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Answer Key Mock Test 1

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
804 views114 pages

Answer Key Mock Test 1

Uploaded by

Harshal Ghumade
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 114

01/10/2023, 14:29 Harshal

Part 1 33 of 98 points

Technical Questions

1. A chart with a scale of 1:45,000 is a . 1/1

A. harbor chart

B. coast chart

C. general chart

D. sailing chart

2. When using great circle sailing the saving in distance is the most when 1/1

the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles

at the equator.

the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings.

the course is N-S.

3. Which is the more accurate means of position fixing? 1/1

Two visual bearings.

A radar range and bearing.

Two radar bearing

A visual bearing and a radar range.

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4. What charts are used for coasting, pilotage waters and plotting 0/1
waypoints?

Routeing

large scale

Small scale

Correct answer

large scale

5. The vertical distance between the sea bed and the deepest part of the 0/1
keel is known as the

draft

depth.

sounding.

underkeel clearance.

Correct answer

underkeel clearance.

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6. What is the east - west distance between two points called? 0/1

dmp

d'lat

d'long

departure

Correct answer

departure

7. The direction towards which a tidal stream runs is called 1/1

set

current

drift

leeway

8. How often are chart corrections published? 1/1

weekly

monthly

2 months

annually

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9.Where is the title of the navigation chart printed? 0/1

where the sea areas are located.

In some convenient, conspicuous place, where it does not hinder navigation or the
use of it.

Always at the center of the chart.

Always at the bottom left hand margin.

Correct answer

In some convenient, conspicuous place, where it does not hinder navigation or the
use of it.

10. What is a “fix” in navigational terms? 1/1

The navigational process to define a boat’s position.

The amount of distance between two waypoints.

The planned arrival destination.

11.What is the correct light sequence for a West Cardinal Buoy? 0/1

3 White flashes

6 short +1 long White flashes

12 White flashes

9 White flashes

Correct answer

6 short +1 long White flashes

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12. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates 0/1
.

A. true directions

B. compass error

C. deviation

D. magnetic directions

Correct answer

D. magnetic directions

13. The opposite bearing of a given bearing is called a 0/1

true bearing.

relative bearing

magnetic bearing.

reciprocal bearing.

Correct answer

reciprocal bearing.

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14. The only cylindrical chart projection widely used for navigation is the 0/1
.

A. Lambert conformal

B. Mercator

C. azimuthal

D. gnomonic

Correct answer

B. Mercator

15. With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which 0/1


information is expected to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?

A. Name of ship

B. Ship's heading

C. IMO number

D. Vessel's draft

Correct answer

B. Ship's heading

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16. You should plot a dead reckoning position after every 0/1

course change

speed change

All of the above

Correct answer

All of the above

17. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals? 1/1

A. Course made good history

B. Estimated time of arrival

C. Speed through the water

D. Shaft RPM

18. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on 0/1
ECDIS?

A. Notice to Mariners information

B. ECDIS warnings and messages

C. Ship hydrodynamic information

D. Hydrographic Office data

Correct answer

C. Ship hydrodynamic information

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19. Intact buoyancy is a term used to describe 0/1

A. the volume of all intact spaces above the waterline

B. an intact space below the surface of a flooded area

C. an intact space which can be flooded without causing a ship to sink

D. the space at which all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are considered to
be concentrated

Correct answer

B. an intact space below the surface of a flooded area

20. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is called the 1/1

A. center of buoyancy

B. center of flotation

C. center of gravity

D. tipping center

21. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS 1/1

A. reduce reserve buoyancy

B. increase righting moments

C. increase GM

D. All of the above

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22. The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous 0/1
effect on its

A. initial stability

B. free surface

C. permeability

D. stability at large angles of inclination

Correct answer

D. stability at large angles of inclination

23. Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you 0/1
begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?

A. Fall

B. Remain stationary

C. Rise

D. Shift to the high side

Correct answer

C. Rise

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24. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE? 0/1

A. It is added to the uncorrected GM to arrive at the corrected available GM.

B. It is obtained by dividing the free surface moments by 12 times the volume of


displacement.

C. It is obtained by dividing the total free surface by the total vertical moments.

D. It is subtracted from the total longitudinal moments before dividing by


displacement to find LCG.

Correct answer

B. It is obtained by dividing the free surface moments by 12 times the volume of


displacement.

25. A vessel with a large GM will 1/1

A. have more resistance to listing in case of damage

B. have less tendency to have synchronous rolling

C. be less likely to have cargo shift

D. ride more comfortably

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26. Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in
the end holds. The vessel is

A. sagging with tensile stress on main deck

B. sagging with compressive stress on main deck

C. hogging with tensile stress on main deck

D. hogging with compressive stress on main deck

Correct answer

C. hogging with tensile stress on main deck

27. Neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is

A. lower than the keel

B. at the same height as the center of gravity

C. exactly at midships

D. at the center of the waterplane area

Correct answer

B. at the same height as the center of gravity

28. De-ballasting a double bottom has what affect on KG? 1/1

A. KG is increased.

B. KG is decreased.

C. KG is not affected.

D. KG increases at light drafts and decreases at deep drafts

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29. Hot air can hold 0/1

A. less moisture than cold air

B.more moisture than cold air

C. the same amount of moisture as cold air

D. moisture independent of air temperature

Correct answer

B.more moisture than cold air

30. According to Buys Ballot's law, when an observer in the Northern 1/1
Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center of low pressure is
located to the .

