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Preface

Dear Students,
It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document with
detailed explanations for the NABARD Grade A 2023. This document has been
meticulously to serve as a valuable resource for candidates preparing for the NABARD
Gr A.
Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and types
of questions that may appear in their upcoming exam.
Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and principles
have been thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to practice answering
questions but also helps you understand the reasoning and logic behind each correct
answer. Through explanations, you will be able to reinforce your understanding,
clarify any doubts, and develop a deeper grasp of the subject matter.
We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this
document proves to be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success.

Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and relevance
of the questions, there can be some variations in the question language and options.
Therefore, we encourage you to use these questions as a reference point. This will
help you acquire a comprehensive understanding of the syllabus and increase your
chances of success in the upcoming NABARD Gr – A Phase – 1.

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Section – Quantitative Aptitude

I.1-2) Directions (1-2): In each of the following questions, two equations are given. You have to
solve both the equations to find the relation between x and y.
Q.1) I) x2 – 6x + 8 = 0
II) y2 + y – 6 = 0
A. Ax> y
B. x≥y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. x< y
E. x≤y

Q.2) I) x2 - 12x + 11=0

II) y2 - 7y – 44 = 0
A. x> y
B. x ≥ y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. x< y
E. x ≤ y

I.3-4 Direction (3-4): What value should come in place of (?) in the following number series?
Q.3) 22, 39, 58, 79, ? , 127
A. 109
B. 104
C. 102
D. 106
E. 108

Q.4) 36, 54, 90, 126, 198, ?

A. 234
B. 242
C. 228
D. 210

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E. 216

I.5) Directions: Find out the wrong number in the following number series.
Q.5) 15, 18, 42, 125, 506, 2537
A. 18
B. 42
C. 125
D. 2537
E. 506

Q.6) Akilesh borrowed a certain sum of money at compound interest for 2 years at 10 % per
annum and he pay Rs. 5880 as interest. Find the corresponding simple interest?
A. Rs. 5600
B. Rs. 6400
C. Rs. 6000
D. Rs. 7200
E. None of these

Q.7) A vessel contains 63 litres mixtures of water and milk in the ratio of 3: 4. If some amount
of
water is added to the mixture, then the ratio becomes 3: 2, find the quantity of final mixture.
A. 54 litres
B. 36 litres
C. 90 litres
D. 63 litres
E. 81 litres

Q.8) The ratio of the ages of A and B is 3:2 and after 8 years, the ratio will be 13:10. If the
average ages of A, B and C is 18 years, what is C’s age after 6 years?
A. 32 years

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B. 30 years
C. 36 years
D. 40 years
E. None of these

Q.9) Mano and Varthan started a business with an investment of Rs.3200 and Rs.4800
respectively. Mano invested for 40% of the year and Varthan invested for remaining time. In
what ratio, Mano and Varthan received profit after one year of partnership?
A. 3:5
B. 5:6
C. 2:5
D. 1: 3
E. 4:9

Q.10) The boat travelled 80 km upstream in 16 hours and travelled 280 km downstream in 8
hours. If the boat and stream’s speed is increased by 5 kmph and 3 kmph respectively,
then what is the time taken by the boat travelled 301 km in upstream and downstream?
A. 40 hours
B. 45 hours
C. 50 hours
D. 60 hours
E. Cannot be determined

I.11-12) Direction (11-12): What is the approximate value should come in place of question
mark in the following questions?
Q.11) 59.968 x 40.032 – 956.22 + 45.88 x 2.99 =?
A. 1144
B. 1582
C. 1434
D. 1628

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E. 1322

Q.12) √399.92 – 33.33 % of 18 + 12.053 * 1.97 = ?

A. 35
B. 38
C. 41
D. 44
E. 48

Q.13) A and B together can complete the work in 30 days, B and C together can complete the
work in 15 days and A and C together can complete the work in 40 days. In how many days
A, B and C together can complete the three-fourth of the work?
A. 10 days
B. 12 days
C. 14 days
D. 16 days
E. None of these

Q.14) The shopkeeper sold the article A at 20% loss and the cost price of the article A is
Rs.4500. With that amount, he bought the article B and sold it at the profit of 30%. What is
the overall profit or loss in the whole transaction?
A. Rs.120
B. Rs.150
C. Rs.180
D. Rs.200
E. None of these

I.15-20) The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the population of five
different apartments in a city.
Total population = 8000

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The table given below shows the percentage distribution of the male in these five apartments.

Apartment Percentage distribution of

Males in Five Apartment
P 70%
Q 85%
R 65%
S 88%
T 75%

Q.15) Which of the following apartments have the highest number of females.
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
E. T

Q.16) Total number of males in apartment R is approximately what percentage of total number
of females in apartment P.
A. 106%
B. 106%
C. 119.09%

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D. 120%
E. 133%

Q.17) If total number of males in apartment T is 40 more that the number of males in apartment
R, and the ratio of male to female in apartment U is 3:2, find the number of females in
apartment U.
A. 616
B. 650
C. 600
D. 550
E. 530

Q.18) Find the average of females living in apartment Q, S and T.

A. 316
B. 300
C. 336
D. 306
E. 301

Q.19) Find the ratio of male to female in apartment Q and R together.

A. 1139:361
B. 1109:361
C. 1139:301
D. 1039:360
E. 1239:361

Q.20) Find out the central angle of Male in apartment Q.

A. 81.440
B. 75.250
C. 85.270

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D. 900
E. 87.560

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Answer Key
Section – Quantitative Aptitude

Question Answer Question Answer

Number Number

1 B 11 B

2 C 12 B

3 C 13 B

4 A 14 C

5 B 15 E

6 A 16 C

7 C 17 A

8 B 18 D

9 E 19 A

10 C 20 A

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1) Explanation:
X2 – 6x + 8 = 0
X2 – 4x – 2x + 8 = 0
x (x – 4) – 2(x – 4) = 0
(x – 2) (x – 4) = 0
x = 2, 4
y2 + y – 6 = 0

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y2 + 3y – 2y – 6 = 0
y (y + 3) – 2(y + 3) = 0
(y – 2) (y + 3) = 0
y = 2, -3
Therefore, on comparing x and y.
If x=-2 and y=2, then x=y
If x=2 and y= -3, then x>y
If x=4 and y=2, then x>y
If x=4 and y=-3, then x>y
Therefore, from above four conclusions we can say that x ≥ y so option (B) is correct.

Q.2) Explanation:
X2 - 12x + 11=0
X2 - 11x – x + 11 = 0
x (x - 11) – 1(x - 11) = 0
(x – 1) (x - 11) = 0
x = 1, 11
y2 - 7y – 44 = 0
y2 – 11y + 4y – 44 = 0
y (y – 11) + 4(y – 11) = 0
(y + 4) (y – 11) = 0
y = -4, 11
Therefore, on comparing x and y.
If x=1 and y=-4, then x>y
If x=1 and y= 11, then y>x
If x=11 and y=-4, then x>y
If x=11 and y=-11, then x=y
Therefore, from above four conclusions we can say that relationship between x and y cannot be
established. So, option (C) is correct.
Q.3) Explanation:

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22 + 17=39
39 + 19=58
58 + 21=79
79 + 23=102
102 + 25=127

Q.4) Explanation:
18 ×2 = 36
18 × 3 =54
18 × 5 = 90
18 × 7 =126
18 × 11 = 198
18 × 13 =234

Q.5) Explanation:
15 × 1 + 3 = 18
18 × 2 + 4 = 40
40 ×3 + 5 = 125
125 × 4 + 6 = 506
506× 5 + 7 = 2537

Q.6) Explanation:
T= 2 years
R= 10%
CI = ₹5880
CI = P [(1 + (r/100))n – 1]
5880 = P [(1 + (10/100))2 – 1]
5880 = P [(110/100)2 – 1]

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5880 = P [(121/100) – 1]
5880 = P (21/100)
P = 5880×100/21 = Rs. 28000
Corresponding SI,
SI = PRT/100 = (28000×2×10)/100 = Rs. 5600

Q.7) Explanation:
Given that
Water = 63/7 × 3 = 27
Milk = 63/7 × 4 = 36
Then
(27 + x)/36 = 3/2
27x + x = 54
x = 27
Required quantity = 63 + 27 = 90

Q.8) Explanation:
Age of A = 3x
Age of B = 2x
(3x + 8)/ (2x + 8) = 13/10
26x + 104 = 30x + 80
4x = 24
x = 6 years
A’s age = 6 × 3 = 18 years
B’s age = 6 ×2 = 12 years
Average ages of A, B and C is 18 years
Sum of A, B and C = 18 ×3 = 54 years
A+B+C = 54 years

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C = 54 – 18 – 12 = 24 years
C’s age after 6 years = 24 + 6 = 30 years

Q.9) Explanation:
Investment of Mano = ₹3200
Investment of Varthan = ₹4800
Period of investment of Mano = 40% of 12 = 4.8 months
Period of investment of Varthan = 12 - 4.8 = 7.2 months
Profit ratio of Mano and Varthan = 3200 ×4.8: 4800 ×7.2 = 4: 9

Q.10) Explanation:
Upstream speed = 80/16 = 5 kmph
Downstream speed = 280/8 = 35 kmph
Speed of the boat = (35 + 5)/2 = 20 kmph
Speed of stream = (35 – 5)/2 = 15 kmph
After increasing the boat = 20 + 5 = 25 kmph
Stream speed = 15 + 3 = 18 kmph
Required time = 301/ (25 + 18) + 301/ (25 – 18)
Required time = 7 + 43 = 50 hours

Q.11) Explanation:
59.968 x 40.032 – 956.22 + 45.88 x 2.99 =?
60 x 40 – 956 + 46 x 3 =?
2400 – 956 + 138 =?
1582 =?

Q.12) Explanation:
√399.92 – 33.33 % of 18 + 12.053 * 1.97 =?
√400 – (1/3) × 18 + 12 × 2 =?

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20 – (1/3) × 18 + 12 ×2 =?
20-6+24 =?
? = 38

Q.13) Explanation:
A + B = 1/30
B + C = 1/15
C + A = 1/40
2A + 2B + 2C = 1/30 + 1/15 + 1/40 = 4 + 8 + 3/120
A + B + C = 1/16
3
Required time = 4×16 = 12 days

Q.14) Explanation:
CP of article A=Rs. 4500
SP of article A=80/100 × 4500=Rs.3600
CP of article B=Rs. 3600
SP of article B=3600 ×130/100=Rs.4680
Total CP=4500 + 3600=Rs.8100
Total SP=3600 + 4680=Rs. 8280
Profit=8280 – 8100=Rs.180

Q.15) Explanation:
18.5
Total Population of P = ×8000 = 1480
100
20.5
Total Population of Q = 100 ×8000 = 1640
17
Total Population of R = 100×8000 = 1360
20
Total Population of S = 100×8000 = 1600
24
Total Population of T = 100×8000 = 1920

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 70
Total Number of Male in P = × 1480=1036
100
85
Total Number of Male in Q = 100×1640 = 1394
65
Total Number of Male in R = 100 × 1360 = 884
88
Total Number of Male in S = 100 × 1600 = 1408
75
Total Number of Male in T = 100×1920 = 1440

Total Number of Female in P = 1480-1036 = 444

Total Number of Female in Q =1640-1394 = 246
Total Number of Female in R = 1360-884 = 476
Total Number of Female in S = 1600-1408 = 192
Total Number of Female in T =1920 – 1440 = 480

Apartment Total Population Male Female

P 1480 1036 444

Q 1640 1394 246

R 1360 884 476

S 1600 1408 192

T 1920 1440 480

The Female in T is maximum that is 480.Hence option E. is the correct answer.

Q.16) Explanation:
18.5
Total Population of P = ×8000 = 1480
100
20.5
Total Population of Q = 100 ×8000 = 1640
17
Total Population of R = 100×8000 = 1360
20
Total Population of S = 100×8000 = 1600
24
Total Population of T = ×8000 = 1920
100

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 70
Total Number of Male in P = 100 × 1480=1036
85
Total Number of Male in Q = 100×1640 = 1394
65
Total Number of Male in R = 100 × 1360 = 884
88
Total Number of Male in S = 100 × 1600 = 1408
75
Total Number of Male in T = 100×1920 = 1440

Total Number of Female in P = 1480-1036 = 444

Total Number of Female in Q =1640-1394 = 246
Total Number of Female in R = 1360-884 = 476
Total Number of Female in S = 1600-1408 = 192
Total Number of Female in T =1920 – 1440 = 480

Apartment Total Population Male Female

P 1480 1036 444

Q 1640 1394 246

R 1360 884 476

S 1600 1408 192

T 1920 1440 480

Total Males in apartment R = 884

Total Females in apartment P = 444
884
Required Percentage = 444×100 = 199.09%

Q.17) Explanation:
18.5
Total Population of P = ×8000 = 1480
100
20.5
Total Population of Q = 100 ×8000 = 1640

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 17
Total Population of R = ×8000 = 1360
100
20
Total Population of S = 100×8000 = 1600
24
Total Population of T = 100×8000 = 1920

70
Total Number of Male in P = 100 × 1480=1036
85
Total Number of Male in Q = 100×1640 = 1394
65
Total Number of Male in R = 100 × 1360 = 884
88
Total Number of Male in S = 100 × 1600 = 1408
75
Total Number of Male in T = 100×1920 = 1440

Total Number of Female in P = 1480-1036 = 444

Total Number of Female in Q =1640-1394 = 246
Total Number of Female in R = 1360-884 = 476
Total Number of Female in S = 1600-1408 = 192
Total Number of Female in T =1920 – 1440 = 480

Apartment Total Population Male Female

P 1480 1036 444

Q 1640 1394 246

R 1360 884 476

S 1600 1408 192

T 1920 1440 480

The number of males in apartment U is 40 more that the number of males in apartment R
Total Males in apartment U = Males in R +40
Total Males in apartment U = 884 +40 = 924
The ratio of male to female in apartment U is 3:2

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3 unit = 924
1 unit = 924/3 = 308
Female in U = 2 unit = 2×308 = 616

Q.18) Explanation:
18.5
Total Population of P = ×8000 = 1480
100
20.5
Total Population of Q = 100 ×8000 = 1640
17
Total Population of R = 100×8000 = 1360
20
Total Population of S = 100×8000 = 1600
24
Total Population of T = 100×8000 = 1920

70
Total Number of Male in P = 100 × 1480=1036
85
Total Number of Male in Q = 100×1640 = 1394
65
Total Number of Male in R = 100 × 1360 = 884
88
Total Number of Male in S = 100 × 1600 = 1408
75
Total Number of Male in T = 100×1920 = 1440

Total Number of Female in P = 1480-1036 = 444

Total Number of Female in Q =1640-1394 = 246
Total Number of Female in R = 1360-884 = 476
Total Number of Female in S = 1600-1408 = 192
Total Number of Female in T =1920 – 1440 = 480

Apartment Total Population Male Female

P 1480 1036 444

Q 1640 1394 246

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 R 1360 884 476

S 1600 1408 192

T 1920 1440 480

Total Females living in Apartment Q, S and T = 246+192+480 =918

918
Average Females living in Q, S and T = = 306
3

Q.19) Explanation:
18.5
Total Population of P = ×8000 = 1480
100
20.5
Total Population of Q = 100 ×8000 = 1640
17
Total Population of R = 100×8000 = 1360
20
Total Population of S = 100×8000 = 1600
24
Total Population of T = 100×8000 = 1920

70
Total Number of Male in P = 100 × 1480=1036
85
Total Number of Male in Q = 100×1640 = 1394
65
Total Number of Male in R = 100 × 1360 = 884
88
Total Number of Male in S = 100 × 1600 = 1408
75
Total Number of Male in T = 100×1920 = 1440

Total Number of Female in P = 1480-1036 = 444

Total Number of Female in Q =1640-1394 = 246
Total Number of Female in R = 1360-884 = 476
Total Number of Female in S = 1600-1408 = 192
Total Number of Female in T =1920 – 1440 = 480

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 Apartment Total Population Male Female

P 1480 1036 444

Q 1640 1394 246

R 1360 884 476

S 1600 1408 192

T 1920 1440 480

Males in Q and R together = 1394+884 = 2278

Females in Q and R = 246+476 = 722
Required Ratio = 2278:722 = 1139: 361

Q.20) Explanation:
18.5
Total Population of P = ×8000 = 1480
100
20.5
Total Population of Q = 100 ×8000 = 1640
17
Total Population of R = 100×8000 = 1360
20
Total Population of S = 100×8000 = 1600
24
Total Population of T = 100×8000 = 1920

70
Total Number of Male in P = 100 × 1480=1036
85
Total Number of Male in Q = 100×1640 = 1394
65
Total Number of Male in R = 100 × 1360 = 884
88
Total Number of Male in S = 100 × 1600 = 1408
75
Total Number of Male in T = 100×1920 = 1440

Total Number of Female in P = 1480-1036 = 444

Total Number of Female in Q =1640-1394 = 246
Total Number of Female in R = 1360-884 = 476

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Total Number of Female in S = 1600-1408 = 192
Total Number of Female in T =1920 – 1440 = 480

Apartment Total Population Male Female

P 1480 1036 444

Q 1640 1394 246

R 1360 884 476

S 1600 1408 192

T 1920 1440 480

Total number of Males in all Apartment = 1036+1394+884+1408+1440 = 6162

Total number of Male in Q = 1394
1394
So, Central angle of Male in apartment Q = 6162 × 360 = 81.440

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Section – Reasoning

I.1) Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside.
A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are family members, and there are two married couples in two generations
of people who live in the same house. A is the father of the spouse of C. F is the maternal
uncle of G, who is not a male. A is the brother-in-law of F. D and G are sisters of each other. E
is the son of B. C is a feminine gender.
Q.1) How is D related to C?
A. Son
B. Sister-in-law
C. Daughter
D. Aunt
E. None of these

I.2-5) Direction: Study the information and answer the following questions.
Seven individuals, X, Y, Z, M, N, O, and H, were born in different months, namely, January,
February, April, July, August, September, and December of the same year. They were also
born in seven different cities: Indore, Jaipur, Lucknow, Patna, Pune, Surat, and Varanasi.
M was born in Pune in a month having less than 31 days. Two persons were born between M
and N, who was not born in Lucknow. Three persons were born between X and H, who was
born after M. O was born before Y, who was born in Patna. The individual born in Surat was
born before the one born in Varanasi, none of them was born in April. Neither O nor H was
born in Lucknow or Varanasi. O was born after Z, who was born in Jaipur. The one born in
Indore was born in a month with 31 days. The individual born in Indore was born immediately
before the one born in Surat.
Q.2) Who among the following was born in April?
A. Z
B. O
C. M
D. X
E. H

Q.3) Who among the following was born immediately before the one who was born in Indore?
A. M
B. Y
C. Z
D. H

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E. O

Q.4) Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, who among the following
does not belong to that group?
A. Y
B. H
C. O
D. X
E. Z

Q.5) Which of the following combination is correct?

A. O - Surat
B. N - Jaipur
C. Y - Pune
D. X - Lucknow
E. M – Varanasi

I.6-7) Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q.6) Only lamp is light. Only a few footballs are cricket. Some cricket is lamp
Conclusion I: Few light can be cricket
Conclusion II: Some footballs can never be cricket
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Either I or II follows

Q.7) Some Movies are good. No actor is player. Some good are actor
Conclusion I: Some good is not player
Conclusion II: Few movies are actor
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Either I or II follows

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I.8-10) Direction: Study the information carefully and answer the following question.
Among the six persons X, Y, Z, M, N, and O, each has a different weight. X is heavier than 3
persons, Z is lighter than M. N is lighter than only Y. Z is not the lightest. The second heaviest
person weighs 56 kg, and the second lightest person weighs 28 kg.
Q.8) Who among the person weighs 56 kg?
A. N
B. Z
C. X
D. O
E. M

Q.9) How many persons are lighter than M?

A. three
B. one
C. five
D. two
E. four

Q.10) What is the possible weight of O?

A. 28
B. 26
C. 30
D. 29
E. 32

I.11-13) In each of the following questions, the relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements followed by three conclusions. Find the conclusion which logically
follows.
Q.11) Statements:

O > R ≥ F = U > M ≥ E; L < N ≤ D = R > K ≥ X

Conclusion:

I. L < F

II. D > E

III. O ≥ X

A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows

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C. Both I and II follows
D. Both I and II follows
E. Only III follows

Q.12) Statements:

P < Q = G > A ≥ I; B < Y = V < H ≤ D < G

Conclusion:

I. P > Y

II. H ≤ A

III. I < V

A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Both I and II follows
E. None follows

Q.13) Statements

G = M > F ≥ E = H; Q < S ≤ U = E > V; B > J ≥ U = X > T

Conclusion:

I. M > Q

II. J ≥ S

III. B < G

A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Both I and II follows
E. None follows

I.14-15) Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give
answer.

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Q.14) Among six people I, J, K, L, M and N, each lives on a different floor of a six-storey building.
The ground floor is numbered 1 and the top most floor is no. 6. Who lives on the topmost
floor?

I. M does not live on an even-numbered floor. J lives on an even-numbered floor but not on
the topmost floor.

II. L lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which L and I
live. M lives on a floor immediately above K’s floor.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.15) In which country does P live among cities U, V, W, X and Y? Only one person lives in each
city.

I. K and I live in the country Y and V respectively. P does not live in the country W.

II. B lives in either country U or X.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

I.16-19) Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.
Eight individuals M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting around a circular table facing the table, but
not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has a preference for a different color:
lavender, maroon, cyan, emerald, navy, ebony, amber, and ivory, but not necessarily in the
same order. The one who favors cyan sits to the immediate left of the person who likes
ebony. S does not like ivory. Q sits third to the left of M, who likes lavender, and the individual
who likes lavender sits to the immediate left of R. P sits to the immediate right of O, and
neither of them prefers emerald. The one who likes maroon and T has two people sitting
between them. P, Q, and R, none of them has a liking for maroon. Q and the person who
prefers emerald have one person in between them. S sits second to the right of N. O sits
opposite the person who likes ivory, and the individual who likes ivory sits immediately next
to the one who enjoys navy.

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 Q.16) Which color does R like?
A. Maroon
B. Emerald
C. Cyan
D. Navy
E. Invoy

Q.17) Who among the following is an immediate neighbor of the one who likes Maroon color?
A. P
B. M
C. T
D. R
E. S

Q.18) How many persons are sitting between P and the persons who likes emerald?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
E. five

Q.19) Which person is sitting opposite the person who likes Navy?
A. O
B. Q
C. S
D. P
E. T

Q.20) If it is possible to make only one 5 letters a meaningful word without repetition of the
letter with the first, third, sixth, eighth and eleventh letter of the word ‘FABRICATION’
which would be the second letter of the word from right. If more than one such word can
be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word is formed, give Z as the answer.
A. N
B. T
C. C
D. X
E. Z

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Answer Key

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Section – Reasoning
Question Number Answer Question Number Answer
1 B 11 B
2 C 12 E
3 A 13 D
4 E 14 E
5 D 15 D
6 B 16 D
7 A 17 A
8 A 18 B
9 D 19 B
10 B 20 E

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – Reasoning
Q.1) Explanation:
According to the information

A+ B- F+

D- G- E+ C-

+ male

- female

= couple

____ siblings

I Generation gap

28 | Page
D is sister-in-law of C
Hence B is the right answer.

Q.2) Explanation:
M was born in Pune in a month having less than 31 days. Two persons were born between M
and N, who was not born in Lucknow. So, there are 3 cases

Case 1 Case 2 Case 3

Jan

Feb M Pune

April M Pune N

July

August N

September N M Pune

December

Three persons were born between X and H, who was born after M. O was born before Y, who
was born in Patna. O was born after Z, who was born in Jaipur. Above condition is not
satisfied in case 3. So, case 3 is canceled out.

Case1 Case2

Jan Z Jaipur X

Feb M Pune Z Jaipur

April H/X M Pune

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 July O O

August N H

September Y Patna N

December H/X Y Patna

The individual born in Surat was born before the one born in Varanasi, none of them was born in
April. Neither O nor H was born in Lucknow or Varanasi. The one born in Indore was born in a
month with 31 days. The individual born in Indore was born immediately before the one born
in Surat. Above condition is not satisfied in case 1. So, case 1 is canceled out.

Case1 Case2

Jan Z Jaipur X Lucknow

Feb M Pune Z Jaipur

April H/X M Pune

July O Indore O Indore

August N Surat H Surat

September Y Patna N Varanasi

December H/X Y Patna

Final Arrangement:

Case2

Jan X Lucknow

Feb Z Jaipur

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 April M Pune

July O Indore

August H Surat

September N Varanasi

December Y Patna

Hence C is the right answer.

Q.3) Explanation:
M was born in Pune in a month having less than 31 days. Two persons were born between M
and N, who was not born in Lucknow. So, there are 3 cases

Case 1 Case 2 Case 3

Jan

Feb M Pune

April M Pune N

July

August N

September N M Pune

December

Three persons were born between X and H, who was born after M. O was born before Y, who
was born in Patna. O was born after Z, who was born in Jaipur. Above condition is not
satisfied in case 3. So, case 3 is canceled out.

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 Case1 Case2

Jan Z Jaipur X

Feb M Pune Z Jaipur

April H/X M Pune

July O O

August N H

September Y Patna N

December H/X Y Patna

The individual born in Surat was born before the one born in Varanasi, none of them was born in
April. Neither O nor H was born in Lucknow or Varanasi. The one born in Indore was born in a
month with 31 days. The individual born in Indore was born immediately before the one born
in Surat. Above condition is not satisfied in case 1. So, case 1 is canceled out.

