) BM
= 3(3 + 2) BM
= 3.87 BM
[CuF6]3– = Cu+3
Cu+3 = 3d8 4s0
It has 2 unpaired electrons
μ = 2(2 + 2) BM
= 2.84 BM
SECTION - 2
Hg2+/H+ 100%
333K
Ba(OH)2 NaOCl
S T U (decolourises
heat 80% (y g) Baeyer’s reagent)
80%
x g and y g are mass of R and U, respectively.
(Use : Molar mass (in g mol–1) of H, C and O as 1, 12 and 16, respectively)
5. The value of x is ______.
Answer (1.62)
6. The value of y is ______.
Answer (3.20)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Sol. of Q. No. 5 and 6
H 2O NaNH 2
Mg2C3 C3H 4 (P) CH3 C C CH 3
4g MeI
(Q)
2+ +
Hg /H Red hot
iron tube
O
CH3 C CH 3 (S)
Ba(OH)2/Δ (R)
O
CH 3 C CH C CH3
CH3
(T)
NaOCl
O
CH 3 C CH C OH (U) + CHCl 3
CH3
4 g of C3H4 = 0.1 mol
From 0.1 mol of P, 0.01 mol of R will be produced
⇒ 1.62 g of R is produced
From 0.1 mol of P, 0.032 mol of U is produced
= 3.2 g of U is produced
pz 104
Y(s) + Z(g) , the plot of ln
For the reaction, X(s) versus is given below (in solid line), where pz is the
po T
o
pressure (in bar) of the gas Z at temperature T and p = 1 bar.
pz
ln
po
10 12 10 4 –1
(K )
T
–3
–7
d(ln K) ΔH o p
(Given, = – , where the equilibrium constant, K = oz and the gas constant, R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
1 R p
d
T
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
7. The value of standard enthalpy, ΔH o (in kJ mol–1) for the given reaction is ______.
Answer (166.28)
Sol.
X(s)
Y(s) + Z(g)
pz
Given K =
po
ΔHº
lnK = lnA –
RT
pz ΔH
ln o
= ln A –
p RT
p
d ln oz
pz 1 p – ΔHº
Slope of ln o vs is =
p T 1 R
d
T
– ΔHº
From the graph, we have = –2 × 104
R
4
⇒ Δ Hº = 2 × 10 × 8.314 J
ΔHº = 166.28 kJ mol–1
8. The value of ΔS o (in J K–1 mol–1) for the given reaction, at 1000 K is ____.
Answer (141.34)
Sol. –RTln K = ΔGº = ΔHº – TΔSº
ΔHº ΔSº
lnk = – +
RT R
ΔSº
= 17
R
ΔSº = 17R
= 141.338 J K–1
Question Stem
The boiling point of water in a 0.1 molal silver intrate solution (soltuion A) is xºC. To this solution A, an equal volume
of 0.1 molal aqueous barium chloride solution is added to make a new solution B. The difference in the boiling points
of water in the two solutions A and B is y × 10–2 ºC.
(Assume: Densities of the solutions A and B are the same as that of water and the soluble salts dissociate completely.
Use: Molal elevation constant (Ebullioscopic constant), Kb = 0.5 K kg mol–1; Boiling point of pure water as 100ºC.)
9. The value of x is ______.
Answer (100.1)
10. The value of |y| is _____.
Answer (2.5)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Sol. of Q. No. 9 and 10
Given molality of AgNO3 solution is 0.1 molal (solution-A)
ΔTb = ikbm
AgNO3 → Ag+ + NO3–
van't Hoff factor (i) for AgNO3 = 2
ΔTb = 2 × 0.5 × 0.1
(Ts – Tº) = 0.1
(Ts)A = 100.1ºC, so x = 100.1
Now solution-A of equal volume is mixed with 0.1 molal BaCl2 solution to get solution-B. AgNO3 reacts with BaCl2
to form AgCl(s).
0.1 mole of AgNO3 present in 1000 gram solvent or 1017 gram or 1017 mL solution,
milli moles of AgNO3 in V ml 0.1 molal solution is nearly 0.1 V. Similarly in BaCl2.
