LALAN’S ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

NEET 2022-23
N1 PART TEST-3
ENGLISH

PHYSICS , CHEMISTRY, BOTANY & ZOOLOGY

Time : 3 hrs. 20 Min. Max. Marks:- 720 Date : .................

INSTRUCTIONS :
1. The test is of 3 hrs. 20 Min. duratiobn and the TEST BOOKLET contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options with a

single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section A & Section B. You have to attempt all 35 questions

from Section A & only 10 questions from Section B out of 15. (Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each

subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper. In the event of a cadidate attempting more than ten

questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated)

2. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.

3. There are four parts in the question paper A, B, C & D consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 50

questions in each part of equal weightage.

Marking Scheme for MCQs

Correct Answer Four mark (+4), Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (–1), Unanswered No mark (0)

4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as

wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals): __________________________________________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures____________________________________________________________________________________

in words___________________________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals):__________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature:___________________________________Invigilator’s Signature_________________________________

PART TEST-3_NEET (1) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

PHYSICS
SECTION A
1. Two charges placed in air at a distance 1m exert force F
‘F’ on each other. If these charges placed inside mica (1) F (2)
4
at same distance, then the new net force between
charges is F
(2) 4F (4)
(1) >F (2) < F 16

(3) = F (4) Depends on area of slab 6. The new dipole moment of the system is of the
magnitude
2. A ring of radius R is having uniform line charge density
'  ' . The electric field at the center of ring is


(1) Zero (2) 2 R
0

 
(2) 2 R2 (4) 4  R
0 0

3. Four charge of 1C, 1C, 1C and 1C are (1) q × 2a (2) 2q × 2a
placed at the vertices of a square of side 2cm, in (3) q × a (4) 2 × (2q × 2a)
sequence. Net force experienced by 0.1C charge 7. An infinite number of charges, each of charge 1C
at the centre of square are placed on the X-axis with co-ordinates
(1) 9N (2) 18N x  1,2,4,8......... If a charge 1C is kept at the origin,
(3) 36 N (4) Zero then net force acting on 1C charge

4. Two identical charges +’q’ each are placed at a (1) 900 N (2) 1200 N
distance ‘2d’. A test charge free to move on (3) 2400N (4) 36000 N
perpendicular bisector of the line joining the two
charge. The test charge will feel maximum force when 8. A pendulum oscillates with the time period T. The
it is at distance; from mid point of the joining of charge string, used in the pendulum, is stretchable. The point
to which it is attached is given positive charge and
(1) d (2) 2d the bob is also given positive charge q. The time
period of the pendulum will
d d
(3) (4)
2 2
5. Two short dipoles are placed at a certain distance
exert a force ‘F’ on each other. If distance bewteen
them is doubled then the force will become

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PART TEST-3_NEET (2) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
(1) Increase 11.
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain same
(4) May increase or decrease
9.
9.

12.

10.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (3) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
13. 16.

17.

14.

15.
18.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (4) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

19. 22.

20.

23.

24.

21.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (5) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

25.
27.

28.

26.

29.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (6) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

30. 33.

31. 34.

32.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (7) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

35. 38.

SECTION B
36.

39.

37.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (8) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

40.

43.

41.

44.

45.

42.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (9) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

46. 49.

50.
47.

48.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (10) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

SECTION A CHEMISTRY
51. Hyperconjugation occurs in
53. The sum of coordination number and oxidation
number of the metal M in the complex
(1) [M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl (where en is ethylenediamine) is
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 6
54. Among the following complexes the one which
shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE)
(2)
is
(1) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (2)[Fe(H2O)6]3+
(3) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+
55. In which of the following coordination entities the

(3) magnitude of o(CFSE in octahedral field) will be

maximum (at.no. Co = 27)?
(1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [Co(H2O)6]3+
(4) all of these
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
52. Compound 56. Which of the following does not have a metal car-
bon bond?
(1) Al(OC2H5)3 (2) C2H5MgBr
(3) K[Pt(C2H4)Cl3] (4) Ni(CO)4

57.

Among these groups, which of the following

orders is correct for the magnitude of their –I
effect?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(1) 35 Kcal / mol (2) 30 Kcal / mol (3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I

(3) 25 Kcal/mol (4) 20 Kcal/mol

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PART TEST-3_NEET (11) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

58.
61.

Among these groups, which of the following

orders is correct for the magnitude of their –I
effect?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I
59. Which of the following groups has –M effect?
Which of the following orders is correct about the
(1) (2) magnitude of –M effect among these groups?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(3) I > III > II (4) II > III > I

(3) (4) all of these

62.