Case1 Case2

Jan Z Jaipur X Lucknow

Feb M Pune Z Jaipur

April H/X M Pune

July O Indore O Indore

August N Surat H Surat

September Y Patna N Varanasi

December H/X Y Patna

Final Arrangement:

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 Case2

Jan X Lucknow

Feb Z Jaipur

April M Pune

July O Indore

August H Surat

September N Varanasi

December Y Patna

Hence A is the right answer.

Q.4) Explanation:
M was born in Pune in a month having less than 31 days. Two persons were born between M
and N, who was not born in Lucknow. So, there are 3 cases

Case 1 Case 2 Case 3

Jan

Feb M Pune

April M Pune N

July

August N

September N M Pune

December

33 | Page
Three persons were born between X and H, who was born after M. O was born before Y, who
was born in Patna. O was born after Z, who was born in Jaipur. Above condition is not
satisfied in case 3. So, case 3 is canceled out.

Case1 Case2

Jan Z Jaipur X

Feb M Pune Z Jaipur

April H/X M Pune

July O O

August N H

September Y Patna N

December H/X Y Patna

The individual born in Surat was born before the one born in Varanasi, none of them was born in
April. Neither O nor H was born in Lucknow or Varanasi. The one born in Indore was born in a
month with 31 days. The individual born in Indore was born immediately before the one born
in Surat. Above condition is not satisfied in case 1. So, case 1 is canceled out.

Case1 Case2

Jan Z Jaipur X Lucknow

Feb M Pune Z Jaipur

April H/X M Pune

July O Indore O Indore

August N Surat H Surat

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 September Y Patna N Varanasi

December H/X Y Patna

Final Arrangement:

Case2

Jan X Lucknow

Feb Z Jaipur

April M Pune

July O Indore

August H Surat

September N Varanasi

December Y Patna

Hence E is the right answer.

Q.5) Explanation:
M was born in Pune in a month having less than 31 days. Two persons were born between M
and N, who was not born in Lucknow. So, there are 3 cases

Case 1 Case 2 Case 3

Jan

Feb M Pune

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 April M Pune N

July

August N

September N M Pune

December

Three persons were born between X and H, who was born after M. O was born before Y, who
was born in Patna. O was born after Z, who was born in Jaipur. Above condition is not
satisfied in case 3. So, case 3 is canceled out.

Case1 Case2

Jan Z Jaipur X

Feb M Pune Z Jaipur

April H/X M Pune

July O O

August N H

September Y Patna N

December H/X Y Patna

The individual born in Surat was born before the one born in Varanasi, none of them was born in
April. Neither O nor H was born in Lucknow or Varanasi. The one born in Indore was born in a
month with 31 days. The individual born in Indore was born immediately before the one born
in Surat. Above condition is not satisfied in case 1. So, case 1 is canceled out.

Case1 Case2

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 Jan Z Jaipur X Lucknow

Feb M Pune Z Jaipur

April H/X M Pune

July O Indore O Indore

August N Surat H Surat

September Y Patna N Varanasi

December H/X Y Patna

Final Arrangement:

Case2

Jan X Lucknow

Feb Z Jaipur

April M Pune

July O Indore

August H Surat

September N Varanasi

December Y Patna

Hence D is the right answer.

Q.6) Explanation:

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 Light
Cricket Football

1) Few lights can be cricket - false. Only lamp is light means all light are lamp and light has no
relation with anyone except lamp. Even possibilities are not true in this case
2) Some footballs can never be cricket - true. Only a few football is cricket means some footballs
are cricket and some footballs are not cricket.
Hence B is the right answer.

Q.7) Explanation:

Movies Good Actor Player

I.Some good is not player - true. The part of good which is the part of actor can never be part of
player
II.Few movies are actors - false. No definite relation between movies and actor so we cannot say
with surety.
Hence A is the right answer.

Q.8) Explanation:
X is heavier than 3 persons, Z is lighter than M.
X>_>_ >
M>Z

38 | Page
N is lighter than only Y. Z is not the lightest.
Y>N>_>_>_>_
The second heaviest person weighs 56 kg, and the second lightest person weighs 28 kg.
Y>N>X>M>Z>O
56 28
Hence A is the right answer.

Q.9) Explanation:
X is heavier than 3 persons, Z is lighter than M.
X>_>_ >
M>Z
N is lighter than only Y. Z is not the lightest.
Y>N>_>_>_>_
The second heaviest person weighs 56 kg, and the second lightest person weighs 28 kg.
Y>N>X>M>Z>O
56 28
Hence D is the right answer.

Q.10) Explanation:
X is heavier than 3 persons, Z is lighter than M.
X>_>_ >
M>Z
N is lighter than only Y. Z is not the lightest.
Y>N>_>_>_>_
The second heaviest person weighs 56 kg, and the second lightest person weighs 28 kg.
Y>N>X>M>Z>O
56 28
Hence B is the right answer.

39 | Page
Q.11) Explanation:

I. L < F - false (L < N ≤ D = R ≥ F)

II. D > E - true ( D = R ≥ F = U > M ≥ E)

III. O ≥ X - false (O > R > K ≥ X)

Hence B is the right answer.

Q.12) Explanation:

I. P > Y - false(Y = V < H ≤ D < G = Q > P)

II. H ≤ A - false ( H ≤ D < G > A)

III. I < V - false (V < H ≤ D < G > A ≥ I)

Hence E is the right answer.

Q.13) Explanation:

I. M > Q - true (M > F ≥ E = U ≥ S > Q)

II. J ≥ S - true (J ≥ U ≥ S)

III. B < G - false(G = M > F ≥ E = U ≤ J < B)

Hence D is the right answer.

Q.14) Explanation:

I. M does not live on an even-numbered floor. J lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the
topmost floor. This statement alone is not sufficient

II. L lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which L and I
live. M lives on a floor immediately above K’s floor. This statement is also not alone sufficient.

By combining both the statements

Floor Person

6 I

40 | Page
 5 M

4 K

3 L

2 J

1 N

I lives on the top floor

Hence E is the right answer.

Q.15) Explanation:

From statement 1

K and I live in the country Y and V respectively. P does not live in the country W.

Country Person

V I

Y K

This statement alone is not sufficient.

From statement 2

B lives in either country U or X. This statement is alone not sufficient.

By combining both the statements.

Country Person

41 | Page
 U B/P

V I

X B/P

Y K

Both statements together are not sufficient.

Hence D is the right answer.

Q.16) Explanation:
Q sits third to the left of M, who likes lavender, and the individual who likes lavender sits to the
immediate left of R. Q and the person who prefers emerald have one person in between
them.

M(Lavender)
M(Lavender)
Emerald
R R

Case1 Case2

Q
Emerald Q

P sits to the immediate right of O, and neither of them prefers emerald. The one who likes
maroon and T has two people sitting between them. P, Q, and R, none of them has a liking for
maroon. O sits opposite the person who likes ivory, and the individual who likes ivory sits
immediately next to the one who enjoys navy.

42 | Page
 M(Lavender)
M(Lavender)
Navy T(Emerald)
R P
R

Case1 (Maroon) Case2

O Ivory
O
Ivory
Maroon

Q
T(Emerald) P Q
Navy

The one who favors cyan sits to the immediate left of the person who likes ebony. S does not like
ivory. S sits second to the right of N. Above condition is not satisfied in case 2. So, case 2 is
canceled out.

M(Lavender)
Navy
R P(Amber)

N
Ivory Case1 (Maroon)
O

Q(Ebony)
T(Emerald)
S(Cyan)

Hence D is the right answer.

Q.17) Explanation:
Q sits third to the left of M, who likes lavender, and the individual who likes lavender sits to the
immediate left of R. Q and the person who prefers emerald have one person in between
them.

43 | Page
 M(Lavender)
M(Lavender)
Emerald
R R

Case1 Case2

Q
Emerald Q

P sits to the immediate right of O, and neither of them prefers emerald. The one who likes
maroon and T has two people sitting between them. P, Q, and R, none of them has a liking for
maroon. O sits opposite the person who likes ivory, and the individual who likes ivory sits
immediately next to the one who enjoys navy.

M(Lavender)
M(Lavender)
Navy T(Emerald)
R P
R

Case1 (Maroon) Case2

O Ivory
O
Ivory
Maroon

Q
T(Emerald) P Q
Navy

The one who favors cyan sits to the immediate left of the person who likes ebony. S does not like
ivory. S sits second to the right of N. Above condition is not satisfied in case 2. So, case 2 is
canceled out.

44 | Page
 M(Lavender)
Navy
R P(Amber)

N
Ivory Case1 (Maroon)
O

Q(Ebony)
T(Emerald)
S(Cyan)

Hence A is the right answer.

Q.18) Explanation:
Q sits third to the left of M, who likes lavender, and the individual who likes lavender sits to the
immediate left of R. Q and the person who prefers emerald have one person in between
them.

M(Lavender)
M(Lavender)
Emerald
R R

Case1 Case2

Q
Emerald Q

P sits to the immediate right of O, and neither of them prefers emerald. The one who likes
maroon and T has two people sitting between them. P, Q, and R, none of them has a liking for

45 | Page
 maroon. O sits opposite the person who likes ivory, and the individual who likes ivory sits
immediately next to the one who enjoys navy.

M(Lavender)
M(Lavender)
Navy T(Emerald)
R P
R

Case1 (Maroon) Case2

O Ivory
O
Ivory
Maroon

Q
T(Emerald) P Q
Navy

The one who favors cyan sits to the immediate left of the person who likes ebony. S does not like
ivory. S sits second to the right of N. Above condition is not satisfied in case 2. So, case 2 is
canceled out.

M(Lavender)
Navy
R P(Amber)

N
Ivory Case1 (Maroon)
O

Q(Ebony)
T(Emerald)
S(Cyan)

Hence B is the right answer.

Q.19) Explanation:

46 | Page
Q sits third to the left of M, who likes lavender, and the individual who likes lavender sits to the
immediate left of R. Q and the person who prefers emerald have one person in between
them.

M(Lavender)
M(Lavender)
Emerald
R R

Case1 Case2

Q
Emerald Q

P sits to the immediate right of O, and neither of them prefers emerald. The one who likes
maroon and T has two people sitting between them. P, Q, and R, none of them has a liking for
maroon. O sits opposite the person who likes ivory, and the individual who likes ivory sits
immediately next to the one who enjoys navy.

M(Lavender)
M(Lavender)
Navy T(Emerald)
R P
R

Case1 (Maroon) Case2

O Ivory
O
Ivory
Maroon

Q
T(Emerald) P Q
Navy

47 | Page
The one who favors cyan sits to the immediate left of the person who likes ebony. S does not like
ivory. S sits second to the right of N. Above condition is not satisfied in case 2. So, case 2 is
canceled out.

M(Lavender)
Navy
R P(Amber)

N
Ivory Case1 (Maroon)
O

Q(Ebony)
T(Emerald)
S(Cyan)

Hence B is the right answer.

Q.20) Explanation:
The first, third, sixth, eighth and eleventh letter of the word ‘FABRICATION’ is F, B, C, T and N
No meaningful word is formed so, answer is Z
Hence E is the right answer.

48 | Page
NABARD Gr A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Section – English

Directions (1-4): In each of the given questions there is a sentence with two blanks in it. You
have to find a suitable pair of words for each blank from the given options that can make the
sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Q.1. The Chief Ministers of West Bengal and Tamil Nadu, Mamata Banerjee and M.K. Stalin,
respectively, have jointly proposed a ______ of non-BJP Chief Ministers. The initiative is still
_______ and there is no clear agenda or a definite date but the political context is amply
clear.
A. bond, hectic
B. standard, developing
C. convention, nascent
D. settlement, growing
E. None of these

Q.2. Dokra or Dhokra is a non-ferrous metal ________ that has been used in India for over 4,000
years. _________, the handicraft is still prepared by hand by village artisans of Odisha,
without the involvement of any machines.
A. casting, alluringly
B. aiming, attractively
C. drafting, interestingly
D. bending, repulsively
E. None of these

Q.3. Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath’s remark that the State could become
Kashmir, West Bengal or Kerala if voters _________ a mistake, could have been, at any
other time or context, laughed at for stretching ________.
A. pledged, credulously
B. committed, credulity
C. confided, credulous
D. bounded, credit
E. None of these

Q.4. For a certain type who rely on ________ in their politics, ________ that can act as a
dog whistle is a key weapon in an electoral battle.
A. liberalism, soundness
B. conservatism, cogency
C. insularity, expressively
D. bigotry, rhetoric
E. None of these

49 | Page
Directions (5-9): A part of each sentence is highlighted. You need to find out the best
replacement for the highlighted part in order to make the sentence grammatically and
meaningfully correct. If no correction is required, then mark (E) No correction required as the
answer.
Q. 5. A 54-year-old man have been arrested for marrying 14 women across the country and
duping them of lakhs of Rupees.
A. has been arrested for
B. has arrested for
C. have arrested for
D. had been arrested for
E. No improvement required

Q.6. In Parliament recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Congress leader Rahul Gandhi
had a heated debate on the scope and limits of Indian federalism.
A. have a heated debate on the scope
B. had a heating debate on the scope
C. has a heated debate on the scope
D. having a heated debate on the scope
E. No improvement required

Q.7. A two-year-old girl in Andhra Pradesh accidentally fall onto a vessel of hot sambar on her
birthday on Sunday.
A. fall in a vessel of hot sambar
B. fell onto a vessel of hot sambar
C. fell into a vessel of hot sambar
D. fall into a vessel of hot sambar
E. No improvement required

Q.8. Thirty-three people were injured when a Himachal Road Transport Corporation (HRTC) bus
met on an accident in Shimla district.
A. bus met an accident in
B. bus met with an accident in
C. bus met to an accident in
D. bus met of an accident in
E. No improvement required

Q. 9. ABG Shipyard Limited, one of India’s largest private sector shipyard firms, has been booked
by the CBI for defrauding 28 banks to the tune at Rs 22,800 crore.
A. 28 banks to the tune to Rs 22,800 crore

50 | Page
B. 28 banks to the tune for Rs 22,800 crore
C. 28 banks to the tune on Rs 22,800 crore
D. 28 banks to the tune of Rs 22,800 crore
E. No improvement required

Directions (10-15): In the following passage, some of the words are missing and indicated with
blanks. Find the suitable word from the options given below that make the paragraph
meaningful.
The Indian Premier League (IPL) auction held over the weekend at Bengaluru reflected financial
________ (a) and fresh hopes. That a league, _______ (b) in spirit and international in flavour,
can cope with two pandemic years and still remain economically _________ (c) is a pointer to its
marketing __________ (d) and strong financial underpinnings. Nearly ₹552 crore, ₹551.7 crore
to be ________ (e), was spent by 10 franchises as they sought to _________ (f) their squads with
a bouquet of players with varied skill sets.
Q.10. Which of the following words is most appropriate for blank (a)?
A. adversities
B. pressure
C. heft
D. burden
E. None of the above

Q.11. Which of the following words is most appropriate for blank (b)?
A. private
B. state
C. local
D. domestic
E. None of the above

Q.12. Which of the following words is most appropriate for blank (c)?
A. robust
B. mild
C. lethargic
D. fragile
E. None of the above

Q.13. Which of the following words is appropriate for blank (d)?

A. terminate
B. discontinuity
C. functionality
D. viability
E. None of the above

51 | Page
Q.14. Which of the following words is appropriate for blank (e)?
A. relatively
B. precise
C. roughly
D. approximate
E. None of the above

Q.15. Which of the following words is most appropriate for blank (f)?
A. bolster
B. undermine
C. enhance
D. validate
E. None of the above

Directions (16-19): In each of the following questions, a sentence has been divided into five parts
which may or may not be grammatically correct. Find out which part of the sentence is
erroneous.
Q.16. The Quad Ministerial meeting in Melbourne, meant (a)/ to set the stage for a meeting by
the leader of (b)/ Australia, India, Japan and the U.S. later this year (c)/ in Tokyo, ended with
outcomes that showcased (d)/ its “positive agenda” in the Indo-Pacific region (e).
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Q.17. A communal angle is occasionally added, (a)/ as Uttar Pradesh CM Yogi Adityanath did (b)/
last week in branding West Bengal, Kerala or Kashmir, (c)/ apparently for the high levels of
(d)/ politic power enjoyed by Muslims there (e).
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Q.18. The girls who petition in favour of (a)/ hijab requested the Karnataka High Court (b)/ on
Monday to allow them to (c)/ wear Islamic headscarves of (d)/ the colour of the school
uniform (e).
A. a

52 | Page
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Q.19. Hundreds of people participated in a (a)/ bull-taming sport organized at Karlagatta village
(b)/ in Andhra’s Chittoor district despite (c)/ the government warning that action (d)/ would
be taken against the organizers (e).
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Directions (20-23): In each of the following questions, four words have been highlighted in
bold. These words may or may not be correctly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. You are required to find the word that is wrongly spelt or used inappropriately from
the given options.

Q.20. BJP leaders are questioning the intent of the petitioners in the hijab row, who were
sinking an urgent interim order on the issue.
A. intent
B. questioning
C. sinking
D. interim
E. All are correct

Q.21. A Kerala man builds a garden to prevent waste from accumulating beyond a bridge in
Kozhikode.
A. builds
B. prevent
C. accumulating
D. beneath
E. All are correct

Q.22. The accused had allegedly entered into a conspiracy with private suppliers to purchase
non-store items at higher costs, in exchange for illigal monetary benefit from private
firms/companies.
A. allegedly
B. benefit

53 | Page
C. illigal
D. conspiracy
E. All are correct

Q. 23. On February 14, 2019, Pakistan-based Jaish-e-Mohammed (JeM) terror group had
attakced a convoy of the CRPF in Pulwama in Jammu and Kashmir, killing 40 personnel of the
force.
A. terror
B. attakced
C. convoy
D. personnel
E. All are correct

Directions (24-30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below. Some words are printed in bold in order to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.
After much uncertainty, the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has filed its Draft Red
Herring Prospectus (DRHP) with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). The initial
public offering is for 31.6 crore shares or 5 percent of the government’s stake. As per the DRHP,
LIC’s embedded value — a measure of the consolidated shareholders value in an insurance
company— has been estimated at Rs 5.39 lakh crore. While the offer price is yet to be disclosed,
insurance companies typically tend to trade at a multiple of their embedded value. A successful
fructification of the IPO by March would help the government achieve its scaled down
disinvestment target of Rs 78,000 crore of which it has only been able to garner Rs 12,030 crore
so far.
As of March 31, 2021, LIC had a 66.2 per cent market share in new business premiums, a 74.6
per cent share in individual policies issued, and an 81.1 per cent share in the number of group
policies issued for 2020-21. Though, increasingly LIC has been ceding space to private players —
between 2015-16 and 2020- 21, private sector life insurance players saw their premiums grow at
18 per cent, while LIC’s premium grew at 9 per cent — India is still an under-penetrated market.
The country’s insurance density is much lower than that of other developing countries which
indicates scope for growth.
While a listing on the exchanges will open LIC’s governance structures and investment decisions
to public scrutiny, continued government interference in its decision making will affect the
corporation’s prospects. The steep discounts that public sector companies trade at when
compared to their private sector counterparts is a reflection of this pattern. Considering that LIC
is a custodian of the policy holder’s money, the government must resist the temptation of using
its coffers for its own purpose.

24. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per the context of the passage?

54 | Page
I. The initial public offering of the Life Insurance Corporation of India is for 31.6 crore shares.
II. The consolidated shareholders value in an insurance company has been estimated at Rs
5.39 lakh crore.
III. The initial public offering of the Life Insurance Corporation of India is 5 percent of the
government’s borrowing.
A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III
E. Both I and III

Q.25. Why did the insurance company tend to trade at a multiple of their embedded values?
A. Because the company is failed to evaluate the exact value of the IPO
B. Because the price is still fluctuating in the Indian Market
C. Because the offer price is not revealed in the market.
D. Because the insurance company is not sure about the price of the IPO
E. None of the above

Q.26. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of the passage?
I. LIC had a 66.2 per cent market share in new business premiums for 2020-21.
II. LIC had a 74.6 per cent share in the number of group policies issued for 2020-21.
III. LIC had an 81.1 per cent share in individual policies issued for 2020-21.
A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III
E. Both I and III

Q.27. How can we say that the LIC has been increasingly giving space to private players in
between 2015-16 and 2020-21?
A. Private players with their innovative techniques captured the premium market smoothly.
B. LIC failed to maintain the premiums in the Indian market thus giving it up to the private
players.
C. There is an inverse relation between the premiums of the private players and the LIC’s
premium.
D. The growth in the premiums of the private players is higher as compared to LIC’s premium.
E. None of the above

Q.28. How would the corporation’s prospects be affected as per the context of the passage?

55 | Page
 A. Scope of growth is not there thus affecting the corporation’s prospects
B. Investment decisions will affect the decision making and corporation’s prospects
C. The continued government interference will affect the corporation’s prospects
D. Both A and C
E. None of the above

Q.29. What is the correct antonym for the highlighted word “garner”?
A. Congregate
B. Collect
C. Dissolve
D. Gather
E. None of the above

Q.30. What is the correct synonym for the highlighted word “steep”?
A. Deprived
B. Excessive
A. Moderate
B. Void
C. None of the above

NABARD Gr A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Answer Key
Section – General English
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
Number Number Number
1 C 11 D 21 D
2 A 12 A 22 C
3 B 13 D 23 B
4 D 14 B 24 B
5 A 15 A 25 C
6 E 16 B 26 A
7 C 17 E 27 D
8 B 18 A 28 C
9 D 19 D 29 C
10 C 20 C 30 B

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – General English
Q.1) Explanation:

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 The above sentence conveys that the Chief Ministers of West Bengal and Tamil Nadu proposed
an alliance of non-BJP Chief Ministers. The initiative has just begun and there is no clear
agenda or a definite date. So, the apt pair of words is- “convention, nascent”.
Convention means an agreement between states covering particular matters, especially one less
formal than a treaty.
Nascent means (especially of a process or organization) just coming into existence and beginning
to display signs of future potential.
Hence option C is the correct answer.
2. Q.2) Explanation:
Metal casting is a process in which hot liquid metal is poured into a mould that contains a
hollow cutout or cavity of the desired finished shape. So, the first blank will be filled by the
word “casting”.
Alluringly means powerfully and mysteriously attractive or fascinating; seductive. So, the apt
pair of words is- “casting, alluringly”.
Repulsively means extremely unpleasant or unacceptable.
Hence option A is the correct answer.

Q.3) Explanation:
The above sentence conveys the remark of the Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister that if voters
commit a mistake then the State could become Kashmir, West Bengal or Kerala.
Credulity- a tendency to be too ready to believe that something is real or true.
Pledged- commit (a person or organization) by a solemn promise
Confided- tell someone about a secret or private matter while trusting them not to repeat it to
others.
Hence option B is the correct answer.

Q.4) Explanation:
The apt pair of words is- “bigotry, rhetoric”. Bigotry means stubborn or intolerant adherence to
one's opinions or prejudices.
Rhetoric means a language that is impressive- sounding but not meaningful or sincere.
Cogency- the capacity to persuade.
Insularity- ignorance of or lack of interest in cultures, ideas, or peoples outside one's own
experience.

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 Hence option D is the correct answer.

Q.5) Explanation:
The highlighted part is grammatically incorrect. As the subject is in the singular form, the verb
should also be in the singular form.
“has been arrested for” is the correct usage.
Thus, option A is the correct answer.

Q.6) Explanation:
The highlighted part is grammatically correct; hence no improvement is required.

Q.7) Explanation:
The highlighted part is grammatically incorrect. There are two errors.
The sentence is related to the past activity, so we must use “fell” in place of “fall”.
'Onto' means 'in a particular place' whereas 'into' means 'moving inside'. Into is the correct
usage.
Thus, option C is the correct answer.

Q.8) Explanation:
The highlighted part is grammatically incorrect. There is a preposition error.
"Met with an accident" means to have suffered an accident.
We use “met with” to experience something, usually something unpleasant:
Thus, option B is the correct answer.

Q.9) Explanation:
The highlighted part is grammatically incorrect. There is an error in the phrase. The correct
phrase is - “to the tune of”.
To the tune of a particular amount of money that means to the extent of that amount.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.

Q.10) Explanation:

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 The above paragraph is about the Indian Premier League (IPL) auction which was held at
Bengaluru, the apt word to be used in the blank is “heft” which means “the weight of
someone or something”. Remaining words are inapt.
Hence option C is the correct answer.

Q.11) Explanation:
We all know that IPL is a cricket 20-20 tournament held every year in India, where the no. of
teams (consisting of both Indians and players from different countries) compete with each other.
So, the most appropriate word to be used is- “domestic” which means existing or occurring
inside a particular country; not foreign or international. Remaining words are inapt.
Hence option D is the correct answer.

Q.12) Explanation:
The above sentence conveys that IPL can cope with two pandemic years and still remain
economically strong and vigorous. So, the apt word to be used is “robust”. Remaining words are
inapt.
Lethargic- inactive, slow
Fragile- weak, easily broken or damaged. Hence option A is the correct answer.

Q.13) Explanation:
The word which is most appropriate for blank is “viability” which means ability to work
successfully. As the sentence states that despite two pandemic years, IPL remains economically
robust and is an indicator of its marketing expertise and strong financial underpinnings.
Remaining words are inapt.
Hence option D is the correct answer.

Q.14) Explanation:
The given sentence states that nearly ₹552 crore, specifically ₹551.7 crore to be spent by 10
franchises. For this the apt word to be used is “precise” which means used to emphasize that
one is referring to an exact and particular thing. Remaining words are inapt.
Hence option B is the correct answer.