2AgNO3(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → 2AgCl(s) + Ba(NO3)2 (aq)
0.1 V 0.1 V 0 0
0 0.05 V 0.1 V 0.05 V
0.05V × 3 0.05V × 3
ΔTb = + × 0.5 = 0.075
2V 2V
( Ts )B = 100.075º C
SECTION - 3
11. Given:
CHO
H OH
HO H HNO3
P
H OH
[α]D = +52.7º
H OH
CH 2OH
D-Glucose
The compound(s), which on reaction with HNO3 will give the product having degree of rotation, [α]D = –52.7º
is(are)
CHO CHO
HO H HO H
HO H HO H
(A) H OH (B)
H OH
H OH HO H
CH 2OH CH 2OH
CHO CHO
HO H H OH
H OH H OH
(C) HO H (D) HO H
HO H H OH
CH 2OH CH 2OH
Answer (C, D)
CHO COOH
H OH H OH
HO H HNO3 HO H
Sol. H OH H OH
H OH H OH
CH 2OH COOH
α = +52.7º
(P)
The enantiomer of (P) will have –52.7º rotation. So the reactant must be an isomer of D-glucose which can given
the mirror image of (P)
CHO COOH COOH
HO H HO H H OH
HO H HNO3 HO H 180º HO H
(B)
H OH H OH H OH
Rotation
HO H HO H H OH
CH2OH COOH COOH
Same as P
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
CHO COOH
HO H HO H
H OH HNO 3 H OH
HO H HO H
HO H HO H
CH 2OH COOH
Enantiomer of (P)
CHO COOH COOH
H OH H OH HO H
H OH HNO 3 H OH 180º H OH
(D)
HO H HO H HO H
Rotation
H OH H OH HO H
CH 2OH COOH COOH
Enantiomer of (P)
So answer must be C and D
12. The reaction of Q with PhSNa yields an organic compound (major product) that gives positive Carius test on
treatment with Na2O2 followed by addition of BaCl2. The correct option(s) for Q is(are)
O 2N
NO 2 O2N
MeS
O2N MeS
Answer (A, D)
F S – Ph
NO 2 NO2
+ PhSNa
Sol.
NO 2 NO2
Cl S Ph
+ PhSNa
S Me S Me
NO 2 NO2
Answer should be (A) and (D)
Compounds given in option - B and C do not react with PhSNa.
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
13. The correct statement(s) related to colloids is(are)
(A) The process of precipitating colloidal sol by an electrolyte is called peptization
(B) Colloidal solution freezes at higher temperature than the true solution at the same concentration
(C) Surfactants form micelle above critical micelle concentration (CMC). CMC depends on temperature
(D) Micelles are macromolecular colloids
Answer (B, C)
Sol. Select the correct statements.
(A) The process of precipitating colloidal sol by an electrolyte is called peptization - False, (It is process of
converting precipitate into colloid)
(B) Colloidal solution freezes at a higher temperature than the true solution at the same concentration - True
(colligative properties)
(C) Surfactants form miscelle above critical miscelle concentration (CMC). CMC depends on temperature - True
(D) Miscelles are macromolecular colloids - False, As misceles are associated colloids.
14. An ideal gas undergoes a reversible isothermal expansion from state I to state II followed by a reversible adiabatic
expansion from state II to state III. The correct plot(s) representing the changes from state I to state III is(are)
(p: pressure, V: volume, T: temperature, H: enthalpy, S: entropy)
I
p II p
(A) (B) II
III III
V T
III I II
H T
(C) (D)
I II III
S S
Answer (A, B, D)
Sol. I → II → reversible, isothermal expansion,
T → constant, ΔV → +ve, ΔS → +ve ΔH ⇒ 0
II → III → Reversible, adiabatic expansion
Q = 0, ΔV → +ve, ΔS → 0
V
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
I
p
I → II → T constant
(B) II II → III → adiab atic
III
III
H
I → II → Δ S → +ve, ΔH 0
(C) II → III → ΔS → 0, ΔH → –ve
I II
I II
T
I → II → Δ S → +ve, ΔT = 0
(D) II → III → ΔS → 0
III
S
15. The correct statement(s) related to the metal extraction processes is(are)
(A) A mixture of PbS and PbO undergoes self-reduction to produce Pb and SO2.
