Cagayan State University

College of Engineering and Architecture

Civil Engineering Department

CIVIL ENGINEERING LICENSURE

EXAM
REVIEWER

Name: Lea Jane B. Tan

BS Civil Engineering major in Construction Engineering and
Management
First Evaluation Exam
February 25, 2024

I. Applied Mathematics, Surveying, Principles of Transportation and Highway Engineering,

Construction Management and Methods
x−5
1. Determine the limit of 2 as x approaches to 5.
x −x−20
a. 0.111 c. 0.247
b. 0.254 d. 1
Solution:

x−tan x
2. Calculate the lim
x →0 sin 3 x
a. 0.333 c. 0.543
b. 0.476 d. 0.667
Solution:

3. Find dy/dx if y=ln

a. 1/(1+x ) 2
√ x +1
x−1
c. 2/(1+x2)
b. 1/(1-x2) d. 2/(1-x2)
Solution:

4. If y=e2x, find y (10)

a. 200e2x c. 1024e2x
b. 512e2x d. 2028e2x
Solution:

5. Find the radius of curvature of the curve y=x2ex at x=1

a. 45.87 c. 32.65
b. 56.33 d. 29.15
Solution:

6. Given the function f(x)=(x-x2)/(1+x2), determine the radius of curvature at the origin.
a. 0 d. 1.732
b. 1 e. 2
c. 1.414
Solution:
 7. What is the slope of the polar curve r=4sin2 at =/6?
a. 1.039 c. 2.598
b. 1.254 d. 2.874
Solution:

8. Determine the slope of the curve r=(cos)2 at =/6?

a. -0.192 c. -0.299
b. -0.234 d. -0.321
Solution:

Situation 1 (items 9-10): It is estimated that between the hours of noon and 7:00PM the speed of a highway
traffic flowing past the intersection of EDSA and Ortigas Avenue is approximately S=t 3-9t2+15t+45 kph, where t
is the number of hours past noon.
9. At what time between the said hour is the traffic moving slowest?
a. 1:00PM c. 5:00PM
b. 3:00PM d. 2:00PM
10. What is the maximum speed, in kph?
a. 47 c. 52
b. 55 d. 20
Solution:

11. If two numbers differ by 8, then what is the least possible value of their product.
a. -7 c. -16
b. 9 d. -12
Solution:

12. A box is constructed from a piece of zinc 80cm square by cutting equal square from each corner to form a
box. What is the volume of the largest box that can be constructed.
a. 42.15L c. 354.24L
b. 37.93L d. 28.74L
Solution:

13. A farmer has enough money to build 100m of fence. What are the dimensions of the Field he can enclose
the maximum area?
 a. 25m x 25m c. 20m x 30m
b. 15m x 35m d. 22.5m x 27.5m
Solution:

14. Water is flowing into a conical tank at a rate of 8 cubic meter per minute. If the height of the inverted
cone is 12m and the radius of its opening is 6m. How fast is the water level rising when the water is 4m.
a. 0.64m/min c. 0.56m/min
b. 0.45m/min d. 0.56m/min
Solution:

15. Water is pouring into a conical tank 15cm deep and having a radius of 3.75cm across the top. If the rate of
water rising is 2cm per second, how fast is the water flowing when the water is 4cm deep?
a. 2.37 cu.cm/s c. 4.57 cu.cm/s
b. 5.73 cu.cm/s d. 6.28 cu.cm/s
Solution:

16. A car starting at 12:00nn travels west at a speed of 30kph. Another car, starting from the same point at
2:00pm, travels north at a speed of 45kph. How far, in kilometer per hour, fast the two are separating at
4:00PM?
a. 49kph c. 55kph
b. 53kph d. 51kph
Solution:
 17. A balloon is release from a point on the ground 100m away from the observer. The balloon rises upward
at the rate of 4m/s. How fast is the balloon receding from the observer 10s later.
a. 1.68 m/s c. 1.49 m/s
b. 1.36 m/s d. 1.55 m/s

Solution:

18. What is the integral of (3t-1)2dt

1 3 1 3
a. (3t−1) +C c. (3 t−1) +C
3 9
1 1
b. ( 3 t−4 )3 +C 4
d. ( 3 t−1 ) +C
3 9
Solution:

19. Evaluate ∫ cos ² y dy

y sin(2 y ) y sin(2 y )
a. + +C c. + +C
2 4 4 4
b. y +2 cos ( y)+C d. y +2 sin(2 y )+ C

Solution:

20. What is the area bounded by the curve y2=x and the line x-4=0.
a. 11 c. 16
b. 31/2 d. 32/3
Solution:
 21. Find the area bounded by the parabola x2=4y and y = 4.
a. 21.33 c. 31.32
b. 33.21 d. 13.23
Solution:

22. What is the area bounded by the curve x2=4y and y2=4x.
a. 5.33 c. 7.33
b. 6.67 d. 8.67
Solution:

23. The area bounded the curve y² = 12x and the line x-3=0 is revolved about the line x=3. What is the
volume generated?
a. 179 c. 185
b. 183 d. 181
Solution:

24. Integrate 1/(3x+4) with respect to x and evaluate the result from x=0 to x=2.
a. 0.305 c. 0.252
b. 0.336 d. 0.278
Solution:
 25. It is a point at which the curve changes its rotation from concave upward to concave downward or vice
versa.
a. Slope of the curve
b. Point of intersection
c. Inflection point
d. Critical point

II. Hydraulics and Geotechnical Engineering

26. A mercury barometer at the top of a mountain reads 680 mmHg and at the same time the barometer at the
base reads 800 mmHg. Assuming that the unit weight of air is 12N/cu. m and the specific gravity of
mercury is 13.6, what is the approximate height of the mountain?
a. 1136 m c. 1268 m
b. 1112 m d. 1334 m
Solution:

27. What is the pressure at A in figure 1.

a. 32.56kPa c. 64.75kPa
b. 50.03kPa d. 38.26kPa
Solution:

28. A vertical triangular plate has a base of 1.2 m and a depth of 2.4 m. The base is horizontal and flushed
with the water surface. What is the distance of force of the water below the centroid of The plate?
a. 100mm c. 400mm
b. 200mm d. 800mm
Solution:

Situation 2 (Items 29-31): A vertical circular gate is 0.90 m in diameter in molasses (s=1.4). The top of the gate
is 2.40m below the surface of molasses. Determine the following:
 29. The total force acting on the gate.
a. 17.79kN c. 22.56kN
b. 25.87KN d. 24.90kN
30. The location of the force from the bottom of the gate.
a. 432mm c. 429mm
b. 468mm d. 447mm
31. If the is hinged at the top, compute the horizontal force at the bottom to keep the gate closed.
a. 9.25kN c. 12.95kN
b. 10.98KN d. 11.21kN
Solution:

32. The elastic tendency of liquids which makes them acquire the least area possible. It is responsible, for
example, when an object or insect such as mosquitoes that is denser than water is able to float along the
water surface. a. Surface tension
b. Viscosity
c. Modulus of Elasticity
d. Capillary
Situation 3 (Items 33-34): A 3.5 m square plate is immersed in water in a vertical position such that the two
edges of the square is horizontal. The immersion is such that the center of pressure in the plate is 12 cm from the
center of gravity.
33. How far below the surface should the upper plate be submerged?
a. 8.51m c. 8.63m
b. 6.76 d. 12.01m
34. Determine the hydrostatic force acting on the plate at this position.
a. 812kN c. 1037kN
b. 1023kN d. 1443kN
Solution:
Situation 4 (Items 35-39): A trapezoidal concrete (s-2.4) dam, 2m at the top, im at the bottom, and 7m high is
retaining 6m of water at its vertical side. Neglect the hydrostatic uplift.
35. Determine the resultant force
a. 176.58 c. 525.01
b. 494.24 d. 671.00 36.
36. Determine the factor of safety against overturning
a. 3.42 c. 4.12
b. 3.78 d. 4.87 37.
37. Location of resultant vertical force from the toe
a. 1.50m c. 1.73m
b. 2.13m d. 2.70m
38. Pressure intensity at the heel
a. 73.55kPa c. 147.87kPa
b. 86.47kPa d. 173.67kPa
39. Pressure intensity at the toe
a. 73.55kPa c. 147.87kPa
b. 86.47kPa d. 173.67kPa
Solution:
Situation 5 (items 40-42): An open cylindrical tank is 1.20m in diameter and 2.1m tall is 2/3 full of water.
40. What is the maximum angular speed to avoid spilling any water?
a. 82.34rpm c. 94.17rpm
b. 83.41rpm d. 96.27rpm
41. If the is rotated about its own axis at an angular speed of 10rad/s, how much water is spilled out?
a. 246L c. 2871
b. 3971 d. 3211.
42. If the height water at the center of the tank is zero, how much water is spilled out?
a. 250L c. 396L
b. 360L d. 424L
Solution:

43. A cylindrical water Lank is used in lifting water. It contains 1.5m of water and accelerating at 4m/s^2.
Determine the pressure at the bottom of the tank.
a. 25kPa c. 29kPa
b. 27kPa d. 23kPa
Solution:
 44. A fluid property that measures the fluid's resistance to shear stress
a. Density
b. Bulk modulus of Elasticity
c. Surface tension
d. Viscosity
45. Obtain the depth "d", in meters, of the oil (s-0.84). Given H1-3m and H2=4m.

a. 1.190m c. 1.786m
b. 1.250m d. 2.136m
Solution:

III. Principle of Structural Analysis and Design

Situation 6 (Items 46-48): Three cables support the 1,500kl weight.

46. Determine the tension in Cable

a. 873kN c.587kN
b. 424kN d. 743kN
47. Determine the tension in cable AC
a.873kN c.587kN
b.424kN d. 743kN
48. Determine the tension in cable AD
a. 873KN c. 587kN
b. 424kN d. 743kN
Solution:
Situation 7(Items 49-51): The mast hinged at B was used to lift the load W. Neglect the weight of the mast. If
X1-8m, X2=2m, and H=9m

49. What is the force in mast if W=24kN?

a. 20.0kN (C) c. 30.73kN (C)
b. 39.4kN(T) d. 39.4kN(C)
50. What is the force in the cable AC if W=24kN?
a. 20.0kN c. 15.2kN
b. 39.4kN d. 9.0kN
51. If the allowable strength of cable is 270MPa, compute the minimum
diameter of the cable.
a. 5mm c. 10mm
b. 9mm d. 7mm
Solution:

Situation 8: (Items 52-54):

52. Find the magnitude of the force T such that the resultant of the two forces
is 10kN acting to the right.
a. 7.00kN c. 8.43kN
b. 7.13kN d. 9.35kN
 53. Determine the angle measured clockwise from the positive x-axis (refer to item 52).
a. 37.52 c. 127.52
b. 52.48 d. 322.48
54. If T = 6kN and theta = 30 deg determine the magnitude of the resultant force.
a. 8.67kN c. 8.76kN
b. 8.26kN d. 8.57kN
Solution:

Situation 9 (items 55-58): A cable AB shown in figure 6, supports a uniformly distributed load of 250N/m.

55. Compute the minimum tension in cable AB

a. 20.15kN c. 47.26kN
b. 25.13kN d. 41.21N
56. Compute the maximum tension in the cable
a. 47.21kN c. 20.15kN
b. 41.21kN d. 25.13kN
57. Compute the slope at A
a. 32.45 c. 29.32
b. 36.71 d. 60.68
58. Compute the length of cable AB
a. 158m c. 128m
b. 126m d. 156m
Solution:
Situation 10 (Items 59-62): Rigid bar AD-100mm wide x 12mm thick. Strut BC 80mm wide x 10mm thick. The
allowable shear stress 60MPa. Dimension: L1-1.8m, L2-1.2m, L3-1.8m

59. What is the allowable load, W, if the allowable compressive stress in strut BC is 82MPa?
a. 46.4kN c. 27.8kN
b. 39.3kN d. 65.6kN
60. Find the force in strut BC if the load W is 3.6kN
a. 3.5kN c. 4.8kN
b. 8.5kN d. 6.0kN
61. What is the minimum required diameter of bolt at A, if the load W is 3.6kN? Apply a factor of safety of
1.8.
a. 12mm c. 20mm
b. 16mm d. 18mm
62. What is the minimum required diameter of bolt at B, if the load W is 3.6kN? Apply a factor of safety of
1.8
a. 10mm c. 16mm
b. 12mm d. 18mm
Solution:

Situation 11 (Items 63-64): The beam shown in the figure is supported by 2-12mm diameter bolts at A and a
120mm x 180mm plate at B.

63. If P-7.5kN, what is the stress in the bolts at point A?

a. 66.3MPa c. 132.6MPa
 b. 99.5MPa d. 199.0MPa
64. If P-7.5kN, what is the bearing stress of concrete at point B.
a. a. 0.69MPa c. 0.35MPa
b. b. 0.52MPa d. 1.04MPa
65. If the allowable tensile stress at bolts at A is 35MPa, what is the maximum value of load P?
a. 3.96kN c. 6.55kN
b. 1.98kN d. 7.92kN
66. A stainless tube with an outside diameter of 60mm and wall thickness of 5mm is used as a compression
member. If the axial normal stress in the member must be limited to 200MPa, determine the maximum
load P that the member can support.
a. 90.32kN c. 565.49kN
b. 172.79kN d. 392.70kN
Solution:

Situation 12 (items 67-70): A two-member frame in the figure is loaded as shown in the figure.

67. Determine the vertical component of the reaction at B.

a. 3kN c. 12kN
b. 8kN d. 15kN
68. Determine the magnitude of the reaction at A.
a. 11.4kN c. 14.6kN
b. 13.6kN d. 15.5kN
69. Determine the magnitude reaction at B
a. 12kN c. 14kN
b. 13kN d. 15kN
70. Bonus. Choose letter e.

Solution:
Second Evaluation Exam
March 24, 2024

I. Applied Mathematics, Surveying, Principles of Transportation and Highway Engineering,

Construction Management and Methods

1. Estimate the net force needed to accelerate a 400-gram apple at ½ g.

a. 1N c. 3N
b. 2N d. 4N
Solution:
2. In ordinary simple interest, the interest is computed on the basis of one barker’s year. 1 banker’s year =
_____ days
a. 365.25 c. 366
b. 365 d. 360
 3. A 0.5m wheel makes 15 revolutions before it stops. Determine the distance travelled before it stops.
a. 40.84m c. 50.27m
b. 43.98m d. 47.12m
Solution:
 4. A stone throw vertically upward at a velocity of 10m/s. how long will the stone touch the ground?
a. 2.04s c. 1.02s
b. 1.22s d. 4.08s
Solution:
Situation 1 (Items 5-7): A canon is fired at a 100ft cliff with initial speed of 150ft/s at an angle of 45. Neglect the
air resistance.
5. Find the time required for the projectile to travel from the cliff to the ground.
a. 7.42s c. 20.87s
b. 8.76s d. 22.53s
6. Find the horizontal distance from the catapult from the point where it hits the ground.
a. 673 ft c. 275 ft
b. 489ft d. 265 ft
7. Compute the angle of elevation of the canon necessary to target a tower standing 200 feet tall, positioned
300 feet away from the edge of the cliff.
a. 30.00 c. 42.67
b. 32.40 d. 45.00
Solution:
 8. A 300 pound of force is required to hold the 1000-pound crateron a ramp. What is the angle of inclination
of the ramp.
a. 72.54 c. 22.25
b. 16.70 d. 17.46
Solution:
 9. A clothing store holding a clearance sale advertises that all prices have been discounted 20%. If a shirt is
on sale for $28, what was its presale price?
a. $45 c. $40
b. $35 d. $30
Solution:
 10. How long will it take for an investment to double its amount if invested at 6% interest rate compounded
bi-monthly?
a. 9 years c. 11 years
b. 10.5 years d. 12 years
Solution:
Situation 2 (items 11-13): Given the position of a particle x(t) = t3 - 9t2 + 24t + 5 where x is in meters and t is in
seconds.
11. Determine the time at which the velocity equal to zero
a. 2s c. 4s
b. 3s d. Both a and c