60 .

In which of these cases, +M effect of –OCH3 group

is operating most effectively?
(1) I (2) II
Which of the following orders is correct for the
(3) III (4) none of these
magnitude of +M effect among these groups?
63. How much should the pressure be increased in
(1) I > II > III
order to decrease the volume of a gas by 5% at a
(2) I > III > II
constant temperature?
(3) III > I > II (1) 5% (2) 5.26%
(4) II > I > III (3) 10% (4) 4.26%

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PART TEST-3_NEET (12) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
64. I, II, III are three isotherms respectively at T 1, T2, 69. van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ has the dimensions of
T3. Temperature will be in order (1) mol L–1 (2) atm L2 mol–2
(3) litre mol–1 (4) atm L mol–2
70. For a real gas, Z shows
(1) Z < 1, gas is less compressible
(2) Z > 1, gas is more compressible
(3) Z =  , for an ideal gas
(4) PV  nRT, for real gas
71. At what temperature the RMS velocity of oxygen
(1) T1 = T2 = T3 (2) T1 < T2 < T3
will be same as that of methane at 27°C?
(3) T1 > T2 > T3 (4) T1 > T2 = T3 (1) 54°C (2) 327 K
65. To what temperature must a neon gas sample be (3) 600 K (4) 573 K
heated to double its pressure if the initial volume 72. The time taken for a certain volume of gas to diffuse
through a small hole was 2 min. Under similar
of gas at 75°C is decreased by 15.0%?
conditions an equal volume of oxygen took 5.65
(1) 592 K (2) 492 K minute to pass. The molecular mass of the gas is
(3) 542 K (4) 642 K (1) 32.0 (2) 11.33
(3) 4.0 (4) 8.0
66. “One gram molecules of a gas at N.T.P. occupies 73. T c and P c of a gas are 400 K and 41 atms.
22.4 litres”. This fact was derived from respectively. The Vc is
(1) Dalton’s theory 400R 150R
(1) (2)
(2) Avogadro’s hypothesis 41 41

(3) Berzelius hypothesis 41R 300 R

(3) (4)
400 41
(4) Law of gaseous volume
74. A graph of Maxwell distribution of molecular
67. Which mixture of gases at room temperature does
velocities is plotted below.
not obey Dalton’s law of partial pressure?
(1) NO2 and O2 (2) NH3 and HCl
(3) CO and CO2 (4) SO2 and SO3
68. 100 mL of O2 gas diffuses in 10 s. 100 mL of gas
‘X’ diffuses in ‘t’ sec. Gas ‘X’ and time ‘t’ can be
(1) H2, 2.5 s (2) SO2, 16 s
(3) CO, 10 s (4) He, 4 s Correct order of temperature
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T1 < T2 < T3
(3) T1 = T2 > T3 (4) T1 = T2 = T3
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PART TEST-3_NEET (13) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
75. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability (2) 7.16 × 10–20 J
of the gas?
(3) 61.7 × 10–21 J
(1) H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2
(4) 6.17 × 10–21 J
(2) H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2 80. van der Waal’s real gas acts as an ideal gas, at
(3) CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2 which conditions?
(4) CO2 < CH4 < H2 < N2 (1) High temperature, low pressure
76. Three lines at three different values of constant (2) Low temperature, high pressure
pressure are given, which of the following relation (3) High temperature, high pressure
is correct? (4) Low temperature, low pressure
81. Primary and secondary valencies of Cu in
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4 is
(1) 4, 4 (2) 2, 4
(3) 4, 1 (4) 4, 2
82. Aq. solution of KCl MgCl2 6H2O will give test of
 

(1) K+ and Mg2+ only (2) K+ and Cl– only

(3) K+, Mg2+ and Cl– (4) Mg2+ and H2O only
(1) P1 = P2 = P3 (2) P1 > P2 > P3
83. Aqueous solution of CoCl3  6NH3 upon addition


(3) P3 > P2 > P1 (4) Can’t predicted

with AgNO3 produces 3 moles white precipitate.
77. A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15ºC Primary and secondary valency of metal in this
and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the complex is
surface where the temperature is 25C and the (1) 3, 6 (2) 2, 6
pressure is 1.0 bar what will happen to the volume
(3) 3, 3 (4) 6, 4
of the bubble ?
(1) Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70 84. Structural formula of
(2) Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5 tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) chloride
(3) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6 (1) [(H2O)4Cl2Cr]Cl2 (2) [Cl2(H2O)4Cr]Cl3
(4) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1
(3) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl (4) [Cr(H2O)4Cl3]
78. 50 ml of hydrogen diffuses out through a small
hole of a vessel, in 20 minutes. The time taken by 85. The complex [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Br and [Cr(H2O)5Br]Cl
40 ml of oxygen to diffuse out is shows
(1) 32 minutes (2) 64 minutes (1) Linkage isomerism
(3) 8 minutes (4) 12 minutes (2) Ionisation isomerism
79. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas, per
(3) Hydrate isomerism
molecule in S.I. units, at 25°C will be
(4) Co-ordination isomerism
(1) 6.17 × 10–20 J