A. northeast

B. west-southwest

C. northwest

D. south-southeast

31. Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by . 1/1

A. vertical air movements

B. heavy rainstorms

C. horizontal air movements

D. any movement of moist air

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32. Which of the following is NOT a form of precipitation? 0/1

A. rain

B. frost

C. sleet

D. snow

Correct answer

B. frost

33. The height of a wave is the vertical distance . 0/1

A. from the still water plane to the crest

B. from the still water plane to the trough

C. from crest to trough

D. between water levels at one-quarter of the wave's length

Correct answer

C. from crest to trough

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34. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to . 0/1

A. 14.7 pounds per square inch

B. 29.92 inches of mercury

C. 1013.25 millibars

D. All of the above

Correct answer

D. All of the above

35. What type of clouds are associated with a cold front? 0/1

A. Altostratus and fracto-cumulus

B. Altostratus and cirrus

C. Cirrus and cirrostratus

D. Cumulus and cumulonimbus

Correct answer

D. Cumulus and cumulonimbus

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36. An occluded front on a weather map is colored . 0/1

A. blue line

B. purple line

C. dashed blue line

D. alternate red and blue line

Correct answer

B. purple line

37. As it approaches, a typical warm front will bring . 1/1

A. rising temperatures and falling barometric pressure

B. falling temperature and pressure

C. falling temperatures and rising pressure

D. rising barometric pressure and temperatures

38. An instrument designed to maintain a continuous record of 0/1


atmospheric pressure is a(n)

A. mercurial barometer

B. aneroid barometer

C. barograph

D. thermograph

Correct answer

C. barograph

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39. The correction(s) which must be applied to an aneroid barometer 1/1


reading include(s)

A. height error

B. gravity error

C. temperature error

D. All of the Above

40. A wind vane on a moving vessel shows . 0/1

A. dead reckoning wind direction

B. true wind direction

C. apparent wind direction

D. estimated wind direction

Correct answer

C. apparent wind direction

41. The southeast trade winds actually blow toward the . 0/1

A. southeast

B. south

C. east

D. northwest

Correct answer

D. northwest

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42. As a high pressure system approaches, the barometer reading . 0/1

A. stays the same

B. falls

C. rises

D. falls rapidly

Correct answer

C. rises

43. In the Northern Hemisphere, a wind that shifts counterclockwise is 0/1


a .

A. veering wind

B. backing wind

C. reverse wind

D. chinook wind

Correct answer

B. backing wind

44. A vessel heading NNE is on a course of 1/1

A. 022.5°

B. 045.0°

C. 067.5°

D. 090.0°

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45. Deviation is the angle between the 0/1

A. true meridian and the axis of the compass card

B. true meridian and the magnetic meridian

C. magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card

D. axis of the compass card and the degaussing meridian

Correct answer

C. magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card

46. Compass deviation is caused by 0/1

A. magnetism from the earth's magnetic field

B. misalignment of the compass

C. magnetism within the vessel

D. a dirty compass housing

Correct answer

C. magnetism within the vessel

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47. Induced magnetism is found in . 0/1

A. hard iron

B. soft iron

C. vertical iron only

D. horizontal iron only

Correct answer

B. soft iron

48. By convention, the north seeking ends of a compass' magnets are 0/1
colored .

A. black

B. blue

C. red

D. white

Correct answer

C. red

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49. The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass? 0/1

A. Card

B. Needle

C. Lubber's line

D. Gimbals

Correct answer

C. Lubber's line

50. Magnets in the binnacles of magnetic compasses are used to reduce 1/1
the effect of .

A. deviation

B. variation

C. local attraction

D. All of the above

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51. A great circle crosses the equator at 93°W. It will also cross the 0/1
equator at what other longitude?

A. 13°E

B. 87°E

C. 177°E

D. 177°W

Correct answer

B. 87°E

52. The distance to the nearest vertex from any point on a great circle track 1/1
cannot exceed

A. 5400 nautical miles

B. 5840 nautical miles

C. 6080 nautical miles

D. 10,800 nautical miles

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53. The beam of a vessel refers to the . 0/1

A. depth between decks

B. internal cubic capacity

C. molded depth of the vessel

D. width of the vessel

Correct answer

D. width of the vessel

54. Bilge soundings indicate ______ 0/1

A. the amount of condensation in the hold

B. whether the cargo is leaking or not

C. whether the vessel is taking on water

D. All of the above

Correct answer

D. All of the above

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55. The vessel's "quarter" is located . 0/1

A. abeam

B. dead astern

C. just forward of the beam on either side

D. on either side of the stern

Correct answer

D. on either side of the stern

56. The horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel is 0/1


called .