Q.15) Explanation:

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 The given sentence states that the amount spent by 10 franchises desire to strengthen their
squads with a bouquet of players with varied skill sets. The apt word to be used here is “bolster”
which means support or strengthen. Remaining words are inapt.
Hence option A is the correct answer.

Q.16) Explanation:
Out of the given five parts, “b” is grammatically incorrect.
Error- As there are four countries mentioned in the sentence, and leader is used as the singular
noun which is incorrect so, “leader” will be replaced by “leaders”.
Remaining parts are free from errors; hence option B is the correct answer.

Q.17) Explanation:
Out of the given five parts, “e” is grammatically incorrect.
Error- We need an adjective before the noun “power”. So, the adjective form of “politic” is
“political”. So “politic” will be replaced by “political”.
Remaining parts are free from errors; hence option E is the correct answer.

Q.18) Explanation:
Out of the given five parts, “a” is grammatically incorrect.
Error- If you read the sentence carefully, you will find that the sentence is given in the past
tense. So “petition” should be replaced by “petitioned”.
Remaining parts are free from errors; hence option A is the correct answer.

Q.19) Explanation:
Out of the given five parts, “d” is grammatically incorrect.
Error- As per the subject-verb agreement, when two nouns are used consecutively, we use
apostrophe in the first noun.
“Government” will be replaced by “government’s”.
Remaining parts are free from errors; hence option D is the correct answer.

Q.20) Explanation:

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 Out of the given four words- “sinking” is inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Seeking is
the correct word to be used in place of sinking.
Seeking- attempt to find (something).
Sinking- go down below the surface of something, especially of a liquid; become submerged.
Hence option C is the correct answer.

Q.21) Explanation:
Out of the given four words- “beyond” is inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Beneath is
the correct word to be used in place of beyond.
Beneath- the position of things which are at a lower level than something else.
Beyond- at or to the further side of Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Q.22) Explanation:
Out of the given four words- “illigal” has been incorrectly spelt and the correct spelling will be
“illegal”.
Conspiracy- a secret plan by a group to do something unlawful or harmful.
Hence option C is the correct answer.

Q.23) Explanation:
Out of the given four words- “attakced” has been incorrectly spelt, the correct spelling will be
“attacked”.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q.24) Explanation:
Out of the given statements, III is incorrect in the context of the passage.
Correction- The initial public offering of the Life Insurance Corporation of India is 5 percent of
the government’s stake.
Hence option B is the correct answer.

Q.25) Explanation:
Refer to the first paragraph- “While the offer price is yet to be disclosed, insurance companies
typically tend to trade at a multiple of their embedded value.” From the above quoted lines, we
can say that option C is the correct answer.

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Q.26) Explanation:
Out of the given statements, only I is correct in the context of the passage.
Correction-
II. LIC had a 74.6 per cent share in individual policies issued for 2020-21.
III. LIC had an 81.1 per cent share in the number of group policies issued for 2020-21.
Hence option A is the correct answer.

Q.27) Explanation:
Refer to the second paragraph: “Though increasingly, the LIC has been ceding space to private
players — between 2015-16 and 2020- 21, private sector life insurance players saw their
premiums grow at 18 per cent, while LIC’s premium grew at 9 per cent”.
From the above quoted lines, we can say that option D is the correct answer.

Q.28) Explanation:
Refer to the last paragraph: While a listing on the exchanges will open LIC’s governance
structures and investment decisions to public scrutiny, continued government interference in its
decision making will affect the corporation’s prospects. From the above quoted lines, we can say
that option C is the correct answer.

Q.29) Explanation:
The highlighted word “garner” means “gather or collect (something, especially information or
approval)”. Except “dissolve” all the given words are synonyms. Hence option C is the correct
answer.

Q.30) Explanation:
The highlighted word “steep” means “(of a price or demand) that’s not reasonable; or
excessive.” The correct synonym will hence, be “excessive”. So, option B is the correct answer.

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NABARD Grade A 2023 – Recollected Questions
Section – Computer Knowledge

Q.1 What is the full form of VFX?

A. Visualised expression
B. Virtual expression
C. Video Effects
D. Visual Extension
E. Visual Effects

Q.2 Which of the following shortcut keys is used for the screen lock and password is required to
unlock the screen?
A. Windows key + L
B. Ctrl + Alt + Del
C. Ctrl + Shift + Esc
D. Alt + F4
E. Ctrl + Tab

Q.3 The incognito mode does not store which of the following information.
1. Data entered in forms.
2. Your browsing history
3. Browsing Cookies

Options
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. 2 only

Q.4 Which computer device played a key role during World War 2, helping the Germans during
the war?
A. Enigma
B. IBM
C. Colossus
D. ENIAC
E. Abacus

Q.5 ASCII stands for _________________________________

A. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
B. Advanced System for Computer Information Integration
C. American Society of Computer Information Engineers
D. Artificial System for Computer Intelligence

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E. None of the above

Q.6 What keyboard shortcut is commonly employed to toggle between active applications in
Microsoft Windows and other operating systems?
A. Ctrl + Shift + Tab
B. Alt + Tab
C. Windows + Tab
D. Windows + M
E. Ctrl + Alt + Delete

Q.7 Which of the following is a benefit of using parental controls?

A. To limit screen time
B. To block access to inappropriate sites
C. To monitor online activity
D. To promote healthy digital habits
E. All of the above

Q.8 Which of the following companies are involved in the production of microprocessors?
A. Intel, AMD, Qualcomm, MediaTek
B. Microsoft, HCL, Core, Huawei
C. Microsoft, Apple, Core, Starter
D. Intel, AMD, Nvidia, Arsenal
E. Intel, AMD, Qualcomm, Mahindra Tech

Q.9 What is the primary purpose of a Task Manager?

(1) Managing tasks in a project or workflow
(2) Monitoring the performance of a computer system
(3) Regulating access to a computer system
Options-
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only
E. 1, 2, and 3

Q.10 Which statement accurately defines the scenario when we download documents in
incognito mode?
A. The documents will be saved to a temporary folder and deleted when the incognito mode is
closed.

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B. The documents will be saved to the Downloads folder and can be seen by anyone who uses the
device.
C. The documents will be encrypted and cannot be seen by anyone without the password.
D. The documents will be uploaded to the cloud and can be accessed from anywhere.
E. None of the above.

Q.11 What is the accurate sequence for memory speed, ranging from fastest to slowest?
A. Cache, ROM, hard disk, floppy disk, tape drive
B. Floppy disk, hard disk, ROM, cache, CD
C. Hard disk, floppy disk, ROM, cache
D. ROM, hard disk, floppy disk, cache
E. Tape drive, Floppy disk, ROM, cache, floppy disk

Q.12 What is the full form of BCC?

A. Basic Carbon Copy
B. Blind Carbon Copy
C. Broad Carbon Copy
D. Backup Carbon Copy
E. Broadcast Carbon Copy

Q.13 Which of the following is the primary use of a stylus input device?
A. Selecting and drawing on a touchscreen
B. Typing text on a keyboard
C. Moving the cursor on a computer screen
D. Scanning documents
E. Printing documents

Q.14 What technological advancement addressed the issues that were associated with vacuum
tubes?
A. Transistor
B. Integrated circuit
C. Microprocessor
D. Cathode ray tube
E. Diode

Q.15 Which of these options employs qubits in its operation?

A. Quantum computers
B. Classical computers
C. Supercomputers
D. Mainframes
E. Minicomputers

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 Q. 16 What type of printer is typically employed in office settings for the purpose of producing
high volumes of documents or papers?
A. Inkjet printer
B. Laser printer
C. Thermal printer
D. Dot matrix printer
E. Solid ink printer

Q. 17 The action of dragging two fingers across the touchpad of the laptop is used for?
A. Closing all the open tabs
B. Zooming in or out of a document or web page
C. Right-clicking
D. Dragging and dropping files or objects
E. Switching between applications

Q. 18- Who is credited with pioneering the first electronic computer?

A. Charles Xavier
B. John Mauchly
C. John Atanasoff
D. Alan Turing
E. Steve Jobs

Q. 19 What is the full form of CD-R?

A. Compact Disc-Read
B. Compact Disc-ReWritable
C. Compact Disc-Recordable
D. Compact Disc-Random Access Memory
E. Compact Disc-Write Once Read Many

Q. 20 What keyboard shortcut can be used to switch between windows while using a virtual
desktop?
A. Ctrl + Z
B. Windows key + Tab
C. Windows key + Ctrl + Tab
D. Windows key + Ctrl + Left Arrow/Right Arrow
E. Windows key + Ctrl + Shift + Tab

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Answer Key
Section – Computer Knowledge

Question Answer
Number
1 E
2 A
3 D
4 A
5 A
6 B
7 E
8 A
9 B
10 B
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 A
15 A
16 B
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 D

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – Computer Knowledge
Q.1) Explanation:
Visual effects (VFX) is the process of creating or manipulating any kind of imagery that does not
physically exist in the real world. This can include things like creating dinosaurs, spaceships, and
alien worlds, as well as more subtle effects like adding rain to a scene or removing wires from
actors.
VFX is used in a wide variety of films and TV shows, from big-budget blockbusters to smaller
independent productions. It is also used in video games, commercials, and other forms of media.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.

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Q. 2) Explanation:
To lock your screen using the Windows key + L shortcut, simply press and hold the Windows key
and then press the L key. This will immediately lock your screen and prompt you to enter your
password to unlock it.
Hence, the correct answer is option A

Q. 3 Explanation-
Incognito mode does not store any of the following information:
• Browsing history
• Cookies and site data
• Information entered in forms.
Incognito mode is a privacy feature that allows you to browse the web without your browser
saving your browsing history, cookies, and other site data. This means that other people who use
the same computer won't be able to see which websites you've visited.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Q. 4 Explanation-
The Enigma was a cipher machine used by the Germans during World War II to encrypt their
communications. It was a very complex machine, and the Germans believed that it was
unbreakable. However, in 1940, Alan Turing and a team of British codebreakers at Bletchley Park
began working on cracking the Enigma code.
Hence, the correct answer is option A

Q. 5) Explanation-
ASCII stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange
It is a standard data-encoding format for electronic communication between computers. ASCII
assigns standard numeric values to letters, numerals, punctuation marks, and other characters
used in computers.
Hence, the correct answer is option A

Q. 6) Explanation-
This keyboard shortcut key commonly employed to toggle between active applications in
Microsoft Windows and other operating systems is the Alt + tab. To use it, simply hold down the

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Alt key and press the Tab key repeatedly to cycle through the open applications. Release the Alt
key to switch to the desired application.
Hence, the correct answer is option B

Q. 7 Explanation- Parental control is a set of tools and features that can be used to restrict or
monitor children's access to digital devices and content. Parental controls can be found on a
variety of devices, including computers, smartphones, tablets, and gaming consoles.
Some common features of parental controls include:
• Limiting screen time: Parental controls can be used to set time limits on how long children can
use their devices. This can help to reduce excessive screen time, which can have negative
consequences for children's physical and mental health.
• Blocking access to inappropriate sites: Parental controls can be used to block access to
websites that contain inappropriate content, such as pornography, violence, or hate speech.
This can help to protect children from exposure to harmful content.
• Monitoring online activity: Parental controls can be used to monitor children's online activity,
including the websites they visit, the apps they use, and the people they communicate with.
This can help parents to identify any potential problems, such as cyberbullying or online
predators.
• Promoting healthy digital habits: Parental controls can be used to help children develop
healthy digital habits. For example, parents can use parental controls to block access to social
media during certain times of the day or to prevent children from making in-app purchases.
Hence, the correct answer is option E

Q. 8) Explanation-
A microprocessor is a central processing unit (CPU) that is fabricated on a single integrated circuit
(IC). It is the brain of a computer and is responsible for executing all of the computer's instructions.
Microprocessors are used in a wide variety of devices, including computers, smartphones, tablets,
and even cars.
The following companies are involved in the production of microprocessors:
• Intel, AMD, Qualcomm, MediaTek

Hence, the correct answer is option A

Q. 9) Explanation-
The primary purpose of a Task Manager is to manage tasks in a project or workflow and monitor
the performance of a computer system.

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Regulating access to a computer system is not a primary purpose of a Task Manager. This is
typically done by other security software, such as access control lists (ACLs) and firewalls.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q. 10) Explanation-
While downloading documents in incognito mode, the documents will be saved to the Downloads
folder and can be seen by anyone who uses the device.
Incognito mode does not prevent downloads from being saved to your device. It simply prevents
your browsing history, cookies, and other site data from being saved. This means that anyone who
uses your device after you have closed the incognito window will be able to see the documents
you downloaded.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q. 11) Explanation-
The correct sequence for memory speed, ranging from fastest to slowest, is: Cache, RAM, hard
disk, floppy disk, and tape drive

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Q. 12 Explanation-
The full form of BCC is a Blind Carbon Copy. It is a field in an email that allows you to send a copy
of the email to one or more recipients without revealing their email addresses to the other
recipients.
BCC is often used to send mass emails to a large group of people, such as a company newsletter
or a mailing list. It is also used to send confidential emails to multiple people without revealing
their identities to each other.
Hence, option B is the correct answer

Q. 13 Explanation –
An input device is a hardware device that allows a user to send data and control signals to an
information processing system, such as a computer or information appliance. Input devices can be
categorized based on the modality of input (e.g., mechanical motion, audio, visual, etc.)
The primary use of a stylus input device is to select and draw on a touchscreen.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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Q. 14 Explanation- The transistor addressed the issues that were associated with vacuum tubes.
Vacuum tubes were the first electronic devices used to amplify and switch electronic signals.
However, they had several drawbacks, including:
• They were large and heavy.

• They generated a lot of heat.

Hence, option A is the correct answer

Q. 15 Explanation-
Quantum computers are the only type of computer that uses qubits.
Qubits are the basic unit of information in a quantum computer. They are different from classical
bits in that they can be in a superposition of states, meaning that they can be both 0 and 1 at the
same time. This allows quantum computers to perform certain calculations much faster than
classical computers.
Hence, option A is the correct answer

Q. 16 Explanation-
Laser printers are typically employed in office settings for the purpose of producing high volumes
of documents or papers.
Laser printers are faster and more cost-effective than inkjet printers for high-volume printing. They
also produce higher-quality prints, especially for text documents.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q. 17 Explanation-
A web page is a document on the World Wide Web that is identified by a unique uniform resource
locator (URL). Web pages are delivered by a web server to the user and displayed in a web browser
to act as a "retrieval unit" for the information stored within it
The action of dragging two fingers across the touchpad of the laptop is used for Zooming in or out
of a document or web page.
Hence, the correct answer is option B

Q. 18 Explanation-
John Atanasoff is credited for developing the first electronic computer. He began working on the
Atanasoff-Berry Computer (ABC). The ABC was the first electronic computer to use vacuum tubes

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to perform calculations. It was also the first computer to use binary arithmetic, which is the basis
of all modern computers.
Hence, option C is the correct answer

Q. 19 Explanation-
A storage device is any hardware device that is used to store data. Storage devices can be classified
into two main types: primary storage devices and secondary storage devices.
CD-R stands for Compact Disc Recordable. A CD-R is a type of optical disc that can be written to
once and read multiple times. It is commonly used to store music, data, and software.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Q. 20) Explanation-
Shortcut keys are combinations of one or more keys that can be used to perform a specific task or
command on a computer.
The keyboard shortcut Windows key + Ctrl + Left Arrow/Right Arrow can be used to switch
between virtual desktops on Windows 10 and 11.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Sub-section – Decision Making

Q.1) What technique is used to identify the most important factors that contribute to a
particular problem or outcome, based on the 80:20 ratio?
A. Pareto analysis
B. Root cause analysis
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Five whys
E. Brainstorming`

Q.2) What strategies can individuals employ to mitigate confirmation bias in their decision-
making processes?
A. By reducing personal thoughts and emphasizing objectivity
B. By reducing objectivity and increasing personal opinion
C. Seeking out only information that supports your existing beliefs
D. Avoiding any kind of critical thinking
E. None of the above

Q.3) What are the key factors contributing to procrastination in the decision-making process
among the following options?
A. Analysis paralysis
B. Fear of consequences
C. Loss of opportunity
D. Compounding complexity
E. All of the above

Q.4) What is the term for a methodology that utilizes a panel of experts who provide anonymous
responses to structured questionnaires?

A. Delphi method
B. Linear programming
C. PERT (Programming Evaluation and Review Technique)
D. Cost-benefit Analysis
E. None of the above

Q.5) In situations marked by uncertainty in the condition or outcome, but where the associated
risk is deemed minimal, what is the recommended approach to decision-making?

A. Be cautious and conservative.

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B. Gather as much information as possible.
C. Consider all possible options.
D. Make a decision based on your intuition.
E. All of the above.

Q.6) What constitutes the initial step in the process of content analysis as applied to decision-
making?

A. Data collection
B. Data analysis
C. Hypothesis formulation
D. Sampling
E. Data interpretation

Q.7) Which is the most precise definition of a random heuristic among the following options?

A. A search algorithm that uses a heuristic function to guide the search towards promising areas
of the search space.
B. A search algorithm that uses a combination of randomness and a heuristic function to find a
good solution.
C. A search algorithm that is guaranteed to find the optimal solution to a problem.
D. A search algorithm that is very fast but not very accurate.
E. None of the above

Q.8) Which of the following is a characteristic of the bounded rationality model?

A. Humans have complete information.

B. Humans have unlimited cognitive capacity.
C. Humans make decisions under time pressure.
D. Humans are always rational.
E. Humans always make the best possible decisions.

Q.9) Among the following, which assumption does not align with the principles of rational
decision-making?

A. Perfect information
B. Consistency in preferences
C. Emotion-driven decision making
D. Transitivity of preferences
E. Maximizing utility

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 Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding group conflict.

1) Group conflict can arise due to differences in goals and interests among group members.

2) Conflict within a group always leads to negative outcomes

3) Effective communication and conflict resolution skills are essential in managing and resolving
group conflicts.

Which among the following statement/s is/are incorrect?

Options-

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3
E. 1,2, and 3

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Answer Key
Section – Decision Making

Question Answer
Number
1 A
2 A
3 E
4 A
5 E
6 A
7 B
8 C
9 C
10 C

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – Decision Making

Q.1) Explanation:
Pareto analysis is a technique that is used to identify the most important factors that contribute to
a particular problem or outcome, based on the 80:20 ratio. It is a simple and effective way to
prioritize your efforts and focus on the things that will have the biggest impact.

75 | Page
Hence, option A is the correct answer

Q.2) Explanation:
Confirmation bias is a cognitive bias that leads people to seek out and interpret information in a
way that confirms their existing beliefs. This can lead to inaccurate and irrational decision-
making.
To avoid confirmation bias, it is important to be aware of it and to take steps to mitigate its
effects. One way to do this is to reduce personal thoughts and emphasize objectivity. This
means being open to new information and considering all sides of an issue before forming an
opinion. It is also important to seek out multiple sources of information, including those that
challenge your existing beliefs.
Hence, the correct answer is option A

Q.3) Explanation:
• Analysis paralysis is a state of overthinking in which a person becomes unable to make a
decision because they are constantly weighing the pros and cons of each option. This is a
common issue for procrastinators, as it can lead them to put off making a decision until
the last minute, or even indefinitely.
• Fear of consequences is another common reason why people procrastinate on making
decisions. This is especially true for difficult decisions that have potentially negative
consequences. Procrastinators may avoid making these decisions for fear of making the
wrong choice, or for fear of the negative consequences that may follow.
• Loss of opportunity is another potential issue of procrastination in decision making. In a
dynamic environment, delaying a decision can mean missing out on opportunities. For
example, a procrastinator who delays making a decision about whether to accept a job
offer may find that the position is filled by someone else before they finally make up their
mind.
• Compounding complexity is a process in which procrastinating on decisions can make
them more difficult to make in the long run. This is because, as time goes on, the situation
may change and new factors may emerge. This can make it more difficult for the
procrastinator to weigh the pros and cons of each option and make a decision.
Therefore, the correct answer is (E) All of the above.

Q.4) Explanation:
The Delphi method is a forecasting method that uses a panel of experts to gather opinions and
insights on a particular topic. The experts are surveyed multiple times, and their responses are
used to develop a consensus. The anonymity of the experts is preserved to encourage them to
be honest and open in their responses.
Hence, the correct answer is option A

Q.5) Explanation:

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 When making decisions in circumstances where the condition or outcome is characterized by a
degree of uncertainty, while the level of associated risk is considered to be minimal, it is
important to be cautious and conservative, gather as much information as possible, consider all
possible options, and make a decision based on your intuition.
Here is a breakdown of each option:
• Be cautious and conservative: This means being careful and avoiding unnecessary risks. In
the context of decision-making, it means choosing options that are less risky, even if they
may not be the most optimal.
• Gather as much information as possible: This means collecting as much data and evidence
as possible before making a decision. This will help you to better understand the situation
and to identify the potential risks and rewards of each option.
• Consider all possible options: This means brainstorming all of the possible ways to solve the
problem or achieve your goal. Once you have a list of options, you can start to evaluate them
and choose the one that is best for you.
• Make a decision based on your intuition: This means trusting your gut feeling. Intuition is
often based on subconscious knowledge and experience, and it can be a valuable tool for
making decisions, especially when there is a lot of uncertainty.
Therefore, the correct answer is option E

Q.6) Explanation:
Content analysis involves systematically collecting and organizing data from various sources,
such as texts, images, or audio, to analyze and extract meaningful information. Once data is
collected, subsequent steps in content analysis, such as coding, categorization, and analysis,
follow to make informed decisions.
Hence option A is the correct answer.

Q.7) Explanation:
The best definition of a random heuristic is (B) A search algorithm that uses a combination of
randomness and a heuristic function to find a good solution.
Random heuristics are often used to solve complex problems that are difficult or impossible to
solve using traditional methods. They work by randomly exploring the search space and using a
heuristic function to guide the search towards promising areas.
Hence option B is the correct answer.

Q.8) Explanation:
The bounded rationality model is a theory of decision-making that recognizes that humans are
limited in their ability to gather and process information, as well as in their cognitive capacity.

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 This means that humans often cannot make optimal decisions, but instead must settle for "good
enough" decisions.
One of the key characteristics of the bounded rationality model is that humans make decisions
under time pressure. This is because the world is constantly changing, and we often need to
make decisions quickly in order to adapt. For example, if you are driving and you see a pedestrian
crossing the street, you need to make a decision about whether to brake or swerve immediately.
Hence, the correct answer is option C

Q.9) Explanation:
Emotion-driven decision-making: Rational decision-making assumes that decisions are not
influenced by emotions but are made based on a logical and objective evaluation of available
options.
This is why it is the correct answer to the question, as it goes against the rational decision-
making framework.

Hence, option C is the correct answer

Q.10) Explanation:
• Statement 1 is true. Group conflict can arise due to a variety of factors, including
differences in goals and interests among group members. For example, if one group
member is focused on completing a project quickly while another group member is
focused on ensuring high-quality work, this could lead to conflict.

• Statement 2 is false. Conflict within a group does always lead to negative outcomes. In
fact, some conflicts can be constructive and lead to better decision-making and
problem-solving. However, it is important to manage conflict effectively to avoid
negative consequences, such as decreased productivity, morale, and team cohesion.

• Statement 3 is true. Effective communication and conflict resolution skills are essential
in managing and resolving group conflicts. When group members are able to
communicate effectively and resolve conflicts constructively, this can lead to a more
positive and productive group environment.

Therefore, the only option that is correct is C

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Section- Agriculture and Rural Development

Q.1) What is the scientific name of Carnation?

A. Dianthus caryophyllus
B. Helianthus
C. Dianthus barbatus
D. Gladiolus
E. Lathyrus

Q.2) What is the term for the stage of erosion when it becomes exhaustive, leading to the
formation of finger-like projections?
A. Sheet erosion
B. Rill Erosion
C. Gully Erosion
D. Saltation
E. Suspension

Q.3) What is the period of southwest monsoon?

A. May to June
B. July to August
C. June to September
D. October to December
E. November to January

Q.4) MSP is recommended by which of the following institutes?

A. Agricultural Credit Policy Council
B. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
C. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
D. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
E. None of the above

Q.5) What is the optimum storage moisture percentage for food grains?
A. 13-18%
B. 15-16%

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C. 18- 19%
D. 10-14%
E. 18-20%

Q.6) Which of the following soil types have the least particle density?
A. Sandy
B. Fine sand
C. Silt
D. Loam
E. Clay

Q.7) Which of the following biofertilizers is not used in nonlegume crops?

A. Azospirillum
B. Azotobacter
C. Blue Green Algae (BGA)
D. Rhizobium
E. Azolla

Q.8) What should be the optimum range of Dissolved Oxygen for fish to grow?
A. 5ppm
B. 6ppm
C. 7ppm
D. 8ppm
E. 9ppm

Q.9) Which of the following Irrigation projects have a Culturable Command Area of 2000 to 10,000
ha area?
A. Small Project
B. Medium Project
C. Minor Project
D. Major Project
E. Mini Project

Q.10) What is the term used for doing the castrated female pig?
A. Sow

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B. Dam
C. Spayed
D. Gilt
E. Stag

Q.11) Which of the following is the operational cost of a Tractor?