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PART TEST-3_NEET (14) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
SECTION B Which of the foolowing orders is correct for heat
86. Which of the following is/are inner orbital complex?
of combustion of these alkynes?
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
(3) [Mn(CN)6]3– (4) All of these (1) I > II > III
87. Which one of the following is paramagnetic in (2) III > II > I
nature?
(3) II > I > III
(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(4) III > I > II
(3) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) [FeF6]4–
91. Correct order of power ligands in spectrochemical
series
88. The spin magnetic moment of iron in K3[Fe(CN)6]
(1) I– < Br– < Cl– (2) C2 O 24   H2 O  NCS 
(1) 3BM (2) 5 BM
(3) NH3 < CN– < CO (4) All of these
(3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM
92. Which of the following complex is most stable?

(1) [M(NH3)6]2+ (2) [M(NH3)6]3+

89. (3) [Men2(NH3)2]3+ (4) [M(en)3]3+

93. The geometry of [Ni(CO) 4 ] and [PdCl 4 ] 2–

respectively are

(1) Both are tetrahedral

(2) Both are square planar

(3) Square planar and tetrahedral

Among these dienes, which of the following
(4) Tetrahedral and square planar
orders of stability is correct?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I 94. Write the increasing order of the value is CFSES
(0) for the following species
(3) II > III > I (4) II > I > III
I. [Co(NH3)6]3+
90.
II. [Rh(NH3)6]3+

III. [Ir(NH3)6]3+

(1) III < II < I (2) I < II < III

(3) II < I < III (4) I < III < II

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PART TEST-3_NEET (15) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

95. Which of the following is correct statement? 98. Which of the following will have greatest molar con-
(1) [Ti(H2O)6] is coloured complex
3+
ductance at infinite dilution?
(2) [Si(H2O)6]4+ is colourless complex
(1) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 (2) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2
(3) d - d transition is not possible in [Si(H2O)6]4+
complex (3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] (4) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
(4) All of these
99. The coordination number and magnetic moment
of the complex [Cr(C2O4)2(NH3)2]– respectively is

(1) 6, 3.87 BM (2) 4, 3.87 BM

96.
(3) 6, 3.46 BM (4) 4, 1.73 BM

100. The value of ‘spin only’ magnetic moment, follows

the correct order?

(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– > [CoCl4]2– > [MnCl4]2–

(2) [MnCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)6]4– > [CoCl4]2–

(3) [Fe(CN)6]4– > [MnCl4]2– > [CoCl4]2–

(4) [MnCl4]2– > [CoCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)6]4–

In which of these compounds, both C = C bonds
are not of same length?
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) I and III

97.

Among these groups, which of the following

orders is correct for the magnitude of their +I
effect?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(3) I > III > II (4) II > I > III

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PART TEST-3_NEET (16) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

BOTANY
SECTION A
101. Multiple root cap is found in
109. Analogous organs are
(1) Ficus (2) Screwpine (1) Cucurbita tendril and sweet pea tendril
(3) Eicchornia (4) Sugarcane (2) Phylloclade and cladode
102. In Nepenthes, the pitcher is a modified (3) Pitcher and bladder
(1) Whole leaf (2) Leaf apex (4) Corm and rhizome
(3) Lamina (4) Petiole
110. Stem modified into flattened leaf like structure to
103. In Opuntia the spines are modification of perform photosynthesis
(1) Leaf (2) Branch (1) phyllode (2) phylloclade
(3) Epidermis (4) Flower (3) cladode (4) pitcher
104. Identify in order, the plants showing alternate,
111. Find the incorrect pair
opposite and whorled phyllotaxy
(1) China rose, Calotropis, Nerium (1) Compound corymb – Cauliflower
(2) China rose, Nerium, Calotropis (2) Raceme – Mustard
(3) Nerium, China rose, Calotropis (3) Compound umbel – Mulberry
(4) Nerium, Calotropis, China rose (4) Drupe – Coconut
105 . Pneumatophores are characteristics of family 112. The arrangement of the ovules on the placentae
(1) Loranthaceae (2) Hydrocharitaceae developed from the central axis of the ovary is
(3) Rhizophoraceae (4) Orchidaceae called _______ and found in _______
106. Stilt roots which grow obliquely from basal nodes of (1) Parietal placentation and Citrus
culm stem and acting as brace are found in (2) Axile placentation and Citrus
(1) Sorghum (2) Maize (3) Basal placentation and sunflower
(3) Sugarcane (4) All of these (4) Marginal placentation and Pea
107. Eye of potato is 113. Vexillary aestivation is found in
(1) Apical bud (1) Pea (2) Sunflower
(2) Condensed axillary bud (3) china rose (4) none of these
114. Homologous chromosomes separate, while sister
(3) Accessory bud (4) Adventitious bud
chromatids remain associated at their centromeres
108. Homologous organs are during
(1) Phyllode and phylloclade (1) Anaphase-I
(2) Anaphase-II
(2) Rhizome and Thorn
(3) Anaphase of mitosis
(3) Sucker and pitcher
(4) Telophase-I
(4) Corm and haustoria
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PART TEST-3_NEET (17) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