A. yaw

B. sway

C. surge

D. heave

Correct answer

B. sway

57. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis? 1/1

A. Longitudinal

B. Transverse

C. Vertical

D. Centerline

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58.Aphelion is the point where the Sun _____ 0/1

A. and Moon and Earth form a right angle

B. Moon and Earth are in line

C. crosses the celestial equator

D. is farthest from the Earth

Correct answer

D. is farthest from the Earth

59. The period of revolution of the Moon is 0/1

24 hours

365 days

about 27.3 days

About 19 years

Correct answer

about 27.3 days

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60. The point where the Sun is at maximum declination north or south is 0/1

aphelion

Perihelion

An equinox

A solstice

Correct answer

A solstice

61. Zenith distance is equal to . 1/1

90°-Ho

Ho +90

90°- d

90°-z

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62. A group of stars which appear close together and form a striking 0/1
configuration such as a person or animal
is a ___

Cluster

Star

Constellation

Galaxy

Correct answer

Constellation

63. The path that the Sun appears to take among the stars is the 0/1

Zodiac

Tropic of Cancer

Ecliptic

Line of apsides

Correct answer

Ecliptic

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64. A first magnitude star is 1/1

2.5 times as bright as a second magnitude star

5 times as bright as a second magnitude star

6 times as bright as a second magnitude star

10 times as bright as a second magnitude star

65. What is the equivalent of 10 min. 52 sec. in arc units? 0/1

0° 27'

2° 43'

5°20'

0° 58'

Correct answer

2° 43'

66. The first point of Aries is the point where the Sun is at ________ 0/1

Maximum Declination North

Minimum Declination South

0° Declination going towards northerly declinations

0° Declination going towards southerly declinations.

Correct answer

0° Declination going towards northerly declinations

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67. In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the poles on 0/1
the Earth

Celestial poles

Ecliptic poles

Zenith, Nadir

Nodes

Correct answer

Zenith, Nadir

68. Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART 0/1

ECDIS

X Band Radar

S- Band Radar

EPIRB

Correct answer

X Band Radar

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69. What is the operating frequency of EPIRB? 1/1

406 Mhz

406 Ghz

9 Ghz

125 Mhz

70. What is the full form of AIS 1/1

Automatic Identification System

Alternative Identification System

Automated Identification System

Autonomous Identification System

71. A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class _______ 1/1

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72. The path of intended travel between three or more points is the 1/1

Track

Course

Bearing

Course over ground

73. Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in 1/1

A. rags soaked in linseed oil

B. overloaded electrical circuits

C. dirty swabs and cleaning gear

D. partially loaded fuel tanks

74. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest 0/1
extent by .

A. cooling

B. smothering

C. oxygen dilution

D. breaking the chain reaction

Correct answer

D. breaking the chain reaction

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75. CO2 extinguishes a fire by 0/1

A. cooling

B. smothering

C. chemical action

D. All of the above

Correct answer

B. smothering

76. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires? ···/1

A. Foam

B. CO2

C. Dry chemical

D. Water fog

No correct answers

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77. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a 0/1
Class D fire?

A. Dry chemical

B. CO2

C. Foam

D. Dry powder

Correct answer

D. Dry powder

78. As an extinguishing agent, foam . 1/1

A. conducts electricity

B. should be directed at the base of the fire

C. is most effective on burning gases which are flowing

D. extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature

79. What are the two dedicated VHF frequency used for AIS operation? 1/1

a) 161.975 & 162.025 Mhz

b) 121.975 & 122.025 Mhz

c) 151.975 & 152.025 Mhz

d) 181.975 & 182.025 Mhz

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80. What is the day light signal for vessel constrained by her draught 0/1
(CBD)?

a) Three balls in a vertical line.

b) Three cone in a vertical line.

c) Ball – Diamond – Ball in a vertical line.

d) Cylinder.

Correct answer

d) Cylinder.

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81. Which of the below is East Cardinal Mark? 1/1

A B

C D

82. Ship of Draft 7.0m sailing in SW enters Dock water of RD= 1.015, FWA = 1/1
250mm, What is the new draft of the vessel?

a) 7.10 m

b) 7.00 m

c) 7.25 m

d) 6.75 m

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83. What is Class 3 dangerous goods as per IMDG Code 1/1

a) Flammable Liquids

b) Flammable Solids.

c) Corrosives.

d) Oxidizing Substances.

84. Which of the below is not a Particular Sensitive Sea Area 0/1

a) The Great barrier reef.

b) Malpelo Island, Colombia.

c) The Jomard Entrance.

d) South China sea.

Correct answer

d) South China sea.