12. Find the distance covered by the particle from t = 0 to t = 5s

a. 25m c. 28m
b. 21m d. 33m
13. Find the average speed of the particle at 5s
a. 6.6m/s c. 4.2m/s
b. 5.0m/s d. 5.6m/s
Solution:
 14. If the interest is compounded monthly, what nominal interest rate will result in an effective interest of
9.3%?
a. 8.93% c. 8.49%
b. 0.74% d. 12.09%
Solution:
 15. A machine cost P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P500. What is its book
value after 8 years (Use straight line method)?
a. P1,500 c. P4,000
b. P2,000 d. P7,600
Solution:
 16. A machine was purchased at an original cost of $400,000 with a salvage value of $20,000. Life of this
machine expected to last for 6 years. It was used for 4,000 hours, in the first year, 6,000 hours, in the
second year, and 6,000 hours on the third year. The machine is expected to last for 38,000 hours in the
period of 6 years. Determine the book value of the machine at the end of the second year?
a. $300,000 c. $200,000
b. $250,000 d. $100,000
Solution:
 17. In year 2000, the average cost of the house is P100,000. If the annual inflation is 78 and remain constant
for 10 years, what is the average value of the house of the same model in year 2006? 2010P=100,000 t = 1
years
a. P131,080 c. 150,073
b. P140,255 d. P196,715
Solution:
 18. A machine costing P1.2M has an estimated book value of P300,000 at the end of its economic life in five
years. Using Sum of the Digit methods, what will be its book value on the third year?
a. P480,000 c. P610,000
b. P520,000 d. P720,000
Solution:
 19. An engineer has just borrowed P800,000 from a local bank, at the rate of 1% per month. According to the
bank, the engineer must repay the loan in 3 years. How much must the engineer repay each month?
a. P22,567 c. P27,588
b. P26,572 d. P30,556
Solution:
 20. What is the equivalent interest of the money compounded monthly and money at 14% compounded
quarterly?
a. 12.85% c. 13.84%
b. 14.16% d. 14.83%
Solution:
 21. Operating and repair costs for some equipment will be $15,000 per year for the 3- year warranty period.
Beginning in years 4, there will be additional $2,500 per year. The equipment will be retired after 10
years. Find the present worth of these costs if the firm's interest rate is 12%.
a. $113,595 c. $131,595
b. $113,955 d. $131,955
Solution:
 22. Alex paid $24 for the rights to Manhattan Island in 1626. Neglect the inflation rate. What are the
corresponding values in 2006? i = 5%
a $2.705B c. $4.470B
b. $2.741B d. $5.410B
Solution:
 23. A 65-kg woman descend in an elevator that briefly accelerates at 0.20g downward. She stands on a scale
that reads in kg. During this acceleration, what does the scale read?
a. 39kg c. 65kg
b. 52kg d. 78kg
Solution:
 24. A man pushes a 50kg crate across a level floor at a constant speed of 1m/s. If the coefficient of friction
between the crate and the floor is 0.20, determine the average power exerted by the man
a. 89 watts c. 101 watts
b. 98 watts d. 110 watts
Solution:
 25. A person exerts a force on a rope connected to a sled weighing 20kg. The forms a 32-degree angle with
the horizontal. Given that the sled accelerates at 5m/s^2, calculate the force exerted on the rope.
a. 90.5N c. 118N
b. 105N d. 120N
Solution:
II. Hydraulics and Geotechnical Engineering
26. A piece of wood (s = 0.63) is 70mm square and 150 cm long. How many Newtons of lead weighing 110
kN/cu.m must be fastened at one end of the stick so that it will float upright with 30cm out of water?
a. 13.46N c. 19.23N
b. 16.52N d. 20.12N
Solution:
 27. A solid spherical shape ball with unit weight of 8.64kN/cu.m floats in the dead sea (s=1.24). Find the
percentage of the volume above the surface to its total volume.
a. 73.65% c. 28.97%
b. 71.03% d. 26.35%
Solution:
 28. What principal cause of action of buoyant force on a body submerged partially fully in fluid?
a. displacement of fluid due to submerged body
b. development of force due to dynamic action
c. internal shear forces mitigating external forces
d. none of the above

29. A piece of irregular shaped metal weighs 300N in air and 232.5N in water. What is the specific gravity of
the metal.
a.1.44 c.2.44
b. 3.44 d.4.44
Solution:
 30. As shown in the figure, a cube with edge measures 150mm is suspended in saltwater. The cube is exactly
balanced by an object of mass 2.54kg. Find the mass of the cube.

a. 2.57kg c. 5.92kg
b. 5.74kg d. 6.02kg
Solution:
Situation 3 (Items 31-32): A block of wood floats in water with 20cm projecting above the water surface. When
placed in glycerin (s = 1.35) , the block projects 30cm above the liquid surface.
31. Determine the total height of the wood
a. 43.41cm c. 65.82cm
b. 58.57cm d. 71.59cm
32. Determine the specific gravity of the wood.
a. 0.66 c. 0.72
b. 0.70 d. 0.86
Solution:
Situation 4 (Items 33-35): A single pipeline A joins pipelines 1, 2, and 3 at junction Jl and merges again at
junction J2 to form a single pipeline B as shown. Pipeline 1, 2, and 3 are parallel to each other. The system
receives 200L/s of water at junction Jl. Using Hazen-William's formula with f = 0.02 for all pipes, obtain the:

33. Discharge in 300mm diameter pipe, in L/s

a. 61.0 c. 89.6
b. 57.6 d. 49.4
34. Discharge in 200mm diameter pipe, in L/s
a. 61.0 c. 89.6
b. 57.6 d. 49.4
35. Discharge in 250mm diameter pipe, in L/s
a. 61.0 c. 89.6
b. 57.6 d. 49.4
Solution:
36. A pressure surge or wave caused when a flowing fluid is forced to stop or change in direction suddenly is
referred to as
a. Hydrodynamics
b. Hydraulic jump
c. Water hammer
d. Fluid flow
37. Which is the following is not predominantly affected by minor loss?
a. Short pipe
b. Long Pipe
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a and b
Situation 5 (Items 38-39): An open cylindrical tank 6m in diameter and 6m high has a 100mm diameter orifice at
the bottom for its outlet. The tank is full of water. C = 0.98 v = 100m ^ 3
38. Evaluate the time to drain 100 cubic meters of water
a. 20 min and 47s c. 23 min and 40s
b. 22 min and 13s d. 24 min and 20s
39. Determine the time to empty the tank
a. 1 hour and 8min c. 1 hour and 12min
b. 1 hour and 10min d. 1 hour and 20min
Solution:
Situation 6 (Items 40-42): A water tank has the form of a right circular cone of diameter 3.66m and a height of
3.66m is topped with a right circular cylinder of the same diameter and having a height of 3.66m. The orifice at
the vertex of the cone has area of 0.0929 sq.m. Initially, the tank is full of water. Assume 0.60 coefficient of
discharge. Evaluate the following after the orifice is opened:
40. The time to empty the cylindrical part of the tank.
a. 1 min, 15s c. 1 min, 24s
b. 1 min, 8s d. 57.2s
41. The time to empty the conical part of the tank.
a. 41s c. 33s
b. 48s d. 38s
42. The time to empty the tank
a 1 min, 56s c. 1 min, 45s
b. 2 min, 1s d. 1 min, 40s
Solution:
Situation 7 (Items 43-45): A water jet is issued from the side of the tank under a constant head. The side of the
tank is inclined 45-degree. The total depth of the water in the tank is 8m, and 1.2m above the ground. A 50mm
diameter orifice is located 3 meters from the bottom of the tank. Assume 1.0 coefficient of velocity and neglect air
resistance.
43. Obtain the maximum height the jet can rise above the ground.
a. 2.50m c. 8.20mm
b. 3.70m d. 6.70m
44. Compute the time it takes for the water to the ground.
a. 2.12s c. 1.43s
b. 2.65s d. 1.88s
45. Obtain the horizontal distance travelled by the jet as it hit the ground.
a 13.19m c. 18.58m
b. 10.03m d. 14.86m
Solution:
Situation 8 (Items 46-47): A valve is suddenly closed in a 200mm diameter pipe. The increase in pressure is
700kPa. Assuming that the pipe is rigid and the bulk modulus elasticity of water is 2.07GPa.
46. Compute the maximum discharge in L/s
a. 15.3 c. 16.9
b. 16.7 d. 25.4
47. If the length of the pipe is 800m long, compute the water hammer pressure at the valve if it is closed in 3
seconds.
a. 278.4kPa c. 259.5kPa
b. 294.6kPa d. 245.9Kpa
Solution:
Situation 9 (Items 48-49): The pump shown delivers 115 li/s of oil, sg = 0.84 to reservoir D at elevation 72 m.
The energy lost in the suction line is 3.2 J/N and in the discharge line is 7.6 J/N.