115. If the female gamete of a plant species has four a. Condensation of chromatin
chromosomes, then its parental cell will have b. Splitting of centromere
(1) 16 chromosomes during anaphase-I c. Chromosome align at the equator
(2) 4 bivalents aligned on the equatorial plate during (1) a  b  c
metaphase-I
(2) b  c  a
(3) 16 tetrads during pachytene
(3) a  c  b
(4) 16 chromosomes during G2 stage
(4) b  a  c
116. A plant species has 10 pg DNA and 8
chromosomes in its pollen grain, then what was the 120. The shorter and lomger arms of chromosomes are
amount of DNA and number of chromosomes in its referred to as
microspore mother cell at G1 phase (1) p and s respectively
(1) 40 pg; 16 chromosomes (2) q and p respectively
(2) 20 pg; 16 chromosomes (3) p and q respectively
(3) 10 pg; 8 chromosomes (4) p and r respectively
(4) 20 pg; 32 chromosomes 121. Splitting of centromere is associated with

117. Select the events which occur twice during meiosis. (1) Anaphase I

a. Nuclear division (2) Anaphase

b. Division of cytoplasm (3) Anaphase II

c. DNA replication (4) Both 2 and 3

d. Bivalent formation 122. Pneumatophores and velamen tissue are

characteristics of
e. Equational division
(1) Orchids and Rhizophora respectively
(1) a and b (2) a, b and e (2) Rhizophora and Orchids respectively
(3) a, b and d (4) c, d and e (3) Cuscuta and Orchids respectively
118. Which of the following chemicals act as mitogens? (4) Cuscuta and Avicennia respectively

(1) Ribonuclease 123. Which phase of meiosis is prolonged in oocytes of

(2) Insulin and gibberellin certain vertebrates

(3) Azide and cyanide (1) Diplotene

(4) Chalones
(2) Pachytene
119. Select the correct sequence of events which takes
(3) Zygotene
place during meiosis II
(4) Diakinesis
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PART TEST-3_NEET (18) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

124. Crossing over is observed in (4) Tuberous root of 4 ‘o’ clock plant
(1) Leptotene 128. Which is the major check point in Cell division
(2) Zygotene (1) G1 to S transition
(3) Pachytene (2) S to G2 transition
(4) Diplotene (3) G2 to M transition
125. Find the incorrect match (4) M to G1 transition
129. Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two cham-
(1) Dahlia- Fasciculated root
bered due to the formation of a false septum in:
(2) Cladode- Ruscus (1) Dianthus and Primrose
(3) Stem tendril - Pisum satium (2) Mustard and Argemone
(4) Mirabilis jalapa- tuberous tap root (3) Sunflower and Marigold
(4) Pea and Lemon
126. Find the correct statements
130. Meiosis has evolutionary significance because it re-
A. For the purpose of cell division, cyclin and cdc sults in
kinase is required (1) genetically similar daughters
(2) four daughter cells
B. Analogous organs have similar origin.
(3) eggs and sperms
C. Metacentric chromosomes appear L shaped (4) recombinations
during Anaphase. 131. Which of the following is not a correct floral character
D. Anaphase is the shortest phase of karyokinesis of the members of family Solanaceae?
(1) Flower : Zygomorphic
E. Phyllode is a flattened modified petiole for the
(2)Calyx : Valvate aestivation
purpose of photosynthesis (3) Stamens : Epipetalous
F. Cucurbita tendril and Gloriosa tendril are a (4) Fruit : Berry or capsule
modification of stem 132. In vexillary aestivation:

(1) A, B, D E (1) The standard overlaps the wings

(2) A, D, E (2) The standard overlaps the keel

(3) B, C , E, F (3) The standard is overlapped by keel

(4) A, C, F (4) The keel overlap the wings

127. Which of the following is a modified adventitious 133. Which of the following is a false fruit?

root (1) Apple

(1) Conical root of Carrot (2) Coconut

(2) Napiform root of Turnip (3) Mango

(3) Tuberous root of Sweet potato (4) All of these

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PART TEST-3_NEET (19) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

134. The type of placentation show in the given figure is 138. Match the columns A and B.
seen in: A B
a. Marginal placentation (i) Marigold
b. Axile placentation (ii) Dianthus
c. Parietal placentation (iii) Argemone
d. Free central placentation (iv) China rose
e. Basal placentation (v) Pea
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (2) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
(1) Dianthus (2) Argemone
(3) China rose (4) Marigold (3) d-iV, b-iii, c-V, d-ii, e-i (4) a-i, b-v, c-iv, d-iii, e-ii
135. The following diagram can represent the position of
the ovary in: 139. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-
shaped cotyledon known as
(1) epiblast (2) coleorrhiza
(3) scutellum (4) (4) coleoptile
140. The floral diagram shown in the given diagram can be
of:

(1) Brinjal (2) Sunflower

(3) Rose (4) Mustard

SECTION B
136. In monocotyledonous seeds the outer covering of
endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous
(1) A plant that produces a chemical that can disrupt
layer called as: mitotic spindle
(1) Aleurone (2) Scutellum (2) Deadly night shade
(3) Testa (4) Tegmen (3) Indigofera plant, a source of dye
137. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column (4) A pulse plant
141. What would be the number of chromosomes of the
II and chose your answer from the codes given below.
aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its
Column I Column II roots tip cells?
(Flower) (Position of ovary) (1) 21 (2) 42
(3) 63 (4) 84
I. Sunflower 1. Epigynous
142. Best stage to observe shape, size and number of chro-
II. Mustard 2. Hypogynous
mosomes is
III Plum 3. Perigynous
(1) interphase (2) metaphase
Codes:
(3) prophase (4) telophase
I II III
143. A bivalent consists of
(1) 1 2 3
(1) two chromatids and one centromere
(2) 2 3 1
(2) two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) 2 1 3
(3) four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) 3 2 1
(4) four chromatids and four centromeres
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PART TEST-3_NEET (20) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

144. Synapsis occurs between 149. Assertion: In animal cells, the cytokinesis is
marked by the appearance of a furrow in plasma
(1) a male and a female gamete
membrane.
(2) mRNA and ribosomes
Reason: In plant cells, the formation of the new
(3) spindle fibres and centromere cell wall starts with the formation of simple
(4) two homologous chromosomes precursor called phragmoplast which forms the
145. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach to the cell plate.
chromosomes at a region called 150. Assertion: Every chromosome, during metaphase
(1) chromocentre (2) kinetochore has two chromatids.
(3) centriole (4) chromomere Reason: Synthesis of DNA takes places in the S-
phase of interphase.
146. is the floral of
(1) Allium (2) Sesbania
(3) Petunia (4) Brassica

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A)

is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false,
then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).
147. Assertion: G1 phase is the interval between G2
and initiation of DNA replication.
Reason: The cell is metabolically inactive during
G1 phase.
148. Assertion:Assimilatory roots can photosynthesize.
Reason: Assimilatory roots possess chlorophyll.

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PART TEST-3_NEET (21) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

ZOOLOGY
SECTION A
151. Which mechanism involves lowering of BP, vasodi-
C. Reabsorption of Na' and water at DCT
lation and loss of Na++?
D. Decrease in blood pressure and blood volume
(1) Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
E. Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin
(2) ANF mechanism
(1) A, E, B, C, D (2) B, C, A, E, D
(3) ADH release
(3) C, D.A, E, D (4) D. A, E, B. C
(4) Fall in GFR
155. Which is the best adapted phenomenon for conser-
152. The kidneys not only remove the waste products
vation of water?
from the blood but also play a very important role in
(1) Ammonotelism (2) Ureotelism
maintaining
(3) Uricotelism (4) Hydrophobism
(1) Constant composition of the blood irrespective
156. Vasopressin is mainly responsible for
of the nature of the food or fluid intake
(2) Blood pressure constant (1) Obligatory reabsorption of water through