(B) In the extraction process of copper from copper pyrites, silica is added to produce copper silicate
(C) Partial oxidation of sulphide ore of copper by roasting, followed by self-reduction produces blister copper
(D) In cyanide process, zinc powder is utilized to precipitate gold from Na[Au(CN)2]
Answer (A, C, D)
3
FeS + O2 → FeO + SO2 ↑
2
During slag formation, the characteristic green flame is observed at the mouth of the Bessemer converter which
indicates the presence of iron in the form of FeO. Disappearance of this green flame indicates that the slag
formation is complete. Then air blasting is stopped and slag is removed.
Again air blasting is restarted for partial roasting before self reduction, until two-thirds of Cu2S is converted into
Cu2O. After this, only heating is continued for the self reduction process.
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
3
Cu2S + O2 → Cu2O + SO2 ↑
2
Thus the molten Cu obtained is poured into large container and allowed to cool and during cooling the dissolved
SO2 comes up to the surface and forms blisters. It is known as blister copper.
16. A mixture of two salts is used to prepare a solution S, which gives the following results:
Answer (A, B)
Pb (NO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
dil HCl
PbCl2
Sol. Room temp.
( white ppt )
Zn (NO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
dil HCl
Room temperature
Zn2+ + 2Cl–
( so lub le )
dil HCl
AgNO3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Room temperature
AgCl
(White ppt)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Hg (NO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
dil HCl
Room temperature
Hg2+ + 2Cl–
( so lub le )
SECTION - 4
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
17. The maximum number of possible isomers (including stereoisomers) which may be formed on mono-bromination
of 1-methylcyclohex-1-ene using Br2 and UV light is ______.
Answer (13)
Br
CH3 CH2Br CH2 CH3 CH 3 CH3
UV *
+ Br 2 + + + + Br
Sol. *
Br *
(A) (B)(±) (C)(±)
Br E(±)
(D)(±)
Br CH 3
+ * +
*
Br
F(±) G(±)
Monobromination of 1-methylcyclohexene in presence of UV light proceeds by free radical mechanism. The allyl
radicals are formed which are stabilised by resonance. The secondary alkyl radicals are also formed which are
stabilised by hyperconjugation. Of the seven products formed, six of them are optically active. So, 13 possible
isomers are formed.
18. In the reaction given below, the total number of atoms having sp2 hybridization in the major product P is ______.
1. O3 (excess)
then Zn/H2O
P
2. NH2OH
(excess)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Answer (12)
O O
Sol.
O O
+ +
OH OH OH OH
N N N N
N N N N
+ +
OH OH OH OH
(P)
The total number of atoms having sp2 hybridisation in the major product (P) = 12
Answer (6)
Sol. The given complex [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 has three ionisation isomers and each of them has two geometrical isomers.
Cl Cl Cl Cl
H3N Cl H3N NH3 H3N Br H3N NH3
Pt Pt Pt Pt
Br Br
H3N NH3 H3N Br
Pt Pt
PART-III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - 1
1. Consider a triangle whose two sides lie on the x-axis and the line x + y + 1 = 0. If the orthocentre of is
(1, 1), then the equation of the circle passing through the vertices of the triangle is
(A) x2 + y2 – 3x + y = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + x + 3y = 0
(C) x2 + y2 + 2y – 1 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 + x + y = 0
Answer (B)
Sol. As we know mirror image of orthocentre lie on circumcircle.
Image of (1, 1) in x-axis is (1, –1)
Image of (1, 1) in x + y + 1 = 0 is (–2, –2).
The required circle will be passing through both (1, –1) and (–2, –2).
Only x2 + y2 + x + 3y = 0 satisfy both.
( x, y ) : 0 x
9
4
, 0 y 1, x 3y , xy 2
is
11 35
(A) (B)
32 96
37 13
(C) (D)
96 32
Answer (A)
Sol. Rough sketch of required region is
x+y=2
3 1
D ,
2 2 x = 3y
y=1
9 3
C ,
4 4
9
A(2, 0) B ,0
4
9
x
4
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Required area is
Area of ACD + Area of ABC
1 3 11
i.e., = sq. units
4 32 32
3. Consider three sets E1 = {1, 2, 3}, F1 = {1, 3, 4} and G1 = {2, 3, 4, 5}. Two elements are chosen at random,
without replacement, from the set E1, and let S1 denote the set of these chosen elements. Let E2 = E1 – S1
and F2 = F1 S1. Now two elements are chosen at random, without replacement, from the set F2 and let S2
dentoe the set of these chosen elements.