48. Compute the head added by the pump

a. 58.7m c. 62.4m
b. 61.8m d. 67.5m
49. If the pump is 85% efficient, how much horsepower does it need?
a. 92.36hp c. 79.4hp
b. 109.95hp d. 66.7hp
Solution:
50. A type of flow where at any time, the amount of fluid particles passing through a pipe section is constant.
a. Laminar flow c. Uniform flow
b. Continuous flow d. Steady flow
III. Principle of Structural Analysis and Design
Situation 10 (Items 51-53): The portable table shown is to support a load P = 1500N at a variable distance "x"
from D. Neglect the friction. If x = 0 0.60m, determine the following:

51. Vertical reaction at E

a. 600N c. 900N
b. 750N d. 1125N
52. Vertical reaction at A
a. 1125N c. 600N
b. 5750N d. 900N
53. Force at flexible cable FG
a. 900N c. 750N
b. 1125N d. 600N
Solution:
 54. When a material is loaded over a long period, it causes it to deform continuously until fracture
a. Elasticity c. Creep
b. Yielding d. Fatigue
55. Fracture caused when a material is subjected to repeated cycles of stress or strain.
a. Yielding c. Plasticity
b. Creep d. Fatigue

Situation 11 (Items 56-58): A 6-meter simply supported beam has a width of 300mm and total depth of 450mm.
It is reinforced with 4-25mm diameter bars at the tension side, and 2-25mm diameter bars at the compression bars
with 70mm cover to centroid of the reinforcement. F'c=35MPa, fy = 415MPa
56. Determine the depth of rectangular stress block.
a. 91mm c. 112mm
b. 84mm d. 100mm
57. Determine the nominal flexural strength
a. 245.20kN-m c. 268.9kN - m
b. 272.44kN-m d. 264.01kN - m
58. Determine the total factored uniform load, including the weight of the beam, that could safely support.
a. 58.67kN/m c. 60.54kN/m
b. 59.76kN/m d. 54.49kN/m
Solution:
Situation 12 (Items 59-60): A reinforced concrete beam has a width of 250mm and a total depth of 550mm.
Effective cover to centroid of tension bars is 60mm. Compressive reinforcement (if required) will be placed at
d'=60mm. f'*c = 21MPa and fy=415MPa. Follow 2010/2015 NSCP provision and use reduction factor=0.90 for
flexure.
59. Which of the following most nearly gives the required area of steel reinforcement, As (mm^2), if the
beam carries a factored moment of 60kN-m.
a. 339 c. 414
b. 464 d. 512
60. Which of the following most nearly gives the required area of steel reinforcement, As (mm^2), if the
beam carries a factored moment of 179kN-m.
a. 1,091 c. 414
b. 828 d. 1,224
Solution:
Situation 13 (items 61-64): A precast concrete T-beam section has a flange width of 600mm, flange thickness of
100mm, web width of 300mm, effective depth of 510mm, and a total depth of 580mm. Use f'*c=21MPa and
fy=415MPa. The section is reinforced with 4-25mm diameter bars in tension.
61. Calculate the depth of compression block.
a 76mm c. 110mm
b. 82mm d. 121mm
62. Calculate the strain in the tension steel
a. 0.009 c. 0.015
b. 0.014 d. 0.016
63. Calculate the design flexural strength of the section
a. 380.98kN-m c. 346.15kN-m
b. 384.61kN-m d. 395.28kN-m
64. If the simply supported beam beam is 6 meters long, find the maximum additional uniform deadload
acting at the beam if the service live load acting on the beam is 17.5 20kN/m and the total service
deadload is 24kN/m including the weight of the beam.
a. 16.80kN/m c. 36.95kN/m
b. 17.20kN/m d. 38.41kN/m
Solution:
Situation 14 (Items 65-67): A rectangular beam has a width of 260mm and an overall depth of 470mm. Concrete
cover is 60mm to the centroid of the bars. The concrete compressive strength is 21MPa. Steel yield strength is
415MPa for longitudinal bars and 275MPa for transverse bars.
65. Determine the shear provided by the concrete if the beam is subjected to shear and flexure only.
a. 95.20kN c. 83.05kN
b. 86.93kN d. 79.51kN
66. Determine the shear provided by the concrete if the beam is subjected to 80kN compressive load.
a. 87.50kN c. 83.05kN
b. 86.93kN d. 99.65kN
Solution:
Situation 16 (Items 67-69): A rectangular beam has the following properties:
b =25 d = 570mm
f’c= 24MPa fyt=275MPa fyl=415MPa
67. Determine the required spacing of stirrup when the required shear strength is 50kN
a. 250mm c. 600mm
b. 285mm d. Stirrups are not required
68. Determine the required spacing of stirrup when the required shear strength is 290kN
a. 80mm c. 140mmm
b. 90mm d. 300mm
69. Determine the required spacing of stirrup when the required shear strength is 360kN
a. 40mm c. 65mm
b. 50mm d. Increase beam dimension
Solution:
Situation 17 (Items 70-72): The beam reinforcement for negative moment at the column
support is shown.
Given: As = 6 - 28mm diameter bars with effective cover of 80mm
A*s' = 4-28mm diameter bars with effective cover of 70mm
F'*c = 28MPa fyl=415MPa (main bars)
fyt=275 (stirrup)
H1 = 100mm h2 = 500mm b = 350mm
Use 10mm diameter stirrup spaced at 100mm O.C.

70. Calculate concrete. the shear strength provided by the

a. 157.41kN c. 166.94 kN
b. 163.72kN d. 173.22kN
71. Calculate the shear strength provided by the shear reinforcement Ve
a. 449.25kN c. 457.89kN
b. 432.10kN d. 690.99kN
72. Calculate the design shear strength of the section.
a, 589.46kN c. 612.98kN
b. 468.62kN d. 459.73kN

Solution:
Situation 17 (Items 73-74): Given the following data for rectangular column
BxH=400mm x 500mm
Ast-6-20mm diameter bars
Clear concrete cover to 10mm diameter ties=50mm
F’c-28MPa
Fyl-415MPa Fyt=275MPa
The design axial loads are:
Mu-220kN-m; Vu-235kN;
Nu-500kN.