(3) Temperature of the body Bowman’s capsule

(4) Equilibrium of the body (2) Facultative reabsorption of water from DCT
153. Ultrafiltration occurs in a glomerulus when
(3) Facultative reabsorption of water from Henle’s loop
(1) Hydrostatic exceeds osmotic pressure
(4) Obligatory reabsorption of water from PCT
(2) Osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure
(3) Capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds glomeru- 157. Refer the given figure of human urinary system and

lar hydrostatic pressure select the option that correctly identifies the labeled

(4) Colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular pres- parts A to E.

sure remain less than glomerular hydrostatic pres-

sure
154. Regulation of kidney function of Juxtaglomerular
Apparatus (JGA) involves certain steps given below,
Arrange them in the correct order
A. Release of enzyme renin
B. Release of aldosterone from adrenal gland

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PART TEST-3_NEET (22) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
A B C D E
(1) Superior Inferior Dorsal Urethra Pelvis (3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
vena cava Vena aorta 160. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.
cava
(2) Inferior Superior Dorsal Urinary Cortex secretion in human body and excretory wastes it con-
vena cava Vena aorta bladder
cava tain?
(3) Ureter Inferior Dorsal Urinary Pelvis
(1) Bile-Bilirubun, Biliverdin
vena aorta Bladder
cava (2) Sweat-NaCl, small amount of urea, lactic acid
(4) Dorsal Inferior Superior Urinary Cortex
aorta vena vena bladder (3) Sebum-Sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
cava cava
(4) Saliva - Lysozyme, ptyalin, thiocyanate
161. Find out the correct statement
158. Match the given columns:
(1) An increase in body fluid volume, stimulate the
Column-I Column –II
A. Ammonotelic 1. Aquatic insects
ADH release
2. Terrestrila amphibians (2) A fall in glomerular blood flow can activate the JG
3. Bony fishes
B. Ureotelic 4. Humans cells to release renin.
5. Aquatic amphibians
6. Reptiles (3) Angiotensin-II being a powerful vasodialator, De-
C. Uricotelic 7. Birds
8. Cockorach crease the glomerular blood pressure
(4) Decrease in the blood flow to the atria of the heart
A. B. C.
(1) 1, 3, 5 2,4 6,7,8 can cause the release of atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
(2) 1,2,3 3,7,8 5,6
162. Choose incorrect statement
(3) 4,6,8 1,3,5 2,7
(4) 5,7 4,6,8 1,2,3 (1) Our lungs remove large amounts of CO2 (180
159. Match the column and find out the correct combina-
ml/minute) and also significant quantities of water
tion
every day.
Column-I Column –II
(2) An adult human excretes, on an average, 1 to
A. Urinary 1. Ultrafiltration
bladder 1.5 litres of urine per day
B. Malpighian 2. Reabsorbs 99%
(3) Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of
corpuscle glomerular filtrate
C. Podocytes 3. Store urine many metabolic disorders as well as malfunctioning
D. Renal 4. Minute spaces for of the kidney
tubules the filtration of blood
(4) Urine is slightly acidic (pH 6) has a characteristic
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 odour

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PART TEST-3_NEET (23) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

163. The increase in osmolarity from outer to inner med- (2) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
ullary interstitium is maintained due to: (3) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
(i) Close proximity between Henle's loop and““vasa (4) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
recta 166. Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract
(ii) Counter current mechanism is facilitated by the
(iii) Selective secretion of HCO, and hydrogen ions (1) Ciliary movement
in PCT (2) Amoeboid movement
(iv) Higher blood pressure in glomerular capillaries (3) Muscular movement“
(1) (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) All of the above
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) Only (ii) 167. A person is suffering form an age related disorder
164. Select the correct statement: "X". X is characterised by decreased bone mass and
(1) Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator. increased chances of fractures. Identify X and its com-
(2) Counter current pattern of blood flow is not ob- mon cause.
served in vasa recta. (1) Tetany, increased levels of estrogen
(3) Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates (2) Osteoporosis, decreased levels of estrogen
JG cells to release renin. (3) Mysathenia gravis, decreased levels of estrogen“
(4) Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood pres- (4) Muscular dystrophy, increased levels of estrogen
sure. 168. All of the following changes occur during contraction
165. Match the items given in Column I with those in of a muscle fibre except one
Column II and select the correct option given below (1) Length of actin and myosin filaments remain same
(2) Width of H-zone decreases
Column-I Column –II
A. Glycosuria1. Accumulation of uric (3) Width of A-band and I-band remain same
acid in joints
(4) Actin filament slides over the myosin filaments
B. Gout 2. Mass of crystallized
salts within the kidney 169. "X" is a large triangular flat bone situated in the dor-
C. Renal calculi 3. Inflammation in sal part of the thorax between the "Y" and the sev-
glomeruli
D. Glomerular 4. Presence of glucose in enth ribs. Identify "X" and "Y"
nephritis urine (1) X-Patella, Y- Third (2) X-Clavicle; Y - Eight
(3) X-Scapula; Y- Sixth (4) X-Scapula; Y- Second
(1) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1