85. What does Annex-III of COLREGS deals with? 0/1

a) Positioning and technical details of lights and shapes.

b) Additional signals for fishing vessels fishing in close proximity.

c) Distress signals, which lists the signals indicating distress and need of
assistance.

d) Technical details of sound signal appliances.

Correct answer

d) Technical details of sound signal appliances.

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86. Volume of Methanol loaded in cargo tank = 970 m3. Load temperature 0/1
= 20°C. Density provided by surveyor = 0.7870 @ 25°C, Density correction
factor = 0.0009/°C. what is the mass of Methanol loaded?

a) 759.03 MT

b) 767.76 MT

c) 763.39 MT

d) 779.03 MT

Correct answer

b) 767.76 MT

87. What is the longitudinal structure that runs along much of the length 0/1
down to the lower side of ship's hull to reduce the rolling motion of the
ship?

Transom Plate.

Fins stabilizer.

All of the above.

Bilge keel.

Correct answer

Bilge keel.

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88. Which of the below is a hazard associated with Coal Cargo? 0/1

a) Spontaneous Heating.

b) Emission of Methane.

c) Corrosion.

d) All of the above.

Correct answer

d) All of the above.

89. What is the sound signal of a power-driven vessel underway but 0/1
stopped & making no way through the water?

a)Shall sound at an interval of not more than 1mins, two prolonged blasts in
succession with an interval of 1S between them.

b) Shall sound at an interval of not more than 2mins, one prolonged.

c) Shall sound at an interval of not more than 2mins, two prolonged blasts in
succession with an interval of 2S between them.

d) Shall sound at an interval of not more than 1min, two prolonged blasts in
succession with an interval of 2S between them.

Correct answer

c) Shall sound at an interval of not more than 2mins, two prolonged blasts in
succession with an interval of 2S between them.

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90. As per ROR Rule No-15 which vessel should take action? 1/1

a) Vessel which has other vessel on her STBD side.

b) Vessel which has other vessel on her port side.

c) Vessel which is overtaking other vessel.

d) Vessel which is stopped and making no way through the water.

91. Compass course 310°(C), Compass Brg- 017°(C), Variation – NIL, 0/1
Deviation on 310°

(C) = 0.6 E what is relative bearing & True Brg?

a) 067°(STBD) & 017.6° (T)

b) 076°(PORT) & 016.6° (T)

c) 067°(PORT) & 017.6° (T)

d) 067°(STBD) & 017.6° (T)

Correct answer

d) 067°(STBD) & 017.6° (T)

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92. What is Leeway? 0/1

Effect of current of course steered.

Effect of swell on course steered.

None of the above.

Effect of wind on course steered.

Correct answer

Effect of wind on course steered.

93. 1. Under SOLAS regulation V/19.1 ship is required to report their LRIT 0/1
information automatically to special shore data collection, storage, and
distribution system at least _______ a day?

2 times a day.

1 time a day.

3 times a day.

4 times a day.

Correct answer

4 times a day.

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94. 1. Ship at Anchorage heading 270°(T), Anemometer shows wind 30° 1/1
from STBD, speed

= 20 Knots, what is the true wind direction and speed ?

a) 300°(T) and speed = 20 knots.

b) 300°(T) and speed = 10 knots

c) 030°(T) and speed = 20 knots.

d) 030°(T) and speed = 10 Knots.

95. Cylindrical tank 8.0 m high and radius 2.0 m is filled to an ullage of 1.0 0/1
m with Oil of RD – 0.8, Find the mass of Oil?

a) 35.2 T

b) 17.6 T

c) 70.4 T

d) 80.5 T

Correct answer

c) 70.4 T

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96. The tendency of the steel hull plating to flex in and out due to unequal 0/1
water pressure as the bow passes through successive waves is called?

a) Slamming.

b) Pounding.

c) Panting.

d) Pitching.

Correct answer

c) Panting.

97. What is block co-efficient? 0/1

a) Area of water plane / L X B.

b) (Above water Volume / Total Volume) x 100.

c) Under water Volume / L x B x d

d) None of the above.

Correct answer

b) (Above water Volume / Total Volume) x 100.

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98. The convention which determines freeboard of ship by subdivision and 0/1
damage stability calculations is

a) Damage stability convention.

b) FAL Convention.

c) Load Line Convention.

d) International convention on Tonnage measurement of ship.

Correct answer

c) Load Line Convention.

99. Which convention is developed by IMO to prevent migration of invasive 0/1


aquatic species by shipboard operation?

a) MARPOL

b) SOLAS

c) Ballast water Management

d) ISM

Correct answer

c) Ballast water Management

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100. Doppler log operates in which principle? 0/1

a) Shift in range measurement.

b) Shift in frequency measurement.

c) Shift in wavelength measurement.

d) Bernoulli’s theorem.

Correct answer

b) Shift in frequency measurement.