73. Determine the nominal concrete shear strength by simplified calculation

if the shear force is along the x-axis direction.
a. 182.35kN c. 138.40kN
b. 153.45kN d. 174.93kN
74. Determine the nominal shear strength of the stirrup by simplified
calculation if the shear force is acting along y-direction
a. 182.35kN c. 153.45kN
b. 138.40kN d. 174.93kN
Solution:

75. The beam sections are tension-controlled if the tensile strain in tension steel is equal or greater than
a. 0.002 c.0.004
b. 0.003 d. 0.005
Third Evaluation Exam
April 30, 2024

I. Applied Mathematics, Surveying, Principles of Transportation and Highway Engineering,

Construction Management and Methods

1. The taped distance of a line is 99.812m using a 100m tape weighing 2kg. At that time the temperature is
32 deg * C . The difference in elevation between the end points is 45cm. The tape is exactly 100m at a
temperature of 28°C and standard pull of 10kg. If the coefficient of expansion of the tape is 1.18 * 10 ^ -
5 and a pull of 10kg was applied, supported at 25m interval during measurement, determine the correct
horizontal distance of the line.
a. 99.826m c. 99.828m
b. 99.805m d. 99.796m
Solution:
 2. If points A and B, 125m apart, have difference in elevation of 50cm. The slope correction to the measured
length is:
a. 0.0021m c. 0.0010m
b. 0.0125m d. 0.0120m
Solution:

3. Given the corrected latitudes and departure of a closed traverse.

LINES LATITUDE DEPARTURE
1-2 +80.16 -40.12
2-3 -40-13 -36.82
3-4 +70.18 +50.42
4-5 -30.14 +30.36
5-6 +60.20 -52.34
6-1 -140.27 +48.50
Compute the area of the closed traverse.
a. 489.79 sq.m c. 490.32 sq.m
b. 489.86 sq.m d. 490.54 sq.m
Solution:

4. An existing highway with bearing of N20°E is. to be connected to another highway with bearing of
N80°E, by a 4-degree simple curve. What is the length of the curve?
a. 250m c. 350m
b. 300m d. 400m
Solution:
 5. Two tangents of a simple curve have azimuth of 120° and 150° respectively. If the external distance is
12m, evaluate the tangent distance.
a. 94.36m c. 96.12m
b. 92.56m d. 91.15m
Solution:
 6. The common tangent of a compound curve makes an angle of 12° from the tangent passing thru P.C. and
is 18° from the tangent passing thru PT. If the radius of the second curve is 180m, find the radius of the
first curve if the length of the common tangent is 70m.
a. 394.76m c. 397.36m
b. 396.42m d. 398.65m
Solution:
 7. The perpendicular distance between two parallel tangents of a reserved curve is 10m. If the angle of
intersection of the first curve is 10 with a radius of 200m, what would be the radius of the second curve.
a. 223m c. 458m
b. 354m d. 598m
Solution:
 8. A 6% downgrade meets a 3% upgrade at elevation 100m at station 10+000. If the Length of the parabolic
curve is 160m long, find the stationing of the lowest point of the curve.
a. 9+834.22 c. 10 + 026.67
b. 9 + 946.6 d. 10+ 042.34
Solution:
 9. A vertical parabolic curve has a back tangent of -5% and a forward tangent of +38 Intersection at station
1+240 at an elevation of 100.00m. If the station of PC is at 1 + 120 evaluate the elevation of the lowest
point in the curve.
a. 102.25m c. 109.75m
b. 106.00m d. 119.75m
Solution:
Situation 1 (Items 10-11): A particular station has the following earthwork cross- section. If the width of the base
is 9m, and the side slope is 1V:1.5H compute the following:
9.0 4.5 0 4.5 X
Y +4.0 +2.0 +2.0 +1.0

10. Value of X
a. 3 c. 6
b. 4 d. 9
11. Value of Y
a. 3 c. 6
b. 4 d. 9
Solution:
 12. From the given cross section of the proposed municipal road, it is required to determine the volume by
end area method, in cu.m.
CROSS SECTIONS
STATION 1+120 STATION 1 +i40
6.45 0 4.50 6.00 0 6.90
+2.30 -1.50 +1.00 +2.00 +1.20 +2.60

a. 229.875 c. 222.578
b. 239.237 d. 278.025
Solution:
 13. A car travelling at a speed of 80kph. The driver saw a roadblock 80m ahead and stepped on a brake
causing the car to decelerate uniformly at 10m/s^2. Assuming perception-reaction is 2seconds, determine
the distance from the roadblock to the point where the car stopped.
a. 10.9m c. 9.5m
b. 7.9m d. 8.5m
Solution:
 14. Determine the minimum stopping sight distance on 3.58 grade for a design speed of 110 kph? f=0.28
a. 270.6m c. 280.7m
b. 278.8m d. 287.7m
Solution:

15. Compute the required thickness of a rigid pavement carrying a wheel load of 54kN, if the allowable
tensile stress of the concrete is 1.6MPa. Neglect the effect of tie bars.
a. 420mm c. 320mm
b. 330mm d. 315mm
Solution:

16. It is defined as the number of vehicles moving in a specific direction on a given roadway that passes thru
a given point during specific time.
a. Traffic density c. Traffic flow
b. Traffic capacity d. Traffic volume

17. Traffic devices that are used for channelization of traffic which may be set on the surface of the roadway.
a. Barriers c. Traffic cones
b. Bollards d. Delineators

18. Standard background color for roadwork signs

a. Yellow c. Orange
b. Red d. White

19. C19. Markings that are often used to guide traffic into the right turning lanes separated by island, such as
a corner island at a signalized intersection.
a. Pedestrian Crossing
b. Diagonal Markings
c. Chevron Markings
d. Zebra Markings

20. An application of hot bitumen material given to the old surface to provide adhesion to the old and new
road surface
a. Prime coat c. Seal coat
b. Tack coat d. Surface dressing

21. The distance ahead that must be clear to permit safe passing
a. Sight distance
b. Passing sight distance
c. Stopping sign distance
d. Clear sight distance

22. Waves formed by moving ship or boats are called:

a. Swell c. Wakes
b. Seiche d. Break waves

23. A dock which projects into the water, which may be used on docking for both sides
a. Pier c. Quay
b. Wharf d. Breakwater

24. The regular periodic rise and fall of the surface of the seas, observable along their shores is called:
a. Waves c. Current
 b. Tide d. Wave heights

25. Tides which occur only one high tide a day is called:
a. Neap tide c. Semi-diurnal tide
b. Spring tide d. Diurnal tide

II. Hydraulics and Geotechnical Engineering

Situation 2 (Items 26-28) The flow of water from reservoir A is 600L/s.

26. Determine the water surface elevation of reservoir B

a. 174.8m c. 196.5m
b. 162.5m d. 181.3m
27. Determine the flow rate at pipeline 2, in L/s
a. 250 c. 270
b. 260 d. 280
28. Determine the flow rate at pipeline 3, in L/s
a. 320 c. 340
b. 330 d. 350

Solution:

Situation 3 (Items 29-30): A 75mm diameter jet and moving to the right impinges on a flat plate held normal to
its axis. If the velocity of the jet is 25m/s.
29. What forve will keep the plate in equilibrium?
a. 2671N c. 2167N
b. 2761N d. 2716N
30. If the plate were moving to the right with a velocity of 9m/s, what force would the jet exert on the plate?
a. 1131N c. 5107N
b. 1331N d. 1507N
Solution:
Situation 4 (Items 31-32): A trapezoidal canal has a bottom width of 6m and a side slope of 2H:1V. When the
depth of the flow is 1.2m, and the rate of flow is 20.4 cu.m/s
31. Compute the slope of the canal. n = 0.015
a. 0.001 c. 0.005
b. 0.003 d. 0.007
32. Compute the average shearing stress at the boundary over the surface of the channel.
a. 3.2 c. 7.6
b. 5.4 d. 9.6
Solution:

Situation 5 (Items 33-34): A trapezoidal canal having a depth of 2.25m flows with a mean velocity of 0.9m/s.
33. Determine the discharge using the most efficient proportion, in cu.m/s
a. 12.68 c. 7.89
b. 8.77 d. 14.09
34. Determine the discharge if the canal is proportioned for minimum seepage with side slope of 55, in cu.m/s
a. 7.89 c. 14.09
b. 8.77 d. 12.68
Solution:
 35. The best hydraulic cross section for trapezoidal channel of base width b is one for which the length of the
side edge of the flow is:
a. b c. 2b
b. b/2 d. 1.732b

Situation 6 (Items 36-37): A channel is carrying 1 cu.m/s of water. Assuming that an error of 2mm is made in
measuring the head, determine the percentage error in discharge resulting from using the following:
36. Right-angled triangular weir
a. 0.6% c. 1.0%
b. 0.8% d. 1.2%
37. A cm long rectangular weir
a. 0.8% c. 2.1%
b. 1.4% d. 3.0%
Solution:
 38. Type of flow where at any time, the discharge or flow rate at every section of the stream is the same.
a. Continuous flow c. Critical flow
b. Steady flow d. Uniform flow