Let G2 = G1 S2. Finally, two elements are chosen at random, without replacement from the set G2 and let
S3 denote the set of these chosen elements.
Let E3 = E2 S3. Given that E1 = E3, let p be the conditional probability of the event S1 = {1, 2}. Then the
value of p is
1 3
(A) (B)
5 5
1 2
(C) (D)
2 5
Answer (A)
Sol. We will follow the tree diagram,
E1 = {1, 2, 3}
S2 = {1, 2} {1, 3} {1, 4} {2, 3} {2, 4} {3, 4} {1, 2} {1, 3} {1, 4} {2, 3} {2, 4} {3, 4} {1, 3} {1, 4} {3, 4}
{2, 3} {2, 3}
{1, 2}
{1, 3}
{1, 2} {1, 3}
E3 = {1, 2, 3}
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1
P (E1 = E3) =
3 2 10 2 0 2 10 2 6 3 10 3 0
1 1
=
3 4
1 1 1
3 2 10 1
Required probability = 1 1 5
3 4
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
4. Let 1, 2, ...., 10 be positive valued angles (in radian) such that 1 + 2 + ... + 10 = 2. Define the complex
i i
numbers z1 e 1 , zk zk – 1e k for k = 2, 3, ..., 10, where i –1. Consider the statement P and Q given
below:
Then,
(A) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE
(B) Q is TRUE and P is FALSE
(C) Both P and Q are TRUE
(D) Both P and Q are FALSE
Answer (C)
Y
z3( C)
zK – 1
z2(B)
zK 3
K z1(A )
2
1
Sol.
O X
z2 – z1 z3 – z2 ... z1 – z10 2
2 2
And zk – zk –1 zk – zk – 1 zk zk – 1
As we know zk zk –1 zk zk – 1 2
SECTION - 2
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated place using the
mouse and the on-screen virtual numerical keypad.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Question Stem
Three numbers are chosen at random, one after another with replacement, from the set S = {1, 2, 3, ..., 100}.
Let p1 be the probability that the maximum of chosen numbers is at least 81 and p2 be the probability that the
minimum of chosen numbers is at most 40.
625
5. The value of p1 is _____.
4
Answer (76.25)
Sol. For p1, we need to remove the cases when all three numbers are less than or equal to 80.
3
80 61
So, p1 1 –
100 125
125
6. The value of p2 is _____.
4
Answer (24.50)
Sol. For p2, we need to remove the cases when all three numbers are greater than 40.
3
60 98
So, p2 1 –
100 125
125 125 98
So, p2 24.50
4 4 125
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Question Stem for Question Nos. 7 and 8
Question Stem
Let , and be real numbers such that the system of linear equations
x + 2y + 3z =
4x + 5y + 6z =
7x + 8y + 9z = – 1
is consistent. Let |M| represent the determinant of the matrix
2
M 1 0
–1 0 1
Let P be the plane containing all those (, , ) for which the above system of linear equations is consistent,
and D be the square of the distance of the point (0, 1, 0) from the plane P.
Answer (1)
Answer (1.50)
Sol. Solution for Q 7 and 8
1 2 3
4 5 6 0
7 8 9
Given system of equation will be consistent even if = = – 1 = 0, i.e. equations will form homogeneous
system.
So, = 0, = 0, = 1
0 2 1
M 0 1 0 – 1 (–1) 1
–1 0 1
As given equations are consistent
x + 2y + 3z – = 0 ...P1
4x + 5y + 6z – = 0 ...P2
7x + 8y + 9z – ( –1) = 0 ...P3
For some scalar and
P1 + P2 = P3
(x + 2y + 3z – ) + (4x + 5y + 6z –) = 7x + 8y + 9z – ( – 1)
Comparing coefficients
+ 4 = 7, 2 + 5 = 8, 3 + 6 = 9
= 2 and = –1 satisfy all these conditions
comparing constant terms,
– – = – ( – 1)
– 2 + = 1
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
So equation of plane is
x – 2y + z = 1
–2 – 1 3
Distance from (0, 1, 0) =
6 6
2
3 3
D 2 1.50
6
Question Stem
For a fixed constant , let C be the locus of a point P such that the product of the distance of P from L1 and
the distance of P from L2 is 2. The line y = 2x + 1 meets C at two points R and S, where the distance between
R and S is 270 .