Part 2 23 of 102 points

Aptitude Questions

Question 1. 0/1
The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and travelling at 45
km/hr can cross in 30 seconds, is:

200 m

225 m

245 m

250 m

Correct answer

245 m

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Question 2. 0/1
Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the
platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each
other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:

1:3

3:2

3:4

None of these

Correct answer

3:2

Question 3. 0/1
A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km
per hour?

3.6

7.2

8.4

10

Correct answer

7.2

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Question 4. 0/1
An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours.
To cover the same distance in 1 hours, it must travel at a speed of:

300 kmph

360 kmph

600 kmph

720 kmph

Correct answer

720 kmph

Question 5. 1/1
Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different
schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a.
respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs.
3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?

Rs. 6400

Rs. 6500

Rs. 7200

Rs. 7500

None of these

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Question 6. 0/1
A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What
is the length of the train?

120 m

180 m

324 m

150 m

Correct answer

150 m

Question 7. 0/1
A guy bought 10 pencils for Rs. 50 and sold them for Rs. 60.What is his
gain in terms of percentage?

10%

5%

20%

12%

Correct answer

20%

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Question 8. 0/1
From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is
30°. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the
tower is:

170 m

156 m

173 m

180 m

Correct answer

173 m

Question 9. 0/1
Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle
of elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30°
and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between
the two ships is:

270 m

200 m

273 m

275 m

Correct answer

273 m

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Question 10. 0/1


A can lay railway track between two given stations in 16 days and B can do
the same job in 12 days. With help of C, they did the job in 4 days only.
Then, C alone can do the job in:

9.2 days

9.4 days

9.6 days

10 days

Correct answer

9.6 days

Question 11. 0/1


A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In
how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every
third day?

12 days

15 days

16 days

18 days

Correct answer

15 days

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Question 12. 1/1


The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50
years. What is the age of the youngest child?

4 years

8 years

10 years

None of these

Question 13. 1/1


Father is aged three times more than his son Ronit. After 8 years, he would
be two and a half times of Ronit's age. After further 8 years, how many
times would he be of Ronit's age?

2 times

1.5 times

2.5 times

3 times

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Question 14. 0/1


Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20
minutes, and 10 minutes respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three
pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical solutions P,Q and R
respectively. What is the proportion of the solution R in the liquid in the
tank after 3 minutes?

5/11

6/11

7/11

8/11

Correct answer

6/11

Question 15. 0/1


A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes
operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the
tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours
faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time
required by the first pipe is:

6 hours

10 hours

15 hours

30 hours

Correct answer

15 hours

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Question 16. 0/1


A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the
stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.

2 hours

3 hours

4 hours

5 hours

Correct answer

4 hours

0/1
Question 17.
In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5 km/hr against
the stream. The speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is:

3 km/hr

5 km/hr

8 km/hr

9 km/hr

Correct answer

8 km/hr

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Question 18. 1/1


In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What
should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282
runs?

6.25

6.5

6.75

Question 19. 0/1


3 years back average age of A and B was 32. Today average age of A,B and
C is 30. What is the age of C?

10

15

20

Correct answer

20

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Question 20. 0/1


Half percent, written as a decimal, is

0.2

0.02

0.005

0.05

Correct answer

0.005

Question 21. 0/1


Alfred buys an old scooter for Rs. 4700 and spends Rs. 800 on its repairs.
If he sells the scooter for Rs. 5800, his gain percent is:

4.57%

5.45%

10%

10.5%

Correct answer

5.45%

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Question 22. 0/1


A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he
sell to gain 20%?

Correct answer

Question 23. 1/1

A vendor sold the item at Rs. 500 with a profit margin of 25%. What is the
cost price of the item?

400

375

425

350

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Question 24. 0/1


Find the odd one out which does not follow the following series:
3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

14

21

11

Correct answer

14

Question 25. 0/1


Find the odd one out which does not follow the following series:
10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80

10

25

54

75

none of the above

Correct answer

54

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Question 26 0/1

Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only
son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?

Brother

Uncle

Cousin

Father

Correct answer

Father

Question 27 0/1

If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is


related to A?

Brother

Sister

Nephew

Cannot be determined

Correct answer

Cannot be determined

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Question 28 1/1

Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of
my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?

Brother

Nephew

Uncle

Son-in-law

Question 29 1/1

Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:
1.Some actors are dancers.
2.No singer is actor.

Only (1) conclusion follows

Only (2) conclusion follows

Either (1) or (2) follows

Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Both (1) or (2) follows

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Question 30 0/1

Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are
flutes.

Conclusions:
1.All the flutes are instruments.
2.All the harmoniums are flutes.

Only (1) conclusion follows

Only (2) conclusion follows

Either (1) or (2) follows

Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Both (1) and (2) follow

Correct answer

Only (2) conclusion follows

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Question 31 0/1

Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes.

Conclusions:
1.Some mangoes are green.
2.Tixo is a yellow.