39. Type of flow where the mean velocity of flow for a given length is the same at every cross section.
a. Continuous flow c. Steady flow
b. Laminar flow d. Uniform flow

40. A soil sample has a moisture content of 30% and degree of saturation of 45%. The solid has a specific
gravity of 2.61. Determine the dry unit weight of the soil in kN/cu.m.
a. 8.52 c. 10.25
b. 9.34 d. 12.14
Solution:
Situation 7 (Items 41-42): The moist density and degree of saturation of soil sample are given in the table:
Soil moist density Degree of saturation
(kg/m^3) (%)
1680 45
1808 75
41. Determine the void ratio
a. 0.44 c. 0.65
b. 0.55 d. 0.74
42. Determine the specific gravity of solids
a. 2.55 c. 2.65
b. 2.60 d. 2.70
Solution:

43. Who is the father of modern soil mechanics

a. R. Peck c. K. Terzaghi
b. W. Rankine d. J. Casibang

44. A sample of moist sand taken from the field was found to have a moisture content of 14 and porosity of
38%. In laboratory, it was found that the void ratio is 40% at densest state, and the void ratio is 85% at
loosest state. Determine the relative density of the sand.
a. 0.47 c. 0.62
b. 0.85 d. 0.53
Solution:

Situation 8 (items 45-47): The soil collected from the site have unit weight of 18.5kN/m^3, moisture content of
8.6%, and 2.67 specific gravity of solid. After the rainfall, 10% increase in degree of saturation. Determine the
following:
45. The degree of saturation of the soil before the rainfall.
a. 32.7% c. 27.2%
b. 42.7% d. 52.7%
46. The water content after the rainfall
a. 13.6% c.18.6%
b. 20.6% d. 10.6%
47. The unit weight of the soil after the rainfall, in kN/m^3
a. 15.8 c. 18.8
b. 17.2 d. 20.2
Solution:
Situation 9 (items 48-50): In a field density test the following results are obtained: density of soil 1.95 g/cm3, w
= 16% The specific gravity of solids is 2.7.
48. Compute the ratio of air void to the volume of voids
a. 19.1% c. 31.8%
b. 23.3% d. 28.7%
49. Compute the air void ratio
a. 8.11% c. 9.33%
b. 10.8% d. 19.1%
50. Compute the moisture content at full saturation
a. 22.5% c. 100%
b. 12.5% d. 50%
Solution:

III. Principle of Structural Analysis and Design

Situation 10 (items 51-53): A wide flange section has the following properties:
bf = 150mn tw = 9mm tf = 12mm
Fy =25OMPa d = 350mm
51. Determine the safe uniform load that the section could carry if the length of the beam is 10m based on
shear Fv=0.40Fy
a. 63.0 kN/m c. 77.1 kN/m
b. 67.3 kN/m d. 99.6 kN/m
52. Determine the moment capacity of the section if Fb = 0.6Fy
a. 92.5 kN.m c. 123 kN.m
b. 110 kN.m d. 188 kN.m
53. Determine the shear flow of the portion of the flange 25mm from the edge, use V=267.84kN
a. 105N/mm c. 133 N/mm
b. 128N/mm d. 152 N/mm
Solution:
Situation 11 (items 54-56): A simply supported W 350 x 90 girder, 8m long carries a concentrated load P
positioned at midpoint. Also, the beam carries a uniform dead load of 5kN/m (including its weight) and a live load
of 7.2kN/m. Use fy =25OMPa and E = 200GPa
Properties:
d-350mm tw = 10mm bf = 250mm
tf = 16.5mm Ix-266.4 x 10^6 mm^4
Sx-1.51x10^6 mm^3
Allowable stresses:
Allowable shear, Fv=0.40Fy
Allowable flexure, Fb = 0.66Fy
Allowable deflection = L/360
54. Determine the value of P (kN) based on shear
a.405 c. 602
b. 501 d. 701
55. Determine the value of P (kN) based on flexure
a. 68.3 c. 83.3
b. 75.8 d. 91.1
56. Determine the value of P (kN) based on deflection
a. 18.3 c. 25.1
b. 21.1 d. 50.0
Solution:
Situation 12: The lap joint of a tension member is shown in the figure. The plate is 260mm wide and 12mm
thick. The bolts are 22mm in diameter and the holes ae 3mm larger than the bolt diameter. Steel has Fy =25OMPa
and Fu = 400MPa .
Allowable tensile stress on gross area = 0.6Fv
Allowable tensile stress on net area = 0.5Fu
Allowable shear stress on the plate = 0.3Fu

57. Determine the maximum safe value of P, in kN, based on tension gross area
a. 460 c. 464
b. 462 d. 468
58. Determine the maximum safe value of P, in kN, based on tension net area
a. 444 c. 466
b. 459 d. 483
59. Determine the maximum safe value of P, in kN, based on block shear
a. 381 c. 449
b. 472 d. 501
Solution:
Situation 13 (60-62): A column is built-up from 4 300mm x 16mm plates, welded to form a box section having a
width of 300mm along the x-axis and a depth of 332mm along y-axis. Unbraced column length with respect to
lateral bucking about the x-axis is 12m. With respect to lateral bucking about the y-axis, the column is braced at
third points so that the unbraced length is 4m. Assume pinned ends for both axes. Sidesway is prevented.
60. Compute the effectiveness ratio with respect to the x-axis
a. 34.00 c. 68.00
b. 94.16 d. 127.45
61. Compute the effectiveness ratio with respect to the y-axis
a. 34.00 c. 68.00
b. 94.16 d. 127.45
62. Compute the buckling stress of the column
a. 138 MPa c. 381 MPa
b. 223 MPa d. 431 MPa
Solution:
Situation 14 (items 63-65): A diagonal strut us subjected to a force, P-75kN. The strut han a hollow square cross
section of wall thickness, t1-12mm; 0-45-degree; gusset plate , 12-16mm; base plate thickness, t3-16mm; pin
diameter-18mm. The base plate is anchored to the concrete base by 4-20mm diameter bolts.

63. Calculate the bearing stress (MPa) between the pin and the
gusset plates
a. 260 c. 174
b. 184 d. 130
64. Calculate the bearing stress (MPa) between the anchor bolt and
the base plate
a. 41.4 c. 234.4
b. 58.6 d. 165.7
65. Calculate the shear stress (MPa) in the anchor bolts
a. 73.7 c. 52.1
b. 59.7 d. 42.2
Solution:
Situation 15 (Items 66-68): A column with circular ties which carries a dead load of 1,000 kN and a live load of
520 kN. Use concrete strength of 28MPa and a steel strength of 420MPa.

66. Compute the factored axial load of the column, in kN

a. 2,284 c. 3,981
b. 3,184 d. 2,032
67. Which of the following most nearly gives the safe diameter of the column if the steel -concrete ratio is
0.0185?
a. 450mm c. 380mm
b. 400mm d. 340mm
68. Compute the required minimum diameter of the main bars if the diameter of the column is 400mm.
a. 25mm c. 20mm
b. 32mm d. 28mm
Solution:
Situation 16 (items 69-71): A tied column is reinforced with 5 - 28mm diameter bars distributed as shown. The
concrete cover to centroid of reinforcement is 60mm. Use f' * c = 211Pa and Fy = 415MPa
69. Determine the design axial load capacity of the column, in kN
a. 2,640.7 c. 3,036.4
b. 4,735.3 d. 2,429.1
70. Determine the location of the plastic centroid from the geometric centroid of the cross section, in mm.
Disregard the concrete displaced by steel bars.
a. 9.0 c. 14.8
b. 9.2 d. 22.1
71. Determine the moment induced by the eccentric force 3,000kN at e=200mm from the geometric center
along the + x-axis.
a. 572kN.m c. 628kN.m
b. 600kN.m d. 710N.m
Solution:
Situation 17 (Items 72-74): The center diagonals of the truss shown can support in tension only.

72. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction al

H?
a. 40 lb c. 550 lb
b. 460 lb d. 990 lb
73. In space BCDE, find which diagonal is acting and the
force in it.
a. BE, 1047 lb c. CD, 1047 lb
b. BE, 198 lb d.CD, 198 lb
74. In space DEFG, find which diagonal is acting and the force in it.
a. DG, 233 lb c. EF, 233 lb
b. CG, 175 lb d. EF, 175 lb
Solution:

75.
Fourth Evaluation Exam
May 19, 2024

I. Applied Mathematics, Surveying, Principles of Transportation and Highway Engineering,

Construction Management and Methods
1. Find the shrinkage of the soil that weighs 1661 kg/m3 in its natural state and 2077 kg/m3 after
compaction.
a. 15% c. 85%
b. 20% d. 80%
Solution:

2. It provides the detailed requirements for materials, equipment, and workmanship to be incorporated into
the project
a. Agreement c. Specification
b. Bid documents d. Estimates

3. Joints placed in concrete pavements, which are usually placed transversely regular intervals across the
width of the pavement to release some of the tensile stresses that are due to a decrease in temperature.
a. Construction joint
b. Contraction joint
c. Expansion joint
d. Longitudinal joint

4. Which control is demonstrated by the use of power shears, in place of grinding or oxy-acetylene cutting,
where there is a risk of fire?
a. Engineering control
b. Elimination
c. Administrative control
d. Substitution

5. Wearing way of the pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particles and binder. This is
usually a result of insufficient asphalt binder in the mix or stripping of asphalt from particles of aggregate.
a. Raveling c. Joint spalling
b. Bleeding d. Flushing

6. It is the reduction in volume of a material. It occurs as concrete hardens, being greater in wet mixes.
Curing helps to limit effects and therefore concrete in the actual structure should be thoroughly and
continuously moistened for some considerable period after placing.
a. Moisture content c. Shrinkage
b. Compaction d. Bleeding

7. Because concrete is unable to maintain a particular shape before it sets, it must be placed in a form or
mold called:
a. Scaffoldings c. Molder
b. Formworks d. Tube

8. A formal or legal agreement between two parties is referred to as:

a. Deal c. Meeting
b. Agreement d. Contract

9. It is an informal group discussion that focuses on a particular safety issue. These can be used daily to
facilitate health and safety discussion on work site.
a. Toolbox meeting c. Chismis
b. Meeting de Avance d. Board meeting

10. A method of moving a straight-edge back and forth in a saw-like motion across the top of the concrete to
level and remove excess concrete.
a. Finishing c. Brooming
b. Screeding d. Troweling

11. Specialized clothing or equipment design to protect the workers from hazard that may cause serious
workplace injuries and illness.
a. Personal protective equipment
b. Personal protective gear
 c. Personal protective suit
d. Personnel protective gear

12. What color should be used for safety signs relating to fire protection and combustion warning?
a. Red c. Orange
b. Green d. Yellow

13. Fall protection equipment shall be required when working at what minimum height?
a. 1m c. 10m
b. 2m d. 20m

14. An engineering control or net of PPEs prevent you from falling like quardrails, covers, restraints, etc,
a. Fall protection system
b. Fall arrest system
c. Fall-proof system
d. Fall alert system

15. This type of risk control includes limiting the particular hazard, implement ing safety policies, time of a
person exposed t and training all personnel.
a. Elimination
b. Substitution.
c. Engineering control
d. Administrative Control

16. It is the chance or probability that a person will be harm if exposed to hazard.
a. Hazard c. Unsafe act
b. Risk d. Unsafe condition

17. Localized upward buckling and shattering of the slabs at transverse joints or cracks. They can occur when
transverse joints are filled with incompressible solid materials.
a. Raveling c. Faulting
b. Spalling d. Blowups

18. Cracks forming large interconnected polygons, usually with sharp corners of angler These cracks are
generally caused by hardening and shrinkage of the asphalt and/or reflection cracking from underlying
layers such as cement-treated base.
a. Alligator cracking
b. Block cracking
c. Transverse cracking
d. Longitudinal cracking

19. The number of days final curing for concrete cement pavement is done for .
a. 7 days c. 21 days
b. 14 days d. 28 days

20. A type of rigid pavement, which has no transverse joint, except construction joints or expansion joints
when they are necessary at specific positions such as at bridges. This type of pavement is typically used
on high-volume and high-speed roadways
a. Plain concrete pavement
b. Simply reinforced concrete pavement
c. Continuously reinforce concrete pavement
d. Flexible concrete pavement
21. Describe the effectiveness of a pavement to prevent or reduce skid related crashes.
a. Crack resistance
b. Patching resistance
c. Raveling resistance
d. Skid resistance

22. It is a structural member made of concrete, timber, or steel that transmit the load of the superstructure to
the lower layers of the soil
a. Footing c. Anchorage
b. Pile d. Column

23. It refers to how easily freshly mixed concrete can be placed, consolidated and finished with minimal loss
of homogeneity.
a. Consistency c. Fluidity
b. Workability d. Concrete mix
24. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid
evaporation of water from the mix.
a. Admixture c. Accelerator
b. Retarder d. Curing compound

25. A hazardous physical condition occurrence of an accident. or circumstance which would directly permit
the
a. Hazard c. Unsafe act
b. Risk d. Unsafe condition
II. Hydraulics and Geotechnical Engineering
26. The sum of the vertical components of the forces developed at the points of contact of the solid particles
per unit cross sectional area of the soil mass
a. Total stress c. Effective stress
b. Pore stress d. Maximum stress

Situation 1 (items 27-28): A 4m thick of sand overlies a thick layer of clay. The water table is 1.8m below the
sand surface. The sand has a void ratio of 0.53 and a degree of saturation of 368 above the water table. The clay
has moisture content of 458. Gs-2.68 for clay and sand.
27. What is the unit weight of sand above the water table (in kN/m^3)?

a. 17.28 c. 19,65
b. 18.41 d. 20.58
28. Determine the effective streas at point 12m below the sand surtam it.
a. 111.7 с.124.8
b. 116.6 d. 112.1
Solution:

Situation 2 (items 29-31): The soil profile shown in the figure is subjected to an increase in pressure of
12N/cm^2, H1=4.6m, h2 =10.5m, h3=7.8m.

29. Calculate the void ratio of clay

a. 1.12 c. 0.92
b. 1.24 d. 1.00
30. Calculate the overburden pressure
a. 113.16kPa c. 171.04kPa
b. 145.49kPa d. 222.01kPa
31. Determine the settlement due to primary consolidation in mm
a. 253 c. 293
b. 214 d. 268
Solution:
Situation 3 (items 32-34): A confined aquifer is shown in the figure. This aquifer has a source of recharge located
as shown. The hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer is 48m/day with a porosity of 25%. The piezometer (head)
surface in the two observations well 1100m apart are at elevation 65m and 60m, respectively from the common
datum. The aquifer has an average thickness of 25m and an average width of 4k.

32. Determine the nearest value to the rate of cubic meters per
day. rate of flow of water through the aquifer, in cubic
meter per day.
a. 17,778 c. 21,818
b. 20,000 d. 24,000
33. Determine the nearest value to the actual velocity in m/day.
a. 0.71 c. 0.87
b. 0.80 d. 0.96
34. Determine the nearest value to the time of travel from the head of aquifer to a point 4.8km downstream, in
days.
a. 5000 c. 6000
b. 5500 d. 6750
Solution:

35. A sample of dry sand is subjected to a triaxial friction is 36. If the cell pressure is 180kPa, C stress will
soil fail? test. The angle of internal at what value of the deviator
a. 257kPa c. 513kPa
b. 324kPa d. 647kPa
Solution:
Situation 4 (items 36-37): An impervious layer underlies 4 layers of permeable soil. The thickness and the
coefficient of permeability of each layer, from top to bottom are:
Layer K (cm/sec) Thickness (m)
1 3 * 10 ^ - 4 4
2 2 * 10 ^ - 5 5
3 3 * 10 ^ - 3 3
4 3 * 10 ^ - 2 3
36. Evaluate the equivalent horizontal coefficient of permeability of the deposit cm/s.
a. 6.687 x 10^-3 c. 7.867 x 10^-3
b. 5.673 x 10^-3 d. 6.753 x 10^-3
37. Evaluate the equivalent vertical coefficient of permeability the deposit in cm/s
a. 6.687 x 10^-5 c. 7.867 x 10^-5
b. 5.673 x 10^-5 d. 6.753 x 10^-5
Solution:

Situation 5 (items 38-40): for the stressed soil element shown.