A. Maintenance Cost
B. Variable Cost
C. Depreciation
D. Explicit Cost
E. Marginal Cost

Q.12) Which of the following extension teaching methods shows a group of farmers how
something is done step by step for the purpose of teaching new techniques and practices?
A. Result Demonstration
B. Group Discussion
C. Method Demonstration
D. Farm and Home Visit
E. Office Calls

Q.13) Which of the following is a milch and drought-purpose cattle breed that originated from
Nashik and Ahmednagar of Maharashtra?
A. Dangi
B. Sahiwal
C. Kankrej
D. Red Sindi
E. Jersy

Q.14) What is the term for a chicken with tender meat that weighs between 1.5 to 2 kilograms?
A. Layers
B. Chick
C. Grower
D. Hen
E. Broiler

Q.15) What is the period during which layers in poultry are economical?

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A. 9 months
B. 10 months
C. 11 months
D. 12 months
E. 18 months

Q.16) What is the tag colour for certified seed?

A. Red
B. Green
C. Blue
D. Yellow
E. Pink

Q.17) Salt concentration in soil is measured by electrical conductivity. What is the S.I. unit of EC?
A. dS/m
B. Rho/m
C. mm/cm3
D. ppm
E. None of the above

Q.18) Acacia catechu belong to which of the following family?

A. Umbelliferae
B. Mimosoideae
C. Fabaceae
D. Apiaceae
E. Asteraceae

Q.19) Which type of agriculture receives the rainfall between 750- 1150mm?
A. Rainfed Agriculture
B. Dry Agriculture
C. Dried Agriculture
D. Dryland Agriculture
E. None of the above

Q.20) Groundnuts have ___ protein and ____ oil content.

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A. 1- 2% and 13- 14%
B. 11- 12% and 23- 24%
C. 10- 20% and 30- 40%
D. 14- 28% and 35- 50%
E. 10- 30% and 30- 60%

Q.21) What is the term used when young ones are separated before giving a chance for mothers
to nurture them?
A. Weaning
B. Separation
C. Culling
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Q.22) Which of the following involves raising morphologically and physiologically different crops
that complement each other and succeeding crops have immense potential?
A. Integrated farming
B. Supplementary cropping
C. Complementary intensive intercropping systems
D. Intensive Cropping
E. Extensive Cropping

Q.23) Which rock is formed from the weathering of other rocks?

A. Igneous Rock
B. Sedimentary Rock
C. Metamorphic Rock
D. Intrusive Rock
E. Extrusive rock

Q.24) Which among the following is the objective of pruning?

A. To encourage Blooming
B. To ensure the production of many strong and healthy shoots
C. Regulate flowering.
D. Recover potential mortality.
E. Improve growth.

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Q.25) Which instrument is used to change voltage without changing frequency?
A. Anemometer
B. Galvanometer
C. Hygrometer
D. Transformer
E. Dynamometer

Q.26) Which of the following is correct regarding seed propagation in Forest Management?
A. It does not lead to variability.
B. True-to-type plants are obtained through seed propagation.
C. The most common and easy technique to propagate plants.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Q.27) What is the RBI lending target for small marginal farmers?
A. 13% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
B. 15% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
C. 16% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
D. 17% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
E. 18% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit

Q.28) The threshold yield for a crop in a notified insurance unit is the average yield of the past
seven years (excluding calamity year(s) as notified by State Government/UT) multiplied by the
applicable ___________ for that crop in PMFBY.
A. Indemnity Level
B. Production
C. Productivity
D. Threshold Level
E. Yield

Q.29) In which of the following chemical weathering processes water molecule is being added to
the chemical structure of a mineral?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Decomposition
C. Combination

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D. Oxidation
E. Hydration

Q.30) Which of the following is the process of assessing and sorting different classes or standards
of fruit based on size, color, and quality?
A. Processing
B. Packaging
C. Grading
D. Threshing
E. Transporting

Q.31) Under which of the following schemes the government has announced the distribution of
free grain?
A. Krishak Unnati Yojana
B. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
C. PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana
D. PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojna
E. Kisan Credit Card

Q.32) The Central government provides additional ______ of work in drought-hit areas under the
MGNREGA scheme to provide relief to farmers in view of deficit monsoon in various parts of the
country.
A. 20 Days
B. 30 Days
C. 40 Days
D. 50 Days
E. 60 Days

Q.33) DAY-NRLM has a provision for interest subvention, to cover the difference between the
Lending Rate of the banks and 7% on all credit from the banks/ financial institutions availed by
women SHGs, for a maximum of ________per SHG.
A. Rs. 3,00,000
B. Rs. 4,00,000
C. Rs. 5,00,000
D. Rs. 6,00,000
E. Rs. 7,00,000

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Q.34) Under Jal Jeevan Mission (Rural) the mission is to provide ________ of water per person
per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
A. 50 liters
B. 55 liters
C. 60 liters
D. 65 liters
E. 70 liters

Q.35) SBM(G) Phase-II will be implemented from 2020-21 to _______ in a mission mode.
A. 2023- 24
B. 2022- 23
C. 2020- 21
D. 2024- 25
E. 2025-26

Q.36) Which of the following greenhouse is released in Volcanic eruption, Animal respiration, and
anthropologic activities like fossil fuel burning?
A. Oxygen
B. Methane
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Chlorofluorocarbon
E. Nitrogen

Q.37) Which of the following is a pan-India electronic trading portal that networks the existing
APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities?
A. eNAM
B. eAgri Portal
C. Farmers Portal
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Q.38) Credit target for agriculture and allied sector has been announced to be increased to ______
crore with a focus on animal husbandry, dairy, and fisheries.
A. 10 Lakh

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B. 15 Lakh
C. 20 Lakh
D. 25 Lakh
E. 30 Lakh

Q.39) In which of the following ridges are crossed by earth bands within the furrow or ties
constructed to enhance soil water conservation?
A. Tied Ridge
B. Compartmental Bunding
C. Contour Bunding
D. Strip Cropping
E. Graded Bunds

Q.40) Which of the following is the correct statement regarding drip irrigation?
A. It requires more water than the conventional irrigation method.
B. It doesn’t provide nutrients and water directly to the root zone.
C. Not suitable for salt-affected areas.
D. It requires Technical Skill and scientific understanding/knowledge.
E. Do not prevent percolation losses.

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Answer Key
Section – Agriculture and Rural Development
Question Answer Question Answer
Number Number
1 A 21 A
2 B 22 B
3 C 23 B
4 D 24 B
5 D 25 D
6 E 26 C
7 D 27 E
8 B 28 A
9 B 29 E
10 C 30 C
11 A 31 D
12 C 32 D
13 A 33 A
14 E 34 B

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 15 E 35 D
16 C 36 C
17 A 37 A
18 C 38 C
19 D 39 A
20 C 40 D

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – Agriculture and Rural Development
Q.1) Explanation:
A. Dianthus caryophyllus- Carnation
B. Helianthus- Sunflower
C. Dianthus barbatus- Sweet William
D. Gladiolus dalenii - Gladiolus
E. Lathyrus- Sweet pea.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.2) Explanation:
Rill erosion-
✓ The rills are shallow drainage lines less than 30cm deep and 50 cm wide.
✓ It is an exhaustive stage leading to the formation of finger-like projections.
✓ They develop when surface water concentrates in depressions or low points through
paddocks and erodes the soil.
✓ Rill erosion is common in bare agricultural land, particularly overgrazed land, and in freshly
tilled soil where the soil structure has been loosened.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.3) Explanation:
Southwest monsoon
✓ Also known as the summer monsoon, is the most significant and eagerly awaited
monsoon season in India.
✓ It typically occurs from June to September and covers most parts of the country.

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 ✓ The southwest monsoon is of utmost importance to India's agriculture, as it contributes
to approximately 80-95% of the country's total annual rainfall.
✓ It replenishes water reservoirs, rivers, and groundwater, ensuring irrigation for crops and
supporting agricultural productivity.

Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.4) Explanation:
MSP is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.
Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.5) Explanation:
The optimum storage moisture percentage for food grains is 10- 14%.
Hence D is the correct answer.

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Q.6) Explanation:
Textural classes Particle density (g/ cm3)
Coarse sand 2.655
Fine sand 2.659
Silt 2.798
Clay 2.837

Hence E is the correct answer.

Q.7) Explanation:
Rhizobium: Legumes like pulses, groundnut, soybean
Azospirillum: Non-legumes like maize, barley, oats, sorghum, millet, Sugarcane, rice etc
Azotobacter: Soil treatment for non-legume crops including dry land crops.
Blue Green Algae (BGA)/Azolla: Blue-green algae are referred to as rice organisms because of
their abundance in the rice field.

Hence D is the correct answer.

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Q.8) Explanation:
Fish require dissolved oxygen levels of 6 ppm (parts per million) to grow and thrive. Low
dissolved oxygen levels (>3 ppm) become stressful for most aquatic organisms, and extremely
low levels will not support fish survival at all. Dissolved oxygen is the amount of free, non-
compound oxygen molecules in water.
Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.9) Explanation:

Major Irrigation more than 50 million Rupees: It covers a cultural command area of more
project than 10,000 hectares
Medium Irrigation 2.5 million to 50 million Rupees: It covers a cultural command area of
project 2000 – 10,000 hectares
Minor Irrigation less than 2.5 million Rupees: It covers a cultural command area of 2,000
project hectares.

Hence B is the correct answer.

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Q.10) Explanation:
The castrated of a female pig is known as Spayed.
Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.11) Explanation:

Maintenance cost - The term maintenance cost relates to any cost incurred by an individual or
business to keep their assets in good working condition.
Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.12) Explanation:
A. Result Demonstration: A presentation or display of the outcomes, findings, or achievements
of a project or process achieved by a farmer who had worked under the supervision of an
extension worker.
B. Group Discussion: A structured conversation involving multiple participants to exchange
ideas, opinions, and information on a specific topic.
C. Method Demonstration: Extension teaching methods show a group of farmers how something
is done step by step for the purpose of teaching new techniques and practices.
D. Farm and Home Visit: Visiting agricultural or residential properties to assess conditions, aid,
or offer guidance on various aspects related to farming or home management.
E. Office Calls: In-person or virtual visits to an office setting for meetings, consultations, or
discussions related to business, work, or professional matters.
Hence C is the correct answer.

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Q.13) Explanation:
Dangi is an indigenous cattle breed of India. It originated in the hilly tracts of Dangs comprising
the Nasik and Ahmednagar districts in the state of Maharashtra.

The breed is medium to large in body size. They are a very good draught breed and are known
for their adaptability to heavy rainfall areas. The skin of this breed secretes an oil element that
enables them to tolerate heavy rains.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.14) Explanation:
Broiler- It is a bird of about 8 weeks of age of either sex (straight-run chicks) with an average
body weight of 1.5 to 2.0 kg with a flexible breastbone cartilage, pliable and tender meat.
Hence E is the correct answer.

Q.15) Explanation:
Layer poultry - Layer poultry farming means raising egg laying poultry birds for the purpose of
commercial egg production. Layer chickens are such a special species of hens, which need to be
_____raised from when they are one day old. Layers are economical up to 18 months.
Hence E is the correct answer.

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Q.16) Explanation:
Seed certification is a legally sanctioned system for quality control of seed multiplication and
production.
✓ Breeder Seed- Yellow
✓ Foundation Seed- White
✓ Certified Seed- Blue
✓ Truthful labelled seed- Green

Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.17) Explanation:
• Soil EC is a measure of the concentration of ions from water-soluble salts in soils, and
the test results are indicative of soil salinity.
• EC is the ability of a material to conduct an electrical current and it commonly is
expressed as dS/m or millimhos/centimeter (mmhos/cm). One dS/m = 1 mmhos/cm.

Hence A is the correct answer.

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Q.18) Explanation:
Acacia catechu belong to Fabaceae family.

Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.19) Explanation:
Based on the amount of rainfall received, dryland agriculture can be grouped into three
categories:
✓ Dry Farming: Cultivation of crops in areas where rainfall is less than 750 mm.
✓ Dryland Farming: Cultivation of crops in areas receiving rainfall above 750- 1150 mm.
✓ Rainfed Farming: Cultivation of crops in regions receiving more than 1,150 mm.
Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.20) Explanation:
Groundnut
✓ Protein- 12- 20%
✓ Oil- 30- 40%

Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.21) Explanation:

Weaning- The separation of the calf and making it independent of its mother for food is known
as weaning.
✓ Nowadays, early weaning is recommended for better management.
✓ Under the early weaning system, weaned calves were housed separately and scientific
feeding schedule and managemental practices followed.
✓ In this method, the cow is not allowed to suckle by its calf after colostrum feeding.

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 ✓ Instead, the cow is completely milked out and required quantities of whole milk or skim milk
are fed to the calf.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.22) Explanation:
A concept known as 'complementary intensive intercropping systems' involves raising
morphologically and physiologically different crops that complement each other and succeeding
crops.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.23) Explanation:
Sedimentary rocks are formed on or near the Earth's surface, in contrast to metamorphic and
igneous rocks, which are formed deep within the Earth. The most important geological processes
that lead to the creation of sedimentary rocks are erosion, weathering, dissolution, precipitation,
and lithification.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.24) Explanation:
Objective of pruning -
✓ To ensure the production of many strong and healthy shoots
Objective of thinning-
✓ To encourage Blooming
✓ Regulate flowering.
✓ Recover potential mortality.
✓ Improve growth.

Hence B is the correct answer.

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Q.25) Explanation:
✓ Anemometer- An instrument that measures wind speed and wind pressure.
✓ Galvanometer- Galvanometer is one of the instruments for measuring electrical current.
✓ Hygrometer- An instrument which measures the humidity of air or some other gas.
✓ Transformer- An instrument is used to change voltage without changing frequency.
✓ Dynamometer- A device that measures force, torque, or power.

Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.26) Explanation:

Regarding seed propagation, the correct statements are-

✓ Variability is observed in the case of seed propagation.
✓ True-to-type plants are not obtained through seed propagation.
✓ The most common and easy technique to propagate plants.

Hence C is the correct answer.

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Q.27) Explanation:

As per RBI directions, Domestic Scheduled Commercial Banks are required to lend 18% of the
Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent to Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE),
whichever is higher, towards agriculture. A sub-target of 8% is also prescribed for lending to small
and marginal farmers (SF/MF) including landless agricultural labourers, tenant farmers, and
sharecroppers.

Hence E is the correct answer.

Q.28) Explanation:

The threshold yield for a crop in a notified insurance unit is the moving average yield of the past
seven years (excluding a maximum of two calamity year(s) as notified by the State Government/
UT) multiplied by the applicable indemnity level for that crop in PMFBY.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.29) Explanation:

Hydration reactions involve water being added to the chemical structure of a mineral. An
example of a hydration reaction is when anhydrite (CaSO4) is transformed into gypsum
(CaSO4·2H2O). A consequence of hydration is that the resulting mineral has a greater volume
than the original mineral.
Hence E is the correct answer.

Q.30) Explanation:

Grading is sorting of vegetables and fruits into different grades according to the size, shape,
colour, and volume to fetch high price in market.
Hence C is the correct answer.

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Q.31) Explanation:

New integrated food security scheme for providing free foodgrains to Antodaya Ann Yojna (AAY)
& Primary Household (PHH) beneficiaries, to be rolled out from 1st January 2023. New scheme
has been named as Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana (PMGKAY).
Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.32) Explanation:

The Central government provides additional 50 days of work in drought-hit areas under the
MGNREGA scheme to provide relief to farmers in view of deficit monsoon in various parts of the
country.
Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.33) Explanation:

DAY-NRLM has a provision for interest subvention, to cover the difference between the Lending
Rate of the banks and 7% on all credit from the banks/ financial institutions availed by women
SHGs, for a maximum of Rs. 3,00,000 per SHG.
Hence A is the correct answer.

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Q.34) Explanation:
Under Jal Jeevan Mission (Rural) the mission is to provide 55 Liters of water per person per day
to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.35) Explanation:
The Government of India, in February 2020, approved Phase II of the SBMG with a total outlay
of Rs. 1,40,881 crores to focus on the sustainability of ODF status and Solid and Liquid Waste
Management (SLWM). SBMG Phase II is planned to be a novel model of convergence between
different verticals of financing and various schemes of Central and State Governments. SBMG
Phase II will be implemented in mission mode from 2020-21 to 2024-25.
Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.36) Explanation:
✓ CO2 is the most significant GHG and is produced both naturally and because of human
activity. Since it is denser than air, its concentration is higher near the earth’s surface.
✓ It absorbs some terrestrial radiation and reflects some of it back to the earth’s surface. It is
primarily to blame for the greenhouse effect.
✓ CO2 is naturally released into the atmosphere via volcanic eruptions and animal
respiration. It is also emitted because of human activities such as deforestation and the
use of fossil fuels for energy.
✓
Hence C is the correct answer.

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Q.37) Explanation:
National Agriculture Market (eNAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the
existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities. Small
Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the
aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.38) Explanation:
In the Financial Budget of year 2023-24 the credit target for agriculture and allied sector has been
announced to be increased to 20 lakh crores with focus on animal husbandry, dairy, and
fisheries. This will substantially improve flow of institutional finance for fisheries sector.
Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.39) Explanation:
Small earth ridges, with furrows between them, blocked with earth ties every 0.5 – 1.0 m are
termed ‘tied ridges. On gentle slopes typical dimensions of the ridges are 20 – 25 cm height and
0.5 – 1.5 m spacing between ridges depending on rainfall and the crop to be grown.
Hence A is the correct answer.

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Q.40) Explanation:
The correct statement regarding the drip irrigation is-
✓ It requires less water than the conventional irrigation method.
✓ It provides nutrients and water directly to the root zone.
✓ Suitable for salt-affected areas.
✓ Requires Technical Skill and scientific understanding/knowledge.
✓ Prevent percolation losses.

Hence D is the correct answer.

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Section – Economic and Social Issues
Q.1) The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the overall change in consumer prices based on a
representative basket of goods and services over time. Which of the following are uses of CPI for
rural, urban and combined sector?
1. CPI is used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation.
2. Government of India and RBI use CPI for targeting inflation & for monitoring price
stability.
3. It is used as a deflator in national accounts.

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Q.2) Which among the following statements are true regarding PM KISAN scheme?
1. A family is defined as husband, wife, children of any age and parents/parents in law
(senior citizens).
2. Institutional landholders can avail the benefits of the scheme.
3. In all States, the benefits shall be paid to farmers whose name is present in the land
records.
4. An amount of ₹6000 per year is paid directly into the bank accounts of beneficiaries
by Government of India.
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 3
E. 4 only

Q.3) As per RTI Act, Central Public Information Officers/ State Public Information Officers (under
Section 6) shall dispose-off the case in maximum ______ days, as per Section 8 and 9.
A. 14 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 21 days
E. 60 days

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Q.4) Under the PM Vishwakarma Yojana, the beneficiaries will be given a toolkit incentive along
with the initial collateral-free ‘Enterprise Development Loan’ of up to maximum of ________
repayable in _______.
A. Rs. 1.5 Lakh, 12 months
B. Rs. 2 Lakh, 16 months
C. Rs. 3 Lakh, 21 months
D. Rs. 3.5 Lakh, 24 months
E. Rs. 1 Lakh, 18 months

Q.5) Under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), the
beneficiaries have a right to get extra wages of _____ if the work is provided beyond radius of
_____ kms of the village.
A. 5%, 8
B. 15%, 10
C. 10%, 5
D. 20%, 12
E. 25%, 15

Q.6) The Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI) scheme, which provides the setting
up of more than 14500 PM SHRI Schools by strengthening the existing schools from amongst
schools managed by Central government/State/UT Government/local bodies, will be
implemented from 2022-23 to ________, after which the state/UTs will be responsible to
maintain the benchmark achieved by them.
A. 2026-2027
B. 2024-2025
C. 2025-2026
D. 2027-2028
E. 2028-2029

Q.7) What is the eligible age group of beneficiaries under the Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana?
A. 24 – 48 years
B. 18 – 55 years
C. 20 – 60 years
D. 21 – 50 years
E. 16 – 45 years

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Q.8) Mission __________ is an integrated women development programme for safety, security
and empowerment of women being implemented during 2021-22 to 2025-26 period.
A. Vatsalya
B. Sakhi
C. Poshan
D. Shakti
E. Samman

Q.9) Which among the following are the categories of the roads constructed under Pradhan
Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)?
1. Other District Roads
2. Village Roads
3. Major District Roads
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Q.10) Which of the following acts as the last mile financier for entities eligible to avail financial
assistance from NSFDC under ‘Ajivika Microfinance Yojana: Livelihood Microfinance Scheme’ to
provide microfinance to eligible scheduled caste persons at a reasonable interest rate?
A. Self Help Group (SHG)
B. NBFC-MFI
C. Regional Rural Banks
D. Urban Cooperative Banks
E. SIDBI

Q.11) Under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase-II, upto 5% of the total funding for
programmatic components can be spent on which items?
1. Administrative Charges
2. Information, Education & Communication
3. Capacity Building
4. Construction of community sanitary complex at village level

A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4

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E. 2 and 3

Q.12) As per the Economic Survey 2022-23, _____ of India's population lives in the rural areas
and 47% of the population is dependent on _____ for livelihood.

A. 55%, Cottage Industry

B. 60%, Forestry
C. 70%, Handloom
D. 65%, Agriculture
E. 75%, Khadi

Q.13) In an address delivered in August 2023 – “Building Blocks for a Sustainable Future”, the
RBI Governor mentioned six thrust areas that can propel India forward over the next 25 years.
These areas are agriculture, manufacturing, services, _________, technology and startups.

A. Artificial Intelligence
B. Mining
C. Demography
D. Automobile
E. None of the above

Q.14) The Global Biofuel Alliance, launched during G20 summit held in New Delhi, will help to
accelerate which of the following existing programs?
1. PM JIVAN
2. SATAT
3. GOBARdhan
4. PM KUSUM

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Q.15) The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) is responsible for the compilation and
publication of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) since 1950. Which among the following
sectors are included in All India Index of Industrial Production?
1. Mining
2. Gas & Water Supply
3. Electricity
4. Manufacturing

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A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Q.16) Gender indicators are quantitative metrics to provide information to monitor

performance, measure achievement and determine accountability. Which of the following are
listed by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation under Gender Relevant
Indicators?
1. Adolescent fertility rate
2. Proportion of employees who are own-account workers, by sex
3. Proportion of households using clean cooking fuel.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Q.17) Livelihood Business Incubator (LBI) is an entity set up for imparting skill development &
incubation programmes for promoting entrepreneurship and employment generation in agro-
rural sector with special focus on rural and underserved areas. LBI is an important component of
which of the following schemes?

A. ASPIRE
B. SVANidhi
C. DRI
D. PMMY
E. PMJAY

Q.18) Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg) is an advanced agricultural data
management platform designed to generate crop estimates and integrate with other systems
generating Agriculture Statistics such as Price, Trade, Procurement, Stock etc. Which of the
following are correctly stated key features of UPAg Portal?
1. Commodity profile reports
2. Data analysis
3. Data localization
4. Data Standardization
5. Granular Production Estimates

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5

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B. 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.19) G20 New Delhi Declaration 2023 focusses on which areas relating to Gender equality,
women empowerment and women led development?
1. Enhancing economic and social empowerment
2. Bridging the gender digital divide
3. Increasing women participation in political leadership across the globe
4. Driving gender-inclusive climate action
5. Securing women's food security, nutrition, and well-being

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5
B. 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.20) RBI has taken various initiatives to improve the financial resilience of Indian Banking
sector. One is the categorization of _____ for regulatory purpose with four-tiered framework?

A. Payment Banks
B. Private Banks
C. Regional Rural Banks
D. Foreign Banks in India
E. Urban Cooperative Banks

Q.21) Which of the following statements is true about National Curriculum Framework for
School Education (NCF-SE)?
A. All Board examinations must move towards becoming ‘easier’ without any compromise on
assessing genuine learning.
B. In ten years, Boards of Examination should be prepared to offer certification through modular
examinations.
C. All students will be allowed to take Board examinations on at least two occasions during any
given school year, with only the best score being retained.
D. To get a Grade 12 certificate, the students should pass the 2 examinations in Languages.
E. All of the above

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Q.22) RBI Deputy Governor Michael Debabrata, in Sep 2023, highlighted that financial sector in
India is on the cusp of a transformative change leveraged on technology and the trinity of
__________.

A. RuPay, BHIM and NACH

B. JanDhan Account, Aadhar and Mobile Connection
C. RuPay, AutoPay and BHIM Aadhar
D. JanDhan Account, AEPS and UPI
E. CTS, *99# and IMPS

Q.23) Bank loan for _________ upto an aggregate limit of ₹100 crore per borrower will be
eligible to be classified as ancillary service of agriculture sector under Priority Sector Lending.

A. Export Credit
B. Social Infrastructure
C. Renewable Energy
D. Food and Agro-processing
E. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

Q.24) Bank loan to individuals for education purposes including vocational courses up to
maximum amount _______ will be eligible under ‘education’ category of Priority Sector Lending.

A. ₹10 lakh
B. ₹20 lakh
C. ₹25 lakh
D. ₹30 lakh
E. ₹15 lakh

Q.25) ‘Skills on Wheels’ initiative launched by Ministry of Skill Development and Empowerment
in collaboration with NSDC and ________ in September 2023, aims to provide livelihood to rural
households by empowering 60,000 youth through by providing relevant skills training to its
youth population over a period of ______ years.

A. IndusInd Bank, 5
B. State Bank of India, 3
C. ICICI Bank, 4
D. World Bank, 2
E. Microsoft, 3

Q.26) The Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, GoI, has approved the continuation of
AMI sub-scheme of ISAM upto 31 March ____ with a few changes, applicable for the projects for
which term loan is sanctioned on or after 01.04.2023.