Only (1) conclusion follows

Only (2) conclusion follows

Either (1) or (2) follows

Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Both (1) and (2) follow

Correct answer

Either (1) or (2) follows

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Question 32 0/1

Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol * ?

Correct answer

Question 33 0/1

Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will appear on
the opposite to the face containing 5 points?

Correct answer

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Question 34 1/1

Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4?

2/3

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Question 35 0/1

Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between


Travelers, Train and Bus ?

A B

C D

Correct answer

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Question 36 0/1

Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Profit,
Dividend and Bonus ?

A B

C D

Correct answer

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Question 37 1/1

Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between


Women, Mothers and Engineers ?

A B

C D

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Question 38 0/1

A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are
at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ?

Correct answer

Question 39 0/1

A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next


to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the
second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are
sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?

Between B and D

Between B and C

Between E and D

Between C and E

Correct answer

Between B and C

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Question 40 1/1
There are 8 houses in a line and in each house only one boy lives with the
conditions as given below:
1.Jack is not the neighbour Siman.
2.Harry is just next to the left of Larry.3.
There is at least one to the left of Larry.
4.Paul lives in one of the two houses in the middle.
5.Mike lives in between Paul and Larry.
If at least one lives to the right of Robert and Harry is not between Taud
and Larry, then which one of the following statement is not correct ?

Robert is not at the left end.

Taud is in between Paul and Jack.

Robert is in between Simon and Taud.

There are three persons to the right of Paul.

Question 41 0/1

One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a
crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction
was Udai facing?

East

West

North

South

Correct answer

North

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Question 42 0/1

Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then


in which direction of Y, is P?

North

South

South-East

None of these

Correct answer

None of these

Question 43 0/1

If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What


will West become?

North-East

North-West

South-East

South-West

Correct answer

South-East

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Question 44 1/1

The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was
the total of their ages three years ago

71

72

74

77

Question 45 0/1

Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs.
77 but three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost
Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities B and C from A ?

Rs. 4, Rs. 23

Rs. 13, Rs. 17

Rs. 15, Rs. 14

Rs. 17, Rs. 13

Correct answer

Rs. 13, Rs. 17

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Question 46 0/1

An institute organised a fete and 1/5 of the girls and 1/8 of the boys
participated in the same. What fraction of the total number of students
took part in the fete ?

2/13

13/40

Data inadequate

None of these

Correct answer

Data inadequate

Question 47 1/1

A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs. 96


on eatables. Four of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the
remaining ones had to contribute Rs. 4 each extra. The number of those
who attended the picnic was

12

16

24

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Question 48 0/1

A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3
km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from
the starting place?

West

South

North-East

South-West

Correct answer

South-West

Question 49 0/1

How many points will be on the face opposite to in face which contains 2
points?

Correct answer

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Question 50 0/1

If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question


which of the statements is/are necessary?
1.The son of D is the grandson of C.
2.B is the sister of D.png

Only 1

Only 2

Either 1 or 2

1 and 2 both are required

Correct answer

1 and 2 both are required

51. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue *0/1
the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Correct answer

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52. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue *0/1
the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Correct answer

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53. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue *0/1
the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Correct answer

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54. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace *0/1
the question mark (?).

Correct answer

55. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace *1/1
the question mark (?).

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56. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only *1/1
once.

1,4 ; 2,3 ; 5,6

1,5 ; 2,6 ; 4,3

1,6 ; 2,3 ; 4,5

1,2 ; 3,6 ; 4,5

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57. Choose the set of figures which follows the given rule. *0/1

Rule: Closed figures become more and more open and open figures
become more and more closed.

Correct answer

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58. Find the number of triangles in the given figure. * 0/1

11

13

15

17

14

Correct answer

15

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59. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image *0/1
of the given combination.

Correct answer

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60. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image *0/1
of the given combination.

Correct answer

61. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of *0/1
the given combination.

Correct answer

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62. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of *0/1
the given combination.

Correct answer

63. Identify the figure that completes the pattern. * 1/1

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64. Identify the figure that completes the pattern. * 0/1

Correct answer

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65. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet *0/1
of paper (X).

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct answer

1 and 3 only

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66. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet *1/1
of paper (X).

1 only

1 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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67. Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative *0/1
figures which when fitted into each other would form a complete square.

124

235

134

245

Correct answer

235

68. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from *1/1
the pieces given in figure (X).

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69. Choose the figure which is different from the rest. * 1/1

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70. Choose the figure which is different from the rest. * 0/1

Correct answer

71. What is the next number . * 1/1


2,19,86,263, ____

634

654

876

607

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72. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue *0/1
the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Correct answer

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73. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue *0/1
the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Correct answer

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74. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace *0/1
the question mark (?).

Correct answer

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75. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace *0/4
the question mark (?).

Correct answer

Question 76. 1/1


Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.

We discussed about the problem so thoroughly

on the eve of the examination

that I found it very easy to work it out

No error.

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Question 77. 0/1


In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.