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PART TEST-3_NEET (24) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
170. In children, the bones are more flexible and brittle
because their bones have
(1) Large quantity of salts and little organic sub-
stances
(2) Large quantity of organic substances and little (1) The length of the thick and thin myofilaments has
salts changed.
(3) Well developed haversian system (2) Length of both anisotropic and isotropic band
(4) Large number of osteoblasts has changed.
171. Which of the following is not the feature of red muscle (3) The myosin cross-bridges move on the surface
fibres ? of actin and the thin and thick myofilaments slide
(1) They have plenty of mitochondria past each other.
(2) They have high content of myoglobin (4) Length of the sarcomere remains same.
(3) They have high amount of sarcoplasmic reticu- 175. Select the correct statement regarding the specific
lum disorder of muscular or skeletal system.
(4) They are called aerobic muscles (1) Muscular dystrophy Age related shortening of
172. Scapula is a large flat bone of the pectoral girdle muscles.
situated in the dorsal part of thorax between the (2) Osteoporosis Decrease in bone mass and higher
(1) Last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra chances of fractures with advancing age.
(2) Fifth thoracic and seventh lumbar vertebra (3) Myasthenia gravis - Autoimmune disorder which
(3) Second to seventh ribs inhibits sliding of myosin filaments.
(4) Second to seventh vertebrae (4) Gout Inflammation of joints due to
173. A soccer player suffers a knee injury that damages extra““deposition of calcium.
the tissue holding his upper and lower leg bones to- 176. Match the column and find out the correct combina-
gether. The damaged tissue is probably a kind of tion
(1) Muscle (2) Tendon
(3) Ligament (4) Cartilage
174. Which of the following is correct regarding changes
in muscle fiber from relaxed to maximum contract
state in the given figure?
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PART TEST-3_NEET (25) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23

(1) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4 (2) Ciliary movement help in passage of ova through

(2) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 female reproductive tract

(3) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4 (3) Microfilaments are involved in amoeboid move-

(4) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 ment

177. Match the columns: (4) In Paramecium, the cilia help in movement of
food through cytopharynx and in locomotion as well
180. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents
values of X and Y and provides their explanation:

(1) X=12, Y=7 True ribs are attached dorsally to

vertebral column and ventrally to
the sternum
(2) X=12, Y=5 True ribs are attached dorsally to
(1) A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 vertebral column and sternum on
the two ends
(2) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3 (3) X=24, Y=7 True ribs are dorsally attached to
vertebral column but are free on
(3) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 ventral side
(4) X=24, Y= 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to
(4) A-4 B-1 C-1 D-2 vertebral column but are free on
ventral side
178. Upon preventing acetylcholine from diffusing across
a neuromuscular junction, which of the following will 181. Match the following columns and select the correct
not result? option:
(1) No action potential will be produced in the af-
Column I Column II
fected muscle fibres of plasma membrane. A. Gout 1. Decreased levels of
estrogen
(2) The endoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions B. Osteoporosis 2. Low Ca++ ions in the
blood
(Ca ) into the cytoplasm
2+
C. Tetany 3. Accumulation of uric
(3) Myosin will not bind to actin in the affected muscle acid crystals
D. Muscular dystrophy 4. Auto immune disorder
fibre. 5. Genetic disorder
(4) The affected muscle fibre will fail to contract.
(1) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-5
179. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (2) A-4 B-5 C-1 D-2
(3) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(1) All movements lead to locomotion
(4) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4

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PART TEST-3_NEET (26) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
182. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sus- (1) FFTT (2) TFTT
tained muscle contraction is known as:
(3) TFFT (4) TTTT
(1) Spasm (2) Fatigue
(3) Tetanus (4) Tonus 185. For human skeletal system select proper option for
True/False type questions true/ false sentence.
In the given sentences, select correct option for true/ (1) Human skull is formed of 22 bones.
false
(2) Human skeletal system is formed of 206 bones.
183. Given Statement.....
(3) In adult human vertebral column is formed by
(1) Micturition is reflex action but partially controlled 31 vertebrae.
voluntary.
(4) Appendicular skeletal, in human is formed of 120
(2) Human can release hypertonic or hypotonic urine bones.
as per requirement of body.
(1) TTFF (2) TFTF
(3) Skin helps in removal of nitrogenous exeretory
substances (3) FFTT (4) FTFT

(4) H 2 O, Na + and HCO –3 reabsorbed in DCT.