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 A. 2024
B. 2025
C. 2026
D. 2027
E. 2028

Q.27) As per report of technical group on population projection (July 2020) by National
Commission on Population, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, out of the projected increase
in population of 31.1 crores in India during 2011 to 2036, 50% of growth is projected in five
states. Which of the following is not among these 5 states?

A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. West Bengal
E. Maharashtra

Q.28) The target beneficiaries of ‘Jan Shikshan Sansthan’ scheme are non-literates, neo-
literates, and persons having a rudimentary level of education (70%), school dropouts up to
class 12 (20%), and graduates (10%) in the age group of ______ years.

A. 15 to 45
B. 16 to 42
C. 17 to 48
D. 18 to 50
E. 21 to 60

Q.29) Name the pan-India electronic trading portal for transparent sale transactions and price
discovery initially in regulated markets. It also addresses the challenges by creating a unified
market through online trading platform, both, at State and National level and promotes
uniformity and access to a nationwide market for the farmer.

A. APMC
B. GeM
C. e-NAM
D. APEDA
E. IARI

Q.30) Under the DAY-NRLM scheme, the households are identified with minimum 1-deprivation
criterion as per the Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC), along with households identified

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through Participatory Identification of the Poor (PIP) to be eligible. Which of the following
verifies the list prepared under PIP?

A. State level bankers committee

B. Lead Bank
C. District Consultative Committee
D. Gram Sabha
E. Gram Panchayat

Q.31) Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to
ensure access to financial services. Which of the following benefit is incorrectly mentioned as
per benefits provided under this scheme?

A. Interest is earned on the deposit in PMJDY accounts

B. Accident Insurance Cover of Rs. 2 lakh to new PMJDY accounts opened after 28.8.2018
C. One basic savings bank account is opened for unbanked person
D. There is no requirement to maintain any minimum balance in PMJDY accounts
E. An overdraft (OD) facility up to Rs. 20,000 to eligible account holders is available

Q.32) As per the provision of NFSA 2013, government has decided to provide food grains free of
cost for a period of _____ beginning from 1st Jan 2023.

A. One Year
B. Two Years
C. Three Years
D. Four Years
E. Five Years

Q.33) The Central government has approved extension of PMUY in September 2023. This
approval made provision for _____ additional connections over the period ______.

A. 50 lakh, 1 year
B. 60 lakh, 2 years
C. 75 lakh, 3 Years
D. 1 crore, 4 years
E. 1.5 crore, 5 years

Q.34) As per the guidelines of Stand-Up India Scheme, loans between Rs 10 lakh and _____ will
be provided to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribes (ST) borrower and at least
one-woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.

A. Rs 50 lakh

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 B. Rs 70 lakh
C. Rs 80 lakh
D. Rs 1 crore
E. Rs 2 crore

Q.35) Under the Small loan scheme for individuals from National Backward Classes Finance and
Development Corporation (NBCFDC), the applicant’s annual family income should be up to
______.

A. Rs. 1.5 lakh

B. Rs. 2 lakh
C. Rs. 2.5 lakh
D. Rs. 3 lakh
E. Rs. 3.5 lakh

Q.36) Which category of persons are eligible to join NPS – All Citizen Modal scheme?
1. An Indian Citizen (Resident or Non-Resident)
2. Overseas Citizens of India
3. Persons of Indian Origin
4. Hindu Undivided Family

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Q.37) Which of the following schemes have been merged and renamed as Scholarships for
Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS) from FY 2021-22?
1. TOP Class School Schemes for SCs
2. Free Coaching for SCs and OBCs
3. National Overseas Scholarship Scheme for SC
4. National Fellowship Scheme for SC
5. Post Matric Scholarship Schemes for SCs

A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
E. 1, 2, 4 and 5

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Q.38) PMJAY provides coverage of max ____ per year per family for the secondary and tertiary
care hospitalization.

A. Rs. 2 lakh
B. Rs. 3 lakh
C. Rs. 4 lakh
D. Rs. 5 lakh
E. Rs. 10 lakh

Q.39) Which of the following is a biometric enabled digital service for pensioners of Central
government/ State government or any other government agencies to provide anytime-
anywhere submission of digital life certificates?

A. Jeevan Saboot
B. Jeevan Sathi
C. Jeevan Pramaan
D. Jeevan Prateek
E. Jeevan Sakshar

Q.40) Which of the following is not an automatic/compulsory inclusion under Pradhan Mantri
Awas Yojana (Gramin)?

A. Household without shelter

B. Household with any member earning more than Rs. 15,000 per month
C. Manual Scavengers
D. Primitive Tribal Group
E. Destitute living on alms

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Answer Key
Section – Economic and Social Issues
Question Answer Question Answer
Number Number
1 A 21 E
2 E 22 B
3 B 23 D
4 E 24 B
5 C 25 A
6 A 26 C
7 B 27 C
8 D 28 A
9 A 29 C
10 B 30 D
11 E 31 E
12 D 32 A
13 C 33 C
14 D 34 D
15 C 35 D
16 A 36 A
17 A 37 D
18 C 38 D
19 A 39 C
20 E 40 B

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – Economic and Social Issues
Q.1) Explanation:
CPI is used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation. Government of India and RBI uses CPI for
targeting inflation & for monitoring price stability. Government of India determines the CPI Inflation
target in consultation with RBI that is currently 4% +- 2% and RBI tries to maintain the price stability
by maintaining the CPI Inflation target (currently 4% +- 2%). (Statement 1 & 2 are correct).

GDP Deflator is used as a deflator in national accounts and not CPI Inflation. (Statement 3 is
incorrect)

Hence A is the correct answer.

Covered in Concept Notes of ESI – Chapter 6 (Inflation)

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Q.2) Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM KISAN):

• Definition of family for scheme - husband, wife and minor children (Statement 1 is
incorrect).
• Institutional landholders are ineligible to receive benefit under the scheme (Statement 2 is
incorrect).
• All landholding farmers' families, which have cultivable landholding as per land records of
the concerned State/UT
o Exception for North-East States and Jharkhand in this regard (Statement 3 is
incorrect).

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 • Benefit - ₹6000 per year directly to bank account (₹2,000 every 4 months) (Statement 4 is
correct).
Hence option E is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- June 2023

Q.3) Explanation:

The Right to Information (RTI) Act mandates Central Public Information Officers/ State Public
Information Officers to dispose the case in maximum 30 days.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.4) Explanation:
PM Vishwakarma Scheme:
• Aim - Providing benefits to Vishwakarmas, who are either self-employed or intend to setup
their own small-scale ventures
• Under Credit Support - Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ of upto ₹3 lakh in 2
tranches of ₹1 lakh and ₹2 lakh with tenures of 18 months and 30 months.
Hence Option E is correct.

Covered in SchemesTap- September 2023

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Q.5) Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS):
• Rights and Entitlements of wage- seekers:
o Obtaining Job Card
o 10% extra wage in case of employment provided beyond 5 km of radius
o Unemployment allowance
Hence Option C is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- May 2023

Q.6) Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI)

• Launch – 2022
• Aim - To prepare more than 14,500 exemplar schools in which every student feels welcomed
• Tenure - 2022-23 to 2026-27 (after that responsibility of States/UTs to continue to maintain
benchmarks achieved).
Hence Option A is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- September 2023

Q.7) Explanation:
Eligibilty of Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (KGVY)

• Any Indian Citizen

• Age Group: 18-55 Years
• Having valid Aadhar Card or any other Identity Card issued by Government
• One person from one family is eligible for assistance
Hence Option B is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- July 2023

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Q.8) Explanation:
Mission Shakti:

• Aim - Strengthening interventions for women safety, security and empowerment

Hence Option D is correct.

Covered in SchemesTap- September 2023

Q.9) Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):

• PMGSY-III - Envisages consolidation of 1,25,000 Km existing Rural Road Network by

upgradation of existing Through Routes and Major Rural Links that connect habitations to
Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs), Higher Secondary Schools, Hospitals.
• Covers only rural areas - only single road connectivity to be provided (As Major district roads
will not be covered in rural areas only 1 and 2 will be covered)
Hence Option A is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- September 2023

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Q.10) Explanation:
Non-Banking Financial Company-Micro Finance Institution (NBFC-MFI) acts as the last mile
financier for entities eligible to avail financial assistance from NSFDC under ‘Ajivika Microfinance
Yojana.

Hence Option B is correct.

Q.11) Explanation:
Under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase-II, upto 5% of the total funding for programmatic
components can be spent on:
1. Information, Education & Communication
2. Capacity Building
Hence Option E is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- October 2023

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Q.12) Explanation:

The Economic Survey 2022-23 in Chapter 6 mentions that 65% India’s population lives in rural areas
and 47% of the population is dependent on agriculture for livelihood.

Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.13) Explanation:

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According to RBI governor’s speech delivered in August 2023 – “Building Blocks for a Sustainable
Future”, certain thrust areas that can propel India forward over the next 25 years are: (i) agriculture;
(ii) manufacturing; (iii) services; (iv) demography; (v) technology; and (vi) start-ups

Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.14) Explanation:

This is an application-based question. The Global Biofuel Alliance is an India-led Initiative to

develop an alliance of Governments, International organizations and Industry to facilitate adoption
of biofuels. Out of the given options, the PM JIVAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh
Nivaran), SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) and GOBARdhan
(Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan) deal with bio-fuels. The PM KUSUM deals with
renewable energy resources (non-biofuels).

Hence D is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap CurrentTap Magazine – September 2023

Q.15) Explanation:

IIP (Index of Industrial Production) is released by: National Statistical office (NSO). It is an Indicator
that measures the changes in volume of production of Industrial products during a given
period. IIP measures Industry Groups classified as, Broad Sectors: Mining, Manufacturing, and
Electricity, Use-based Sectors: Basic goods, Capital goods, and Intermediate Goods.

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Hence C is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap CurrentTap Magazine – February 2023

Q.16) Explanation:

The following indicators are listed by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation under
Gender Relevant Indicators:
1. Adolescent fertility rate
2. Proportion of employees who are own-account workers, by sex

“Proportion of households using clean cooking fuel” is not an indicator used under Gender Relevant
Indicators.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.17) Explanation:

A Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industries and Entrepreneurship (ASPIRE) aids to set
up a network of technology centres and to set up incubation centres to accelerate entrepreneurship
and to promote start-ups for innovation in agro-industry. ASPIRE provides financial support to set
up Livelihood Business Incubators (LBI) or Technology Business Incubator (TBI).

Hence, A is the correct answer.

122 | Page
Q.18) Explanation:

The Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg Portal – www.upag.gov.in) is a pioneering
initiative by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, to streamline data management
in the agriculture sector. Its key features include:
1. Data standardization
2. Data analysis
3. Granular production estimates
4. Commodity profile reports
5. Plus and Play

Hence C is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap AgriCurrentTap Magazine – September 2023

Q.19) Explanation:

G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration was adopted during 18th G20 Summit held in New Delhi in
September 2023. All 83 paragraphs of the Declaration were unanimously approved with 100%
consensus. In this declaration, chapter ‘Gender Equality and Empowering All Women and
Girls’ mentions focus areas for women empowerment and women-led development:
1. Enhancing Economic and Social Empowerment

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 2. Bridging the Gender Digital Divide
3. Driving Gender Inclusive Climate Action
4. Securing Women’s Food Security, Nutrition and Well-Being

Hence A is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap’s CurrentTap Magazine – September 2023

Q.20) Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 1 December 2022 announced a four-tiered regulatory framework
for categorisation of Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs).

The RBI has categorised all unit UCBs and salary earners' UCBs (irrespective of deposit size), and all
other UCBs having deposits up to ₹100 crore in Tier 1.

In Tier 2, it has placed UCBs with deposits more than ₹100 crore and up to ₹1,000 crore. Tier 3 will
cover banks with deposits more than ₹1,000 crore and up to ₹10,000 crore. UCBs with deposits
more than ₹10,000 crore have been categorised in Tier 4, the circular said.

Hence E is the correct answer.

Q.21) Explanation:

National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) key features:

1. All Board examinations must move towards becoming ‘easier’ without any compromise on
assessing genuine learning (Option A is correct).
2. In ten years, Boards of Examination should be prepared to offer certification through modular
examinations (Option B is correct).
3. All students will be allowed to take Board examinations on at least two occasions during any
given school year, with only the best score being retained (Option C is correct).

124 | Page
 4. To get a Grade 12 certificate, the students should pass the 2 examinations in Languages
(Option D is correct).

Hence E is the correct answer.

Q.22) Explanation:

RBI Deputy Governor Michael Debabrata, in Sep 2023, highlighted that financial sector in India is on
the cusp of a transformative change leveraged on technology and the trinity of JAM (JanDhan
Account, Aadhar and Mobile Connection).

Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.23) Explanation:

Ancillary activities
(i) Loans up to ₹5 crore to co-operative societies of farmers for disposing of the produce of
members.
(ii) Loans for setting up of Agriclinics and Agribusiness Centres
(iii) Loans for Food and Agro-processing up to an aggregate sanctioned limit of ₹100 crore per
borrower from the banking system
(iv) Bank loans to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Farmers’ Service Societies (FSS) and
Large-sized Adivasi Multi-Purpose Societies (LAMPS) for on-lending to agriculture.
(v) Loans sanctioned by banks to MFIs for on-lending to agriculture sector as per the conditions
specified in paragraph IX of this circular
(vi) Outstanding deposits under RIDF and other eligible funds with NABARD on account of priority
sector shortfall.

Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.24) Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the threshold for education loan under priority sector
lending to not exceeding ₹20 lakh from the earlier ₹10 lakh.

Banks have to set aside a specific portion of their lending to sectors which are deemed important
by the RBI, under the priority sector lending guidelines.

“Loans to individuals for educational purposes, including vocational courses, not exceeding ₹ 20
lakh will be considered as eligible for priority sector classification. Loans currently classified as
priority sector will continue till maturity.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.25) Explanation:

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The Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship has launched ‘Skills on Wheels’ initiative
with National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and IndusInd Bank. It targets to empower
60,000 youths over a period of 5 years.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap’s CurrentTap Magazine – September 2023

Q.26) Explanation:

Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, GoI, has approved the continuation of Agricultural
Marketing Infrastructure (AMI) sub-scheme of Integrated Scheme for Agricultural Marketing (ISAM
upto 31 March 2026.

Hence option C is correct.

Covered in SchemesTap- October 2023

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Q.27) Explanation:
Of the projected increase in population of 31.1 crores in India during 2011-36, 17 crores are likely
to occur in the 5 States of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh.
Thus, nearly 50 percent of India’s demographic growth during this period of twenty-five years is
projected to take place in these five states.

Hence option C is the correct answer.

Q.28) Explanation:
The target beneficiaries of ‘Jan Shikshan Sansthan’ scheme are non-literates, neo-literates, and
persons having a rudimentary level of education (70%), school dropouts up to class 12 (20%), and
graduates (10%) in the age group of 15-45 years years.

Hence option A is correct.

Q.29) Explanation:

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National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Scheme - Pan-India electronic trading portal which networks
existing Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee (APMC) mandis to create a unified national
market for agricultural commodities (Accessible in 12 languages)
Hence Option C is correct.

Covered in SchemesTap- October 2023

Q.30) Explanation:
Under the DAY-NRLM scheme, the households are identified with minimum 1-deprivation
criterion as per the Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC), along with households identified
through Participatory Identification of the Poor (PIP) to be eligible.

• Participatory Identification of Poor (PIP) instead of BPL, PIP is a community-driven process

where Community based Organisations (CBOs) themselves identify poor in village using
participatory tools
o List of poor identified by CBO is vetted by Gram Sabha
Hence Option D is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- July 2023

Q.31) Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY):
Overdraft (OD) facility up to Rs. 10,000 to every household (earlier Rs. 5000)
Hence Option E is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- July 2023

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Q.32) Explanation:

The Central Government to remove the financial burden of the poor beneficiaries and to ensure
nationwide uniformity and effective implementation of NFSA, has decided to provide food grains
free of cost to AAY households and PHH beneficiaries under NFSA, 2013, for a period of one year
beginning from 1st Jan 2023.

Hence option A is correct.

Q.33) Explanation:
Central government has approved extension of PMUY in September 2023.
• 75 lakh additional LPG connections to be released in 3 years.
o Now total number of PMUY beneficiaries - 10.35 crore.
Hence option C is correct.
Covered in SchemesTap- September 2023

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Q.34) Explanation:
As per Stand-Up India Scheme, loans between Rs 10 lakh and 1 crore will be provided to at least
one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribes (ST) borrower and at least one-woman borrower
per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.

Hence Option D is correct.

Covered in SchemesTap- September 2023

Q.35) Explanation:
Under the Small loan scheme for individuals from National Backward Classes Finance and
Development Corporation (NBCFDC), the applicant’s annual family income should be up to 3 lakh.

Hence option D is correct.

Q.36) Explanation:
Indian Citizen (Resident or Non-Resident) and Overseas Citizens of India are eligible under the
NPS Scheme. Persons of Indian Origin and Hindu Undivided Family are not eligible under NPS.

Hence, Option A is the correct answer.

Q.37)
Covered in SchemesTap- October 2023

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Sub-schemes under Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS)
from FY 2021-22:

Hence, Option D is the correct answer.

Q.38) PMJAY provides coverage of max 5 lakh per year per family for the secondary and tertiary
care hospitalization.

Hence Option D is correct.

Covered in SchemesTap- October 2023

Q.39) Explanation:

The Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare (DOPPW) has recently issued comprehensive
guidelines for the Nationwide Digital Life Certificate (DLC) Campaign 2.0. To enhance ‘Ease of Living’
of Central Government pensioners, Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare has been
promoting Digital Life Certificate (DLC) i.e. Jeevan Pramaan extensively.

Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.40) automatic/compulsory inclusion under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin)

Covered in SchemesTap- August 2023

Hence, Option B is the correct answer.

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Section – General Awareness
Q.1) Recently, the Russian federation allowed Indian passport holders electronic visa (e-Visa)
facility from 1 August 2023, which is valid for 60 days, allowing tourists to stay in Russia for how
many days per visit?
F. 21
G. 30
H. 16
I. 45
J. 60

Q.2) Central Railway’s New Amravati station has engraved its place in history as the third station
within the Central Railway to be designated a “Pink Station”. Where is the headquarters of the
Central Railway Zone of Indian Railways?
F. Bhopal
G. Mumbai
H. Secunderabad
I. Bhubaneshwar
J. Prayagraj

Q.3) Recently, the Bureau of Indian Standards, the National Standards Body of India signed a
Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) with 35 prestigious institutions across the country to
foster collaboration in standardization and conformity assessment. These MoUs aims at?
1. Standardization in Curricula in Academics
2. Empowering these Institutions for Hallmarking and Laboratory services for the benefit of
the Jewellery Industry
3. Fostering collaboration in standardization in conformity assessment standardization

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Q.4) Which of the following are expected benefits of National Green Hydrogen Mission ?
A. Decentralized Power Generation
B. Increase in Renewable Energy Production
C. Reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels

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D. It can be utilized for long-duration storage of renewable energy
E. All of the above

Q.5) How many countries are NATO members?

A. 31
B. 36
C. 28
D. 42
E. None

Q.6) Which of the following States of the Head and Country is incorrectly Matched?
A. Ibrahim Raisi – President of Iran
B. Cyril Ramphosa – President of The Republic of South Africa
C. Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva – President of Brazil
D. Frank-Walter Steinmeier – Chancellor of Germany
E. Srettha Thavisin – Prime Minister of Thailand

Q.7) India is part/member of which of the following Organizations?

A. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
B. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD)
C. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
D. United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
E. All of the above

Q.8) Which of the following company was founded in 2002 by Elon Musk to revolutionize space
transportation and commercial space flights?
A. SpaceX
B. Virgin Galactic
C. Blue Origin
D. Rocket Lab
E. Bigelow Aerospace

Q.9) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the Ramsar Convention?
1. The Convention covers a very wide variety of wetland habitats including rivers, lakes,
ponds, marshes, coastal areas, estuaries, bogs and even coral reefs.

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 2. Ramsar Convention is the oldest of the global nature conservation treaties.
3. In India the designated authority for the Ramsar convention is Ministry of Environment
and Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC)

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Q.10) Recently, Leander Paes has become the first Asian man to be nominated for the
International Tennis Hall of Fame in the player category. How many Grand Slam Titles did
Leander Paes win in his three-decade career?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 16
D. 21
E. 22

Q.11) Nirmala Sitharaman currently holds which of the following important portfolios in the
Government of India?
A. Minister of Finance
B. Minister of Corporate Affairs
C. Chairman of FSDC
D. Chairperson of the GST Council
E. All of the above

Q.12) Which amendment to the constitution of India added the provisions of reservation of seat
for the women, SC and ST in Panchayati Raj Institutions?
A. 48th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 91st Amendment
D. 73rd Amendment
E. 85th Amendment

Q.13) Which post is held by Mr. Antony Blinken in the Cabinet of US President Mr. Joe Biden?

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A. Director of National Intelligence
B. Secretary of State
C. Director of Central Intelligence Agency
D. Secretary of Homeland Security
E. White House Chief of Staff

Q.14) In which year first rocket was launched from Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station
(TERLS), Thumba near Thiruvananthapuram, which marked the beginning of the Indian Space
Programme?
A. 1963
B. 1968
C. 1973
D. 1976
E. 1984

Q.15) India’s New Parliament building was inaugurated on May 28 by Prime Minister Narendra
Modi. The Old Parliament Building will now be known as “Samvidhaan Sadan”. It was originally
called __________.
A. Imperial Administration Building
B. Council House
C. Viceroy Building
D. Imperial Government House
E. Constituent Assembly

Q.16) The 2023 ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup now started in India from October 5 to November
19, 2023. In which of the following years India Co-hosted the ICC Men’s Cricket World with any
other Asian Countries?
1. 1987
2. 1992
3. 1996
4. 1999
5. 2011

A. 1, 2 and 5
B. 1, 4 and 5
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 2, 3 and 5
E. 2, 4 and 5

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Q.17) Which of the following is not one of the UNESCO designated World Heritages site?
A. Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Park
B. Dholavira: A Harappan City
C. Western Ghats
D. Great Living Chola Temples
E. All of the above are UNESCO heritage sites

Q.18) Recently, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs announced the winners of the India
Smart Cities Award Contest (ISAC) 2022, which of the following states featured in the top 3
position?
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Gujarat
3. Karnataka
4. Chhattisgarh
5. Uttar Pradesh

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1 and 5
D. 3 and 5
E. 1, 3 and 5

Q.19) Which of the following schemes of the Government of India has won National Award for
e-Governance 2023 (Gold)?
A. e-NAM
B. PMUY
C. SVAMITVA
D. PMJDY
E. PM-JAY

Q.20) Recently, the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was conferred to Katalin Karikó and
Drew Weissman for their discoveries in the realm of mRNA vaccines that helped in tackling the
COVID-19 pandemic. What is the Full Form of ‘m’?
A. Micro
B. Monochrome
C. Mitochondrial
D. Messenger
E. Multilayered

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NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions
Answer Key
Section – General Awareness
Question Answer
Number
1 C
2 B
3 E
4 E
5 A
6 D
7 B
8 A
9 D
10 B
11 E
12 D
13 B
14 A
15 B
16 C
17 E
18 C
19 C
20 D

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – General Awareness
Q.1) Explanation:
Starting August 1, Russia has started issuing electronic visa (e-visa) to Indian passport holders that
helps visitors get travel approval faster for diverse purposes such as business trips, guest visits, and
tourism.
The e-visa will have a validity of 60 days, allowing visitors to stay in Russia for up to 16 days per
visit.
Hence C is the correct answer.

Q.2) Explanation:

Central Railway (abbreviated CR) is one of the 19 zones of Indian Railways. Its headquarters is in
Mumbai at Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus.

Hence B is the correct answer.

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Q.3) Explanation:
Bureau of Indian Standards, the National Standards Body of India signed a Memorandum of
Understandings (MoUs) with 35 prestigious institutions across the country for fostering
collaboration in standardization and conformity assessment.

The MoU will pave the way for the partner institutions to participate in standardization activities by
associating with the technical committees of the Bureau at the national and international level,
getting infrastructure support for relevant R&D Projects, jointly organizing events on
Standardization and Conformity Assessment, exchanging publications, introducing standardization
curricula in academics, exploring a Centre of Excellence for Standardization, testing, and
Conformity Assessment, and sharing laboratory facilities.

Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.4) Explanation:

India has set its sight on becoming energy independent by 2047 and achieving Net Zero by 2070. To
achieve this target, increasing renewable energy use across all economic spheres is central to
India's Energy Transition. Green Hydrogen is considered a promising alternative for enabling this
transition. Hydrogen can be utilized for long-duration storage of renewable energy, replacement
of fossil fuels in industry, clean transportation, and potentially also for decentralized power
generation, aviation, and marine transport. The National Green Hydrogen Mission was approved
by the Union Cabinet on 4 January 2022, with the intended objectives of:

• Making India a leading producer and supplier of Green Hydrogen in the world
• Creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives
• Reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock
• Development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities
• Attracting investment and business opportunities for the industry
• Creating opportunities for employment and economic development
• Supporting R&D projects

Hence E is the correct answer.

Q.5) Explanation:

At present, NATO has 31 member countries. These countries, called NATO Allies, are sovereign
states that come together through NATO to discuss political and security issues and make collective
decisions by consensus.
Latest entrant is Sweden in 2023.