ADVERSITY

Failure

Helplessness

Misfortune

Crisis

Correct answer

Misfortune

Question 78. 0/1


In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.

STRINGENT

Dry

Strained

Rigorous

Shrill

Correct answer

Rigorous

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Question 79. 0/1


In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE
of the given words.

ENORMOUS

Soft

Average

Tiny

Weak

Correct answer

Tiny

Question 80. 0/1


In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE
of the given words.

FRAUDULENT

Candid

Direct

Forthright

Genuine

Correct answer

Genuine

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question 81. 0/1


Find the correctly spelt words.

Treachrous

Trecherous

Trechearous

Treacherous

Correct answer

Treacherous

Question 82. 0/1


Find the correctly spelt words.

Itinarery

Itinerary

Itenary

Itinarary

Correct answer

Itinerary

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Question 83. 1/1


Find the correctly spelt words.

Skillful

Skillfull

Skilfull

Skilpull

Question 84. 0/1


Find the correctly spelt words.

Scripher

Scripture

Skripture

Scriptur

Correct answer

Scripture

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Question 85. 0/1


In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can
be substituted for the given word/sentence.

A person of good understanding knowledge and reasoning power

Expert

Intellectual

Snob

Literate

Correct answer

Intellectual

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Question 86. 0/1

Comprehension

He saw nothing, he had no knife or sharp instrument, the grating of the


window was of iron and he had too often assured himself of its solidity. His
furniture consisted of a bed, a chair, a table, a pail, and a jug. The bed had
iron clamps, but they were screwed to the wall and it would have required a
screwdriver to take them off.

Dantes had but one resource which was to break the jug and with one of
the sharp fragments attack the wall. He left the jug fall on the floor and it
broke in pieces. He concealed two or three of the sharpest fragments in his
bed, leaving the rest on the floor. The breaking of the jug was too natural an
accident to excite suspicion, and next morning gaoler went grumblingly to
fetch another, without giving himself the trouble to remove the fragments.
Dantes heard joyfully the key grate in the lock as guard departed.

1.Dantes was in

a hostel

a dining room

an army barracks

a prison

Correct answer

a prison

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Question 87. 0/1

He saw nothing, he had no knife or sharp instrument, the grating of the


window was of iron and he had too often assured himself of its solidity. His
furniture consisted of a bed, a chair, a table, a pail, and a jug. The bed had
iron clamps, but they were screwed to the wall and it would have required a
screwdriver to take them off.

Dantes had but one resource which was to break the jug and with one of
the sharp fragments attack the wall. He left the jug fall on the floor and it
broke in pieces. He concealed two or three of the sharpest fragments in his
bed, leaving the rest on the floor. The breaking of the jug was too natural an
accident to excite suspicion, and next morning gaoler went grumblingly to
fetch another, without giving himself the trouble to remove the fragments.
Dantes heard joyfully the key grate in the lock as guard departed.

Dantes heard the key grate in the lock when the

cell door was shut

cell door was opened

storeroom was opened

storeroom was shut

Correct answer

storeroom was shut

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Question 88.
He saw nothing, he had no knife or sharp instrument, the grating of the
window was of iron and he had too often assured himself of its solidity. His
furniture consisted of a bed, a chair, a table, a pail, and a jug. The bed had iron
clamps, but they were screwed to the wall and it would have required a
screwdriver to take them off.

Dantes had but one resource which was to break the jug and with one of the
sharp fragments attack the wall. He left the jug fall on the floor and it broke in
pieces. He concealed two or three of the sharpest fragments in his bed,
leaving the rest on the floor. The breaking of the jug was too natural an
accident to excite suspicion, and next morning gaoler went grumblingly to
fetch another, without giving himself the trouble to remove the fragments.
Dantes heard joyfully the key grate in the lock as guard departed.

The guard left the fragments because he

didn't notice them

wished to punish Dantes

was too lazy to bother

wanted Dantes to clear up

Correct answer

was too lazy to bother

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Question 89. 0/1


He saw nothing, he had no knife or sharp instrument, the grating of the
window was of iron and he had too often assured himself of its solidity. His
furniture consisted of a bed, a chair, a table, a pail, and a jug. The bed had
iron clamps, but they were screwed to the wall and it would have required a
screwdriver to take them off.

Dantes had but one resource which was to break the jug and with one of
the sharp fragments attack the wall. He left the jug fall on the floor and it
broke in pieces. He concealed two or three of the sharpest fragments in his
bed, leaving the rest on the floor. The breaking of the jug was too natural an
accident to excite suspicion, and next morning gaoler went grumblingly to
fetch another, without giving himself the trouble to remove the fragments.
Dantes heard joyfully the key grate in the lock as guard departed.