Let the perpendicular bisector of RS meet C at two distinct points R and S. Let D be the square of the distance
between R and S.
Answer (9)
Answer (77.14)
Sol. Solution for Q 9 and 10
x 2 y –1 x 2 – y 1
C: 2
3 3
C : 2 x 2 – ( y – 1)2 3 2
2 2 2 3
So, 2 x – 4 x 3 x
2
So, x1 – x2 6 and y1 – y 2 2 x1 – x2 2 6
SECTION - 3
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which
are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswere;
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get –2 marks.
11. For any 3 × 3 matrix M, let |M| denote the determinant of M. Let
1 2 3 1 0 0 1 3 2
E 2 3 4 , P 0 0 1 and F 8 18 13
8 13 18 0 1 0 2 4 3
If Q is a nonsingular matrix of order 3 × 3, then which of the following statements is(are) TRUE?
1 0 0
2
(A) F = PEP and P 0 1 0
0 0 1
(C) EF 3 EF 2
(D) Sum of the diagonal entries of P–1EP + F is equal to the sum of diagonal entries of E + P–1FP
Answer (A, B, D)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Sol. P is formed from I by exchanging second and third row or by exchanging second and third column.
So, PA is a matrix formed from A by changing second and third row.
Similarly AP is a matrix formed from A by changing second and third column.
Hence, Tr(PAP) = Tr(A) ...(1)
1 0 0
(A) Clearly, P.P 0 1 0 1
0 0 1
1 2 3 1 3 2
and PE 8 13 18 PEP 8 18 13 F
2 3 4 2 4 3
PEP = F PFP = E ...(2)
(B) E F 0
–1 –1 –1
So, EQ PFQ PFPQ PFQ P F PQ Q 0
Also, EQ PFQ –1 0
So, F E
Also, E 0 F
3 2
So, EF 0 EF
(D) P 2 I P –1 P
x2 – 3x – 6
f (x)
x 2 2x 4
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
(A) f is decreasing in the interval (–2, –1) (B) f is increasing in the interval (1, 2)
3
(C) f is onto (D) Range of f is – , 2
2
Answer (A, B)
x2 – 3x – 6
Sol. f ( x )
x 2 2x 4
5 x ( x 4)
f ( x )
( x 2 x 4)2
2
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
f(x) has local maxima at x = –4 and minima at x = 0
–4 0
3 11
Range of f(x) is – ,
2 6
13. Let E, F and G be three events having probabilities
1 1 1 1
P (E ) , P (F ) and P (G ) , and P (E F G ) .
8 6 4 10
For any event H, if Hc denotes its complement, then which of the following statements is(are) TRUE?
(A) P E F G P E c F G
c 1 1
(B)
40 15
P E c F c Gc
13 5
(C) P E F G (D)
24 12
Answer (A, B, C)
Sol. Let P(E F) = x, P(F G) = y and P(E G) = z
1
Clearly x, y , z
10
E F
27 12
– x–z 32
120 x– – x –y
120 120
12
120
12
z– 12
120 y–
120
42
– y –z
120
G
27 15
x z x, z
120 120
32 20
xy x, y
120 120
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
42 30
and y z y, z
120 120
12 3 1
Now P E F G x –
c
120 120 40
12 80 1
P E c F G y –
120 120 15
13
P E F G P (E ) P (F ) P (G )
24
11 5
and P E F G 1 – P E F G
c c c
24 12
14. For any 3 × 3 matrix M, let |M| denote the determinant of M. Let I be the 3 × 3 identify matrix. Let E and F be
two 3 × 3 matrices such that (I – EF) is invertible. If G = (I – EF)–1, then which of the following statements is
(are) TRUE?