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 Covered in CurrentTap – April 2023
Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.6) Explanation:

• Ibrahim Raisi – President of Iran (Correct)

• Cyril Ramphosa – President of The Republic of South Africa (Correct)
• Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva – President of Brazil (Correct)
• Frank-Walter Steinmeier – Chancellor of Germany (Incorrect) [ Chancellor of Germany is
Olaf Scholz]
• Frank-Walter Steinmeier is President of Germany.
• Srettha Thavisin – Prime Minister of Thailand

Hence D is the correct answer.

Q.7) Explanation:

The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD), commonly known as the Quad, is a strategic security
dialogue between Australia, India, Japan and the United States that is maintained by talks between
member countries.

OECD - The majority of OECD Members are high-income economies ranked as "very high" in the
Human Development Index and are regarded as developed countries. (India is not member of
OECD).

UNSC - The Council is composed of 15 Members:

Five permanent members: China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United
States, and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly (with
end of term year) (India is not a member of UNSC)

NATO - At present, NATO has 31 member countries. These countries, called NATO Allies, are
sovereign states that come together through NATO to discuss political and security issues and make
collective decisions by consensus.
Latest entrant is Sweden in 2023. (India is not the member of NATO)

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Hence B is the correct answer.

Q.8) Explanation:

Space Exploration Technologies Corp., commonly referred to as SpaceX, is an American spacecraft

manufacturer, launch service provider, defense contractor and satellite communications company
headquartered in Hawthorne, California.
The company was founded in 2002 by Elon Musk with the goal of reducing space transportation
costs and colonizing Mars. The company currently operates the Falcon 9 and Falcon Heavy rockets
along with the Dragon spacecraft.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Q.9) Explanation:

The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance Especially as Waterfowl Habitat

is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of Ramsar sites (wetlands). It is
also known as the Convention on Wetlands. It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the
convention was signed in 1971.

• The Convention covers a very wide variety of wetland habitats including rivers,
lakes, ponds, marshes, coastal areas, estuaries, bogs and even coral reefs. (Correct)
• The Wetlands, or "Ramsar", Convention is the oldest of the global nature conservation
treaties, and the only one to deal with a particular ecosystem type. (Correct)
• In India the designated authority for the Ramsar convention is Ministry of Environment and
Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) (Correct)

Hence E (None of the above) is the correct answer.

Q.10) Explanation:

Leander Paes, the owner of 18 Grand Slam titles in men’s doubles or mixed doubles, is the first
Asian man to be nominated for the International Tennis Hall of Fame in the player category.

Hence option B is the correct answer.

Q.11) Explanation:

Nirmala Sitharaman holds two important portfolios — the Finance ministry and the corporate
affairs ministry.

Chairman of Financial Stability Development Council is Union Minister of Finance

The GST Council is generally chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Thus, currently, Smt. Nirmala
Sitharaman is the chairperson of the GST Council.

Hence E (All of the above) is the correct answer.

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 Covered in CurrentTap Magazine

Q.12) Explanation:

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment was enacted when P V Narasimha Rao was Prime Minister,
mandated the reservation of one-third of seats for women in Panchayati Raj institutions and offices
of the chairperson at all levels of Panchayati Raj institutions.

Accordingly, Article 243 D goes like this:

1) Seats shall be reserved for—
(a) the Scheduled Castes; and
(b) the Scheduled Tribes,
in every Panchayat and the number of seats so reserved shall bear, as nearly as may be, the same
proportion to the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in that Panchayat as the
population of the Scheduled Castes in that Panchayat area or of the Scheduled Tribes in that
Panchayat area bears to the total population of that area and such seats may be allotted by rotation
to different constituencies in a Panchayat.

(2) Not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved under clause (1) shall be reserved
for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or, as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes.

(3) Not less than one-third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct
election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women and such seats may be allotted by rotation
to different constituencies in a Panchayat.

4) The offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats at the village or any other level shall be reserved
for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and women in such manner as the Legislature of a
State may, by law, provide:

Hence D is the Correct answer.

Q.13) Explanation:

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Antony John Blinken is an American government official and diplomat serving since January 26,
2021 as the 71st United States secretary of state. He previously served as deputy national security
advisor from 2013 to 2015 and deputy secretary of state from 2015 to 2017 under President Barack
Obama

Hence Option B is the correct answer.

Q.14) Explanation:

With the establishment of the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) in 1963 at
Thumba, a location close to the magnetic equator, there was a quantum jump in the scope for
aeronomy and atmospheric sciences in India. The launch of the first sounding rocket from Thumba
near Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala on 21 November 1963, marked the beginning of the Indian Space
Programme

Hence Option A is the correct option.

Q.15) Explanation:

The new Parliament building, part of the Central Vista project, will replace the existing structure –
which was commissioned in 1927. The ‘Samvidhan Sadan’ building was designed in the 1920s by
Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker as a ‘Council House’.
Hence Option B is the correct answer.

Q.16) Explanation:

The 2023 ICC Men's Cricket World Cup is the 13th edition of the Cricket World Cup, a quadrennial
One Day International (ODI) cricket tournament contested by men's national teams and organised
by the International Cricket Council (ICC). The tournament is being hosted by India, it started on 5
October and is scheduled to conclude on 19 November 2023.

It is the first men's Cricket World Cup which India is hosting solely. They co-hosted the 1987, 1996
and 2011 editions with other Asian nations. The tournament is taking place in ten different
stadiums, in ten cities across India.
Hence Option C is the Correct answer.

Q.17) Explanation:
A. Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Park (Added to the list 1988, 2005)
B. Dholavira: A Harappan City (Added to the list 2021)
C. Western Ghats (Added to the list in 2012)
D. Great Living Chola Temples (Added to the list in 1987, 2004)
E. All of the above

Hence Option E (All of the above) is the Correct answer.

Q.18) Explanation:

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The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MOHUA) has announced the winners of the India Smart
Cities Award Contest (ISAC) organised under the Smart Cities Mission (SCM), MOHUA.
• Indore topped the National Smart City Award, followed by Surat and Agra in second and third
place respectively.
• Madhya Pradesh topped the state award, followed by Tamil Nadu in second place, and Rajasthan
and Uttar Pradesh in third place.
Chandigarh has been awarded the best Union Territory award.

Covered in SchemesTap – August 2023

Hence Option C is the Correct Answer.
Q.19) Explanation:

SVAMITVA Scheme wins the National Award for e-Governance 2023. SVAMITVA (Survey of
Villages Abadi and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) Scheme of Ministry of
Panchayati Raj (MoPR) has been conferred with the prestigious National Award for e-
Governance 2023 (Gold).

Covered in the SchemesTap – August 2023

Hence option C is the Correct answer.

Q.20) Explanation:

The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine has been awarded to Katalin Karikó and Drew
Weissman for their research that enabled the development of mRNA vaccines against COVID-19.
Karikó and Dr. Weissman were awarded the prize for their “discoveries concerning nucleoside base
modifications that enabled the development of effective mRNA vaccines against COVID-19”.

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mRNA stands for messenger RNA, is a form of nucleic acid which carries genetic information. Like
other vaccines, the mRNA vaccine also attempts to activate the immune system to produce
antibodies that help counter an infection from a live virus.

Covered in the PIB Current Affairs MCQs session.

Hence D is the correct answer.

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ENGLISH DESCRIPTIVE

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 NABARD (Gr. A.)- Phase - 2 (2023)

Maximum marks (100) Time (90 mins.)

PAPER I: General English

Instructions-
1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks to each

question.

3) Answers must be written only in English.

4) Marks will be deducted if word limit is not observed.

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Q.1 Write an Essay of about 500 - 550 words on any one of the following
topics: - (40 Marks)

1. How Technology and Agriculture complement each other? Explain it and give 5 examples
how technology helps agriculture?
In today's rapidly evolving world, the intersection of technology and agriculture has become
increasingly significant. The integration of technology in agriculture has led to a revolution in
the way crops are cultivated, harvested, and distributed. This symbiotic relationship between
technology and agriculture has proven to be instrumental in addressing the challenges of food
security, sustainability, and efficiency in the agricultural sector. In this essay, we will delve into
the ways in which technology complements agriculture and provide five examples of how
technology has transformed and enhanced agricultural practices.

Agriculture has been a fundamental aspect of human civilization, providing sustenance and
livelihood for communities across the globe. As the world's population continues to grow, the
demand for food production has surged, necessitating innovative solutions to enhance
agricultural productivity while minimizing environmental impact. This is where technology has
played a pivotal role in revolutionizing traditional farming methods and practices.

Technologically, agriculture in India lacks in terms of mechanization as only 42% mechanization

has been achieved as compared to USA with 90%. India also lacks in grading, branding and
marketing. India lags behind in Research and Development funding and innovation in
agriculture as a result we have fewer yielding varieties of crops and techniques.

Precision Agriculture: One of the most prominent examples of how technology complements
agriculture is through the implementation of precision agriculture. This approach utilizes
advanced technologies such as GPS, drones, and sensors to assess and manage variability
within fields. By precisely targeting inputs such as water, fertilizers, and pesticides, farmers can
optimize resource utilization, minimize waste, and enhance crop yields. The use of precision
agriculture has transformed farming from a uniform, one-size-fits-all approach to a highly
customized and efficient process.

Automated Machinery: The introduction of automated machinery and robotics has

revolutionized the labor-intensive aspects of agriculture. Automated systems such as self-
driving tractors, robotic harvesters, and automated irrigation systems have streamlined farming
operations, reduced labor costs, and improved overall productivity. These technologies have
enabled farmers to accomplish tasks with greater precision and speed, ultimately leading to
increased output and profitability.

Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering: Advancements in biotechnology and genetic

engineering have significantly impacted agricultural production. Through genetic modification,
scientists have developed crops with enhanced resistance to pests, diseases, and environmental
stressors. Additionally, biotechnology has facilitated the production of genetically modified
organisms (GMOs) that offer improved nutritional content, longer shelf life, and higher yields.

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These innovations have bolstered crop resilience and sustainability, contributing to the global
effort to ensure food security in the face of changing climatic conditions.

Data Analytics and Farm Management Software: The advent of sophisticated data analytics and
farm management software has empowered farmers to make data-driven decisions and
optimize their operations. These tools enable the collection and analysis of vast amounts of
data related to soil health, weather patterns, crop performance, and market trends. By
leveraging these insights, farmers can fine-tune their strategies, allocate resources efficiently,
and adapt to dynamic market conditions. Furthermore, the integration of cloud-based
platforms and mobile applications has facilitated real-time monitoring and remote
management of agricultural activities, providing farmers with unprecedented control and
oversight of their operations.

Sustainable Practices and Renewable Energy: Technology has catalyzed the adoption of
sustainable agricultural practices and renewable energy sources. Innovations such as solar-
powered irrigation systems, biofuel production, and waste-to-energy solutions have
contributed to reducing the environmental footprint of agriculture. By harnessing renewable
energy, farmers can minimize reliance on non-renewable resources, lower operational costs,
and mitigate greenhouse gas emissions. Moreover, the integration of precision irrigation
systems and water conservation technologies has promoted efficient water usage, addressing
the critical issue of water scarcity in agricultural regions.

In conclusion, the symbiotic relationship between technology and agriculture is reshaping the
landscape of food production and sustainability. As we look to the future, the continued
integration of technology in agriculture holds immense potential to address global food security
challenges, enhance environmental stewardship, and improve the livelihoods of farmers
worldwide. This partnership between technology and agriculture underscores the imperative of
embracing innovation to ensure the resilience and prosperity of the agricultural sector.

2. Detrimental effects of Social Media on Intimate social relationships and mental health.
In recent years, the pervasive influence of social media on our daily lives has become
increasingly apparent. As graduate students, we are uniquely positioned to critically analyze the
impact of this digital phenomenon on social relationships. While social media platforms have
undeniably connected individuals across geographical boundaries, there is a growing body of
evidence suggesting that these platforms also hold detrimental effects on interpersonal
connections. This essay aims to explore the psychological and societal repercussions of social
media on social relationships, outlining how it undermines meaningful interactions and
perpetuates feelings of loneliness and isolation.

One of the foremost detrimental consequences of extensive social media usage is the
detachment it fosters from meaningful offline relationships. As individuals become engrossed in
their online persona, they may neglect the development and maintenance of authentic, face-to-
face connections. This detachment can erode the richness of personal interactions, stifling the
development of empathy, emotional intelligence, and the ability to read non-verbal cues.

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Social media's relentless streams of curated content can ignite feelings of self-comparison and
envy among users. The constant exposure to others' edited highlights can lead individuals to
develop unrealistic expectations and negative self-perceptions. Consequently, social media
platforms can exacerbate existing issues such as body dissatisfaction, low self-esteem, and
anxiety, creating barriers to establishing and nourishing genuine relationships in both virtual
and real-world domains.

The superficial nature of online communication platforms can contribute to the erosion of
empathy and emotional connections. Character-limited messages, emojis, and an absence of
genuine human cues can hinder true understanding and emotional resonance. Reduced
empathy hampers our ability to truly connect with others, potentially leading to
misunderstandings, conflict escalation, and ultimately, social disintegration.

Social media's algorithm-driven content distribution makes it easier than ever for individuals to
exist within echo chambers, surrounded by those who think, act, and believe similarly. This
leads to the reinforcement of existing biases and the suppression of diverse perspectives. These
digital divisions create a breeding ground for animosity, polarizing societies, and hindering open
dialogue, thereby undermining the foundation of social relationships.

Despite the illusion of constant connectivity, studies have shown a paradoxical association
between excessive social media usage and increased feelings of isolation and loneliness. The
curated highlight reels and shallow interactions prevalent on these platforms fail to provide the
depth and intimacy inherent in meaningful connections, perpetuating a sense of isolation that
can jeopardize mental health and well-being.

Research indicates that excessive time spent on social media can result in a redirection of
attention and energy away from face-to-face relationships. Obsessive engagement with digital
platforms can lead to decreased quality time spent with loved ones, an imbalance in work-life
relationships, and missed opportunities for profound connections. This shifting focus can lead
to strained relationships, diminished emotional bonds, and a lack of overall fulfillment.

Social media inherently raises concerns about privacy and trust, which can undermine the
foundation of social relationships. Platforms' handling of personal data and their susceptibility
to cyber threats have fostered skepticism and paranoia, causing individuals to hesitate before
sharing personal information. This erosion of trust and privacy can make it challenging for
individuals to forge genuine relationships, as their guard is perpetually up.

The prevalence of online communication poses challenges for social relationships, particularly
in terms of genuine connectedness. Online interactions may lack the nuances of tone, facial
expressions, and body language, leading to misinterpretations and misunderstandings.
Moreover, the asynchronous nature of online conversations hampers the immediacy and
spontaneity of real-time dialogue, hindering the cultivation of bonds.

While social media platforms have undeniably revolutionized communication and created new
opportunities for connection, it is crucial to recognize and address the detrimental effects they
have on social relationships. As conscientious graduate students, it is incumbent upon us to
critically evaluate our own social media habits and promote awareness about the potential

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pitfalls. By fostering a balanced approach to technology and encouraging face-to-face
interactions, we can strive to mitigate the erosion of genuine human connections caused by
excessive reliance on social media.

3. How Co-operative societies are transforming Rural India?

Co-operative societies have played a significant role in transforming rural India, leading to socio-
economic development and empowerment of its inhabitants. These societies act as a platform
for collective action, fostering unity and collaboration among individuals within the rural
communities. Through various initiatives and programs, co-operatives have been instrumental
in addressing the challenges faced by rural areas, including poverty, lack of education, and
limited access to resources.

One of the key contributions of co-operative societies is the promotion of agricultural

development in rural India. Farmers, who form the backbone of the rural economy, often face
numerous difficulties, such as inadequate infrastructure, limited access to credit, and
exploitative middlemen. Co-operatives have emerged as a powerful mechanism to tackle these
problems by providing farmers with better market opportunities, fair prices for their produce,
and access to inputs like seeds, fertilizers, and machinery. By utilizing the collective strength of
their members, co-operatives have successfully transformed agricultural practices, resulting in
increased productivity, improved livelihoods, and enhanced food security in rural areas.

8.55 lakh out of 30 lakh cooperative societies in the world are in India and about 13 crore
people are directly associated with them and 91 percent villages in India have some form of
cooperatives working in them. We have saved cooperatives in the country and the government
led by Shri Narendra Modi has transferred profits of Amul, IFFCO and KRIBHCO directly to
farmers’ bank accounts. Cooperation has been the lifeblood of Indian culture since the very
beginning and India has given the idea of cooperatives to the world.

Moreover, co-operatives have been instrumental in promoting entrepreneurship and fostering

economic self-reliance in rural India. By encouraging the formation of small-scale industries and
businesses, these societies have created employment opportunities within local communities,
reducing migration to urban areas. Through skill development programs, training, and access to
loans, co-operatives have empowered individuals with the necessary tools and resources to
start and sustain their own ventures. This not only contributes to overall economic growth but
also helps in preserving indigenous knowledge and traditional crafts, thereby promoting
cultural sustainability in rural India.

Furthermore, co-operative societies have played a vital role in addressing social issues,
particularly in the realms of education and healthcare. In remote rural areas, access to quality
education, especially for marginalized communities, remains a significant challenge. Co-
operatives have established schools and learning centers, providing affordable and accessible
education to children in these areas. Additionally, they have initiated adult literacy programs,
skill development workshops, and vocational training, empowering individuals with the
knowledge and skills needed to break the cycle of poverty.

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Similarly, co-operatives have contributed to the improvement of healthcare services in rural
India. By establishing medical facilities, partnering with healthcare professionals, and organizing
health camps, these societies have brought much-needed medical intervention to remote and
underserved areas. They have also generated awareness about preventive healthcare practices,
sanitation, and nutrition, resulting in a significant decline in disease prevalence and mortality
rates.

Moreover, co-operative societies have fostered community development, promoting social

cohesion and collective welfare in rural India. By pooling resources and efforts, individuals
within these societies have been able to address common challenges and work towards shared
goals. Co-operatives have been instrumental in constructing basic infrastructure, such as roads,
water supply systems, and electricity grids, thereby improving the quality of life in rural areas.
They have also facilitated the formation of self-help groups, empowering women with
knowledge, skills, and financial independence, leading to their overall socio-economic
empowerment.

However, despite the numerous achievements, the success of co-operative societies in

transforming rural India is not without challenges and limitations. Poor governance, corruption,
and mismanagement are some of the issues that often hinder the effective functioning of these
societies. Furthermore, inadequate access to technology and internet connectivity hampers the
seamless integration of rural co-operatives with the market economy. These challenges need to
be addressed through policy interventions, strengthening the regulatory framework, and
providing the necessary infrastructure to ensure the sustained impact of co-operative societies
in rural India.

In conclusion, co-operative societies have emerged as a powerful force in transforming rural

India. Through their contributions in the spheres of agriculture, entrepreneurship, education,
healthcare, and community development, these societies have catalyzed socio-economic
progress, empowering individuals and improving their overall well-being. However, addressing
the challenges and limitations that hinder the effective functioning of co-operative societies is
crucial for ensuring their continued success in creating a prosperous and inclusive rural India.
4. Discuss the importance of work-Life balance and why is it necessary?
The impact of work-life balance on individuals, families, and society as a whole cannot be
overstated. From a personal standpoint, maintaining a healthy work-life balance has been
linked to decreased stress, improved mental and physical health, and greater overall happiness.
It allows individuals to spend time with loved ones, pursue hobbies and interests, and engage
in self-care activities, leading to a more fulfilled and well-rounded life.
In the family context, work-life balance is crucial for maintaining strong, healthy relationships.
Parents who are able to balance work and family commitments can be more present for their
children, participate in family activities, and provide emotional support. This, in turn,
contributes to the overall well-being of the family unit and creates a positive environment for
children to grow and thrive.
From a societal perspective, promoting work-life balance can lead to higher levels of
productivity and job satisfaction. Companies that prioritize work-life balance tend to have
lower rates of employee turnover, reduced absenteeism, and higher levels of employee

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engagement. In addition, society as a whole can benefit from a workforce that is healthy,
motivated, and fully engaged in both their professional and personal lives.
There are various perspectives on work-life balance, with some arguing that it is a personal
responsibility and others asserting that it is the responsibility of employers and policymakers.
From a personal perspective, individuals have a role to play in managing their own work-life
balance by setting boundaries, practicing self-care, and prioritizing activities that bring joy and
fulfillment. However, this can be challenging in a society that often values overwork and places
high demands on individuals both at work and at home.
Employers and policymakers also have a role to play in promoting work-life balance. This can
be achieved through the implementation of flexible work arrangements, such as
telecommuting and flexible hours, as well as the provision of benefits such as paid time off,
parental leave, and childcare support. These measures not only benefit individual employees
but also contribute to a more productive and engaged workforce.
A well-reasoned analysis of work-life balance should take into account the potential drawbacks
and challenges associated with this concept. For example, in some industries, such as
healthcare and emergency services, long hours and unpredictable schedules are unavoidable,
making work-life balance more difficult to achieve. In addition, the rise of remote work has
blurred the lines between work and personal life, leading to a potential "always-on" culture
that can be detrimental to individuals' well-being.
Looking to the future, the concept of work-life balance will likely continue to evolve as societal
attitudes shift and new challenges arise. The ongoing impact of technology, the changing
nature of work, and the increasing focus on mental health and well-being will all influence the
way work-life balance is perceived and addressed.
In conclusion, the importance of work-life balance cannot be overstated. It is necessary for
individuals to maintain a healthy balance between their professional and personal lives in order
to achieve overall well-being and happiness. Various perspectives on work-life balance, as well
as potential drawbacks and challenges, should be considered in a well-reasoned analysis of this
topic. Looking to the future, work-life balance will continue to evolve in response to societal
shifts and new challenges, and it will remain a critical consideration for individuals, families,
and society as a whole.

Or
In today's fast-paced world, achieving a harmonious work-life balance has become an essential
aspect of modern life. As a Graduate School student, it is crucial to understand the significance
of maintaining a balance between professional commitments and personal well-being. This
essay will discuss why work-life balance is vital for graduate students, emphasizing its impact on
overall productivity, mental and physical health, relationships, and personal fulfillment.

Finding equilibrium between work and personal life nurtures productivity. By setting
boundaries and allowing time for relaxation and rejuvenation, graduate students can become
more focused, motivated, and better equipped to handle their academic and professional

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responsibilities. When individuals feel satisfied in their personal lives, they can channel energy
and concentration more effectively into their work, leading to increased efficiency and higher
quality outputs.

Maintaining work-life balance is crucial for preserving mental well-being, especially for graduate
students who face intense academic pressure. Burnout, stress, and anxiety are common
challenges, but by dedicating time to self-care, pursuing hobbies, and engaging in social
activities, individuals can alleviate these issues. A balanced lifestyle enables graduate students
to reduce mental exhaustion, promote emotional stability, and improve overall mental health,
resulting in enhanced focus and cognitive abilities in their academic pursuits.

Neglecting personal health amidst rigorous academic commitments can lead to numerous
health issues. Lack of exercise, unhealthy eating habits, and inadequate sleep are frequent
consequences of an imbalanced work-life routine. A proper balance allows graduate students to
prioritize their physical well-being, incorporating regular exercise, nutritious diets, and
adequate rest, thus boosting their immune system and enhancing overall productivity.

Work-life balance is not just about personal fulfillment but also about fostering and preserving
meaningful relationships. Graduate students often face challenges in maintaining connections
with family, friends, and significant others due to their demanding academic workload. By
allocating time for personal relationships, socializing, and participating in recreational activities,
work-life balance promotes healthy interactions and emotional support systems, contributing
positively to overall happiness and boosting academic performance.

An unbalanced lifestyle often leads to neglecting personal growth and self-reflection. By

incorporating time for personal development, graduate students can engage in introspection,
goal-setting, and self-improvement activities. Such endeavors offer valuable opportunities for
self-discovery, cultivating a sense of purpose, and aligning professional aspirations with
personal values, leading to greater satisfaction and fulfillment in both academic and personal
life.

Work-life balance is a catalyst for creativity and innovation. By indulging in activities beyond
academic and professional boundaries, graduate students expose themselves to new
experiences, perspectives, and ideas. This exposure fosters creativity, improves critical thinking
abilities, and encourages the generation of innovative solutions to complex problems.
Effectively balancing work and personal pursuits enhances graduate students' overall
intellectual capacity, enabling them to approach their work with fresh and creative insights.

Maintaining work-life balance is not a luxury but a necessity for graduate students aiming to
thrive academically, professionally, and personally. Striking equilibrium between work
responsibilities and personal well-being fosters productivity, improves mental and physical
health, strengthens relationships, and promotes personal growth. Recognizing and
implementing strategies to establish a healthy work-life balance is not only essential for
graduate students but lays the foundation for a fulfilling and successful future in all aspects of
life.