SECTION B
(1) FIFF (2) FTTT
186. Select proper option, for the given statement,
(3) TTIT (4) FFTF whether T/F.
184. Given Statement ....... (1) All organisms show movement
(1) Liquid concentration 400 mosmoil in descend-
–1
(2) All movements are locomotion
ing capillary's outer side.
(3) Cardiac muscle are innervated by nerves of vol-
(2) Ascending capillary's has liquid concentration untary nergous system
600 mosmoil–1, present in the middle part of renal
medulla. (4) All organisms show locomotion.

(3) Filterate concentration is 1200 mosmoil–1 in (1) TTFF (2) FTFT

Henle's loop, towards curved region of medulla in (3) FTTF (4) TFTF
uriniferous tubule
187. Choose the correct statement for hemodialysis unit
(4) Filteration concentration in DC 1s 300
(1) Blood drained from a convinient artery is pumped
mosmoil–1 into a dialysing unit after adding heparin

(2) The unit contains a coiled cellophane tube sur-

rounded by dialysing fluid with the blood like com-
position
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PART TEST-3_NEET (27) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
(3) The nitrogenous wastes gets removed by pas-
191. The head of humerus articulates with:
sive as well as active transport
(1) Glenoid cavity (2) Acetabulum
(4) The unit absorbs and returns the excess ammo-
nium ions to blood (3) Acromion process (4) Deltoid cavity

188. The cleared blood (without nitrogenous wastes) af- 192. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E, F, G and
ter dialysis is pumped back through a_______after H for the right pelvic girdle and lower limb bones:
adding _____to it.

(1) Vein, anti-heparin (2) Artery, anti-heparin

(3) Vein, heparin (4) Artery, heparin

189. Read the following statements:

(i) An individual who is fasting for a long time would

excrete abnormal quantities of ketone bodies in urine

(ii) Haemoglobin is normally not excreted in urine

(iii) Excess of glucose secretion in urine is a condi-

tion called glycosuria

(iv) In diuretic condition, excess volume of urine

passes out

(v) A human can survive even with one normal kid-

ney if one of the kidney is surgically removed

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two (2) Five

(3) Three (4) Four Opti A B C D E F G

onns
(1) Ilium Ischium Pubis Femur Patella Tibia Fibula
190. GFR in a healthy individual is approximately ____or (2) Pubis Ilium Ischium Femur Patella Tibia Fibula
__________per day. (3) Ilium Pubis Ischium Femur Patella Fibula Tibia
(4) Ilium Pubis Ischium Femur Patella Tibia Fibula
(1) 125 mL/minute; 18 litres

(2) 125 mL/second; 1800 litres 193. The skull region articulates with the superior region
of the vertebral column with the helop of_____
(3) 1250 mL/minute; 1800 litres
(1) 2 pairs (2) 2
(4) 125 mL/minute; 180 litres
(3) 3 (4) 4 pairs
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PART TEST-3_NEET (28) Lalan’s All India Test Series 2022-23
194. The hyoid bone is present 198. Statement A: Mammalian animals living in desert,
(1) At the base of buccal cavity has concenterated urine.
Reason R : Length of Henle’s loop is very less in
(2) At the base of tongue and above the larynx
these animals.
(3) Both (1) and (2) 199. Statement A: Hinge joint is found between first and
(4) Above maxilla second vertebrae
Reason R: Synovial joint is found between vertebrae
195. Intervertebral discs are:
200. Statement A: During muscle contraction I band
(1) Cartilaginous shorterns.
(2) Made of muscles only Reason R: During muscle contraction myosin fibre
contracts.
(3) Bony

(4) Solely the salts of CaCO3

ASSERTION & REASON

A - Statement. R - Reanson tvne auestions

Select answer of following questions from the

options given below

(1) A and R true, R is explanation of A.

(2) A and R true, but R is not explanation of A

(3) A is true, R is false

(4) A is false, R is true

196.. Statement A: NH2, Synthesized in the body, is to be

removed in same or another form

Reason R: NH3 is not soluble in water

197. Statement A : Vasopressin increases permeability of
H2O in DCT.
Reason R : In absence of Vasopressin there is de-
crease in reabsorption of H2O and dilute urine in-
crease

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