(A) |FE| = |I – FE| |FGE| (B) (I – FE) (I + FGE) = I
(C) EFG = GEF (D) (I – FE) (I – FGE) = I
Answer (A, B, C)
Sol. I – EF = G–1
G – GEF = I …(1)
and G – EFG = I …(2)
Clearly GEF = EFG (option C is correct)
Also (I – FE)(I + FGE) = I – FE + FGE – FE + FGE
= I – FE + FGE – F(G – I)E
= I – FE + FGE – FGE + FE
= I (option B is correct and D is incorrect)
Now, (I – FE)(I – FGE) = I – FE – FGE + F(G – I)E
= I – 2FE
(I – FE)(– FGE) = – FE
|I – FE||FGE| = |FE|
1 k (k 1)x 2
Sn ( x ) k 1cot –1
n
x
–1
where for any x , cot–1(x) (0, ) and tan ( x ) – , . Then which of the following statements is (are)
2 2
TRUE?
1 11x 2
(A) S10 ( x ) – tan–1 , for all x > 0
2 10 x
(C) The equation S3 ( x ) has a root in (0, )
4
1
(D) tan(Sn ( x )) , for all n 1 and x > 0
2
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Answer (A, B)
n
( k 1) x kx
Sol. Sn(x) tan1 1 kx.(k 1)x
k 1
n
tan1(k 1)x tan1 kx
k 1
nx
tan1(n 1)x tan1 x tan1 2
1 (n 1)x
1 10 x 1 11x 2
Now (A) S10 ( x ) tan 2
tan1
1 11x 2 10 x
x
(B) nlim cot(Sn ( x )) cot tan1 2 x
x
3x
(C) S3 ( x ) 1 4x2 – 3x + 1 = 0 has no real root.
4 1 4x2
n 1
(D) For x = 1, tan(Sn ( x )) which is greater than for n 3 so this option is incorrect.
n2 2
16. For any complex number w = c + id, let arg(w) (–, ], where i –1 . Let and be real numbers such
z
that for all complex numbers z = x + iy satisfying arg z 4 , the ordered pair (x, y) lies on the circle
x2 + y2 + 5x – 3y + 4 = 0
(A) = –1 (B) = 4
(C) = –4 (D) = 4
Answer (B, D)
Sol. Circle x2 + y2 + 5x – 3y + 4 = 0 cuts the real axis (x-axis) at (–4, 0), (–1, 0)
Clearly = 1 and = 4
4
4
– –
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
SECTION - 4
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the moust and the on-screen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
3x2 – 4|x2 – 1| + x – 1 = 0
is ________.
Answer (4)
2 2
Sol. 3 x 4 x 1 x 1 0
Let x [ 1, 1]
3 x 2 4( x 2 1) x 1 0
3x 2 4x 2 4 x 1 0
7x2 + x –5 = 0
1 1 140
x
2
Both values acceptable
Let x ( , 1) (1, )
x 2 4( x 2 1) x 1 0
x2 – x – 3 = 0
1 1 12
x
2
cot A cot C
cot B
is ______.
Answer (2)
JEE (ADVANCED)-2021 (Paper-1)
Sol. With standard notations
Given : c 23 , a = 3, b = 4
cos A cos C
cot A cot C
sin A sin C
Now cot B cos B
sin B
b2 c 2 a2 a2 b 2 c 2
2bc.sin2A 2 2ab 2
sin C
c a b
2ac sin B
b2 c 2 a2 a2 b 2 c 2
4 4 2b 2
2
c 2 a2 b2 a2 c 2 b2
4
19. Let u, v and w be vectors in three-dimensional space, where u and v are unit vectors which are not perpendicular
to each other and
u w 1, v w 1, w w 4
If the volume of the parallelopiped, whose adjacent sides are represented by the vectors u, v and w , is 2,
then the value of 3u 5v is ________.
Answer (7)
Sol. Given u v w 2
u .u u v u w
2
Also u v w v u v v v w 2
w u w v w w
Let u .v k and substitute rest values, we get
1 K 1
K 1 1 2
1 1 4
4K2 – 2K = 0
1
u .v 0 or u .v
2
(rejected)
1
u .v
2
2 1
3u 5 v 9 25 30 49
2
3u 5 v 7