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Q.2 Make a Précis of the following passage in 150 words and give it a suitable title.
(30 Marks)
Over the past decade, the landscape of marketing has undergone a significant transformation
with the advent of social media. The impact of social media marketing cannot be overstated, as
it has revolutionized the way brands engage with their audience and convey their messages.
However, social media platforms and users' behavior on them are constantly evolving, and as a
result, social media marketing strategies have had to adapt to these changes.
One major change in social media marketing is the emergence and rapid growth of influencer
marketing. Influencers, individuals who have amassed significant online followings, have
become key players in promoting brands and products. These influencers, often trusted by
their followers, have leveraged their personal brands to create partnerships with companies,
fostering authentic connections between brands and consumers. As the influence of traditional
advertising declines, more brands are shifting their marketing budgets towards collaborating
with influencers.
Another significant evolution in social media marketing is the increasing prominence of video
content. Platforms like YouTube, Instagram, and TikTok have enabled the creation and
dissemination of short, engaging videos, capturing the attention of users. Video content has
proven to be more effective in capturing brand messages, generating higher engagement rates,
and increasing conversion rates. With the rise of stories, reels, and live videos, brands are now
incorporating video content into their social media strategies more than ever before.
Moreover, the demand for personalized experiences has also fueled changes in social media
marketing. Users now expect brands to understand their preferences and deliver tailored
content. This has led to the integration of advanced analytics tools in social media marketing
strategies, allowing companies to collect and analyze data on user behavior, interests, and
demographics. By leveraging this data, brands can deliver personalized content,
recommendations, and advertisements, enhancing customer experiences and ultimately
driving conversions.
Social responsibility has also become a focal point in the changing landscape of social media
marketing. With society becoming more aware of environmental, social, and political issues,
consumers are increasingly supporting brands that align with their values. This has led to the
rise of purpose-driven marketing, where brands actively communicate their commitment to
social responsibility. Social media platforms provide an ideal space for brands to amplify their
social initiatives, showcase their contributions, and engage in meaningful conversations with
their audience.
One way these changes are being facilitated is through advancements in technology and social
media algorithms. Artificial intelligence and machine learning algorithms are becoming
essential tools for optimizing campaigns, identifying trends, and personalizing content. These
technologies can analyze vast amounts of data and improve targeting accuracy. Additionally,
social media platforms have introduced features such as smart targeting, augmented reality
filters, and chatbots, providing more sophisticated and interactive experiences for both brands
and users.

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However, it is important to acknowledge that social media marketing has its drawbacks and
challenges. As more brands invest in social media advertising, competition for visibility and
engagement continues to grow. This results in rising advertising costs and a cluttered digital
space, which can make it difficult for brands to stand out. Consequently, marketers need to
constantly adapt and refine their strategies to cut through the noise and effectively reach their
target audience.
In conclusion, social media marketing is continuously changing as social media platforms and
user behavior evolve. The rise of influencer marketing, the prominence of video content, the
demand for personalized experiences, and the focus on social responsibility have all played
significant roles in this transformation. Technology advancements and the integration of
artificial intelligence have further supported these changes. However, as competition
intensifies, brands must remain agile and innovative to effectively navigate the ever-evolving
landscape of social media marketing.

Solution -
Title :- Emergence of Social media marketing.
Social media marketing has significantly transformed the way brands engage with their
audience and convey their messages. Influencer marketing has become a key player in
promoting brands and products, fostering authentic connections between brands and
consumers. Video content has become more prominent, capturing user attention and
generating higher engagement rates. The demand for personalized experiences has led to the
integration of advanced analytics tools, allowing brands to deliver tailored content and
recommendations. Social responsibility has become a focal point, with consumers increasingly
supporting brands aligning with their values. Advancements in technology and social media
algorithms, such as artificial intelligence and machine learning, are facilitating these changes.
However, competition for visibility and engagement continues to grow, leading to rising
advertising costs and a cluttered digital space. Marketers must constantly adapt and refine their
strategies to effectively reach their target audience. In conclusion, social media marketing is
constantly evolving as platforms and user behavior evolve.

Q.3 Write a letter on any one of the topics given below in 150 words.
(30 Marks)
1. Write a letter to your Resident welfare association for creating a library in the locality.
Flat no – 214,
Koregaon Park,
Pune – 411033

19th November,2023.

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To
The President,
Residents' welfare Association,
Koregaon Park,
Pune.
Subject: Advancing our Community through a Library.

Dear Esteemed Members of the Resident Welfare Association,

I trust this correspondence finds each of you in good health and high spirits. I am honored to
present a significant proposal that will undoubtedly bring immense benefits to all residents -
the establishment of a state-of-the-art library within our beloved locality.
Beyond its physical existence as a building housing books, a library represents an empowering
space capable of instilling knowledge, fostering lifelong learning, and cultivating resiliency
among community members. It will serve as not just a conduit for intellectual growth but also
as an epicenter for social cohesion. Introducing such a dedicated facility within our vicinity
promises to elevate both individual experiences and overall quality of life throughout our
community.
Allow me to elucidate several key reasons that highlight the indispensability of bringing forth
this cherished addition:
1. Unrestricted Access to Knowledge.
2. Educational Support.
3. Nurturing Bonds Amongst Residents.
4. Personal Development.
I humbly beseech the Resident Welfare Association's esteemed consideration in evaluating my
proposal regarding the establishment of a transformative library within our vicinity. I firmly
believe that this visionary endeavor holds immense transformative potential benefiting
community development, education enhancement, and overall collective well-being. To
commence these efforts with utmost efficiency, I propose that we form a dedicated committee
entrusted with assessing feasibility aspects while simultaneously crafting a comprehensive
roadmap encompassing potential funding avenues.
As an ardent advocate for knowledge proliferation, I am overjoyed at the prospect of
wholeheartedly immersing myself in this noble undertaking alongside devoted like-minded
individuals within our community. Please grant me the privilege of actively participating in any
capacity possible towards advancing this initiative further.

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Thank you profoundly for considering my proposal - eagerly awaiting your positive response.
Together as a united force, let us transform our cherished locality into an epitome of
enlightenment-provoking knowledge transferal and lifelong learning opportunities!
Thanking you in anticipation!
Regards
Mr. Subhjit Roy.

2. Write a letter to the Electricity board regarding the mismatch of address in your electric bill
asking to rectify it.
House no – 34-A,
Henry Park Society,
Epson Road,
New Delhi.

19th November,2023.

The Secretary,
New Delhi Electricity board,
New Delhi.

Subject – Regarding mismatch in address.

Dear Sir,
This is to inform that we have recently owned the flat 34-A, Henry Park society, Epson Road,
New Delhi. I hope this letter finds you well. I am writing to bring to your attention a discrepancy
in my electric bill. It has come to my notice that the address mentioned on the bill does not
match my current address.
As a law-abiding citizen, I understand the importance of accurate record-keeping and its role in
maintaining a smooth functioning system. I believe it is crucial to rectify any discrepancies in
the billing information promptly. Therefore, I kindly request your assistance in correcting the
address on my electric bill to reflect my current residential address, which is [My Address].
I understand that errors can occur, and I trust that the Electricity board will take the necessary
steps to rectify this matter promptly. I kindly request you to update the address on file and
ensure that all future bills reflect the correct information.

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Thank you for your attention to this matter. I look forward to receiving a revised electric bill
with the accurate address. Please let me know if you need any further information in order to
get the rectification done in this month electricity bill.
I await your reply in anticipation.

Regards
Neeraj Rai.

3. Write a letter to your manager to congratulate him on his retirement and telling him about
the role he played in your career.
Junior Manager,
Knox Ltd.

29th October,2022.

Amanda,
The Manger,
Knox ltd.

Hello Amanda,
Congratulations!
I am writing to extend my warmest congratulations on your well-deserved retirement. It is with
great joy and a touch of sadness that I bid farewell to a manager who has played such a
significant role in shaping my career.
During your tenure as my manager, you have consistently exemplified professionalism,
dedication, and a genuine commitment to the growth and success of your team members. Your
leadership style, characterized by fairness, guidance, and encouragement, has fostered an
environment where each employee feels valued and motivated to excel.
I am particularly grateful for the opportunities you have provided me to take on challenging
projects, expand my skill set, and assume greater responsibilities. Your unwavering support and
belief in my abilities have been instrumental in my professional development, and I am
confident that the invaluable lessons I have learned under your guidance will continue to
propel me forward in my career.

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As you embark on this new chapter in your life, I wish you an abundance of joy, relaxation, and
fulfillment. May your retirement be filled with endless moments of happiness and the
realization of your dreams.
Thank you once again for your exceptional leadership and mentorship. You will be greatly
missed, but your legacy will undoubtedly endure.

Sincerely,
Ragini Singh
Junior Manager.

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160 | Page
NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions (Phase 2)

Section- Agriculture and Rural Development and Economic and Social Issues
Cabinet approves Computerization of PACS, 63,000 functional PACS will be computerized with
an overall budget outlay of Rs 2516 crore. This will benefit approx. 13 crore farmers most of
which are Small & Marginal Farmers. Will bring transparency, and efficiency, enhance
trustworthiness, and help PACS to become a nodal delivery service point at the Panchayat level.
Cloud-based unified software with data storage, Cyber Security, Hardware, digitization of
existing records, Maintenance, and Training are the main components. This project proposes
computerization of about 63,000 functional PACS years with a total budget outlay of Rs. 2516
crore with a Government of India share of Rs. 1528 crore.

Q.1) PACS has been mentioned in the above paragraph. What does the PACS stand for?

A. Primitive Agriculture Cooperative Society

B. Primary Agriculture Credit Society
C. Provisional Agriculture Cooperative Society
D. Primary Agriculture and Cooperative Society
E. None of the above

Q.2) The center has announced a 47-member committee under former union minister
___________ to prepare the national cooperation policy to promote a cooperative-based
economic development model.
A. Suresh Prabhu
B. Arjun Munda
C. Narayan Rane
D. Ashwini Vaishnaw
E. None of the above

Q.3) In order to make PACS self-reliant and in tune with ‘Atmnirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan’ the
government of India has, on 29th June 2022 approved the centrally sponsored project for the
computerization of PACS for the period of _______.
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
E. 6 years

Q.4) Which of the following is the implementing agency for the centrally sponsored project for
the computerization of primary agriculture credit societies?

A. FCI
B. RBI
C. NABARD

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D. IFFCO
E. APEDA

Rice cultivation is well-suited to countries and regions with low labour costs and high rainfall, as
it is labour-intensive to cultivate and requires ample water. Ploughing is the
________(1)_____operation, which is performed to cut, break, and invert the soil partially or
completely suitable for sowing seeds. Puddling is churning the soil with water. It is done in paddy
fields with standing water of 5-10 cm depth after initial ploughing with a country plow. It breaks
up the clods and churns the soil. The tractor will not work satisfactorily in ploughing/puddling of
rice fields due to the slippage of rubber wheels. So, to overcome this difficulty iron wheels are
introduced which are called cage wheels. _____(2)_______ is used for churning the soil with
standing water while preparing fields for paddy transplantation. It is used after completing an
initial ploughing with an iron plough or country plough.

Based on the paragraph given fill in the blanks with appropriate options.

Q.5) Ploughing is the ________(1)_____operation, which is performed to cut, break, and invert
the soil partially or completely suitable for sowing seeds.
A. Primary Tillage
B. Secondary Tillage
C. Blind Tillage
D. Clean Tillage
E. None of the above

Q.6) _____ (2)_______ is used for churning the soil with standing water while preparing fields for
paddy transplantation. It is used after completing an initial plowing with an iron plow or country
plow.
A. Harrow
B. Puddler
C. Scrapper
D. Disc Plough
E. Mold Board Plough

Q.7) Which of the following is /are the objectives of tillage in Rice?

A. Seedbed preparation
B. Weed Control
C. Soil and Water Conservation
D. To remove the hard pan
E. All of the above

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Q.8) Recently Indian Institute of Millet Research has established a “Center of Excellence” for the
promotion of millets in which of the following places?
A. Hyderabad
B. Tamil Nadu
C. New Delhi
D. Haryana
E. Uttarakhand

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) is a demand driven
wage employment Scheme which provides for the enhancement of livelihood security of the
households in rural areas of the country by providing at least one hundred days of guaranteed
wage employment in every financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to
do unskilled manual work.
Based on above paragraph, answer the following questions.
Q.9) How many days of wage employment is provided under MGNREGS for Scheduled Tribe
households living in forest areas?
A. 120
B. 130
C. 140
D. 150
E. 175

Q.10) Under the MGNREGS, additional 50 days of wage employment are provided over and above
100 days in the areas affected due to which of the following reasons?
A. Fire hazard
B. Drought/ natural calamity
C. Naxal affected
D. Arsenic contaminated
E. None of the above

Q.11) Under the MGNREGS, if the demanded employment is not provided within 15 days, the
applicant is entitled to an unemployment allowance of at least ____ of the minimum wage for the
first 30 days, and _____ of the minimum wage thereafter for the remaining financial year.
A. Half, One-fourth
B. Half, Half
C. One-fourth, Half
D. One-third, One-fourth
E. One-fourth, One-fourth

163 | Page
Q.12) . Which among the following initiative are organised at every ward and Gram Panchayat
level at least once a month for creating awareness about the employment generation in the rural
areas.
A. Gram Chaupal Diwas
B. Gram Rozgar Diwas
C. Gram Sahyog Diwas
D. Gram Saarthi Diwas
E. Gram Sahayak Diwas

On July 1, 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the ________ Mission in Shahdol,
Madhya Pradesh and distributed sickle cell genetic status cards to beneficiaries. The mission aims
to address the serious health challenges posed by sickle cell disease, especially among the tribal
population. The launch marks an important milestone in the ongoing efforts of the government
to eliminate sickle cell disease as a public health problem by 2047.
Based on above paragraph, answer the following questions.
Q.13) Identify the programme mentioned in the paragraph.
A. National Sickle Cell Deficiency Improvement Mission
B. National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission
C. National Strategy for Elimination of Sickle Cell
D. National Inclusive Mission for Sickle Cell Anaemia
E. None of the above

Q.14) Which of the following preventive measures have been taken as a part of the programme
mentioned in the paragraph?

1. Strengthening of screening and testing facilities

2. Health promotion- Awareness generation & pre-marital genetic counselling
3. Strengthening of laboratory services for diagnosis

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. All of the above

Q.15) Which of the following statement(s) is correct with respect to the mission discussed in
above paragraph?
1. People from zero to 18 years of age are eligible to avail benefit.
2. It shall incrementally include the entire population up to 45 years as a part of National Health Mission.
3. The mission aims to cover 7 crore people with screening, counselling for prevention and care for people
with SCD in three and half years.

A. 1 and 2

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B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. All of the above

Q.16) The programme mentioned in the paragraph aims to eliminate Sickle Cell Anaemia by which
year?
A. 2030
B. 2035
C. 2040
D. 2045
E. 2047

Q.17) Union Finance Minister, Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman has announced in her budget speech
about the allocation of an amount of INR 2248.77 crore as against the corresponding figure of INR
1624.18 crore during 2022-23 and INR 1360 crore during 2021-22 for the Department of Fisheries.
She has announced a new Central Sector Sub-scheme under PMMSY to enhance further the
earnings and incomes of fishermen, fish vendors and micro & small enterprises engaged in
fisheries sector. Identify the scheme?
A. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
B. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana
C. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sahkar Yojana
D. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Yojana
E. Pradhan Mantri Sahakar Samridhi Yojana

In saline soils, the sodium ions are present in soluble form in the soil water. It mainly occurs in
the coastal areas where the sea water splashes on the land during high tide and when it recedes
back, the salt is left dissolved in the soil water. Because the salt is present in soluble form, it can
conduct electricity better when compared to the other forms like the alkali soils.
Based on the paragraph given answer the following questions.
Q.18) What is the pH and Electrical Conductivity of the saline soil?
A. pH 6- 5, EC 4<
B. pH 7- 8.5, EC 4>
C. pH 7- 8.5, EC 4<
D. pH 6- 7, EC 4<
E. None of the above

Q.19) Saline soil has _________g/l of Na.

A. 10g/L
B. 11g/L
C. 12g/L

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D. 13g/L
E. 14g/L

Q.20) Which of the following process lead to the accumulation of Na in soil?

A. Reclamation
B. Salinization
C. Solodization
D. Humification
E. Decomposition

1 Markers
Q.21) Which of the following is a complex fertilizer?
K. DAP
L. SSP
M. Uera
N. MOP
O. All of the above

Q.22) Balangir is a breed of which of the following?

K. Cattle
L. Buffalo
M. Goat
N. Sheep
O. Camel

Q.23) In which of the following cropping patterns 4 crops can be grown, but one crop is cultivated
before the harvest of the previous crop?
A. Mixed Intercropping
B. Row Intercropping
C. Relay Intercropping
D. Strip Intercropping
E. Multistory Intercropping

Q.24) In which of the following culture systems more than 1 type of fish is cultivated?
A. Monoculture
B. Mixed culture
C. Monosex culture
D. Multisex culture
E. Polyculture

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Q.25) The idea of the establishment of Krishi Vigyan Kendra was developed by which of the
following committees?
A. Mohan Singh Mehta Committee
B. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
C. Ashok Mehta Committee
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Q.26) Which of the following persons are eligible to get the benefits under PM Vishwakarma Scheme?
1. Ram who is a wood rubber artisan
2. An artisan involved in the toy making
3. A girl tailor whose husband is a Class-3 clerk in a government department

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Q.27) Which of the following persons can apply under the “National Overseas Scheme for SCs”, a sub-
scheme of umbrella scheme SHREYAS?

1. A person willing to do PhD from London

2. An undergraduate professional whose annual income is Rs. 7.5 lakh
3. A person willing to pursue masters in science
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Q.28) ______________ aims to provide the ‘Record of Rights’ to village household owners
possessing houses in inhabited areas, called Abadi in some States, with legal ownership rights
(Property cards/Title deeds).
A. SMILE Scheme
B. DAY-NRLM Scheme
C. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin
D. AMRUT 2.0
E. SVAMITVA Scheme

Q.29) Which programme has been announced in the Union Budget 2023-24 with an outlay of Rs.
2,200 Crore to boost availability of quality planting material for high value horticulture crops?

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A. Atmanirbhar Horticulture Clean Plant Programme
B. National Agricultural Development Scheme
C. Green Revolution Horticulture Initiative
D. Sustainable Horticulture Enhancement Project
E. Integrated Crop Management Program

Q.30) Which scheme aims to provide financial support to street vendors to resume their
livelihoods and help them become self-reliant?
A. Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana
B. Pradhan Mantri Swarojgar Yojana
C. Stand-up India Scheme
D. PM SVANidhi
E. Sashakt Bharat Mission

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Answer Key
Section – Agriculture and Rural Development
Question Answer
Number
1 B 16 E
2 A 17 B
3 D 18 C
4 C 19 C
5 A 20 B
6 B 21 A
7 E 22 D
8 A 23 C
9 D 24 E
10 B 25 A
11 C 26 C
12 B 27 B
13 B 28 E
14 D 29 A
15 C 30 D

NABARD Grade A 2023 - Recollected Questions

Explanations
Section – Agriculture and Rural Development
Q.1) Explanation:
PACS full for is Primary Agriculture Credit Society.
Hence option B is the correct answer.

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Q.2) Explanation:
The center has announced a 47-member committee under former union minister Suresh Prabhu
to prepare the national cooperation policy to promote a cooperative-based economic
development model.
Hence option A is the correct answer.
Q.3) Explanation:
To make PACS self-reliant and in tune with ‘Atmnirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan’ the government of
India has, on 29th June 2022 approved the centrally sponsored project for the computerization
of PACS for the period of 5 years.
Hence option D is the correct answer.
Q.4) Explanation:
NABARD is the implementing agency for the centrally sponsored project for the computerization
of primary agriculture credit societies.
Hence option C is the correct answer.
Q.5) Explanation:
Plowing is the primary tillage operation, which is performed to cut, break, and invert the soil
partially or completely suitable for sowing seeds.
Hence option A is the correct answer.

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Q.6) Explanation:
A puddler is used for the preparation of paddy fields with standing water after initial ploughing. It
breaks up the clods and churns the soil. The main purpose of puddling is to reduce the percolation
of water, kill weeds by decomposing, and facilitate the transplanting of paddy seedlings by making
the soil softer. Puddler is used for churning the soil with standing water while preparing fields for
paddy transplantation. It is used after completing an initial plowing with an iron plow or country
plow.
Hence option B is the correct answer.

Q.7) Explanation:
1. Objectives of tillage in Rice are-
2. Seedbed preparation
3. Weed Control
4. Soil and Water Conservation
5. To remove the hard pan

Hence option E is the correct answer.

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Q.8) Explanation:
To make India a global hub for 'Shree Anna', the Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR),
Hyderabad has been declared as the Centre of Excellence for sharing best practices, research and
technologies at the national and international level.
Hence option A is the correct answer.
Covered in Agri CurrentTap – March 2023

Q.9) Explanation:
Under the MGNREGS, the Scheduled Tribe households living in forest areas are entitled for a total
of 150 days employment.
Hence option D is the correct answer.
Q.10) Explanation:
In the areas affected due to Drought/Natural Calamity, additional 50 days of wage employment are
provided over and above 100 days under the MGNREGS scheme.
Hence option B is the correct answer.
Q.11) Explanation:
Under the MGNREGS, if the demanded employment is not provided within 15 days, the applicant is
entitled to an unemployment allowance of at least One-fourth of the minimum wage for the first
30 days, and Half of the minimum wage thereafter for the remaining financial year.
Hence option C is the correct answer.
Q.12) Explanation:
Gram Rozgar Diwas are organised at every ward and Gram Panchayat level at least once a month
for creating awareness about the employment generation in the rural areas.
Hence option B is the correct answer.

Covered in SchemesTap – August 2023

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Q.13) Explanation:
National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission has been described in the given paragraph.
Hence option B is the correct answer.
Q.14) Explanation:
Name of preventive measures taken as a part of the ‘National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination
Mission’:
1. Strengthening of screening and testing facilities
2. Health promotion- Awareness generation & pre-marital genetic counselling
3. Strengthening of laboratory services for diagnosis
Hence option D is the correct answer.
Q.15) Explanation:
Salient features of the ‘National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission’:

• People from zero to 18 years of age are eligible to avail benefit.

• It shall incrementally include the entire population up to 40 years as a part of National
Health Mission (Statement 2 is incorrect).
• The mission aims to cover 7 crore people with screening, counselling for prevention and care
for people with SCD in three and half years

Hence option C is the correct answer.

Q.16) Explanation:
‘National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission’ targets the Sickle Cell Disease to be eliminated
by the year 2047.
Hence option E is the correct answer.
Covered in CurrentTap – July 2023

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Q.17) Explanation:
‘Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana’ has been described in given paragraph.
Hence option B is the correct answer.
Covered in SchemesTap – October 2023

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Q.18) Explanation:

Hence option C is the correct answer.

Q.19) Explanation:
Water salinity is the amount of salt contained in the water. It is also called the "salt concentration"
and may be expressed in grams of salt per liter of water. Saline soil has 12 g/l of sodium (Na).
Hence option C is the correct answer.
Q.20) Explanation:

Hence option B is the correct answer.

Q.21) Explanation:

Hence option A is the correct answer.

Q.22) Explanation:
Balangir is a breed of Sheep.
Hence option D is the correct answer.

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Q.23) Explanation:

Hence option C is the correct answer.

Q.24) Explanation:

Hence option E is the correct answer.

Q.25) Explanation:
The 1970s also witnessed the launch of Krishi Vigyan Kendra’s (KVKs) or Farm Science Centers, Lab-
to-Land programs, and Operational Research Programmes by ICAR. It was established on the
recommendation of the Mohan Singh Mehta Committee. KVKs were meant to bridge the gap
between technology developed at research institutions and its adoption at the field level.
Hence option A is the correct answer.
Q.26) Explanation:
As per the eligibility guidelines under PM Vishwakarma Scheme, family members of the government
employees are not eligible to avail benefits. So, the statement 3 is incorrect.
Covered in SchemesTap of August 2023
Hence option C is the correct answer.

Q.27) Explanation:

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As per the ‘National Overseas Scheme for SCs’, the annual income should not be more than Rs. 5
lakh, so the statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence option B is the correct answer.
Q.28) Explanation:
SVAMITVA Scheme (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas)
aims to aims to provide the ‘Record of Rights’ to village household owners possessing houses in
inhabited areas, called Abadi in some States, with legal ownership rights.
Hence option E is the correct answer.
Covered in August 2023

Q.29) Explanation:
‘Atmanirbhar Horticulture Clean Plant Program was announced in Union Budget 2023-24 with an
outlay of Rs. 2,200 crore to boost availability of disease-free, quality planting material for high value
horticultural crops.
Hence option A is the correct answer.
Covered in Union Budget 2022-23

Q.30) Explanation:
The PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme, which was launched in
June,2020 amid the pandemic, is a micro-credit facility that provides street vendors a collateral-free
loan of Rs 10,000 with low rates of interest for a period of one year.
Hence option D is the correct answer.
Covered in SchemesTap of August 2023

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 Descriptive Type Question
Q.1) What is Agroforestry? What are its features? Discuss the benefits and challenges associated
with it.

Answer

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Agroforestry is a collective name for land-use systems and technologies where woody
perennials (trees, shrubs, palms, bamboo, etc.) are grown on the same land-management

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units as crops and/or animals, in some form of spatial arrangement or temporal
sequence. India became the first country to adopt a National Agroforestry Policy (NAP) in
2014 and the Union Government announced its commitment to agroforestry in the 2022-23
Union Budget. Agroforestry currently covers 13.5 million hectares in India, though its
potential is much higher considering the benefits it provides.

Features–
1. The three main components of agroforestry are animals, crops, and trees, which can
be combined in numerous spatial (space) and temporal (time) arrangements for
different functions.
2. In agroforestry systems, there are both ecological and economic interactions between
the different components, thus enhancing the functionality and sustainability of the
farming system.
3. It is a dynamic, ecologically based natural resource management system that, through
the growing of trees around or among crops or pastureland, diversifies and sustains
production for increased social, economic, and environmental benefits for
farm/landholders at all levels.
4. Agroforestry is a 6-F program because, it provides- FOOD for people, FEED for
livestock, FIBRE, FUEL for homes, FURNITURE for timbers, and FUND raising.
5. Such farming practices are highly beneficial in the tropics, especially in subsistence
smallholdings and developing countries.

Advantages of Agroforestry:
1. Income security:
• Agroforestry is crucial to smallholder farmers and other rural people because
it can enhance their income through diversification of farm activities like livestock
management, organic manure marketing and various combinations of crop
plantation.
2. Economic potential:
• Already an estimated 65 % of the country’s timber and almost half of its fuel
wood come from trees grown on farms. Fruit, fodder, fuel, fiber, fertilizer, and
timber add to food and nutritional security, income generation, and work as
insurance against crop failure.
3. Ecology Friendly:
• Agroforestry helps in erosion control and water retention, nutrient recycling,
carbon storage, biodiversity preservation, and cleaner air and helps communities
withstand extreme weather events.
4. Supplements organic farming:
• Nitrogen fixing trees grown in the agroforestry systems are capable of fixing
about 50 -100 Kg Nitrogen/ha per year. Also, leaf litter after decomposition forms
humus, releases nutrients and improves various soil properties, it also reduces the
fertilizer needs. Due to lower requirement of chemical fertilizers agroforestry can
supplement organic farming.
5. Carbon sequestration:
• Agroforestry enhances tree cover outside forests, works as a stopgap for
natural forests sequestering carbon, keeps the pressure off natural forests.

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 The practice of agroforestry has many beneficial effects on the Indian agriculture and the
environment, however, there are some shortcomings, some of which are discussed here:
Shortcomings of Agroforestry:
1. Economy vs Ecology:
• Market oriented trees are preferred which may damage the ecosystem. For
example, species like Poplar & Eucalyptus are common trees used in agroforestry
which are water intensive, reduce water available for other species, toxic, invasive
and nutrient intensive.
2. Complexity in pest control:
• Agroforestry becomes complex to pest and weed management because of the
diversified cropping practices. Trees become habitat for many pests and diseases
which affect the crops. This certainly leads to decrease in the productivity per unit
area.
3. Financial Crunch:
• Inadequate investment in the sector is also a cause for concern. Unlike the
credit and insurance products available for the crop sector, the provisions for
growing trees-on-farms are minimal.
• Most of the farmers are small and marginal having small fields, agroforestry is
economically and spatially unviable.
4. Poor infrastructure:
• Weak marketing infrastructure, absence of price discovery mechanisms and
lack of post-harvest processing technologies further compound the situation.
5. Lack of extension services:
• Research results on agroforestry, available in the public and private domain
do not regularly reach the farmers due to lack of a dedicated agricultural
extension services mechanisms.
Way forward:
In farming terms, Agroforestry is a type of social forestry involving growing of trees
combined with crops and/or animals on the same unit of land. The practice of agroforestry
has proven to be a game changer, as it allows rural farmers and communities to realize
environment and socio-economic advancements.
However, explicit shortfalls pertaining to Agroforestry such as environmental degradation,
lack of financial access, and lack of extension and insurance services must be addressed with
priority. In this system, there are both ecological and economic interactions between the
different components. It is therefore vital that agroforestry practices strike a balance
between development and ecology, and the key point to remember is - “Agricultural
advancement and Environmental protection shall and should go hand in hand!".

Q.2) What is extension education and what are the methods employed for extension
education? Also, discuss its benefits.
Answer:

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Introduction
The word ‘Extension’ is derived from the Latin roots, ‘tension’ meaning stretching and 'ex'
meaning out. Extension education means that type of education that is stretched out into the
villages and fields beyond the limits of the schools and colleges.
Extension education is a science that deals with the creation, transmission, and application of
knowledge designed to bring about planned changes in the behavior complex of people; and
to help them to live better by learning the ways of improving their vocations, enterprises, and
institutions.
Methods of extension education:
Individual-contact methods
Extension methods under this category provide opportunities for face-to-face or person-to-
person contact between the rural people and the extension professionals. These methods are
very effective in teaching new skills and creating goodwill between farmers and the extension
professionals.

Group-contact methods
Under this category, the rural people or farmers are contacted in a group which usually consists
of 20 to 25 persons. These groups are usually formed around a common interest. These
methods also involve face-to-face contact with people and provide an opportunity for the
exchange of ideas, discussions on problems, and technical recommendations.

Mass or community-contact methods

An extension professional has to approach a large number of people to disseminate information
and help them to use it. This can be done through mass-contact methods conveniently. These
methods are more useful for making people aware of the new technologies, quickly.

Farm & and home visit

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Farm & and home visit constitutes direct or face-to-face contact by an extension professional
with the farmer or the members of his family. During these visits, information is exchanged or
discussed. The visits may be to get acquainted with the problems of the farmers. Such visits
provide an opportunity for two-way communication.

Method demonstration
It is used to show the technique of doing things or carrying out new practices e.g. clean milk
production, paneer making, ghee making, etc. This method is usually used for groups of people.

Result demonstration
The result demonstration is meant to prove the advantages of recommended practices and to
demonstrate their applicability to the local conditions. It is conducted by a farmer under the
direct supervision of an extension professional. It is designed to teach others, in addition to the
person who conducts the demonstration. It helps the farmers to learn by seeing & and doing.

Group discussion
All the farmers cannot be contacted by extension professionals individually because of their
large number. It is convenient and feasible to contact them in groups. This method is commonly
known as group discussion. It is used to encourage and stimulate people to learn more about
the problems that concern the community through discussion.

Exhibition
An exhibition is a systematic display of information, actual specimens, models, posters,
photographs, charts, etc. in a logical sequence. It is organized to arouse the interest of the
clientele in the things displayed. It is one of the best media for reaching many people, especially
illiterate & and semi-literate people.

Campaign
The campaign is used to focus the attention of the people on a particular problem, e.g. milk
adulteration, vaccination and prevention of animal diseases, tick control etc. Through this
method, a maximum number of farmers can be reached in the shortest possible time. It builds
up community confidence and involves the people emotionally in a program.

Field tour
Conducted tours for farmers are used to convince them and to provide them with an
opportunity to see the results of new practices and products, skills, etc., and to give them an
idea regarding the suitability & and application of these things in their area.

Print media
Newspapers, magazines, bulletins, leaflets, folders, pamphlets and wall newssheets are another
set of mass media for communicating information to a large number of literate people. They

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are used for communicating general & and specific information on a program of technology or
a practice.

Leaflet
A leaflet is a single sheet of paper used to present information on only one developmental idea
in a concise manner, using simple language.

Folder
A folder is a single piece of paper folded once or twice, and, when opened, the material is
presented in sequence.

Pamphlet
A pamphlet is an unbound single sheet of paper that is printed on both sides, printed in colours
with action photographs, giving full information about a topic in greater length than in folders
or leaflets.

Bulletin
A bulletin is a publication of around 20 pages, with the primary objective of giving complete
information which the intended readers can apply to their own situation.

Booklet
When the extension material exceeds 20 pages and is less than 50 pages, it is called booklet.

Radio
It is one of the most powerful media of communication. It is a mass medium of communication
and can reach many people at any given time involving the least expense. Extension
professionals use the radio for communicating information on new methods & and techniques,
giving timely information about the control of animal diseases such as foot & and mouth disease
(FMD), animal pests, weather, market news, etc. For this purpose, talks, group discussions, folk
songs, dialogues & dramas are usually broadcast.

Television
It combines both audio & and visual impact and is very suitable for the dissemination of
agriculture & and dairy information. It is more useful in teaching to do a specific job.

Benefits of Extension education

1. Extension uses democratic methods in educating the farmers.

2. Extension Helps in adoption of innovations.

3. Extension helps in studying and solving the rural problems.

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 4. Extension increases farm yields and improve the standard of living of farmers

5. Extension makes good communities better and progressive.

6. Extension contributes to national development programmes

Q.3) Briefly explain the five problems associated with Agricultural Marketing. (10 marks)
Answer:

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Since the green revolution, India has made significant progress in food security. Despite this,
the farmers’ income remains subdued owing to the infrastructure deficit in agricultural
supply chains. This combined with the nature of agricultural marketing laws in India makes
the marketing of agriculture products more cumbersome than their production.
Indian farmers today can sell their produce at the local market (haat), APMC (agricultural
produce market committee), to the government at the minimum support price (MSP).
However, all three selling options are marred by several constraints and some of them are
discussed below:
1. Distressed Selling at Local Market:
• The supply chain in agriculture is affected by several issues owing to the
infrastructure deficit. The lack of cold storage, metalled or pucca road, forces a
farmer to go for distress sale.
• Also, the lack of proper warehousing facilities leads to uncontrolled cycles of
excesses and shortages, which in turn leads to price volatility.
2. Limited Selling to Government at MSP:
• The government announces MSP for 23 crops but its purchases are limited to
only 3 crops. (Wheat, Rice & Sugar). Also, government procurement facilities are

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 not available throughout the country. Due to this, the farmers engaged in dairy
products, vegetables, fruits, etc., have no security of selling their produce at
competitive prices.
3. Exploitation at Selling at APMC:
• In most APMCs, buyers have to route all purchases through licensed
aadhatiyas (middlemen). These middlemen charge a commission for their
“services” — many times, both from the buyer and seller. The aadhatiya is also
often a moneylender, supplying seeds, fertilizers and pesticides to farmers on
credit. They, then, are forced to sell through him and settle their dues in
perpetuity.
• Therefore, the question is what should be done to ensure smooth marketing
of agriculture produce.
So, what can be done in this regard?
1. Promote FPOs in Marketing: Farmer producer organizations/companies
should be encouraged to take up direct marketing of their members’ produce to large
buyers and processors. It will result in more competition and better prices at APMCs.
2. Integrating Agri-Markets: The government has taken a step in the right
direction by creating an electronic national agriculture market (eNAM) to connect all
regulated wholesale produce markets through a pan-India trading portal. Also, the
Government’s announcement of GRAMs (Gramin rural agricultural market) will create
a mini-market and bridge the gap between farmer and market. These all initiatives
need to be implemented in its letter and spirit.
3. Legal Reforms: The government has passed three laws to remove
discrepancies in the agricultural markets. However, in order to implement these laws
effectively, the government needs to adopt a holistic approach by taking farmer
unions into confidence.

Addressing the challenges of the agricultural market is complex, yet doable, as the ambitious
target of doubling farmers' income by 2022 cannot be achieved without developing a thriving
market of agriculture. Hence, it is high time that agricultural marketing must be focused at
par agricultural production.

Q.4) The value of India’s score in RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index has increased in 2023. In this
context, discuss the challenges to financial inclusion in India. (10 marks)
Answer:

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Financial inclusion, the access to and usage of a wide range of financial services by all
segments of society, is essential for inclusive economic growth and poverty alleviation. While
India has made substantial progress in enhancing financial access, numerous challenges
persist that hinder the achievement of comprehensive financial inclusion. These challenges
stem from a combination of structural, technological, and socio-economic factors, and
addressing them is crucial to realizing the potential benefits of financial inclusion. Some of
the prominent challenges to financial inclusion in India include:
• Non-Universal Access to Bank Accounts
Bank accounts are a gateway to all financial services. But, according to a report by the
World Bank, about 130 – 230 Million adults in India and China do not have formal
banking because of their size.

• Digital Divide
It is the most common barriers to the adoption of digital technology which may
promote financial inclusion. According to a report, India has the world’s second-
largest pool of internet users, about 600 million, comprising more than 12% of all
users globally. Yet half its population lacks internet access.

• Inadequate Infrastructure
Limited physical infrastructure, limited transport facility, inadequately trained staff
etc., in parts of rural hinterland and far-flung areas of the Himalayan and North East
regions create a barrier to the customer while accessing financial services.

• Socio-Cultural Barriers:
Prevalence of certain value system and beliefs in some sections of the population
results in lack of favourable attitude towards formal financial services. There are still
certain pockets wherein women do not have the freedom and choice to access
financial services because of cultural barriers.

• Payment Infrastructure:
Currently, majority of the retail payment products viz., CTS, AEPS, NACH, UPI, IMPS
etc. are operated by National Payments Council of India (NPCI), a Section (8) Company
promoted by a group of publics, private and foreign banks. There is a need to have
more market players to promote innovation & competition and to minimize
concentration risk in the retail payment system from a financial stability perspective.

• Informal and Cash-Dominated Economy

India is a heavily dominated cash economy; this poses a challenge for digital payment
adoption. According to the International Labour Organization (ILO), about 81% of the
employed persons in India work in the informal sector.

While India has made commendable progress in enhancing financial inclusion, these
challenges underscore the need for a multi-faceted approach involving policy interventions,
technology adoption, financial education, and community engagement. Addressing these
challenges can create a more inclusive financial ecosystem, empowering all segments of
society to participate in formal financial systems, build assets, manage risks, and unlock

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 opportunities for socio-economic advancement. Collaborative efforts from government
agencies, financial institutions, technology providers, and civil society organizations are
essential to overcoming these barriers and achieving holistic financial inclusion in India.

Q.5) The sources of institutional credit have increased in our country. However, many farmers
still depend on non-institutional sources of credit. Discuss the reasons involved. (15 marks)
Answer:

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Credit is one of the critical inputs for agricultural development. It capitalizes farmers to
undertake new investments and/or adopt new technologies. The importance of agricultural
credit is further reinforced by the unique role of Indian agriculture in the macroeconomic
framework along with its significant role in poverty alleviation.
Realizing the importance of agricultural credit in fostering agricultural growth and development,
institutional framework for agricultural credit is being emphasized since the beginning of the
planned development era in India.

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In India, a vast network of financial institutions exists. It includes rural cooperatives, Regional
Rural Banks (RRBs), Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), NABARD, Non-Banking Financial
Institutions (NBFIs), Microfinance Institutions (MFIs), Small Finance Banks (SFBs), and other
government agencies.
BODY PARAGRAPH-1:
1. Accessibility: It is observed that still 30.3% of agri-households still borrowed money
from non-institutional sources like money lenders, relatives and input suppliers etc.
due to inaccessibility to formal crediting system.
2. Unfriendly procedures in Bank: Banks offer concessional interest rates for the rural
credit. However, small farmers are unable to access them because of borrower-
unfriendly products and procedures, inflexibility and delay, and high transaction
costs, both legitimate and illegal.
3. Lesser attention to poor farmers: Despite impressive growth in direct credit to
farmers from the scheduled commercial banks between 1991-92 and 2003-04,
contrary to expectation, credit disbursement to small and marginal farmers has not
been encouraging. Though the number of accounts increased for small farmers yet
the credit flow favoured the richer farmers. Agriculture credit has risen by 500% in
the last decade, but only 20% of the 12.56 crore small and marginal farmers have
access to it. Just about 15% of the subsidized unpaid loan comes from institutional
sources for households with the smallest landholdings (up to two hectares) (bank, co-
operative society). Households with more than two hectares of land have a 79% share.
4. Region-wise Credit Flow: The proportions of bank deposits and credit shares have
moved in favour of the South, West and North regions. While the share of loans in
the total disbursement of credit for agriculture and allied activities were the
maximum for the South region, it was the minimum for North-east region.
5. Lack of Awareness of credit policies and schemes: Illiteracy of poor farmers is yet
another challenge. They are not aware of credit policies and procedures.
6. Difficulty in collateral: The ownership of land is complicated to verify as land accounts
are not updated. Therefore, it is difficult to keep the collateral against the borrowing.
BODY PARAGRAPH-2:
Despite the challenges, various steps can be taken in this regard.
1. Revamping the Cooperative Credit Structure: The Cooperative Credit Structure
should be strengthened to make use of its wider reach. These have to be recapitalised
so as to provide funds for improving their financial positions. There is a need of
capacity building, human resource development, institutional restructuring to ensure
democratic functioning, and improving the regulatory regime to empower the RBI to
enforce prudent financial management.

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 2. Strengthening of institutional arrangement: Institutional sources consist of the
government, co-operative societies, commercial bank including the regional bank,
lead bank etc. should be well within the reach of poor farmers.
3. Microfinance Institution: The experience of micro-finance scheme in India suggests
that:
i. It is a cost-effective way of financing the rural poor
ii. The repayment rate of SHGs is more than 95 percent due to peer pressure
iii. It reduces transaction costs of borrowers as well as lenders
iv. It inculcates the habit of thrift among members and provide timely credit
v. The banks should take the help of NGOs and local formal institutions in their lending
programmes to reduce the transaction costs and improve recoveries.
4. Awareness: Farmers should be made aware about the credit policies of the government
and procedures. Village level awareness and training camps can be organized.
5. Collateral free loans: For poor farmers the limit of collateral free loans can be
increased. The size of landholdings and the level of income of agricultural households have a
significant impact on the variables of financial inclusion, such as savings, investment, and
even credit. In order to double farmers' incomes and rescue those in debt, India must change
this reality, particularly in terms of credit. The reliance on income and landholdings for credit
defeats the purpose of financial inclusion.
6. Encouraging Farmer Producer Organisations(FPO): Streamlining the agri-credit system to
allow for higher crop loans to farmer producer organizations, or FPOs, or small farmer FPOs,
against commodity stocks can be a win-win model for agriculture development.

India's agricultural crisis is worsening. It has recently thrown the economy into a downward
spiral. While it is true that the economy requires land and labour reforms, it also requires
creativity in addressing long-standing issues such as financial exclusion. Ensuring food
security, practising climate-smart agriculture, and achieving the broader goal of sustainable
agriculture have a bearing on the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals agenda
of 2030. Each of these objectives in turn depends crucially upon access to agricultural credit.
This emphasizes the importance of solving outstanding issues in the context of agricultural
credit disbursement in India.
For meeting the credit needs of the poor, the programmes like linking of self-help groups
(SHGs) with lending agencies are to be further strengthened. The institutional credit system
is critical for agricultural development and its role has further increased in the liberalized
economic environment.

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Q.6) Write a note on India’s demographic dividend. What are the challenges involved in
utilizing it? (15 marks)
Answer:
India’s demographic boon holds the promise of propelling India to new heights of prosperity
and progress. Yet, as the unemployment figures rise, it becomes evident that this promise
remains unfulfilled, leaving a pressing need to dissect the underlying challenges and
opportunities that define India's journey toward harnessing the full potential of its
demographic advantage.
The growing unemployment rate in India highlights the underutilization of its demographic
dividend potential. Several factors contribute to this situation, including:

Challenges
1) Skills Mismatch and Low Employability: The existing disparity between the skill sets
possessed by job seekers and the dynamic demands of the job market has culminated in a
concerning lack of employability among recent graduates and postgraduates.
2) Jobless Growth and Sectoral Imbalance: India's evolution into a service-centric economy
has inadvertently marginalized the manufacturing sector, a historical wellspring of
employment prospects. This has given rise to a disconcerting pattern of jobless growth,
aggravating the preexisting imbalance in sectoral advancement.
3) Low Human Development Index (HDI): The modest HDI ranking of India underscores
pressing obstacles within domains of education, healthcare, and overall welfare, exerting a
discernible influence on the efficacy and latent potential of the workforce.
4) Social Capital and Health Issues: Inadequate societal support, compounded by pervasive
issues such as hunger, malnutrition, anemia, and substandard sanitation, collectively
undermine the efficiency of India's demographic dividend.
India's failure to fully utilize its demographic dividend can be attributed to several reasons:

Causes
1) Overpopulation and Strain on Resources: Overpopulation can lead to scarcity, unequal
distribution of resources, environmental degradation, and overall strain on the economy and
society.
2) Unemployment and Underemployment: A significant increase in the working-age
population without corresponding job opportunities can result in high levels of
unemployment and underemployment.
To effectively utilize India's demographic dividend and address the challenges of increasing
unemployment, several key actions need to be taken:

Way Forward
1) Skill Development and Education: Enhancing the quality and relevance of education and
skill development programs to align with industry needs, promoting vocational training and
lifelong learning.
2) Job Creation and Entrepreneurship: Creating a supportive environment for job creation
and entrepreneurship by simplifying regulations, providing financial and infrastructural

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support to startups and small businesses, and fostering innovation and industry
diversification.
In the heart of India's promise for progress, the challenge of rising unemployment stands as
a stark contradiction. Through collective determination, India can transform its demographic
dividend from a promise into a reality and realize the full potential of its dividend is not just
an economic endeavour but a societal responsibility and a testament to India's steadfast
commitment to progress.

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Objective Type Question Paper
Analysis:
TABLE 1
STATIC OR DIFFICULTY
QUESTION # MARKS ESI OR ARD TOPIC
CURRENT LEVEL
2 ARD ARD CURRENT CURRENT
1 EASY
AFFAIRS
2 ARD ARD CURRENT CURRENT
2 MODERATE
AFFAIRS
2 ARD ARD CURRENT CURRENT
3 MODERATE
AFFAIRS
2 ARD ARD CURRENT CURRENT
4 MODERATE
AFFAIRS
5 2 ARD AGRONOMY STATIC TOUGH
6 2 ARD FARM ENGINEERING STATIC MODERATE
7 2 ARD AGRONOMY STATIC EASY
8 2 ARD UNION BUDGET CURRENT EASY
2 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT
9 MODERATE
SCHEMES
2 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT
10 EASY
SCHEMES
2 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT
11 MODERATE
SCHEMES
2 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT
12 TOUGH
SCHEMES
2 ESI SOCIAL SECTORS - CURRENT
13 EASY
HEALTH
2 ESI SOCIAL SECTORS - CURRENT
14 MODERATE
HEALTH
2 ESI SOCIAL SECTORS - CURRENT
15 EASY
HEALTH
2 ESI SOCIAL SECTORS - CURRENT
16 MODERATE
HEALTH
2 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT
17 EASY
SCHEMES
2 ARD SOIL AND WATER STATIC
18 MODERATE
CONSERVATION
2 ARD SOIL AND WATER STATIC
19 TOUGH
CONSERVATION
2 ARD SOIL AND WATER STATIC MODERATE
20
CONSERVATION
1 ARD SOIL AND WATER STATIC EASY
21
CONSERVATION

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 1 ARD ANIMAL STATIC MODERATE
22 HUSBANDRY AND
POULTRY
1 ARD CROPPING PATTERN STATIC EASY
23 AND CROPPING
SYSTEM
24 1 ARD FISHERIES STATIC EASY
1 ARD AGRICULTURE STATIC EASY
25
EXTENSION
1 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT MODERATE
26
SCHEMES
1 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT MODERATE
27
SCHEMES
1 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT EASY
28
SCHEMES
29 1 ESI UNION BUDGET CURRENT MODERATE
1 ESI GOVERNMENT CURRENT
30 EASY
SCHEMES

Analysis:
• A lot of questions have been asked from ARD static in the one marker
question and in the two marker questions the question has been asked from
in depth of the topics mentioned in the syllabus. Students should be
prepared to handle such tricky questions going ahead in the future
examination.

TABLE 2
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL MARKS
SUBJECT
QUESTIONS ASKED ALLOCATED
ESI 14 23

ARD 16 27

Analysis:
• There was a balance between the questions asked in ESI and ARD. This is
likely to continue going ahead as well. Some Schemes asked in the question
could be related to both ESI and ARD so students are advised to give due
importance to both ESI and ARD in their overall preparation.

TABLE 3

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 TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL NUMBER OF
DIFFICULTY LEVEL
QUESTIONS ASKED MARKS
EASY 13 20

MODERATE 14 24
TOUGH 3 6

Analysis:
• Easy questions were interspersed between moderate and tough questions.
More than two-thirds of the questions required very good preparation /
knowledge / understanding. Given the competitive nature of the
examination, students are advised that they should be prepared to face such
kind of paper going ahead.
• Apart from a strong preparation, emotional quotient is also important. One
must not be unnerved by coming across tough questions. The pursuit of easy
and moderate question should guide us firmly in the examination. If we are
thrown completely off track by the presence of a few tough questions, we
will not be able to compete well in the examination.
• Solving a good number of Quizzes and Mocks on the EduTap platform will
go a long way in helping students be better prepared for this kind of an
examination.

TABLE 4
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL NUMBER OF
TYPE OF QUESTION
QUESTIONS ASKED MARKS
CURRENT 19 33
STATIC 11 17

Analysis:
• Trend of current affairs being more important than static part of the syllabus
has further accentuated. It is important to draw the right lessons from this
development.
• In terms of section ARD is dominated by Static whereas the ESI is dominated
by current affairs.
• Students are advised to give due importance to ARD and ESI Curent Affairs
(excluding schemes and Reports) as this year we have seen a paragraph

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 based question asked from both ARD and ESI Current Affairs and we can
expect the trend to continue in the upcoming examination.

TABLE 5
Months before the TOTAL NUMBER OF
No. OF QUESTION
examination MARKS
November 1 1
October 5 9
September 1 2
August 10 19
July 0 0
June 0 0
Before June 2 2

• Current Affairs covering a period of 6 months before the examination should

be prepared very thoroughly from EduTap’s current affairs magazine. Note
that current affairs comprise of three important pillars: General current
affairs, Government Schemes and Programmes and Reports.

TABLE 6
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL NUMBER
TYPE OF QUESTION
QUESTIONS ASKED OF MARKS
QUESTIONS BASED ON OLD SCHEMES (LAUNCHED
8 13
MORE THAN AN YEAR BEFORE THE EXAM)
QUESTIONS BASED ON NEW SCHEMES (LAUNCHED
01 01
WITHIN THE ONE YEAR PERIOD BEFORE THE EXAM)

QUESTIONS BASED ON OLD AND NEW SCHEMES 9 14

Analysis:
• EduTap’s Schemes pdf has served students well given that 10 marks out of
14 were covered in the course.
• As the above table shows, students are advised to cover both old and new
schemes well.

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