Dantes probably broke the jug

in the morning

during the night

after breakfast

at exactly 3pm

Correct answer

during the night

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Question 90. 0/1


He saw nothing, he had no knife or sharp instrument, the grating of the
window was of iron and he had too often assured himself of its solidity. His
furniture consisted of a bed, a chair, a table, a pail, and a jug. The bed had
iron clamps, but they were screwed to the wall and it would have required a
screwdriver to take them off.

Dantes had but one resource which was to break the jug and with one of
the sharp fragments attack the wall. He left the jug fall on the floor and it
broke in pieces. He concealed two or three of the sharpest fragments in his
bed, leaving the rest on the floor. The breaking of the jug was too natural an
accident to excite suspicion, and next morning gaoler went grumblingly to
fetch another, without giving himself the trouble to remove the fragments.
Dantes heard joyfully the key grate in the lock as guard departed.

Dantes was planning to

carve his name

make his escape

tease the guard

call for breakfast

Correct answer

make his escape

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Question 91. 0/1

comprehension.

The greatest thing this age can be proud of is the birth of man in the
conciousness of men. In his drunken orgies of power and national pride
man may flout and jeer at it. when organised national selfishness, racial
antipathy and commercial self seeking begin to display their ugly
deformities in all their nakedness, then comes the time for man to know
that his salvation is not in political organisations and extended trade
relations, not in any mechanical re-arrangement of social system but in a
deeper transformation of life, in the liberation of consciousness in love, in
the realisation of God in man

In this passage, the phrase "God in man" implies

God having assumed the shape of man

neither fully godly nor fully human

man being transformed into God

the divine qualities in man

Correct answer

the divine qualities in man

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Question 92. 0/1

The greatest thing this age can be proud of is the birth of man in the
conciousness of men. In his drunken orgies of power and national pride
man may flout and jeer at it. when organised national selfishness, racial
antipathy and commercial self seeking begin to display their ugly
deformities in all their nakedness, then comes the time for man to know
that his salvation is not in political organisations and extended trade
relations, not in any mechanical re-arrangement of social system but in a
deeper transformation of life, in the liberation of consciousness in love, in
the realisation of God in man

The author uses the expression 'ugly deformities' to show his indignation
at

political organisations

the liberation of human consciousness

selfishness and materialism of the people

the drunken orgies of power

Correct answer

selfishness and materialism of the people

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Question 93. 0/1

The greatest thing this age can be proud of is the birth of man in the
conciousness of men. In his drunken orgies of power and national pride
man may flout and jeer at it. when organised national selfishness, racial
antipathy and commercial self seeking begin to display their ugly
deformities in all their nakedness, then comes the time for man to know
that his salvation is not in political organisations and extended trade
relations, not in any mechanical re-arrangement of social system but in a
deeper transformation of life, in the liberation of consciousness in love, in
the realisation of God in man

In the phrase "the birth of Man in the consciousness of men", AMn stands
for

power and arrogance

egocentricity

noble human qualities

an idealistic notion of the human self

Correct answer

an idealistic notion of the human self

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Question 94. 0/1

The greatest thing this age can be proud of is the birth of man in the
conciousness of men. In his drunken orgies of power and national pride
man may flout and jeer at it. when organised national selfishness, racial
antipathy and commercial self seeking begin to display their ugly
deformities in all their nakedness, then comes the time for man to know
that his salvation is not in political organisations and extended trade
relations, not in any mechanical re-arrangement of social system but in a
deeper transformation of life, in the liberation of consciousness in love, in
the realisation of God in man

People jeer at the 'birth of Man' in the human consciousness when they

begin to think of themselves as God

become power hungry

restructure the social system

become mentally deranged

Correct answer

become power hungry

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Question 95. 0/1

Closet Test.

Today most businessmen are very worried. To begin with, they are not used
to competition.In the past they sold whatever ...(1)... produced at whatever
prices they chose. But ...(2)... increasing competition,

(1)

it

he

they

we

Correct answer

they

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Question 96. 1/1

Closet Test.

Today most businessmen are very worried. To begin with, they are not used
to competition.In the past they sold whatever ...(1)... produced at whatever
prices they chose. But ...(2)... increasing competition,

(2).

with

by

after

from

Question 97. 0/1

Idioms and Phrases

To pick holes.

To find some reason to quarrel

To destroy something

To criticise someone

To cut some part of an item

None of these

Correct answer

To criticise someone

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Question 98. 1/1


Idiom and phrases.

A man of straw.

A man of no substance

A very active person

A worthy fellow

An unreasonable person

None of these

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Question 99. 0/1


Ordering of words.

I read an advertisement that said


P:
posh, air-conditioned
Q:
gentleman of taste
R:
are available for
S:
fully furnished rooms

The Proper sequence should be:

PQRS

PSRQ

PSQR

SRPQ

Correct answer

PSRQ

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Question 100. 0/1


Ordering of words

All such students


P:
get success
Q:
who are honest and hard-working
R:
and recognition
S:
in very walk of life

The Proper sequence should be:

SPRQ

PRQS

QPRS

PSRQ

Correct answer

QPRS

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