38. Determine the major principal stress

a. 192.2kPa c. 187.1kPa
b. 152.6kPa d. 172.9kPa
39. Determine the shear stress on plane AB
a. 30kPa c. 60kPa
b. 40kPa d. 80kPa
40. Determine normal stress on plane AB
a. 90kPa c. 60kPa
b. 180kPa d. 100kPa
Solution:
 41. If the ground water table in the soil formation rises as a resulting of flooding, the bearing capacity of the
soil will
a. Increase c. Decrease
b. Unaffected d. Depends on load

Situation 6 (items 42-44): In tri-axial test for a normally consolidated soil, the normal stress at failure is equal to
450kPa and the shear stress at failure is equal to 300kPa.
42. Compute the angle of friction in degrees.
a. 31.8 c. 29.4
b. 36.8 d. 33.7
43. Compute the angle of failure plane with the major principal axis, in degrees.
a. 60.9 c. 59.7
b. 61.9 d. 63.4
44. Compute the maximum principal in kPa.
a. 954 c. 1254
b. 1011 d. 1368
Solution:
Situation 7 (items 45-47): A 3m x 3m square footing shown carries 3500kN.

45. Determine the effective stress of soll at the mid-height of the clay layer.
a. 26.5kPa c. 37.0kPa
b. 30.9kPa d. 41.376kPa
46. Determine the increase in pressure at the mid-height of the clay layer.
a. 110kPa c. 130kPa
b. 120kPa d. 140kPa
47. Determine the settlement of the clay due to the primary consolidation.
a. 100mm c. 120mm
b. 110mm d. 130mm
Solution:
Situation 8 (items 48-50): According to the Westergaard Theory, the vertical stress at a point below the surface of
a semi-infinite, homogenous, isotropic soil mass due to a point load applied at the ground surface is given by the
equation:
0.318 QN
P= 2
z
1
N=

[ ( )]
2 1.5
r
1+2
z
Where r is the horizontal distance and a is the vertical distance from the applied load. Given that Q=2.5 MN.
48. Compute the vertical pressure at a point 2m below the load.
a. 145.9kPa c. 234.5kPa
b. 198.8kPa d. 298.7kPa
49. Compute the vertical pressure at a point 4m below the load
a. 49.7kPa c. 76.5kPa
b. 67.4kPa d. 89.5kPa
50. Compute the vertical pressure at a depth of 6m and a horizontal distance of 3m
a 12.02kPa c. 18.43kPa
b. 14.82kPa d. 20.08kPa
Solution:
 III. Principle of Structural Analysis and Design
Situation 9 (items 51-53): Classify each of the following structure as statically, determinate, indeterminate, or
unstable. Indicate the degree of indeterminacy for statically indeterminate structures.
51. The structure in Figure A
a. Determinate
b. Indeterminate to the first degree
c. Indeterminate to the second degree
d. Indeterminate to the third degree
52. The structure in Figure B
a. Determinate
b. Unstable
c. Indeterminate to the second degree
d. Indeterminate to the third degree
53. The structure in Figure C
a. Determinate
b. Unstable
c. Indeterminate to the first degree
d. Indeterminate to the second degree
Solution:
Situation 10 (items 54-56): A prestressed pile 15m long is to be lifted by two cables.
54. Find the distance from both ends of the pile must each cable be placed in order that shear in the pile is
minimum.
a. 2.75m c. 3.75m
b. 3.11m d. 4.39m
55. Find the distance from both ends of the pile must each cable be placed in order that the bending moment
in the pile is minimum.
a. 2.75m c. 3.75m
b. 3.11m d. 4.39m
56. With one end of the pile resting on the ground, at what distance from the other end of the pile must the
cable be placed in order that the bending moment in the pile is minimum.
a. 2.75m c. 3.75m
b. 3.11m d. 4.39m
Solution:
Situation 11 (items 57-59): Steel beams are used to support the deck of a bridge with simple span of 25m. The
live load on the front wheel is 35.6kN and rear wheel is 142.4kN. The wheels are 4.3m apart. L=142
57. Compute the maximum support reaction in the beam
a. 172kN c. 213kN
b. 198kN d. 268kN
58. Compute the maximum bending moment in the beam
a. 1058kN-m c. 1288kN-m
b. 1037kN-m d. 1369kN-m
59. Determine the maximum shear at the midspan
a. 82.9kN c. 104.1kN
b. 96.5KN d. 120.5kN
Solution:

Situation 12 items 60-62): For the beam shown in the figure below, determine the following:

60. Determine the slope at point B

a. -104/3EI c. 56/EI
b. 104/3EI d. -56/EI
61. Determine the deflection at D
a. 400/3EI c. -224/3EI
b. 224/3EI d. -400/3EI
62. Determine the deflection at C
a. 400/3EI c. -224/3EI
b. 224/3EI d. -400/3EI
Solution:
Situation 13(items 63-65): The bridge truss shown in the figure is to carry a concentrated moving load of 25kN
and a uniform moving load of 5kN/m.
63. Determine the maximum ordinate of the influence diagram for member BG?
a. -0.354 c. -0.707
b. 0.354 d. 9.707
64. What is the maximum tensile force that could develop
on member BG?
a. 7.07kN c. 14.75kN
b. 41.24kN d. 37.71kN
65. What is the maximum compressive force that could develop on member BG?
a. 7.07kN c. 14.75kN
b. 41.24kN d. 37.71kN
Solution:

Situation 14 (items 66-68): A 14m simply supported beam carries a uniform load of 18.2kN/m. A support is
added at the midspan to prevent deflection.
66. Calculate the vertical reaction at the added support
a. 84.93kN c. 159.25kN
b. 123.87kN d. 191.10kN
67. Determine the vertical reaction at the left support
a. 47.78kN c. 31.85kN
b. 84.94kN d. 65.47kN
68. Compute the maximum positive bending moment
a. 45.8KN-m c. 71.2kN-m
b. 27.9kN-m d. 62.7kN-m
Solution:
Situation 15 Iltems 69-71): The 400mm x 400mm column in the figure is supported by 3.5mx 3.3m footing with
five circular piles. The diameter of piles is 300mm and the center ofthe corner piles is 750mm from the edge of
the pile cap. Use t'e 21MPa, ty 41 MP, effective depth 600mm.
Consider the following net ultimate loads:
Due to dead load and live load, Pu=1200kN
Due to deadload, live load, and earthquake, Mu=252kN-m
Pu=1000kN

69. Determine the maximum beam shear stress in the pile cap
a. 0.25MPa c. 0.17MPa
b. 0.52MPa d. 0.33MPa
70. Determine the punching shear stress on the most heavily loaded pile
a. 0.16MPa c. 0.21MPa
b. 0.18MPa d. 0.25MPa
71. Determine the required number of 20mm diameter tension bars of
the pile cap considering the critical moment
a. 18 c. 23
b. 20 d. 25
Solution:
Situation 16 (items 72-74): The shear diagram of a simply supported beam is shown in the figure. The beam is
loaded with concentrated loads and a uniform load distributed on its entire length.

72. Determine the applied uniform load

a. 1kN/m c. 3kN/m
b. 2kN/m d. 4kN/m
73. Determine the reaction at. D
a. 12.6kN c. 14.6kN
b. 13.6kN d. 15.6kN
74. Compute the maximum moment
a. 15.29 kN-m c. 15.81 kN-m
b. -15.29 kN-m. d. -15.81 kN-m
Solution: