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mailtoday0542SUBJECT WISE QUESTIONS OF CSE
. POLITY
1
2. ECONOMY
3. ENVIRONMENT
4. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
5. GEOGRAPHY
6. ART AND CULTURE
7. ANCIENT
8. MODERN
9. MEDIEVAL
10. INTERNATIONAL RELATION AND CURRENT
POLITY ( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
2023 (d) All four
Q6. Consider the following statements :
1. If the election of the President of India is
Q1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ declared void by the Supreme Court of India,
all acts done by him/her in the performance of
mean? duties of his/her office of President before the
date of decision become invalid.
( a) The principle of natural justice
2. Election for the post of the President of India
(b) The procedure established by law
can be postponed on the ground that some
(c) Fair application of law
Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved
(d) Equality before law
and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of
2. Consider the following statements :
Q
India, the Constitution prescribes time limits
Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State
within which he/she has to declare hisfher
Governments with their own rules and regulations for
assent.
the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of (a) Only one
prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. (b) Only two
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the (c) All three
above statements? (d) None
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Q7. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I the Indian Parliament, consider the following
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statements :
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to
Statement-I the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Bill.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to
Q3. Which one of the following statements best the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the
reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a Bill, it can only make recommendations.
country? 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok
(a) It determines the objective for the making of Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint
necessary laws. sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
government.
ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(a) Only one
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social
(b) Only two
security.
(c) All three
Q4. In India, which one of the following Constitutional
(d) None
Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to
overcome the judicial interpretations of the
8. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India,
Q
Fundamental Rights?
consider the following statements :
(a) 1st Amendment
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as
(b) 42nd Amendment
Scheduled Area takes place though an Order
(c) 44th Amendment
of the President.
(d) 86th Amendment
2. The largest administrative unit forming the
Q5. Consider the following organizations/bodies in
Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest
India :
is the cluster of villages in the Block.
1. The National Commission for Backward
3. The Chief Ministers Of the concerned States
Classes
are required to submit annual reports to the
2. The National Human Rights Commission
Union Home Ministry on the administration of
3. The National Law Commission
Scheduled Areas in the States.
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
Commission ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
(a) Only one
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(b) Only two
( c) All three 1. H ome Guards are raised under the Home
(d) None Guards Act and Rules of the Central
Government.
9. Consider the following statements :
Q 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an
Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of
some judgements .that the reservation policies made internal security.
under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would 3. To prevent infiltration on the international
be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home
of administration. Guards Battalions have been raised in some
Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India States.
defmes the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
(a) Only one
above statements?
(b) Only two
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
(c) All three
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(d) None
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
13. With reference to India, consider the following
Q
Statement-I
pairs :
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Action: The Act under which it is covered
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military
Q10. Consider the following statements :
uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923
1. According to the Constitution of India, the
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering
Central Government has a duty to protect
with a police officer or military officer when
States from internal disturbances.
engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States
Act, 1872
from providing legal counsel to a person being
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the
held for preventive detention.
personal safety of others : The Arms
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act,
(Amendment) Act, 2019
2002, confession of the accused before the
police cannot be used as evidence. ow many of the correctly matched?
H
(a) Only one
ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
14. Consider the following statements in respect of
Q
Q11. Consider the following statements in respect of
the National Flag of India, according to the Flag Code
election to the President of India :
of India, 2002:
1. The members nominated to either House of
Statement-I : One of the standard size of the National
the Parliament or the Legislatiye Assemblies
Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm . .
of States are also eligible to be included in the
Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height
Electoral College.
(width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats,
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that
above statements?
State.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh
Statement-I
because the ratio of total population to total
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
number of elective seats in Puducherry is
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct
greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
ow many of the above statements are correct?
H 15. Consider the following statements in respect of
Q
(a) Only one the Constitution Day :
(b) Only two Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on
(c) Only three 26th November every year to promote constitutional
(d) All four values among citizens.
Q12. With reference to Home Guards, consider the Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the
following statements : Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting
ommittee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R.
C hich of the statements given above are correct?
W
Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the (b) 2 and 3 only
above statements? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 4. Consider the following statements:
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and 1. The Constitution of India classifies the
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister,
Statement-I Minister of State with Independent Charge,
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct 2. The total number of ministers in the Union
Government, including the Prime Minister,
shall not exceed 15 percent of the total
number of members in the Lok Sabha.
2022
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
1. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal (b) 2 only
Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 (c) Both 1 and 2
was passed. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Constitution of India empowers the
Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish 5. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s)
for contempt of themselves. f Lok Sabha?
o
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the Council of Ministers
powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. 3. To impeach the President of India
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only (d) 3 only
2. With reference to India, consider the following 6. With reference to anti-defection law in India,
statements: consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator
recognized as advocates, but corporate cannot join any political party within six months
lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded of being appointed to the House.
from recognition as advocates. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the within which the presiding officer has to decide
rules relating to legal education and a defection case.
recognition of law colleges.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 7. Consider the following statements:
3. Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a of India are the only officers of the
prior recommendation of the President of Government who are allowed to participate in
India. the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is 2. According to the Constitution of India, the
presented to the President of India, it is Attorney General of India submits his
obligatory for the President of India to give resignation when the Government which
his/her assent. appointed him resigns.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be
passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
Sabha by a special majority and there is no (a) 1 only
provision for joint sitting. (b) 2 only
( c) Both 1 and 2 ( a) The Right to Equality
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
8. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in (c) The Right to Freedom
India, consider the following statements: (d) The Concept of Welfare
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private 2. What is the position of the Right to Property in
organization unless it is entrusted with a public India?
duty. (a) Legal right available to citizens only
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company (b) Legal right available to any person
even though it may be a Government (c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
Company. (d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner 3. What was the exact constitutional status of India on
to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo 26th January, 1950?
Warranto. (a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(b) 2 and 3 only
4. Constitutional government means
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) a representative government of a nation with a
(d) 1, 2 and 3
federal structure
9. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha,
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
consider the following statements:
(c) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
(d) a government limited by the terms of the
Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy
Constitution
Speaker shall be held on such date as the
5. Consider the following statements in respect of
Speaker may fix.
Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the
(a) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under
election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of
the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal
(b) Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year
opposition party or the ruling party.
1954, were suspended only once.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as
(C) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted
of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting
to a maximum of five in a particular year.
of the House and no appeal lies against his
Which of the above statements are not correct?
rulings.
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. The well established parliamentary practice
(b) 2 and 3 only
regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker
(c) 1 and 3 only
is that the motion is moved by the Speaker
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
6. With reference to India, consider the following
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W statements:
(a) 1 and 3 only 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody
(b) 1, 2 and 3 of the concerned magistrate and such accused is
(c) 3 and 4 only locked up in police station, not in jail.
(d) 2 and 4 only 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of
10. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect
Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the without the approval of the court.
following statements best reflects the consequence of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
it? (a) 1 only
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal (b) 2 only
people to non-tribal people. (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
that area. 7. With reference to India, consider the following
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory. statements:
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole
Special Category State. cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes
a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners
Release on Parole Rules.
2021 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
. Under the Indian constitution concentration of
1
(b) 2 only
wealth violates
( c) Both 1 and 2 . There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of
8. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal State.
agency to ensure effective implementation of the 3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest deprived of it under any circumstances.
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic (a) 1 only
change. (b) 2 only
(b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj (c) 1 and 3
(c) Ministry of Rural Development (d) 2 and 3
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs 14. Which of the following factors constitutes the best
9. A legislation which confers on the executive or safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled (a) A committed judiciary
discretionary power in the matter of the application of (b) Centralization of powers
law violates which one of the following Articles of the (c) Elected government
Constitution of India? (d) Separation of powers
(a) Article 14 15. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on
(b) Article 28 the British model, but how does our model differ from
(c) Article 32 that model?
(d) Article 44 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is
10. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the
essential feature that indicates that it is federal in parliament to legislate is limited.
character? 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
from constituent units Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) the Union cabinet can have elected representatives (a) 1 only
from regional parties (b) 2 only
(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts (c) Both 1 and 2
of Law (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Which one of the following best defines the term 16. With reference to the Union Government, consider
“State”? the following statements:
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that
definite territory independent of external control and a minister and a secretary be designated solely for
possessing an organized government. pursuing the subject of administrative reform and
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory promoting it.
and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain 2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was
law and order, protect their natural rights and constituted on the recommendation of the
safeguard their means of sustenance. Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
definite territory for a very long time with their own Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
culture, tradition and government. (a) 1 only
(d) A society permanently living in a definite with a (b) 2 only
central authority, an executive responsible to the (c) Both 1 and 2
central authority and an independent judiciary. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the 17. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article
following statements. of the constitution of India?
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can (a) Article 15
be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with (b) Article 19
prior permission of the President of India. (c) Article 21
2. A High court in India has the power to review its own (d) Article 29
judgement as the Supreme Court does. 18. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates
(a) 1 only from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three
(b) 2 only constituencies.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
13. With reference to India, consider the following 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in
statements: one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies,
is/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to
h [a) 1 only
the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of [b) 2 only
him/her winning in all the constituencies. [c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only Q. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic
(c) 1 and 3 structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism,
(d) 2 and 3 fundamental rights, and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial
review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and
2020
to preserve the ideals on which the
1. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
Q constitution is based.
[a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
[b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal [a) 1 only
effect either [b) 2 only
[c) A part of the Constitution and has the same legal [c) Both 1 and 2
effect as any other part [d) Neither 1 nor 2
[d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect Q. Consider the following statements:
independently of other parts 1. The president of India can summon a session
Q. Which one of the following categories of of Parliament at such place as he/she thinks
Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against fit.
untouchability as a form of discrimination? 2. The Constitution of India provides for three
[a) Right against Exploitation sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is
[b) Right to freedom not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
[c) Right to constitutional remedies 3. There is no minimum number of days that the
[d) Right to equality Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Q. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is
enjoined by hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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[a) The Preamble of the Constitution [a) 1 only
[b) A Directive Principle of state policy [b) 2 only
[c) The Seventh schedule [c) 1 and 3 only
[d) The conventional practice [d) 2 and 3 only
Q. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the Q. Rajyasabha has equal powers with Loksabha in _ _
following parts of the Constitution of India _ .
reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the [a) The matter of creating new all India services
Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? [b) Amending the Constitution
1. Preamble [c) The removal of the government
2. Directive Principles of State Policy [d) Making cut motions
3. Fundamental Duties Q. consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, a
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S person who is eligible to vote can be made a
[a) 1 and 2 only minister in a state for six months even if
[b) 2 only he/she is not a member of that state.
[c) 1 and 3 only 2. According to the Representation of People
[d) 1, 2 and 3 Act,1951, a person convicted of a criminal
Q. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five
ideal of Welfare state? years is permanently disqualified from
[a) Directive principles of state policy contesting an election even after his release
[b) Fundamental rights from prison.
[c) Preamble
[d) Seventh schedule hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
Q. With reference to the provisions contained in part IV [a) 1 only
of the constitution of India, which of the following [b) 2 only
statements is/are correct? [c) Both 1 and 2
1. They shall be enforceable by courts [d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court Q. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free
3. The principles laid down in this part are to legal services to which of the following type of
influence the making of laws by the state citizens?
Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. P erson with an annual income of less than Rs. . T
3 alanoa Dialogue: Global climate change
1,00,000 4. Under2 Coalition: Child rights
2. Transgender with an annual income of less
hich of the pairs given above is/ are correctly
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than Rs. 2,00,000
matched?
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC)
[a) 1 and 2 only
with an annual income of less than Rs.
[b) 4 only
3,00,000
[c) 1 and 3 only
4. All Senior Citizens
[d) 2, 3 and 4 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
[a) 1 and 2 only
2019
[b) 3 and 4 only
[c) 2 and 3 only . Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
1
[d) 1 and 4 only (a) Department of Science and Technology
Q. Consider the following statements: (b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more (c) NITI Aayog
than three months (d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
2. State cannot enter into any contract with Answer: C
private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data 2. Consider the following statements:
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance 1.The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India
products. introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits Minister beyond judicial review.
funded out of the Consolidate fund of India. 2.The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th
hich of the statements give above is/are correct?
W Amendment to the Constitution of India as being
[a) 1 and 4 only violative of the independence of judiciary.
[b) 2 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[c) 3 only (a) 1 only
[d) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
Q. A constitutional government by definition is a _ _ _ (c) Both 1 and 2
_ . (d) Neither 1 nor 2
[a) government by legislature Answer: B
[b) popular government 3. Consider the following statements:
[c) Multi party government 1.The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme
[d) Limited government Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the
Q. In the context of India, which one of the following is Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? 2.The Constitution of India defines and gives details or
[a) An agency widening the scope of parliamentary what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’
democracy of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
[b) An agency for strengthening the structure of 3.The details of the process of impeachment of the
federalism Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in 4
[c) An agency for facilitating political stability and the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
economic growth 4.If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is
[d) An agency for the implementation of public policy taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be
Q. A parliamentary system of government is one in backed by each House of the Parliament and
which supported by a majority of total membership of that
[a) All political parties in the parliament are House and by not less than two-thirds of total
represented in the government members of that House present and voting.
[b) The government is responsible to the parliament Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and can be remove by it (a) 1 and 2
[c) The government is elected by the people and can (b) 3 only
be removed by them (c) 3 and 4 only
[d) The government is chosen by the parliament but (d) 1, 3 and 4
cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed Answer: C
term 4.The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the
Q. Consider the following pairs: Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
1. Alma-Ata Declaration: Healthcare of the (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
people (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
2. Hague Convention: Biological and chemical (c) Indira Gandhi
weapons (d) Morarji Desai
nswer: A
A following in the Constitution of India correctly and
5. Consider the following statements: appropriately imply the above statement?
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd
1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on Amendment to the Constitution.
the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State
2.The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. Policy in Part IV.
3.The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.
Constitution of India. (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Amendment to the Constitution.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only . Regarding Money Bill, which of the following
2
(c) 2 and 3 only statements is not correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it
Answer: A contains only provisions relating to imposition,
6. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for (b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the
mining be declared null and void? Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of
(a) Third Schedule India.
(b) Fifth Schedule (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of
(c) Ninth Schedule moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) Twelfth Schedule (d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing
Answer: B of money or giving of any guarantee by the
7. With reference to the Constitution of India, Government of India.
prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in
ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations . With reference to the election of the President of
3
on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could India, consider the following statements:
mean which one of the following? 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from
(a) The decisions taken by the. Election Commission State to State.
of India while discharging its duties cannot be 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha
challenged in any court of law. is more than the value of the vote of MPs of
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the Rajya Sabha.
the exercise of its powers by the laws made by
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
Parliament.
(a) 1 only
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country,
(b) 2 only
the President of India can declare Financial
(c) Both 1 and 2
Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain
matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
4. Consider the following statements:
Answer: B
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall
8. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a
vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a
State in India, consider the following statements:
member of the Assembly.
1.The Governor makes a customary address to
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is
Members of the House at the commencement of the
dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her
first session of the year.
office immediately.
2.When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a
particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
matter. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 . Which one of the following reflects the most
5
Answer: A appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
2018 (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the
people.
. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of
1 (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the
ccordance with the National Council of
a
6. Consider the following statements: Teacher Education guidelines.
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education
against the Governor of a State in any court institutions are directly under the State
during his term of office. Governments.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
Governor of a State shall not be diminished
(a) 1 and 2
during his term of office.
(b) 2 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (c) 1 and 3
(a) 1 only (d) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 11. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party
in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
. Which of the following are regarded as the main
7 2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition”
features of the “Rule of Law”? was recognised for the first time in 1969.
1. Limitation of powers 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a
2. Equality before law minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be
3. People’s responsibility to the Government recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
4. Liberty and civil rights
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. Consider the following statements:
. If the President of India exercises his power as
8 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular
provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of
respect of a particular State, then India.
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth
dissolved. Schedule cannot be examined by any court
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be and no judgement can be made on it.
exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(a) 1 only
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of
9
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes
and reports to the House whether the powers to make
3. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the
1
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by
following?
the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are
(a) Amnesty International
being properly exercised by the Executive within the
(b) International Court of Justice
scope of such delegation?
(c) The office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(d) World Justice Project
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee 2017
10. Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be 14. Consider the following statements:
eligible for appointment as a teacher in a 1. The Election Commission of India is a
State, a person would be required to possess five-member body.
the minimum qualification laid down by the 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the
concerned State Council of Teacher election schedule for the conduct of both
Education. general elections and bye-elections.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes
classes, a candidate is required to pass a relating to splits/mergers of recognised
Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in a political parties.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
2
(b) 2 only (a) Fundamental Right
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Natural Right
(d) 3 only (c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
5. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian
1
federalism? 2. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right
2
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India. against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
Centre and the States, forced labour
(c) The federating units have been given unequal 2. Abolition of untouchability
representation in the Rajya Sabha. 3. Protection of the interests of minorities
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the 4. Prohibition of employment of children in
federating units. factories and mines
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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6. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it
1
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
calls into activity
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and
(c) 1 and 4 only
women.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) the methods for strengthening executive
leadership.
3. One of the implications of equality in society is the
2
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
absence of
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
7. Local self-government can be best explained as an
1
(c) Competition
exercise in
(d) Ideology
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
4. Which principle among the following was added to
2
(c) Administrative delegation
the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd
(d) Direct democracy
Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
8. Consider the following statements:
1
(b) Participation of workers in the management of
A Constitutional Government is one which
industries
1. Places effective restrictions on individual
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
liberty in the interest of State Authority
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of
to workers
the State in the interest of individual liberty
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W 5. Which one of the following statements is correct?
2
(a) 1 only (a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) 2 only (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Constitution of a State.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the
9. Which one of the following objectives is not
1 many.
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought 6. Consider the following statements:
2
(b) Economic liberty With reference to the Constitution of India, the
(c) Liberty of expression Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
(d) Liberty of belief limitations upon
1. legislative function
0. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India
2 2. executive function
is reflected in which of the following?
hich of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
W
(a) The Preamble
(a) 1 only
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(b) 2 only
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) The Fundamental Duties
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
( b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the
7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of
2 Government whose responsibilities are increasing day
the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? by day.
1. A legislative process has been provided to (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for
enforce these duties. ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to
2. They are correlative to legal duties. the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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the Government whose hold over the people is in a
(a) 1 only
state of decline.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper
3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
8. In the context of India, which one of the following is
2
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the
the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
election is to be contested.
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of
electoral roll of a constituency.
society and Duties.
(d) any citizen of India.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the
advancement of the personality of the citizen.
3. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider
3
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of
the following statements:
the State.
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a
Member of Parliament who is not elected but
29. Consider the following statements:
only nominated by the President of India.
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been
Assembly, the winning candidate must get at
passed in the Parliament of India for the first
least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be
time in its history
declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the (a) 1 only
Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and (b) 2 only
the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
4. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of
3
(b) 2 only
government is that
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the
0. Which of the following are not necessarily the
3
legislature.
consequences of the proclamation of the President’s
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed
rule in a State?
without election.
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the
5. The Parliament of India exercises control over the
3
State
functions of the Council of Ministers through
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
1. Adjournment motion
elect the correct answer using the code below:
S 2. Question hour
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Supplementary questions
(b) 1 and 3 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Out of the following statements, choose the one
3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet
form of Government:
6. In India, Judicial Review implies
3
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the
the Government whose responsibilities are complex
constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom
of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
( c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the
legislative enactments before they are assented to by 1. The Parliament of India acquires the power to
4
the President. legislate on any item in the State List in the national
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
judgements given earlier in similar or different cases. (a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total
membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds
2016
of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total
37. Consider the following statements: membership
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than
be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. two-thirds of its members present and voting
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature
dissolution continues only for the remainder 2015
period.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
2. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth
4
(a) 1 only
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order
(b) 2 only
to
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities
38. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
of Panchayats
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has
3. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system
4
not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not
is to ensure which among the following?
lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
1. People’s participation in development
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S 2. Political accountability
(a) 1 only 3. Democratic decentralisation
(b) 2 only 4. Financial mobilisation
(c) Both 1 and 2
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
39. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has
4. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian
4
not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not
Constitution is enshrined in its
lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(a) Preamble
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) 1 only (c) Fundamental Rights
(b) 2 only (d) Seventh Schedule
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Consider the following statements regarding the
4
Directive Principles of State Policy:
40. Consider the following statements: 1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by democracy in the country
the Governor of that State. 2. The provisions contained in these Principles
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed are not enforceable by any court.
tenure.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
hich of the statements given above is / are correct?
W (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements:
1. T he Legislative Council of a State in India can 2. N o amount can be withdrawn from the
be larger in size than half of the Legislative Consolidated Fund of India without the
Assembly of that particular State. authorization from the Parliament of India.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the 3. All the disbursements made from Public
Chairman of Legislative Council of that Account also need the authorization from the
particular State. Parliament of India.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
7. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in
4 2. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the
5
India because the Constitution of India?
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people (a) The President of India
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution (b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved (c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok (d) The Supreme Court of India
Sabha
3. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and
5
48. Consider the following statements: Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject (a) Preamble of the Constitution
or to amend a Money Bill. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the (c) Fundamental Rights
Demands for Grants. (d) Fundamental Duties
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual
Financial Statement.
2014
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 4. With reference to Union Budget, which of the
5
(c) 2 and 3 only following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Defence expenditure
2. Interest payments
9. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the
4 3. Salaries and pensions
Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by 4. Subsidies
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and (a) 1 only
voting (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) absolute majority of the Houses (d) None
55. Which one of the following Schedules of the
50. Consider the following statements: Constitution of India contains provisions regarding
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is anti-defection?
vested in the Prime Minister. (a) Second Schedule
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman (b) Fifth Schedule
of the Civil Services Board. (c) Eighth Schedule
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (d) Tenth Schedule
(a) 1 only 56. Which of the following are associated with
(b) 2 only ‘Planning’ in India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. The Finance Commission
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
1. With reference to the Union Government, consider
5 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
the following statements: 5. The Parliament
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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the preparation of Union Budget that is (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
presented to the Parliament. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
( c) 2 and 5 only 2. A
Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the Lok Sabha only.
hich of the statements given above is / are correct?
W
7. In the Constitution of India, promotion of
5
(a) 1 only
international peace and security is included in the
(b) 2 only
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Fundamental Duties
62. Which one of the following is the largest
(d) Ninth Schedule
Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
8. Which of the following are the discretionary powers
5
(b) The Committee on Estimates
given to the Governor of a State?
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
1. Sending a report to the President of India for
(d) The Committee on Petitions
imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Which of the following is/are the function/functions
6
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State
of the Cabinet Secretariat?
Legislature for consideration of the President
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
of India
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of
3. Allocation of financial resources to the
the State Government
Ministries
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Consider the following statements:
5
4. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
6
A Constitutional Government is one which
disputes between the Centre and the States falls under
1. Places effective restrictions on individual
its
liberty in the interest of State Authority.
(a) advisory jurisdiction
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of
(b) appellate jurisdiction
the State in the interest of individual liberty.
(c) original jurisdiction
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (d) writ jurisdiction
(a) 1 only 65. The power to increase the number of judges in the
(b) 2 only Supreme Court of India is vested in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) the President of India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
60. Consider the following statements: (d) the Law Commission
1. The President shall make rules for the more
convenient transaction of the business of the
2013
Government of India, and for the allocation
among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of 6. Which one of the following statements is correct?
6
India shall be expressed to be taken in the (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as
name of the Prime Minister. Governor for two or more States at the same time.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India
(a) 1 only are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the
(b) 2 only Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the
(c) Both 1 and 2 President.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) No procedure has been laid down in the
Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor
1. Consider the following statements regarding a
6 from his/her post.
No-Confidence Motion in India: (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt.
Motion in the Constitution of India. Governor on the basis of majority support.
7. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find
6 72. Consider the following statements:
mention in the Constitution? 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can
1. National Development Council be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the
2. Planning Commission Lok Sabha only.
3. Zonal Councils 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes
in the federal character of the constitution, the
elect the correct answer using the codes given below
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amendment also requires to be ratified by the
(a) 1 and 2 only
legislature of all the states of India.
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
8. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension
6 (c) Both 1 and 2
to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.Which one of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self-governance 3. Which one of the following statements is correct?
7
(b) To recognize traditional rights (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas Governor for two or more States at the same time
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation (b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India
are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the
69. Consider the following statements: Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the
1. National Development Council is an organ of President
the Planning Commission. (c) Nor procedure has been laid down in the
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor
the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. from his/her post
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative
Panchayats should be assigned the task of setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt.
preparation of plans for economic Governor on the basis of majority support.
development and social justice.
4. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the
7
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a) 1 only
(a) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State
(c) 1 and 3 only
Policy
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles of State Policy
0. Who among the following constitute the National
7
(d) None of the above
Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
5. According to the Constitution of India, which of the
7
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
following are fundamental for the governance of the
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
country?
4. Chief Ministers of the States
(a) Fundamental Rights
elect the correct answer using the codes given below
S (b) Fundamental Duties
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 6. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially
7
amended by the Rajya Sabha?
1. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
7 (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill,
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the
2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process Rajya Sabha
for determining the nature and extent of individual or (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
community forest rights or both? (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya
(a) State Forest Department Sabha for reconsideration
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner (d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the
(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Bill
Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha 77. Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 82. Consider the following statements:
3. Speak in the Lok Sabha 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of
4. Vote in the Lok Sabha the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that
House.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
2. While the nominated members of the two
(a) 1 only
Houses of the Parliament have no voting right
(b) 2 and 4 only
in the presidential election, they have the right
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
to vote in the election of the Vice-President.
(d) 1 and 3 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
8. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any
7 (a) 1 only
part of India for implementing international treaties (b) 2 only
(a) With the consent of all the States (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) With the consent of the majority of States (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) With the consent of the States concerned
(d) Without the consent of any State 3. With reference to National Legal Services
8
Authority, consider the following statements:
9. Consider the following statements:
7 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts legal services to the weaker sections of the
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
Lok Sabha 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts Services Authorities to implement the legal
of the Government programmes and schemes throughout the
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and country.
Auditor General of India
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3 only (d) Neither I nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2012
0. In the context of India, which of the following
8
principles is/are implied institutionally in the
parliamentary government? 4. The distribution of powers between the Centre and
8
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the
Parliament. scheme provided in the
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy (a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
confidence in the Parliament. (b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. (c) Government of India Act, 1935
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only 5. Consider the following provisions under the
8
(c) 2 and 3 only Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil
81. Consider the following statements: code.
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be 2. Organizing village Panchayats
collectively responsible to the Parliament. 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure
the pleasure of the President of India. and cultural opportunities
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the hich of the above are the Gandhian Principles that
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President about the proposals for legislation. are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Which of the following is/are among the
8 ( a) 1 and 2 only
Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian (b) 3 only
Constitution? (c) 1, 2 and 3
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite (d) None
culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social 0. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty
9
injustice of the President of India to cause to be laid before the
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of Parliament which of the following?
inquiry 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of Commission
individual and collective activity 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
elect the correct answer using the codes given
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General
below:
4. The Report of the National Commission for
(a) 1 and 2 only
Scheduled Castes
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only elect the correct answer using the codes given below
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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
7. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an
8 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
adjournment motion is (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent
public importance 1. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
9
(b) to let opposition members collect information from Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during
the ministers the passage of
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand 1. Ordinary Legislation
for grant 2. Money Bill
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the 3. Constitution Amendment Bill
inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some
elect the correct answer using codes the given
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members
below:
(a) 1 only
88. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Union Territories are not represented in the
(c) 1 and 3 only
Rajya Sabha.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election
Commissioner to adjudicate the election
2. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her
9
disputes.
appointment
3. According to the Constitution of India, the
(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the
Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the
Houses of the Parliament but must become a member
Rajya Sabha only.
of one of the Houses within six months
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the
(a) 1 only Houses of the Parliament but must become a member
(b) 2 and 3 only of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the
(d) None Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
9. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker,
8
consider the following statements: 3. Which of the following are included in the original
9
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
the President. 1. A dispute between the Government of India
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at and one or more States.
the time of his/her election but has to become 2. A dispute regarding elections to either House
a member of the House within six months from of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a
the date of his/ her election. State
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her 3. A dispute between the Government of India
resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy and a Union Territory
Speaker. 4. A dispute between two or more States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S ( a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
below: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only 7. Which of the following provisions of the
9
Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
4. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of
9 1. Directive Principles of State Policy
the Supreme Court of India? 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, 3. Fifth Schedule
the President of India has to consult the Chief 4. Sixth Schedule
Justice of India. 5. Seventh Schedule
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed
elect the correct answer using the codes given
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by the Chief Justice of India only.
below:
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the
(a) 1 and 2 only
Consolidated Fund of India to which the
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
legislature does not have to vote.
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Supreme Court of India are made by the
Government only after consulting the Chief
Justice of India. 2011
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 and 3 only . In India, if a religious sect/community is given the
1
(b) 3 and 4 only status of a national minority, what special advantages
(c) 4 only it is entitled to?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. It can establish and administer exclusive
educational institutions.
5. Which of the following special powers have been
9 2. The President of India automatically
conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of nominates a representative of the community
India? to Lok Sabha.
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s
change the name of a State 15-Point Programme.
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to
make laws in the State List and to create one or more hich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
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All India Services (a) 1 only
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President (b) 2 and 3 only
and to determine the pension of the President after (c) 1 and 3 only
his/her retirement (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) To determine the functions of the Election
Commission and to determine the number of Election . Under the Constitution of India, which one of the
2
Commissioners following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
6. Which of the following are the methods of
9 (b) To develop the scientific temper
Parliamentary control over public finance in India? (c) To safeguard public property
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the (d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Parliament
2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund . What is the difference between “vote-on-account”
3
of India only after passing the Appropriation and “interim budget”?
Bill 1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and by a regular Government, while an “interim
vote-on-account budget” is a provision used by a caretaker
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of Government.
programme of the Government against 2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the
macroeconomic forecast and expenditure by a expenditure in Government’s budget, while an
Parliamentary Budget Office “interim budget” includes both expenditure and
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament receipts.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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below: (a) 1 only
( b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from
4
the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
. All revenues received by the Union Government by
5
way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of
Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the
6
Lok Sabha
(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for
suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of
Council of Ministers
7. Consider the following:
1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
hich of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights
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under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act,
8
1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj
Institutions in the country, provides for which of the
following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all
panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ECONOMY ( d) Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial
Institutions
5. Consider the following markets:
2023 1. Government Bond Market
. Consider the following statements:
1 2. Call Money Market
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in 3. Treasury Bill Market
Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to 4. Stock Market
their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend ow many of the above are included in capital
H
is taxable. markets?
Statement-II: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under (a) Only one
the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial (b) Only two
Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, (c) Only three
2002’. (d) All four
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the 6. Which one of the following best describes the
above statements? concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and (a) Resettlement of a large number of people,
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1 uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and them a large cultivable land which they cultivate
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for collectively and share the produce
Statement-1 (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect themselves into groups and synchronize and
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct harmonize selected agricultural operations
2. Consider the following statements : (c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many contract with a corporate body and surrender their land
Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the
hikes. corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that the farmers
they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer (d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge
prices via monetary policy means. and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the area so that they produce the agricultural commodity
above statements? required by the company for its manufacturing process
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and and commercial production
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1 7. Consider the following statements:
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and 1. The Government of India provides Minimum
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica)
Statement-1 seeds.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil
3. Consider the following statements: for cooking.
Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the
most widespread tools in the fight against climate ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
change. (a) Only one
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from (b) Only two
the private sector to the State. (c) All three
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the (d) None
above statements? 8. Consider the investments in the following assets:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and 1. Brand recognition
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 2. Inventory
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and 3. Intellectual property
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for 4. Mailing list of clients
Statement-I
ow many of the above are considered intangible
H
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
investments?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(a) Only one
4. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve
(b) Only two
Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?
(c) Only three
(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
(d) All four
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems
9. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to
(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and
State Governments
( a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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an asset from different platforms (a) 1 only
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to (b) 2 only
balance risk versus reward (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect (d) Neither 1 nor 2
hedging is not possible 14. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies,
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a consider the following statements:
stock to changes in the overall stock market 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital
10. Consider the following statements: currency without using US dollar or SWIFT
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was system.
originally initiated by the State Bank of India by 2. A digital currency can be distributed with
providing microcredit to the financially condition programmed into it such as a
deprived. time-frame for spending it.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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responsibility for a loan that an individual
(a) 1 only
member takes.
(b) 2 only
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled
(c) Both 1 and 2
CommercialBanks support SHGs.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
2022
(c) All three
(d) None . Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit
1
11. Consider the following heavy industries: Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by
1. Fertilizer plants which of the following:
2. Oil refineries 1. Asian Development Bank
3. Steel plants 2. International Monetary Fund
reen hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in
G 3. United Nations Environment Programme
decarbonizing how many of the above industries? Finance Initiative
(a) Only one 4. World Bank
(b) Only two . With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
2
(c) All three following statements:
(d) None 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange
12. Consider, the following statements: Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of
Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export rupee.
of goods. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange
Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in
companies operating in India have taken advantage of trade competitiveness.
India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the relative to inflation in other countries is likely to
above statements? cause an increasing divergence between
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and NEER and REER.
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and hich of the above statements are correct?
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Statement-II is not the correct explanation for (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement-I (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statements with reference to 3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
India : following statements:
1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of
Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, India (RBI) is likely to buy government
the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with securities.
investments in plant and machinery between 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely
̀15 crore and `25 crore. to sell dollars in the market.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union
Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy
dollars.
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W ( a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise
(a) 1 and 2 only and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits
(b) 2 and 3 only arising out of its investment
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) A foreign company investing in India and paying
(d) 1, 2 and 3 taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising
4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, out of its investment
consider the following statements: (c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together foreign country and sells such assets after their value
with the Paris Club. increases and transfers the proceeds to India
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such
Countries with unsustainable debt. shares derive their substantial value from assets
located in India
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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9. With reference to the expenditure made by an
(a) 1 only
organisation or a company, which of the following
(b) 2 only
statements is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Acquiring new technology is capital
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
expenditure.
5. With reference to the India economy, what are the
2. Debt financing is considered capital
advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?
expenditure, while equity financing is
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on
considered revenue expenditure.
its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIGs provide protection to the investors from elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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uncertainty regarding inflation. (a) 1 only
3. The interest received as well as capital gains (b) 2 only
on IIBs are not taxable. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
(a) 1 and 2 only
following statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. A share of the household financial savings
(c) 1 and 3 only
goes towards government borrowings.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates
6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms
in auctions form a large component of internal
operating in India, which of the following statements
debt.
is/are correct?
1. They can sell their own goods in addition to hich of the above statements is/are correct?
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offering their platforms as market-places. (a) 1 only
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers (b) 2 only
on their platforms is limited. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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11. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital
(a) 1 only
Mission, consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. As it aims to achieve universal health
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
coverage, every citizen of India should be part
7. Which of the following activities constitute real
of it ultimately.
sector in the economy?
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading (a) 1 and 2 only
company (b) 3 only
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated (c) 1 and 3 only
Bonds overseas (d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Consider the following statements:
( a) 1 and 2 only
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
could lead to capital flight.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
firms with existing External Commercial
8. Which one of the following situations best reflects
Borrowings (ECBs).
“Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases
recently with reference to India?
the currency risk associated with ECBS.
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W hich of the statements given above are correct?
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(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statements: 18. In India, which one of the following compiles
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated information on industrial disputes, closures,
by Reserve Bank of India. retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is workers?
a public limited company. 1. Central Statistics Office
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating 2. Department for Promotion of Industry and
agency. Internal Trade
3. Labour Bureau
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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4. National Technical Manpower Information
(a) 1 and 2 only
System
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’,
2021
which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. . The money multiplier in an economy increases with
1
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads which one of the following?
for Public Sector Banks. a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
developing strategies and capital raising plans. c) Increase in the banking habit of the people
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(a) 1 and 2 only 2. With reference to the Indian economy, demand-pull
(b) 2 and 3 only inflation can be caused/increased by which of the
(c) 1 and 3 only following?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Expansionary policies
15. Convertible Bonds, consider the following 2. Fiscal stimulus
statements: 3. Inflation-indexing wages
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for 4. Higher purchasing power
equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of 5. Rising interest rates
interest. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the a) 1, 2 and 4 only
bondholder a degree of indexation to rising b) 3, 4 and 5 only
consumer prices. c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W 3. With reference to India, consider the following
(a) 1 only statements:
(b) 2 only 1. Retail investors through Demat account can invest
(c) Both 1 and 2 in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 in the primary market
16. In India, which one of the following is responsible 2. The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering
for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? Matching” is a government securities trading platform
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs of the Reserve Bank of India.
(b) Expenditure Management Commission 3. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the
(d) Reserve Bank of India Bombay Stock Exchange.
17. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
consider the following statements: a) 1 only
1. They enable the digital representation of b) 1 and 2
physical assets. c) 3 only
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that d) 2 and 3
exist on a blockchain. 4. In India, the central bank’s function as the “lender of
3. They can be traded or exchanged at last resort” usually refers to which of the following?
equivalency and therefore can be used as a 1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail
medium transactions. of commercial to borrow from other sources
. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary
2 . They are supervised and regulated by local boards
1
crisis set up by the State Governments.
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary 2. They can issue equity shares and preference
deficits shares.
Select the correct answer using the code given below 3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking
a) 1 and 2 Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1996
b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
c) 2 and 3 a) 1 only
d) 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
5. Consider the following statements: c) 1 and 3 only
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is d) 1, 2 and 3
appointed by the Central Government. 10. Indian Government Bond yields are influenced by
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give which of the following?
the Central Government the right to issue directions to 1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
the RBI in the public interest. 2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the 3. Inflation and short-term interest rates.
RBI Act. Select the correct answer using the code given below
Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3 11. Consider the following:
6. With reference to the casual workers employed in 1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
India, consider the following statements: 2. Foreign institutional investment with certain
1. All casual workers are entitled to employees conditions
Provident Fund Coverage 3. Global depository receipts
2. All casual workers are entitled to regular working 4. Non-resident external deposits
hours and overtime payment Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct
3. The government can by notification specify that an Investments?
establishment or industry shall pay wages only through a) 1, 2 and 3
its bank account. b) 3 only
Which of the above statements are correct? c) 2 and 4
a) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3 only 12. Consider the following statements:
c) 1 and 3 only The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it
d) 1, 2 and 3 necessarily
7. Which among the following steps is most likely to be 1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic
taken at the time of an economic recession? exports in the foreign markets
a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest 2. Increase the foreign value of the domestic currency
rate 3. Improves the trade balance
b) Increase in expenditure on public projects Which of the above statements is/are
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of a) 1 only
interest rate b) 1 and 2
d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects c) 3 only
8. Consider the following statements d) 2 and 3
Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for 13. Which one of the following effects of creation of
a good might increase if black money in India has been the main cause of
1. Price of its substitute increases worry to the Government of India?
2. Price of its complement increases a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate
3. The good is an inferior good and income of the and investment in luxury housing
consumers increases b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase
4. Its price falls of precious stones, jewellery, gold etc.
Which of the above statements are correct? c) Large donations to political parties and growth of
a) 1 and 4 only regionalism
b) 2, 3 and 4 d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax
c) 1, 3 and 4 evasion
d) 1, 2 and 3 14. Which one of the following is likely to be one of the
9. With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, most inflationary in its effects?
consider the following statements:
) Repayment of public debt
a hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit (a) 1 and 2 only
c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit (b) 2 only
d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. In India, which of the following can be considered
as public investment in agriculture?
2020
(1) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural
. What is the importance of the term “Interest
Q produce of all crops
Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India? (2) Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit
1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a Societies
firm that a bank is going to give a loan to. (3) Social Capital development
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a (4) Free electricity supply to farmers
firm that a bank is going to give a loan to. (5) Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system
3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest (6) Setting up of cold storage facilities by the
Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to governments.
service its debt. In India, which of the following can be considered as
public investment in agriculture?
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q. Which of the following factors/policies were Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? following statements :
(1) Minimum Support Price (1) Commercial Paper is a short-term unsecured
(2) Government’s trading promissory note.
(3) Government’s stockpiling (2) Certificate of Deposit is a long-term Instrument
(4) Consumer subsidies issued by RBI to a corporation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (3) ‘Call Money’ is short-term finance used for
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only interbank transactions.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (4) “Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest-bearing
(c) 2 and 3 only short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Banks to corporations.
Q. Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
credit support is given to farmers for which of the (a) 1 and 2 only
following purposes ? (b) 4 only
(1) Working capital for maintenance of farm assets (c) 1 and 3 only
harvesters, (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(2) Purchase of combine tractors and mini trucks Q. With reference to the international trade of India at
requirements of farm present, which of the following statements is/are
(3) Consumption households correct?
(4) Post-harvest expenses (1) India’s merchandise exports are less than its
(5) Construction of family house and setting up of merchandise imports.
village cold storage facility (2) India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals,
Select the correct answer using the code given below: fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only years.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (3) India’s exports of services are more than its imports
(c) 2,3,4 and 5 only of services.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (4) India suffers from an overall trade/current account
Q. Consider the following statements : deficit.
(1) The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (a) 1 and 2 only
(WPI). (b) 2 and 4 only
(2) The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of (c) 3 only
services, which CPI does. (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(3) The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI Q. In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial
as its key measure of inflation and to decide on debt includes which of the following?
changing the key policy rates. (1) Housing loans owed by households
( 2) Amounts outstanding on credit cards ( c) Both 1 and 2
(3) Treasury bills (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Q. If another global financial crisis happens in the near
(a) 1 only future, which of the following actions/policies are most
(b) 1 and 2 only likely to give some immunity to India?
(c) 3 only (1) Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (2) Opening up to more foreign banks
Q. With reference to Trade-Related Investment (3) Maintaining full capital account convertibility
Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements Select the correct answer using the code given below :
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(1) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign (b) 1 and 2 only
investors are prohibited. (c) 3 only
(2) They apply to investment measures related to trade (d) 1, 2 and 3
in both goods and services. Q. If you withdraw 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand
(3) They are not concerned with the regulation of Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on
foreign investment. aggregate money supply in the economy will be
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) to reduce it by 1,00,000
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) to increase it by 1,00,000
(b) 2 only (c) to increase it by more than 1,00,000
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) to leave it unchanged
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist
monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?
2019
(1) Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(2) Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate .With reference to land reforms in independent India,
1
(3) Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate which one of the following statements is correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and
(a) 1 and 2 only not individual holdings.
(b) 2 only (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing
(c) 1 and 3 only agricultural land to all the landless.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a
Q. With reference to the Indian economy after the predominant form of cultivation.
1991 economic liberalization, consider the following (d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the
statements : ceiling limits.
(1) Worker productivity (Rs per worker at 2004-05 Answer: B
prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in 2. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by
rural areas. the
(2) The percentage share of rural areas in the (a) International Monetary Fund
workforce steadily increased. (b) United Nations Conference on Trade and
(3) In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy Development
increased. (c) World Economic Forum
(4) The growth rate in rural employment decreased. (d) World Bank
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Answer: C
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Which one of the following groups of plants was
(b) 3 and 4 only domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into
(c) 3 only the ‘Old World’?
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
Q. Consider the following statements: (b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
(1) In terms of short-term credit delivery to the (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
(DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Answer: A
Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural 4. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are
Banks. higher in some States than in others because
(2) One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to (a) poverty rates vary from State to State
provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit (b) price levels vary from State to State
Societies. (c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) quality of public distribution varies from State to
(a) 1 only State
(b) 2 only Answer: B
. Among the following, which one is the largest
5 ( c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
exporter of rice in the world in the last five years? Guarantee Scheme
(a) China (d) National Skill Development Mission
(b) India Answer:B
(c) Myanmar 10. Consider the following statements:
(d) Vietnam 1.Most of India’s external debt is owed by
Answer: B governmental entities.
6. Consider the following statements: 2.All of India’s external debt is denominated in US
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of dollars.
India under Indira Gandhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis (a) 1 only
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the (b) 2 only
shortages of domestic supply, but now India is (c) Both 1 and 2
self-sufficient in coal production. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Answer:D
(a) 1 only 11. Which of the following is not included in the assets
(b) 2 and 3 only of a commercial bank in India?
(c) 3 only (a) Advances
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Deposits
Answer:A (c) Investments
7. Consider the following statements: (d) Money at call and short notice
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption Answer:B
(UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of 12. In the context of India, which of the following
Migrants by Land, Sea, and Air’. factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global risk of a currency crisis?
anti-corruption instrument. 1.The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against 2.Increasing the government expenditure
Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the 3.Remittances from Indians abroad
inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning Select the correct answer using the code given below:
assets to their rightful owners from whom they had (a) 1 only
been taken illicitly. (b) 1 and 3 only
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (c) 2 only
(UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist (d) 1, 2 and 3
in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Answer:B
Which of the statements given above are correct? 13. Which of the following is issued by registered
(a) 1 and 3 only foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only want to be part of the Indian stock market without
(c) 2 and 4 only registering themselves directly?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Certificate of Deposit
Answer:C (b) Commercial Paper
8. Consider the following statements: (c) Promissory Note
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) (d) Participatory Note
Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 Answer:D
1.if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, 14. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of
it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off the following statements is/are correct?
workers 1.From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a
2.no notice of termination of employment shall be determined thrust towards substitution of basic and
necessary in the case of temporary workman capital good industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2.The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of
(a) 1 only correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration
(b) 2 only of wealth and economic power.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3.In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 financial sector was included as an integral part of the
Answer:C Plan.
9. The Service Area Approach was implemented under Select the correct answer using the code given below:
the purview of (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (b) 2 only
(b) Lead Bank Scheme (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
nswer:A
A (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment
Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following countries:
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 1. Australia
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 2. Canada
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside 3. China
Asia. 4. India
5. Japan
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
6. USA
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only hich of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’
W
(c) 1 and 3 only of ASEAN?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Answer: A (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
2018
. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital
5
1. Consider the following: India” Plan of the Government of India?
1. Areca nut 1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies
2. Barley like China did.
3. Coffee 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage
4. Finger millet overseas multinational corporations that
5. Groundnut collect Big Data to build their large data
6. Sesamum centres within our national geographical
7. Turmeric boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet
he Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has
T and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public
announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the places and major tourist centres.
above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only (b) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (c) 2 and 3 only
2. With reference to the governance of public sector (d) 1, 2 and 3
banking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the . With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas
6
Government of India has steadily increased in Yojana, consider the following statements:
the last decade. 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the Labour and Employment.
merger of associate banks with the parent 2. It, among other things will also impart training
State Bank of India has been affected. in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and
digital literacy.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W 3. It aims to align the competencies of the
(a) 1 only unregulated workforce of the country to the
(b) 2 only National Skill Qualification Framework.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 3 only
3. Consider the following items: (b) 2 only
1. Cereal grains hulled (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Chicken eggs cooked (d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material . The Partnership for Action on Green Economy
7
(PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition
hich of the above items is/are exempted under GST
W towards greener and more inclusive economies,
(Good and Services Tax)? emerged at
(a) 1 only (a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development
(b) 2 and 3 only 2002, Johannesburg.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
( b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro. 13. Consider the following statements:
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and
Climate Change 2015, Paris. services Government of India Securities but
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, not any State Government Securities.
New Delhi. 2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of
India and there are no treasury bills issued by
. Which one of the following statements correctly
8 the State Governments.
describes the meaning of legal tender money? 3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount
(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to from the par value.
defray the fee of legal cases
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to
(a) 1 and 2 only
accept in settlement of his claims
(b) 3 only
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts,
(c) 2 and 3 only
bills of exchange, etc.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country
14. Consider the following statements:
. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the
9
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount
Government, then
that banks have to maintain in the form of their
(a) the opportunity cost is zero.
own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if
(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
the account-holders fail to repay dues.
(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
consumers of the product to the Government. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
0. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do
1 (c) Both 1 and 2
not connote a higher level of economic development, if (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural
output. 15. Consider the following statements:
(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
output. replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration
(c) poverty and unemployment increase. Act, 1954.
(d) imports grow faster than exports. 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of
India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director
1. Consider the following statements:
1 General of Health Services in the Union
Human capital formation as a concept is better Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
explained in terms of a process which enables
1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
capital. (a) 1 only
2. Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and (b) 2 only
capacities of the people of the country. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Accumulation of tangible wealth. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Accumulation of intangible wealth
6. With reference to the provisions made under the
1
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the
(a) 1 and 2 following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. The families coming under the category of
(c) 2 and 4 ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to
(d) 1, 3 and 4 receive subsidised food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18
2. Despite being a high saving economy, capital
1 years or above, shall be the head of the
formation may not result in significant increase in household for the purpose of issuance of a
output due to ration card.
(a) weak administrative machinery 3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are
(b) illiteracy entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories
(c) high population density per day during pregnancy and for six months
(d) high capital-output ratio thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
( a) 1 and 2 only 1. T he quantity of imported edible oils is more
(b) 2 only than the domestic production of edible oils in
(c) 1 and 3 only the last five years.
(d) 3 only 2. The Government does not impose any
customs duty on all the imported edible oils as
7. With reference to digital payments, consider the
1 a special case.
following statements:
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to
(a) 1 only
anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
(b) 2 only
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of
(c) Both 1 and 2
authentication, BHIM app has only two factors
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of authentication.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W 1. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in
2
(a) 1 only India?
(b) 2 only (a) Indian Banks’ Association
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) National Securities Depository Limited
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
8. With reference to India’s decision to levy an
1
equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement 22. Consider the following statements:
services offered by non-resident entities, which of the 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of
following statements is/are correct? citizenship or domicile.
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be
Act. deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
services in India can claim a tax credit in their
(a) 1 only
home country under the “Double Taxation
(b) 2 only
Avoidance Agreements”.
(c) Both 1 and 2
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
2017
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. What is/are the advantage/advantages of
1
19. Consider the following statements: implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget scheme?
Management (FRBM) Review Committee 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for
Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio agricultural commodities.
of 60% for the general (combined) government 2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide
by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central market, with prices commensurate with the
Government and 20% for the State quality of their produce.
Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that (a) 1 only
of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. (b) 2 only
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory (c) Both 1 and 2
for a State to take the Central Government’s (d) Neither1 nor 2
consent for raising any loan if the former owes
any outstanding liabilities to the latter. . Which of the following statements is/are correct
2
regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W 1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates,
(a) 1 only 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor
(b) 2 and 3 only of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Union Finance Minister.
20. Consider the following statements: elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(a) 1 only
( b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only . Which of the following has/have occurred in India
7
(d) 2 and 3 only after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased
3. Consider the following statements: enormously.
1. National Payments Corporation of India 2. Share of India’s exports in world trade
(NPCI) helps in promoting the financial increased.
inclusion in the country 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India’s foreign
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment exchange reserves increased enormously.
scheme.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3
. What is/are the most likely advantages of
4 . Which of the following statements best describes
8
implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
multiple authorities and will thus create a (a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of
single market in India. developmental schemes formulated by the
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Government.
Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial
foreign exchange reserves. structure of big corporate entities facing genuine
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size difficulties.
of economy of India and will enable it to (c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government
overtake China in the near future. regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in The Insolvency and
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the
(a) 1 only
Government.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
9. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation
Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
5. Consider the following statements:
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has
Package of 2013.
steadily increased in the last decade.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has
steadily increased in the last decade. hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 2 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
0. With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property
1
Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
6. Consider the following statements:
1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian
Development Agenda and the TRIPS
Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive
Agreement.
tyres and tubes.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued
is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual
by the Food and Agriculture Organisation
property rights in India.
(FAO).
hich of the above statements is/are correct?
W
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation
1. Which of the following is a most likely consequence
1 Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
of implementing the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)? 2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial
(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online Package of 2013.
payments. 3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
currency in about two decades.
(a) 1 and 2only
(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will
(c) 2 and 3 only
become very effective.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance
1
7. Consider the following in respect of ‘National
1
Banks (SFBs) in India?
Career Service’:
1. To supply credit to small business units
1. National Career Service is an initiative of the
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
Department of Personnel and Training,
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up
Government of India.
business particularly in rural areas.
2. National Career Service has been launched in
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S a Mission Mode to improve the employment
(a) 1 and 2 only opportunities to uneducated youth of the
(b) 2 and 3 only country.
(c) 1 and 3 only
hich of the above statements is/are correct?
W
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
3. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami
1
(c) Both 1 and 2
Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act), consider
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the following statements:
1. A property transaction is not treated as a
8. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat
1
benami transaction if the owner of the property
Abhiyan’?
is not aware of the transaction.
(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration
2. Properties held benami are liable for
between voluntary organizations and government’s
confiscation by the Government.
education system and local communities.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for
(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with
investigations but does not provide for any
local communities to address development challenges
appellate mechanism.
through appropriate technologies.
hich of the statements .given above is/are correct?
W (c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions
(a) 1only in order to make India a scientific and technological
(b) 2 only power.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Developing human capital by allocating special
(d) 2 and 3 only funds for health care and education of rural and urban
poor, and organizing skill development programmes
4. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement
1 and vocational training for them.
(BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
negotiations held between India and 9. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
1
(a) European Union (a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council and financed by credit from the Asian Development
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Bank.
Development (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure
Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable
5. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in
1 mobilization of private sector and institutional investor
the news refers to capital.
(a) ASEAN (c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world
(b) BRICS working with the OECD and focused on expanding the
(c) EU set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to
(d) G20 mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and
16. Consider the following statements: facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
2. T
hey are the rupee-denominated bonds and
0. With reference to ‘National Investment and
2 are a source of debt financing for the public
Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements and private sector.
is/are correct?
elect the correct answer using the code given below
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1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
(a) 1 only
2. 2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at
(b) 2 only
present.
(c) Both 1 and 2
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S (d) Neither1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only . In the context of which of the following do you
2
(c) Both 1 and 2 sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 green box’ in the news?
(a) WTO affairs
1. Which of the following are the objectives of
2 (b) SAARC affairs
‘National Nutrition Mission’? (c) UNFCCC affairs
1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition (d) India-EU negotiations on FTA
among pregnant women and lactating
mothers. . Recently, which one of the following currencies has
3
2. To reduce the incidence of anemia among been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s
young children, adolescent girls and women. SDR?
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse (a) Rouble
cereals and unpolished rice. (b) Rand
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. (c) Indian Rupee
(d) Renminbi
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(a) 1 and 2 only
. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’
4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
has declared that ranking?
(d) 3 and 4 only
(a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and
Development (OECD)
22. What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?
(b) World Economic Forum
1. To enable the famous foreign educational
(c) World Bank
institutions to open their campuses in India.
(d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
2. To increase the quality of education provided
in government schools by taking help from the
5. Consider the following statements:
private sector and the community.
1. New Development Bank has been set up by
3. To encourage voluntary monetary
APEC.
contributions from private individuals and
2. The headquarters of New Development Bank
organizations so as to improve the
is in Shanghai.
infrastructure facilities for primary and
secondary schools. hich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(b) 2 only
(a) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
. With reference to the International Monetary and
6
Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following
statements:
2016 1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting
the global economy, and advises the
. With reference to `IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes
1 International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the
seen in the news, which of the statements given below direction of its work.
is/are correct? 2. The World Bank participates as observer in
1. The International Finance Corporation, which MFC’s meetings,
offers these bonds, is an arm of the World
Bank. hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
( c) Both 1 and 2 anks for determining the interest rates on
b
(d) Neither I nor 2 advances.
2. These guidelines help ensure availability of
. ‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the
7 bank credit at interest rates which are fair to
(a) European Central Bank the borrowers as well as the banks.
(b) International Monetary Fund
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(c) International Bank for Reconstruction and
(a) 1 only
Development
(b) 2 only
(d) Organization for Economic Cooperation and
(c) Both 1 and 2
Development
(d) Neither I nor 2
. Which of the following best describes the term
8
2. What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government’s
1
‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the news?
‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold
(a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross
Monetization Scheme”?
Domestic Product of a country
1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian
(b) It is the total value of imports of a country in a year
households into the economy
(c) It is the ratio between the value of exports and that
2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery
of imports between two countries
sector
(d) It is the number of months of imports that could be
3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports
paid for by a country’s international reserves
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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. With reference to ‘Financial Stability and
9 (a) 1 only
Development Council’, consider the following (b) 2 and 3 only
statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister
3. It monitors macro-prudential supervision of the 3. Which of the following is/are included in the capital
1
economy. budget of the Government of India?
1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like
hich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
W
roads, buildings, machinery, etc,
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. Loans received from foreign governments
(b) 3 only
3. Loans and advances granted to the States and
(c) 2 and 3 only
Union Territories
(d) 1, 2 and 3
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
0. ‘The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being
1 (a) 1 only
allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which (b) 2 and 3 only
of the following statements is/are correct in this (c) 1 and 3 only
context? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket
chains that are owned and controlled by 4. Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’,
1
residents are eligible to be promoters of a scheme of the Government?
Payment Banks. (a) Providing technical and financial assistance to
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards start-up entre-preneurs in the field of renewable
and debit cards. sources of energy
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending (b) Providing electricity to every household iv the
activities. country by 2018
(c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural
elect the correct answer using the code given below
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gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a
(a) 1 and 2 only
period of time.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of
(c) 2 only
power distribution companies
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, which
1
1. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal
1
of the following statements is/are correct?
Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’
1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship
announced by RBI?
among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
1. These guidelines help improve the
2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI,
transparency in the methodology followed by
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
( a) 1 only elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. ‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India,
1
aims at 1. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
2
(a) promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas Yojana’, consider the following statements:
(b) providing financial and technical assistance to 1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a
young start-up entrepreneurs uniform premium of two percent for any crop
(c) promoting the education and health of adolescent they cultivate in any season of the year.
girls 2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses
(d) providing affordable and quality education to the arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.
citizens for free
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only
7. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at
1
(b) 2 only
(a) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal
(c) Both 1 and 2
financial system
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating
particular crops
2. What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘District
2
(c) providing pensions to old and destitute persons
Mineral Foundations’ in India?
(d) funding the voluntary organizations involved in the
1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in
promotion of skill development and employment
mineral-rich districts
generation
2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected
by mining operations
8. Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the
1
3. Authorizing State Governments to issue
following statements is/are correct?
licences for mineral exploration
1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme
mainly targeted at unorganized sector elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
workers. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Only one member of a family can join the (b) 2 only
scheme. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the (d) 1, 2 and 3
spouse for life after subscriber’s death.
3. Which of the following is/are the
2
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the
(a) 1 only
Global Hunger Index Report?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Undernourishment
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Child stunting
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Child mortality
9. The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is
1 elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
sometimes seen in the news in the context of (a) 1 only
(a) mining operation by multinational companies in (b) 2 and 3 only
resource-rich but backward areas (c) 1, 2 and 3
(b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational (d) 1 and 3 only
companies
(c) exploitation of genetic resources of a country by
multinational companies
(d) lack of consideration of environmental planning and 2015
developmental costs in the implementation of projects
. The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in
1
agricultural production is an example
0. There has been a persistent deficit budget year
2
(a) labour-augmenting technological progress
after year. Which action/actions of the following can be
(b) capital-augmenting technological progress
taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?
(c) capital-reducing technological progress
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
. Which one of the following best describes the main
2
4. Reducing import duty
objective of Seed Village Concept?
( a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm ( c) reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a
seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from heavier burden on developed countries
others (d) transfer technology from developed countries to
(b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed poor countries to enable them to replace the use of
production and thereby to make available quality chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless
seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost chemicals
(c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the
production of certified seeds . Convertibility of rupee implies:
9
(d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages and (a) being able to convert rupee notes into gold
providing them technology and finance to set up seed (b) allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market
companies forces
(c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other
. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of
3 currencies and vice versa
sugarcane is approved by the (d) developing an international market for currencies in
(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs India
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of 0. There has been a persistent deficit budget year
1
Agriculture after year. Which of the following actions can be taken
(d) Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee by the government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of
4 2. Introducing new welfare schemes
the following is given the highest weight? 3. Rationalizing subsidies
(a) Coal production 4. Expanding industries
(b) Electricity generation
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(c) Fertilizer production
(a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Steel production
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
. Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer
5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Price Index Number for Industrial Workers?
(a) The Reserve Bank of India
1. With reference to inflation in India, which of the
1
(b) The Department of Economic Affairs
following statements is correct?
(c) The Labour Bureau
(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility
(d) The Department of Personnel and Training
of the Government of India only
(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in
. Which one of the following issues the ‘Global
6
controlling the inflation
Economic Prospects’ report periodically?
(c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling
(a) The Asian Development Bank
the inflation
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and
(d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the
Development
inflation
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
(d) The World Bank
2. The problem of international liquidity is related to
1
the non-availability of
. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement
7
(a) goods and services
on the Application of Sanitary and Phyto-sanitary
(b) gold and silver
Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news
(c) dollars and other hard currencies
frequently in the context of affairs of the
(d) exportable surplus
(a) Food and Agriculture Organization
(b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate
3. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance
1
Change
Commission, which of the following statements is/are
(c) World Trade Organization
correct?
(d) United Nations Environment Programme
1. It has increased the share of States in the
central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42
. ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in
8
percent.
the news, seeks to
2. It has made recommendations concerning
(a) develop national strategies for the conservation
sector-specific grants.
and sustainable use of biological diversity
(b) improve banking sector’s ability to deal with elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
financial and econo-mic stress and improve risk (a) 1 only
management (b) 2 only
( c) Both 1 and 2 hich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
4. With reference to Indian economy, consider the
1 (c) Both 1 and 2
following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic
Product has steadily increased in the last 9. In India, markets in agricultural products are
1
decade. regulated under the
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(in rupees) has steadily increased in the last (b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act
decade. enacted by States
(c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act,
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
1937
(a) 1 only
(d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food
(b) 2 only
Products Order, 1973
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither1 nor 2
0. The Government of India has established NITI
2
Aayog to replace the
5. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country
1
(a) Human Rights Commission
indicates which of the following?
(b) Finance Commission
1. Slowing economic growth rate
(c) Law Commission
2. Less equitable distribution of national income
(d) Planning Commission
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(a) 1 only 1. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the
2
(b) 2 only Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points which of
(c) Both 1 and 2 the following is likely to happen?
(d) Neither1 nor 2 (a) India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically
(b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more
6. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
1 capital into our country
Yojana’, consider the following statements: (c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending
1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a rates
uniform premium of two percent for any crop (d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking
they cultivate in any season of the year. system
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses
arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains. 2. With reference to Indian economy, consider the
2
following:
hich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
W 1. Bank rate
(a) 1 only 2. Open market operations
(b) 2 only 3. Public debt
(c) Both 1 and 2 4. Public Revenue
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
hich of the above is/are component/components of
W
7. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been
1 Monetary Policy?
launched for (a) 1 only
(a) providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper (b) 2, 3 and 4
interest rates (c) 1 and 2
(b) promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in backward (d) 1, 3 and 4
areas
(c) promoting financial inclusion in the country 3. With reference to inflation in India, which of the
2
(d) providing financial help to the marginalized following statements is correct?
communities (a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility
of the Government of India only
18. Consider the following statements: (b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in
1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits controlling the inflation
Programme was launched during 1996-97 to (c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling
provide loan assistance to poor farmers. the inflation
2. The Command Area Development Programme (d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the
was launched in 1974-75 for the development inflation
of water-use efficiency,
( c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce
4. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy
2 unemployment
Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the (d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Public Limited Government Company. . If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
5
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company. (a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the
economy
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(b) increase the tax collection of the Government
(a) 1 only
(c) increase the investment expenditure in the
(b) 2 only
economy
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) increase the total savings in the economy
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. What does venture capital mean?
6
(a) A short-term capital provided to industries
2014 (b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new
entrepreneurs
. In the context of food and nutritional security of
1 (c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring
India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of losses
various crops helps in achieving the food production (d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of
targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ industries
constraints in its wider/greater implementation?
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place. . The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net
7
2. There is no participation of private sector seed Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in
companies in the supply of quality seeds of news, are used in relation to
vegetables and planting materials of (a) banking operations
horticultural crops. (b) communication networking
3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding (c) military strategies
quality seeds in case of low value and high (d) supply and demand of agricultural products
volume crops.
. What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can
8
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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get from the services of Business Correspondent
(a) 1 and 2
(Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
(b) 3 only
1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their
(c) 2 and 3
subsidies and social security benefits in their
(d) None
villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas
. Which of the following organizations brings out the
2
to make deposits and withdrawals.
publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?
(a) The International Monetary Fund elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(b) The United Nations Development Programme (a) 1 only
(c) The World Economic Forum (b) 2 only
(d) The World Bank (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’
3
in India? . In the context of Indian economy, which of the
9
1. The Finance Commission following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory
2. The National Development Council Reserve Requirements’?
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development amount of advances the banks can create
5. The parliament 2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe
and liquid
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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3. To prevent the commercial banks from making
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
excessive profits
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault-cash
(c) 2 and 5 only
to meet their day-to-day requirements
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is
4 (a) 1 only
(a) inclusive growth and poverty reduction (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) inclusive growth and sustainable growth (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates
3
0. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a
1 that the
toothpaste is a (a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall
(a) tax imposed by the Central Government (b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to
(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but commercial banks
collected by the State Government (c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected (d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy
by the Central Government
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State . In India, deficit financing is used for raising
4
Government resources for
(a) Economic development
1. With reference to Balance of Payments, which of
1 (b) Redemption of public debt
the following constitutes/ constitute the Current (c) Adjusting the balance of payments
Account? (d) Reducing the foreign debt
1. Balance of trade
2. Foreign assets . Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes
5
3. Balance of invisibles the lending to
4. Special Drawing Rights (a) agriculture
(b) micro and small enterprises
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(c) weaker sections
(a) 1 only
(d) All of the above
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
6. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
(d) 1, 2 and 4
1. an increase in the money supply
2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
2. With reference to Union Budget, which of the
1
3. an increase in the effective demand
following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
1. Defence expenditure elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
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2. Interest payments (a) 1 only
3. Salaries and pensions (b) 1 and 2 only
4. Subsidies (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(a) 1 only
. Which one of the following is likely to be the most
7
(b) 2 and 3 only
inflationary in its effect?
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Repayment of public debt
(d) None
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget
deficit
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
2013 (d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
. Disguised unemployment generally means
1 . Supply of money remaining the same when there is
8
(a) large number of people remain unemployed an increase in demand for money, there will be
(b) alternative employment is not available (a) a fall in the level of prices
(c) marginal productivity of labour is zero (b) an increase in the rate of interest
(d) productivity of workers is low (c) a decrease in the rate of interest
(d) an increase in the level of income and employment
. Which one of the following groups of items is
2
included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves? . Which of the following grants/grant direct credit
9
(a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights assistance to rural households?
(SDRs) and loans from foreign countries 1. Regional Rural Banks
(b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
and SDRs Development
(c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World 3. Land Development Banks
Bank and SDRs
(d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI elect the correct answer using below.
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and loans from the World Bank (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market
1
10. Consider the following statements: Operations’ refers to
1. Inflation benefits the debtors. (a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
2. Inflation benefits the bondholders. (b) lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c) purchase and sale of government securities by the
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
RBI
(a) 1 only
(d) None of the above
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
6. The national income of a country for a given period
1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
is equal to the
(a) total value of goods and services produced by the
11. Consider the following liquid assets:
nationals
1. Demand deposits with the banks
(b) sum of total expenditure
2. Time deposits with the banks
(c) sum of personal income of all individuals
3. Savings deposits with the banks
(d) money value of final goods and services produced
4. Currency
he correct sequence of these assets in the
T 7. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend,
1
decreasing order of liquidity is what should India do?
(a) 1-4-3-2 (a) Promoting skill development
(b) 4-3-2-1 (b) Introducing more social security schemes
(c) 2-3-1-4 (c) Reducing infant mortality rate
(d) 4-1-3-2 (d) Privatization of higher education
2. The balance of payments of a country is a
1 8. Economic growth in country X will occur if
1
systematic record of (a) there is technical progress in the world economy
(a) All import and export transactions of a country (b) there is population growth in X
during a given period of time, normally a year (c) there is capital formation in X
(b) Goods exported from a country during a year (d) the volume of trade grows in the world economy
(c) Economic transaction between the government of
one country to another
(d) Capital movements from one country to another 2012
3. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the
1 . The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by
1
commercial banks in matters of Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with
1. Liquidity of assets UNDP support covers which of the following?
2. Branch expansion 1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and
3. Merger of banks services at household level
4. Winding-up of banks 2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate
elect the correct answer using the codes given
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at national level
below:
(a) 1 and 4 only elect the correct answer using the codes given
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(b) 2, 3 and 4 only below:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
14. Which of the following constitute Capital Account? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Foreign Loans
2. Foreign Direct Investment . Consider the following specific stages of
2
3. Private Remittances demographic transition associated with economic
4. Portfolio Investment development
1. Low birthrate with low death rate
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
2. High birthrate with high death rate
(a) 1, 2 and 3
3. High birthrate with low death rate
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 elect the correct order of the above stages using the
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(d) 1, 3 and 4 codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3
( c) 2, 3, 1 ( a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3, 2, 1 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
. Which of the following can aid in furthering the
3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Government’s objective of inclusive growth?
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups 7. Consider the following:
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium 1. Hotels and restaurants
Enterprises 2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act 3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
below: he employees of which of the above can have the
T
(a) 1 only ̀Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State
(b) 1 and 2 only Insurance Scheme?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
. With reference to National Rural Health Mission,
4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained
community health worker? . How do District Rural Development Agencies
8
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
antenatal care checkup 1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of certain Specified backward regions of the
pregnancy country.
3. Providing information on nutrition and 2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific
immunization study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition
4. Conducting the delivery of baby and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and
elect he correct answer using the codes given below:
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inter-departmental coordination and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
cooperation for effective implementation of
(b) 2 and 4 only
anti-poverty programmes.
(c) 1 and 3 only
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty
programmes
. The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’
5
Programme is hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1. to promote institutional deliveries (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother (b) 3 and 4 only
to meet the cost of delivery. (c) 4 only
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
confinement
. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’
9
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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bank.
(a) 1 and 2 only
This would imply which of the following?
(b) 2 only
1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
(c) 3 only
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks
(d) 1, 2 and 3
in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on
. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission
6
monetary matters.
seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new elect the correct answer using the codes given
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manufacturing industries and agribusiness below:
centres in rural areas (a) 2, and 3 only
2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and (b) 1 and 2 only
providing skill development (c) 1 and 3 only
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel (d) 1, 2 and 3
pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free
of cost to farmers 0. Under which of the following circumstances may
1
‘capital gains arise?
elect the correct answer using the codes given
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below:
1. W hen there is an increase in the sales of a 1. P ermitting the Non-Banking Financial
product Companies to do banking
2. When there is a natural increase in the value 2. Establishing effective District Planning
of the property owned Committees in all the districts
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a 3. Increasing the government spending on public
growth in its value due to increase in its health
popularity 4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S elect the correct answer using the codes given
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below: below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Which of the following measures would result in an
1 5. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct
1
increase in the money supply in the economy? Investment in India?
1. Purchase of government securities from the 1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
public by the Central Bank 2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by companies
the public 3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central companies
Bank 4. Portfolio investment
4. Sale of government securities to the public by
elect the correct answer using the codes given
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the Central Bank
below:
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below: (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4 6. Consider the following statements:
1
The price of any currency in international market is
2. Consider the following statements: The price of
1 decided by the
any currency in international decided by the 1. World Bank
1. World Bank 2. Demand for goods/services provided by the
2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
country concerned 3. Stability of the government of the concerned
3. Stability of the government of the concerned country
country 4. Economic potential of the country in question.
4. Economic potential of the country in question
elect the correct answer using the codes below:
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hich of the statements given above are correct?
W (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 only
7. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial
1
3. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
1 Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a
(a) big banks should try to open offices in each district combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are
(b) there should be stiff competition among the various among those Eight Core Industries?
nationalized banks 1. Cement
(c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for 2. Fertilizers
intensive development 3. Natural Gas
(d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to 4. Refinery products
mobilize deposits 5. Textiles
elect the correct answer using the codes given below
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4. Which of the following can be said to be essentially
1
(a) 1 and 5 only
the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance”?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 hich, of the above action/actions can help in
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reducing the current account deficit?
8. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of
1 (a) 1 and 2
Government of India to promote the growth of (b) 2 and 3
manufacturing sector? (c) 3 only
1. Setting up of National Investment and (d) 1 and 3
Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window . Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign
5
clearance’ Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and country. Which one of the following statements best
Development Fund. represents an important difference between the two?
(a) FII helps bring better management skills and
elect the correct answer using the codes given
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technology, while FDI only brings in capital
below:
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general,
(a) 1 only
while FDI only targets specific sectors
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII
(c) 1 and 3 only
targets primary market.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to
6
2011 witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India
amounted to
. In India, which of the following have the highest
1 (a) Export
share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and (b) Import
allied activities? (c) Production
(a) Commercial Banks (d) Consumption
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks . A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes
7
(d) Microfinance Institutions attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?
(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to
. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its
2 failure of crops
equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid
(CPSEs)? economic growth
1. The Government intends to use the revenue (c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year
earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay on the calculation of inflation rate
back the external debt. (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
2. The Government no longer intends to retain is correct in this context
the management control of the CPSEs.
. Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial
8
hich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
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banks a cause of economic concern?
(a) 1 only
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an
(b) 2 only
aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be
(c) Both 1 and 2
exposed to the risk of defaulters in future,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to
inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up
. Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which
3
manufacturing or export units.
one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It can grant loans to any country hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(b) It can grant loans to only developed countries (a) 1 only
(c) It grants loans to only member countries (b) 2 only
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2
. Consider the following actions which the
4
Government can take: . The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of
9
1. Devaluing the domestic currency. India leads to
2. Reduction in the export subsidy. (a) More liquidity in the market
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater (b) Less liquidity in the market
FDI and more funds from FIls. (c) No change in the liquidity in the market
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
0. Which one of the following statements
1
appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”? 5. A “closed economy” is an economy in which
1
(a) It is a massive investment by the Government in (a) the money supply is fully controlled
manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to (b) deficit financing takes place
meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic (c) only exports take place
growth (d) neither exports nor imports take place
(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government
to boost economic activity in the country 6. India has experienced persistent and high food
1
(c) It is Government’s intensive action on financial inflation in the recent past. What could be the
institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to reasons?
agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food 1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation
production and contain food inflation of commercial crops, the area under the
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the cultivation of food grains has steadily
Government to pursue its policy of financial, inclusion decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the
1. In the context of Indian economy, consider the
1 consumption patterns of the people have
following statements: undergone a significant change.
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased 3. The food supply chain has structural
in the last five years. constraints.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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steadily increased in the last five years.
(a) 1 and 2 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 7. Which one of the following is not a feature of
1
“Value Added Tax”?
2. Among the following who are eligible to benefit
1 (a) It is a multi point destination based system of
from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural taxation.
Employment Guarantee Act”? (b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of
(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and transaction in the production-distribution chain.
scheduled tribe households (c) It is a tax on final consumption of goods or services
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) and must ultimately be borne by consumer.
households (d) It is basically subject of the central government and
(c) Adult members of house holds of all backward state government are merely facilitator for its
communities successful implementation.
(d) Adult members of any household 18. Economic growth is usually coupled with?
(a) Deflation
3. A “closed economy” is an economy in which
1 (b) Inflation
(a) the money supply is fully controlled (c) Stagflation
(b) deficit financing takes place (d) Hyperinflation
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place
14. With what purpose is the Government of India
promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the
food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items
and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food
processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
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below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY ( b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish,
2022 crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals
thrive.
. Among the following crops, which one is the most
1
(c) 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining
important anthropogenic source of both methane and
sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
nitrous oxide ?
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess
(a) Cotton
nutrients.
(b) Rice
6. In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO
(c) Sugarcane
consider the Air Quality following
(d) Wheat
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not
2. Consider the following pairs:
exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5
Wetland/Lake: Location
should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
1. Hokera Wetland Punjab
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution
2. Renuka Wetland Himachal
occur during the periods of inclement weather.
Pradesh
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter
3. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura
the bloodstream.
4. Sasthamkotta Tamil Nadu
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
ow many pairs given above are correctly matched?
H
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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(a) Only one pair
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Only two pairs
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) Only three pairs
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All four pairs
(d) 1 and 2 only
3.“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the
7. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in
emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :
the news, consider the following statements:
(a) Database created by coalition of research
1. It is a fungus.
organisations
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan
(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework
foothills of north-eastern India.
Convention on Climate Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Environment Programme and World Bank (a) 1 only
4. Consider the following statements: (b) 3 only
1. The Climate Group is an international (c) 1 and 2
non-profit organisation that drives climate (d) 2 and 3
action by building large networks and runs 8. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the
them. use of which is so widespread in our daily lives,
2. The International Energy Agency in consider the following statements:
partnership with the Climate Group launched a 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton
global initiative “EP100”. fibres to reinforce their properties.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any
committed to driving innovation in energy alcoholic beverage.
efficiency and increasing competitiveness 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other
while delivering on emission reduction goals. products.
4. Some Indian companies are members of 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of
EP100. by incineration without causing greenhouse
5. The International Energy Agency is the gas emissions.
Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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hich of the statements given above are correct?
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(a) 1,2, 4 and 5 (b) 2 and 4
(b) 1,3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 5 only (d) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 9. Which of the following is not a bird?
5. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of (a) Golden Mahseer
the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its (b) Indian Nightjar
kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of (c) Spoonbill
wetlands best reflects the above statement? (d) White Ibis
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, 10. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
subsoil percolation and evaporation. 1. Alfalfa
.
2 maranth
A ( d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member
3. Chickpea countries of the Arctic Council.
4. Clover 16. Which one of the following best describes the term
5. Purslane (Kulfa) “greenwashing”?
6. Spinach (a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s
products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) Ignoring the consequences disastrous ecological
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
while infrastructure development undertaking
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental
11. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one
costs in a government project/programme
of the following situations?
17. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
protection, consider the following statements :
(b) Development of building materials using plant
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the
residues
government.
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of
2. When a wild animal is declared protected,
shale gas
such animal is entitled for equal protection
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in
whether it is found in protected areas or
forests/protected areas
outside.
12. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and
becoming a danger to human life is sufficient
semi-arid areas
ground for its capture or killing.
(d). Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on
sea surfaces hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(b) Development of gardens genetically modified flora (a) 1 and 2
using (b) 2 only
(d) Creation of mini forests in urban areas (c) 1 and 3
13. Consider the following statements: (d) 3 only
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to 18. Certain species of which one of the following
promote sustainable sanitation and is funded organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
by the Government of India and the World (a) Ant
Health Organisation. (b) Cockroach
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an (c) Crab
apex body of the Ministry of Housing and (d) Spider
Urban Affairs in Government of India and 19. Consider the following:
provides innovative solutions to address the 1. Carbon monoxide
challenges of Urban India. 2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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4. Sulphur dioxide
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only xcess of which of the above in the environment is/are
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(c) Both 1 and 2 cause(s) of acid rain?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3
14. Which one of the following has been constituted (b) 2 and 4 only
under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? (c) 4 only
(a) Central Water Commission (d) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency
2021
15. Which one of the following statements best
describes the ‘Polar Code’? . The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland
Q
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no
operating in polar waters. trees. The forest development in such areas is
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the generally kept in check by one or more or a
North Pole regarding the demarcation of their combination of some conditions.
territories in the polar region. Which of the following are such conditions?
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries 1. Burrowing animals and termites
whose scientists undertake research studies in the 2. Fire
North Pole and South Pole. 3. Grazing herbivores
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4 easonal rainfall ) 2 Only
b
5. Soil properties c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
elect the correct answer using the codes given below
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Q. Consider the following statements:
a) 1 and 2
Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development
b) 4 and 5
Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have
c) 2, 3 and 4
recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of
d) 1, 3 and 5
the World.
Q Consider the following statements:
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous
for a year following its commitment to grow and
evergreen tree.
maintain the urban forests.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as
above statements?
minor forest produce.
a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in
b)Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and
the production of biofuels.
Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
b) 3, 4 and 5 d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct
c) 1, 3 and 4 Q. With reference to the water on the planet Earth,
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 consider the following statements:
Q. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other 1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is
biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost more than the amount of groundwater.
bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely 2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and
composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy glaciers is more than the amount of
vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as groundwater.
epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees”. This
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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is the most likely description of
a) 1 Only
a) coniferous forest
b) 2 Only
b) dry deciduous forest
c) Both 1 and 2
c) mangrove forest
d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) tropical rain forest
Q. With reference to WaterCredit’, consider the
Q. Which one of the following is used in preparing a
following statements:
natural mosquito repellent?
1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water
a) Congress grass
and sanitation sector.
b) Elephant grass
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis
c) Lemongrass
of the World Health Organization and the
d) Nut grass
World Bank.
Q. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their
1. Copepods
water needs without depending on subsidies.
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms hich of the statements given above are correct?
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4. Foraminifera a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
hich of the above are primary producers in the food
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c) 1 and 3 Only
chains of oceans?
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 and 2
Q. ‘R2 Code of Parctices’ constitutes a tool available
b) 2 and 3
for promoting the adoption of
c) 3 and 4
1. environmentally responsible practices in
d) 1 and 4
electronics recycling industry
Q. In the nature, which of the following is/are most
2. ecological management of ‘wetlands of
likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
International Importance’ under the Ramsar
1. Fern
Convention
2. Litchen
3. sustainable practices in the cultivation of
3. Moss
agricultural crops in degraded lands
4. Mushroom
4. ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the
elect the correct answer using the code given below
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a) 1 and 4 Only
. Why is there a concern about copper smelting
Q c ) 3 and 4
plants? d) 2 and 5
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon Q. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause
monoxide into environment. neurodegenerative problems, are generated as
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of environmental pollutants from which of the following?
some heavy metals into environment. 1. Brakes of motor vehicles
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a 2. Engines of motor vehicles
pollutant. 3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
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5. Telephone lines
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only elect the correct answer using the code given below
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c) 1 and 3 Only a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 4 Only
Q. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following c) 3, 4 and 5 Only
statements: d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. It is a product of oil refineries. Q. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
2. Some industries use it to generate power. a) Catfish
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into b) Octopus
Environment. c) Oyster
d) Pelican
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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Q. In case of which one of the following
a) 1 and 2 Only
biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the
b) 2 and 3 Only
main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?
c) 1 and 3 Only
a) carbon cycle
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Nitrogen cycle
Q. What is blue carbon?
c) Phosphorus Cycle
a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal
d) Sulphur Cycle
ecosystems
Q. Which of the following are detritivores?
b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and
1. Earthworms
agricultural soils
2. Jellyfish
c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas.
3. Millipedes
d) Carbon present in atmosphere
4. Seahorses
Q. Consider the following animals:
5. Woodlice
1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3. Pangolin 1. 1, 2 and 4 Only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only
o reduce the chance of being captured by predators,
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3. 1, 3 and 5 Only
which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts?
a) 1 and 2 . The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP,
Q
b) 2 only has been developed for
c) 3 only a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations
d)1 and 3 around the world
Q. With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on b) enabling commercial farming entities around the
Forests’. Which of the following statements are world to enter carbon emission trading
correct? c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations footprint caused by their countries
Climate Summit in 2014. d) assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
forests. Q. Which of the following have species that can
3. It is a legally binding international declaration. establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies 1. Cnidarians
and indigenous communities. 2. Fungi
5. India was one of the signatories at its 3. Protozoa
inception.
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
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elect the Correct answer using the code given below.
S a) 1 and 2 Only
a) 1,2 and 4 b) 2 and 3 Only
b) 1,3 and 5 c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3 3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great
Indian Bustard.
elect the correct answer using the code given below;
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2020 [a) 1 and 2 only
[b) 2 und 3 only
. If a particular plant species is placed under
Q [c) 1 and 3 only
Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what [d) 1, 2 and 3
is the implication? Q. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has
[a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant. the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”
[b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any [a) Corbett
circumstances. [b) Ranthambore
[c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant. [c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
[d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the [d) Sunderbans
ecosystem. Q. Which of the following Protected Areas are located
Q. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the in Cauvery basin ?
following statements : 1. Nagarhole National park
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female 2. Papikonda National park
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
months. 4. Wayanad Wildlife sanctuary
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the
age of 40 years only. elect the correct answer using the code given below :
S
4. Among the States in India, the highest [a) 1 and 2 only
elephant population is in Kerala. [b) 3 and 4 only
[c) 1, 3 and 4 only
hich of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
W [d) 1,2,3 and 4
[a) 1 and 2 only Q. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for
[b) 2 and 4 only exposure to benzene pollution ?
[c) 3 only 1. Automobile exhaust
[d) 1, 3 and 4 only 2. Tobacco smoke
Q. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon 3. Wood burning
frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray-chinned minivet 4. Using varnished wooden furniture
and White-throated redstart are 5. Using products made of polyurethane
[a) Birds
[b) Primates elect the correct answer using the code given below :
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[c) Reptiles [a) 1, 2 and 3 only
[d) Amphibians [b) 2 and 4 only
Q. Which one of the following protected areas is [c) 1, 3 and 4 only
well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the [d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Indian swamp deer (Barasinga) that thrives well in Q. Consider the following statements:
hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? 1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as
[a) Kanha National Park “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central
[b) Manas National Park Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
[c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary 2. CGWA was formed under the Environment
[d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary (Protection) Act.
Q. Which of the following are the most likely places to 3. India has the largest area under groundwater
find the musk deer in its natural habitat ? irrigation in the world.
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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2. Gangotri National Park
[a) 1 only
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
[b) 2 and 3 only
4. Manas National Park
[c) 2 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below
S [d) 1 and 3 only
[a) 1 and 2 only Q. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels,
[b) 2 and 3 only which of the following can be used as raw materials for
[c) 3 and 4 only the production of biofuels?
[d) 1 and 4 only 1. Cassava
Q. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, 2. Damaged wheat grains
which of the following statements are correct? 3. Groundnut seeds
1. It is spread over two districts. 4. Horse gram
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet 1. Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in
[a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
India only.
[b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in
[c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
India only.
[d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q. Which one of the following statements best hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a (a) 1 only
measure, in monetary value, of the (b) 2 only
[a) long-term damage done by a tonne of COշ (c) 1 and 3 only
emissions in a given year. (d) 1, 2 and 3
[b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide 2. In the context of which of the following do some
goods and services to its citizens, based on the scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning
burning of those fuels. technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into
[c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in stratosphere?
a new place. (a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
[d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical
footprint on the planet Earth. cyclones
Q. Steel slag can be the material for which of the (c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the
following ? Earth
1. Construction of base road (d) Reducing the global warming
2. Improvement of agricultural soil 3. In the context of which one of the following arc the
3. Production of cement terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
elect the correct answer using the code given below :
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(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
(c) 1 and 3 only
4.Which of the following are in Agasthyamala
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Biosphere Reserve?
Q. In rural road construction, the use of which of the
(a) Neyyar, ldl Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife
following is preferred for ensuring environmental
Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad
1. Copper slag
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda
3. Geotextiles
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries;
5. Portland cement
and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
elect the correct answer using the code given below :
S 5. Consider the following statements:
[a) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
[b) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
[c) 4 and 5 only 3. Some species of marine mammals are
[d) 1 and 5 only herbivores.
Q. Consider the following statements : 4. Some species of snakes viviparous.
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
hich of the statements given above arc correct?
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2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur
(a) 1 and 3 only
dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
environment.
(c) 2 and 4 only
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
hich of the statements given above is/are correct ?
W 6. Consider the following pairs Wildlife Naturally found
[a) 1 only in
[b) 2 and 3 only 1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River
[c) 3 only 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River
[d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats
hich of the pairs given correctly matched?
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(a) 1 and 2 only
2019 (b) 2 and 3 only
( c) 1 and 3 only overnment of India based on the
G
(d) 1, 2 and 3 recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
7. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and
that are released into environment? Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass
(a) They are considered harmful to marine the drainage area or catchment regions of the
ecosystems. wetlands as determined by the authority.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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children.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop
(b) 2 and 3 only
plants in irrigated fields.
(c) 3 only
(d) They are often found to be used as food
(d) 1, 2 and 3
adulterants.
13. Consider the following statements:
8. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into
country about the importance of Himalayan nettle
environment.
(Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
sustainable source of
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen
(a) anti-malarial drug
compounds environment.
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry hich of the statements given above is/arc correct?
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(d) textile fibre (a) 1 and 3 only
9. Which of the following statements are correct about (b) 2 and 3 only
the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’? (c) 2 only
1. Global warming might trigger the release of (d) 1, 2 and 3
methane gas from these deposits. 14. What is common to the places known as Aliyar,
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found Isapur and Kangsabati?
in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. (a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon (b) Tropical rain forests
dioxide after a decade or two. (c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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15. In the context of proposals to the use of
(a) 1 and 2 only
hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in
(b) 2 and 3 only
public transport, consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Handling) Rules, 1998
10. Consider the following:
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage)
1. Carbon monoxide
Rules, 1999
2. Methane
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules,
3. Ozone
2011
4. Sulphur dioxide
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
hich of the above are released into atmosphere due
W 16. Which one of the following National Parks lies
to the burning of crop/biomass residue? completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Manas National Park
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Namdapha National Park
(c) 1 and 4 only (c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
11. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion,
phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension.
These chemicals are used as
2018
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents . In which one of the following States is Pakhui
1
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics Wildlife Sanctuary located?
12. Consider the following statements: (a) Arunachal Pradesh
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on (b) Manipur
the part of the Government of India to protect (c) Meghalaya
and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of (d) Nagaland
India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and 2. Consider the following statements:
Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the
1. T he definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is
incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. . With reference to the circumstances in Indian
7
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture”
given Habitat Rights. assume significance. Which of the following fall under
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and the Conservation Agriculture?
Climate Change officially decides and declares 1. Avoiding monoculture practices
Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable 2. Adopting minimum tillage
Tribal Groups in any part of India. 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop
(a) 1 and 2 only
sequencing/crop rotations
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
. Which of the following is/are the possible
3 (c) 2, 4 and 5
consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater . Which of the following leaf modifications occur (s) in
8
3. Lowering of the water-table the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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2. Tiny leaves
(a) 1 only
3. Thorns instead of leaves
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
4. Consider the following statements: (c) 3 only
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical (d) 1, 2 and 3
waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs . How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different
9
are located in the territories of Australia, from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
Indonesia and Philippines. 1. The NGT has been established by an Act
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal whereas the CPCB has been created by an
phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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helps reduce the burden of litigation in the
(a) 1 and 2 only
higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes
(b) 3 only
cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to
(c) 1 and 3 only
improve the quality of air in the country.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an
5 (a) 1 only
initiative launched by (b) 2 only
(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) The UNEP Secretariat (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meterological Organisation 0. Which of the following has/have shrunk
1
immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human
. Which of the following statements best describes
6 activities?
“carbon fertilization”? 1. Aral Sea
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased 2. Black Sea
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. 3. Lake Baikal
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(a) 1 only
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased
(b) 2 and 3 only
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(c) 2 only
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the
(d) 1 and 3 only
climate change brought about by the increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
2017 hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
. The term ‘M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in the
Q (c) Both 1 and 2
news in the context of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves . If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat,
Q
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System which one of the following is the best place to visit?
(d) Security of National Highways (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared
Q (c) Pulicat Lake
protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) (d) Deepor Bed
Act, 1972, what does it imply?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. . From the ecological point of view, which one of the
Q
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are following assumes importance in being a good link
under captive protection; and now it is impossible to between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
prevent its extinction. (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India. (b) Nallamala Forest
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this (c) Nagarhole National Park
context. (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some
Q . Consider the following statements in respect of
Q
of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in
which one of the following sites? Commerce (TRAFFIC):
(a) Corbett National Park 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Environment Programme (UNEP).
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that
(d) Sariska National Park trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat
to the conservation of nature.
. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’,
Q
which of the following statements is/are correct? hich of the above statements is/are correct?
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1. It is an initiative of the European Union. (a) 1 only
2. It provides technical and financial support to (b) 2 only
targeted developing countries to integrate (c) Both 1 and 2
climate change into their development policies (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute . In the context of solving pollution problems, what
Q
(WRI) and World Business Council for is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation
Sustainable Development (WBCSD). technique?
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S enhancing the same biodegradation process
(a) 1 and 2 only that occurs in nature.
(b) 3 only 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as
(c) 2 and 3 only cadmium and lead can be readily and
(d) 1, 2 and completely treated by bioremediation using
microorganisms.
. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard
Q 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create
criterion for microorganisms specifically designed for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood bioremediation.
(b) Computing- oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Q. Consider the following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to (d) 1, 2 and 3
Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a
unique initiative of G20 group of countries. . It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but
Q
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing
and hydrofluorocarbons. countries in promoting this industry?
1. P roduction of algae based biofuels is possible 2016
in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based
biofuel production requires high level of . The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined
Q
expertise/technology until the construction is Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the
completed. context of
3. Economically viable production necessitates (a) pledges made by the European countries to
the setting up of large scale facilities which rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East
may raise ecological and social concerns. (b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world
to combat climate change
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S (c) capital contributed by the member countries in the
(a) 1 and 2 only establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world
(c) 3 only regarding Sustainable Development Goals
(d) 1, 2 and 3
. What is/are the importance/importances of the
Q
. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the
Q ‘United Nations Convention to Combat
population of species of butterflies, what could be its Desertification’?
likely consequence/consequences? 1. It aims to promote effective action through
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely innovative national programmes and
affected. supportive international partnerships.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal 2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia
infections of some cultivated plants. and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some facilitates the allocation of major portion of
species of wasps, spiders and birds. financial resources to these regions.
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S 3. It is committed to bottom-up approach,
(a) 1 only encouraging the participation of local people in
(b) 2 and 3 only combating the desertification.
(c) 1 and 3 only elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
. In the context of mitigating the impending global
Q (c) 1 and 3 only
warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon (d) 1, 2 and 3
dioxide, which of the following can be the potential
sites for carbon sequestration? . Consider the following pairs
Q
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams Terms sometimes Their origin
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs seen in the news
3. Subterranean deep saline formations 1. Annex-I Countries : Cartagena
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S Protocol
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Certified Emissions Reductions : Nagoya
(b) 3 only Protocol
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. Clean Development Mechanism : Kyoto
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Protocol
hich of the pairs given above is / are correctly
W
. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972,
Q matched?
which of the following animals cannot be hunted by (a) 1 and 2 only
any person except under some provisions provided by (b) 2 and 3 only
law? (c) 3 only
1. Gharial (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo . In which of the following regions of India are you
Q
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in
(a) 1 only its natural habitat?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats
(d) 1, 2 and 3
. Which of the following best describes/describe the
Q
aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of . Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Q
India? Proper design and effective implementation of UN
1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to
into the Union and State Budgets thereby 1. protection of biodiversity
implementing the ‘green accounting’ 2. resilience of forest ecosystems
2. Launching the second green revolution to 3. poverty reduction
enhance agricultural output so as to ensure
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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food security to one and all in the future
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and
(b) 3 only
responding to climate change by a
(c) 2 and 3 only
combination of adaptation and mitigation
(d) 1, 2 and 3
measures
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S . What is Greenhouse Gas Protocol?
Q
(a) 1 only (a) It is an international accounting tool for government
(b) 2 and 3 only and business leaders to understand, quantify and
(c) 3 only manage greenhouse gas emissions
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer
financial incentives to developing countries to reduce
. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’ a breed
Q greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly
found in India? technologies
1. It is capable of swimming up to three (c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all
kilometres in seawater. the member countries of the United Nations to reduce
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves. greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated. year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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by the World Bank
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in
Q
(c) 1 and 3 only
the news, consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable
development.
. Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and
Q
2. It originated in the World Summit on
distinct species of banana plant which attains a height
Sustainable Development held in
of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp.
Johannesburg in 2002.
In which part of India has it been discovered?
(a) Andaman Islands hich of the statements given above is / are correct?
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(b) Anaimalai Forests (a) 1 only
(c) Maikala Hills (b) 2 only
(d) Tropical rain forests of northeast (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. With reference to an initiative called “The
Q
Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)” . ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangam
Q
which of the following statements is/are correct? Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and related to
World Economic Forum. (a) constitutional reforms
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing (b) Ganga Action Plan
attention to the economic benefits of (c) linking of rivers
biodiversity. (d) protection of Western Ghats
3. It presents an approach that can help
decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and . On which of the following can you find the Bureau
Q
capture the value of ecosystems and of Energy Efficiency Star Label?
biodiversity. 1. Ceiling fans
2. Electric geysers
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
( b) 3 only 5. Methane
(c) 2 and 3 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
1. The International Solar Alliance was launched
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
at the United Nations Climate Change
Conference in 2015.
2. The Alliance includes all the member countries
of the United Nations. 2015
hich of the statements given above is /are correct?
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(a) 1 only . Which one of the following is the best description of
Q
(b) 2 only the term ‘ecosystem’ ?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) A community of organisms interacting with one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 another
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living
. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC
Q organisms
Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following (c) A community of organisms together with the
statements is/are correct? environment in which they live
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
countries of the UN and it will go into effect in
2017. . With reference to an organization known as
Q
2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following
gas emissions so that the rise in average statements is/are correct?
global temperature by the end of this century 1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation
does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above Organizations.
pre-industrial levels. 2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’
3. Developed countries acknowledged their originated from this organization.
historical responsibility in global warming and 3. It identifies the sites known/ referred to as
committed to donate $1000 billion a year from ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
2020 to help developing countries to cope with
climate change. elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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(a) 1 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 . With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy
Q
Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the
Q. Consider the following statements: following statements is/are correct?
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first 1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called 2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
the ‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to elect the correct answer using the code given below.
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be achieved by 2030. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
hich of the statements given above is / are correct?
W (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 . Which of the following National Parks is unique in
Q
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a
rich biodiversity?
. In the cities of our country, which among the
Q (a) Bhitarkanika National Park
following atmospheric gases are normally considered (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
1. Carbon dioxide (d) Sultanpur National Park
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide . With reference to the International Union for
Q
4. Sulfur dioxide Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
nd the Convention on International Trade in
a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES), which of the following statements is/are . ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest
Q
correct? Landscapes’ is managed by the
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and (a) Asian Development Bank
CITES is an international agreement between (b) International Monetary Fund
governments. (c) United Nations Environment Programme
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around (d) World Bank
the world to better manage natural
environments. . The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is
Q
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that constituted under the
have joined it, but this Convention does not (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
take the place of national laws. (b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration
and Protection) Act, 1999
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(a) 1 only
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
. In a particular region in India, the local people train
Q
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the
streams. As the time passes, these bridges become
. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in
Q
stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in
India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Meghalaya
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
(b) Himachal Pradesh
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
(c) Jharkhand
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of
(d) Tamil Nadu
the Wildlife (Protection) Act; 1972.
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S . With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership
Q
(a) 1 and 2 Facility’, which of the following statements is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 1. It is a global partnership of governments,
(d) 3 only businesses, civil society and indigenous
peoples.
. Which one of the following is the national aquatic
Q 2. It provides financial aid to universities,
animal of India? individual scientists and institutions involved in
(a) Saltwater crocodile scientific forestry research to develop
(b) Olive ridley turtle eco-friendly and climate adaptation
(c) Gangetic dolphin technologies for sustainable forest
(d) Gharial management.
3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+
. Which one of the following is associated with the
Q (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and
issue of control and phasing out of the use of Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing
ozone-depleting substances? them with financial and technical assistance.
(a) Bretton Woods Conference
elect the correct answer using the code” given below.
S
(b) Montreal Protocol
(a) 1 only
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Nagoya Protocol
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green
Q
Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries
in adaptation and mitigation practices to 2014
counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD,
Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Q. Consider the following international agreements
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S Resources for Food and Agriculture
(a) 1 only 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat
(b) 2 only Desertification
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The World Heritage Convention
hich of the above has/have a bearing on the
W ( c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer
biodiversity? of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries
(a) 1 and 2 only with specific aim to protect their environment
(b) 3 only (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) 1 and 3 only Q. With reference to a conservation organization called
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth
Q 1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed
Hour’: by the countries which are signatories to
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO. Ramsar Convention.
2. It is a movement in which the participants 2. It works at the field level to develop and
switch off the lights for one hour on a certain mobilize knowledge, and use the practical
day every year. experience to advocate for better policies.
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
the climate change and the need to save the
(a) 1 only
planet.
(b) 2 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct
W (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only . Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons
Q
(d) 1, 2 and 3 for the decline in the population of Ganges River
Dolphins?
. If a wetland of international importance is brought
Q 1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are rivers
occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
result of human interference 4. U se of synthetic fertilizers and other
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the
enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five vicinity of rivers
kilometres from the edge of the wetland
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural
(a) 1 and 2 only
practices and traditions of certain communities living in
(b) 2 and 3 only
its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
should not be destroyed
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’
. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to
Q
. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society
Q
the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?
(BNHS), consider the following statements:
1. Volcanic action
1. It is an autonomous organization under the
2. Respiration
Ministry of Environment and Forests.
3. Photosynthesis
2. It strives to conserve nature through
4. Decay of organic matter
action-based research, education and public
awareness. elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and (a) 1 and 3 only
camps for the general public. (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to
Q
(c) 2 and 3 only
see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the insects disturbed by their movement through
grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?
. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’,
Q
1. Painted Stork
which of the following statements is/are correct?
2. Common Myna
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on
3. Black-necked Crane
Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change’ elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental (a) 1 and 2
issues at global level (b) 2 only
( c) 2 and 3 eyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be
b
(d) 3 only its possible impact/impacts on the world?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net
. With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of
Q carbon source.
the following statements is/are correct? 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are 3. All the global wetlands will permanently
declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, disappear.
1972. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible
2. The purpose of the declaration of anywhere in the world.
Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
human activities in those zones except
(a) 1 only
agriculture.
(b) 1 and 2 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 . Which of the following are some important
Q
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 pollutants released by steel industry in India?
1. Oxides of sulphur
Q. Consider the following statements: 2. Oxides of nitrogen
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established 3. Carbon monoxide
under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 4. Carbon dioxide
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
statutory body.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is
(b) 2 and 3 only
chaired by the Prime Minister.
(c) 1 and 4 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
2013
(d) 1, 2 and 3
. Consider the following pairs
Q . Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Q
Wetlands : Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
Confluence of rivers 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process
1. Harike Wetlands : for determining the nature and extent of individual or
Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej community forest rights or both?
2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park : (a) State Forest Department
Confluence of Banas and Chambal (b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
3. Kolleru Lake : (c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal
Confluence of Musi and Krishna Revenue Officer
hich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
W (d) Gram Sabha
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only . Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment
Q
(c) 1 and 3 only by
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
. The most important strategy for the conservation of
Q (c) Ozone and carbon dioxide
biodiversity together with traditional human life is the (d) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
establishment of
(a) biosphere reserves . With reference to food chains in ecosystems,
Q
(b) botanical gardens consider the following statements:
(c) national parks 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a
(d) wildlife sanctuaries chain of organisms feed upon each other
2. Food chains are found within the populations
. The scientific view is that the increase in global
Q of a species
temperature should not exceed 2°C above 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each
pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases organism which are eaten by others
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W ( b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None . In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses
Q
as a part of an ecological succession because of
. In which of the following States is lion-tailed
Q (a) Insects and fungi
macaque found in its natural habitat? (b) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
1. Tamil Nadu (c) Water limits and fire
2. Kerala (d) None of the above
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S 2012
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only . How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
Q
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the
indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
. Which one of the following terms describes not only
Q 2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the
the physical space occupied by an organism, but also scientific research on genetic modification of
its functional role in the community of organisms? crop plants.
(a) Ecotone 3. Application for intellectual Property Rights
(b) Ecological niche related to genetic/biological resources cannot
(c) Habitat be made without the approval of NBA.
(d) Home range hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction
Q (b) 2 and 3 only
among (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence (d) 1, 2 and 3
of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of . If National Water Mission is properly and completely
Q
sunlight implemented, how will it impact the country?
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature 1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be
(d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the met through recycling of waste-water.
evening 2. The water requirements of coastal cities with
inadequate alternative sources of water will be
Q. Consider the following: met by adopting appropriate technologies that
1. Star tortoise allow for the use of ocean water.
2. Monitor lizard 3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked
3. Pygmy hog to the rivers of peninsular India.
4. Spider monkey 4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging
hich of the above are naturally found in India?
W bore-wells and for installing motors and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only pump-sets to draw ground-water will be
(b) 2 and 3 only completely reimbursed by the Government.
(c) 1 and 4 only elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 below:
(a) 1 only
. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in
Q (b) 1 and 2 only
the drinking water in some parts of India? (c) 3 and 4 only
1. Arsenic (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride . Consider the following statements:
Q
4. Formaldehyde Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting
5. Uranium substances, are used.
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S 1. in the production of plastic foams
(a) 1 and 3 only 2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
Q. Consider the following protected areas
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
1. Bandipur
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Bhitarkanika
(b) 4 only
3. Manas
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. Sunderbans
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
hich of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
W
. Government of India encourages the cultivation of
Q (a) 1 and 2 only
‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant? (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
preventing desertification: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. It is a rich source of bio-diesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to . In which one among the following categories of
Q
live in cold areas of high altitudes. protected areas in India are local people not allowed to
4. Its timber is of great commercial value. collect and use the biomass?
(a) Biosphere Reserves
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(b) National Parks
(a) 1 only
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
. Which one of the following groups of animals
Q
belongs to the category of endangered species?
. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider
Q
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and
the following statements:
Asiatic Wild Ass
1. The country’s total geographical area under
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian
the category of wetlands is recorded more in
Bustard
Gujarat as compared to other States.
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal
Saras (Crane)
wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W and Cheetal
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only . The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes
Q
(c) Both 1 and 2 the following major categories of ecosystem
(d) Neither I nor 2 services-provisioning, supporting, regulating,
preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is
. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air
Q supporting service?
is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, (a) Production of food and water
because it absorbs (b) Control of climate and disease
(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat (c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation (d) Maintenance of diversity
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation . Which of the following can be threats to the
Q
biodiversity of a geographical area?
. Other than resistance to pests, what are the
Q 1. Global warming
prospects for which genetically engineered plants have 2. Fragmentation of habitat
been created? 3. Invasion of alien species
1. To enable them to withstand drought 4. Promotion of vegetarianism
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis
below:
in spaceships and space stations
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. To increase their shelf life
(b) 2 and 3 only
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S (c) 1 and 4 only
below: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only Q. Consider the following:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. Black-necked crane
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard ( b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
hich of the above are naturally found in India?
W
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region
Q
(c) 2 and 4 only
has been a cause, of concern. What could be the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
reason for the formation of this hole?
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence;
Q. Consider the following agricultural practices:
and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
1. Contour bunding
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric
2. Relay cropping
clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
3. Zero tillage
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds;
In the context of global climate change, which of the and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons.
above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in (d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global
the soil? warming
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only . Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the
Q
(c) 1, 2 and 3 following statements is not correct?
(d) None of them (a) The carbon credit system was ratified in
conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is
Q (b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups
completely destroyed for some reason? that have reduced greenhouse gases below their
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be emission quota
adversely affected. (c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the
2. The food chains in the ocean would be increase of carbon dioxide emission
adversely affected. (d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time
3. The density of ocean water would drastically to time by the United Nations Environment Programme
decrease.
. There is a concern over the increase in harmful
Q
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be
below: the causative factors for this phenomenon?
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
(b) 2 only 2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
(c) 3 only 3. Upwelling in the seas.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
elect the correct answer from the codes given below:
S
. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian
Q (a) 1 and 3
countryside some years ago are rarely seen (b) 1 and 2 only
nowadays. This is attributed to (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new (d) 1, 2 and 3
invasive species
(b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their . A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an
Q
diseased cattle Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in
(c) scarcity of food available to them that area but its existence is threatened due to the
(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following
them could be that animal?
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
2011 (d) Indian gazelle
. The “Red Data Books” published by the
Q
. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in
Q
International Union for Conservation of Nature and
the following ways
Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of
1. Soil formation
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in
2. Prevention of soil erosion
the biodiversity hotspots.
3. Recycling of waste
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
4. Pollination of crops
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only natural resources in various countries.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S hich of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on
W
below; the biodiversity conservation in the country?
(a) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only (d) None of the above Acts
. Three of the following criteria have contributed to
Q Q. Consider the following:
the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and 1. Photosynthesis
Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity: 2. Respiration
1. Species richness 3. Decay of organic matter
2. Vegetation density 4. volcanic action
3. Endemism
hich of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon
W
4. Ethno-botanical importance
cycle on Earth?
5. Threat perception
(a) 1 and 4 only
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and
(b) 2 and 3 only
humid conditions
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
hich three of the above are correct criteria in this
W (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
context?
(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6
. Human activities in the recent past have caused the
Q
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower
atmosphere because of
1. its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. the photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the
oceans
3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
hich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine
Q
upwelling zones are important as they increase the
marine productivity by bringing the
1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. nutrients to the surface.
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
. With reference to India, consider the following
Q
Central Acts:
1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation)
Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY ( a) 1 only
2023 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q. Consider the following statements (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of
components used in automobiles and aircrafts. . ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with
Q
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. reference to which one of the following?
(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (b) Converting crop residues into packing materia
(a) 1 only (c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(b) 2 only (d) Producing biochar from. thennochemiceil
(c) Both 1 and 2 conversion of biomass
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following actions : . Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of
Q
1. Detection of car crash/ collision which results the following situations?
in the deployment of airbags almost (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one
instantaneously go
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop (b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian spedes
towards the ground which results in the of a habitat
immediate turning off of the hard drive (c) Using air-borne devices collect blood samples from
3. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which moving animals
results in the rotation of display between (d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect
portrait and landscape mode plant and animal samples from land surfaces and
In how many of the above actions is the function of water bodies
accelerometer required?
(a) Only one . ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one
Q
(b) Only two of the following?
(c) All three (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among
(d) None various species of fauna
Q. Consider the following pairs : (b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse
Objects in space : Description functional tissues
1. Cepheids Giant clouds of dust and gas in (c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
space (d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting
2. Nebulae Stars which brighten and dim series of drug trials in a population
periodically
3. Pulsars Neutron stars that are formed when Q. With reference to green hydrogen, consider
massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
the following statements :
ow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
H
(a) Only one 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal
(b) Only two combustion.
(c) All three 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as
(d) None fuel for heat or power generation.
Q. Which one of the following countries has its own 3. It can be used in the hydrogen full cell to run
Satellite Navigation System? vehicles.
(a) Australia ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
(b) Canada (a) Only one
(c) Israel (b) Only two
(d) Japan (c) All three
Q. Consider the following statements : (d) None
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic
speeds throughout their flights, while cruise
missiles are rocket powered only in the initial Q. Consider the following :
phase of flight.
.
1 erosols
A
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise
2. Foam agents
missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled
3. Fire retardants
intercontinental ballistic missile.
4. Lubricants
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
In the making of how many of the above are ( b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making
hydrofluorocarbons used? several orbital motions.
(a) Only one (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth
(b) Only two and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(c) Only three (d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same
(d) All four surface. speed and places a probe on its
Answer: (d) All four
. Which one of the following is the context in which
5
the term “qubit” is mentioned?
(a) Cloud Services
2022
(b) Quantum Computing
1. Consider the following: (c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
1. Aarogya Setu (d) Wireless Communication Technologies
2. COWIN
3. DigiLocker 6. Consider the following communication technologies:
4. DIKSHA 1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
hich of the above are built on top of open-source
W 3. Wireless Local Area Network
digital platforms?
(a) 1 and 2 only hich of the above are considered of the Short-Range
W
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only devices/technologies?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following
2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
statements:
1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control 7. Consider the following statements:
their own data. 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain human tissues.
based social networks. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively surfaces.
rather than a corporation 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
hich of the following given above are correct?
W hich of the statements given above are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
. With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”,
3 . Consider the following statements in respect of
8
consider the following statements: probiotics :
1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and
and can change data fields. yeast.
2. SaaS users can access their data through 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods
their mobile devices. we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of gut.
SaaS. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
. Which one of the following statements best reflects
4 . In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent
9
the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following
System” often talked about in media? statements:
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to 1. The Serum Institute of India produced
counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using
explode it in space. mRNA platform.
2. S putnik V vaccine is manufactured using 3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials
vector based platform. in processed foods.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
vaccine.
(a) 1 only
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W (b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2021
0. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the
1
Earth, which of the following are the possible effects . Water can dissolve more substances than any other
1
on the Earth? liquid because.
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. (a) It is dipolar in nature.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. (b) It is a good conductor of heat
3. Power grids could be damaged. (c) It has high value of specific heat
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the (d) It is an oxide of hydrogen
Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the . With reference to street lighting, how do sodium
2
planet. lamps differ from LED lamps?
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 1. Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft not so in the case of LED lamps.
flying over polar regions could be interrupted. 2. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S span than LED lamps.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only significant colour advantages in street lighting.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 3 only
1. Which one of the following statements best
1 (b) 2 only
describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human (c) 1 and 3 only
body? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) They protect the environmental allergens. body
(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. . The term “ACE2” is talked about in the context of
3
(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body. (a) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants
(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by (b) development of India’s own satellite navigation
pathogens. system
(c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
12. Consider the following statements: (d) spread of viral diseases
1. Other than those made by humans,
nanoparticles do not exist in nature. . Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a
4
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are structural/key component in the manufacture of which
used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. of the following kinds of plastics?
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products (a) Low-density polyethylene
which enter the environment are unsafe for (b) Polycarbonate
humans. (c) Polyethylene terephthalate
(d) Polyvinyl Chloride
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only . “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to
5
(b) 3 only high levels for a long time, is most likely present in
(c) 1 and 2 which of the following?
(d) 2 and 3 (a) Food preservatives
(b) Fruit ripening substances
3. Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding
1 (c) reused plastic containers
can be a tool to: (d) Toiletries
1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike. . Which one of the following is a reason why
6
astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
( a) Distance among stellar bodies do not change ( c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change (d) 1,2 and 3
(c) Light always travels in straight line
(d) Speed of light is always same 2. Consider the following statements:
1
1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes
. With reference to recent developments regarding
7 whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA
‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following genomes.
statements: 2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an
1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
of these vaccines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Which one of the following is used in preparing a
1
natural mosquito repellent?
. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the
8 a) Congress grass
following statements: b) Elephant grass
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to c) Lemon grass
child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement d) Nut grass
therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the
egg.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from
2020
the mother and not from the father.
Which of the statements given above is’/are correct? . With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the
1
(a) 1 only following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and
(c) Both 1 and 2 antigens in the human body.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. They can be made into artificial blood
capillaries for an injured part of the human
. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are
9 body.
mentioned in the context of 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
(a) Clonal propagation of crop plants 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
(b) Developing genetically modified crop plants
(c) Production of plant growth substances hich of the statements given above are correct?
W
(d) Production of biofertilizers (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
0. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the
1 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
following?
1. Area of the hole in the lid 2. Consider the following activities:
2. Temperature of the flame 1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
3. Weight of the lid 2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. Collecting breath samples from spouting
(a) 1 and 2 only whales for DNA analysis
(b) 2 and 3 only
t the present level of technology, which of the above
A
(c) 1 and 3 only
activities can be successfully carried out by using
(d) 1,2 and 3
drones?
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Consider the following:
1
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Bacteria
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Fungi
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Virus
Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/
. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft
3
synthetic medium?
flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral
(a) 1 and 2 only
triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with
(b) 2 and 3 only
lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in
question refers to
( a) Voyager-2 . In the context of recent advances of human
8
(b) New horizons reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used
(c) Lisa Pathfinder for
(d) Evolved LISA (a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm
(b) genetic modification of sperm producing cells
4. Consider the following statements: (c) development of stem cells into functional embryos
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells (d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring
that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective
parent. . With the present state of development, Artificial
9
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
at the early embryonic stage. 1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be units
injected into the embryo of a pig. 2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
3. Disease diagnosis
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
(a) 1 only
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
. What is the importance of using Pneumococcal
5 (c) 2, 4 and 5 only
Conjugate Vaccines in India? (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. These vaccines are effective against
pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. 0. With reference to Visible Light Communication
1
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not (VLC) technology, which of the following statements
effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be are correct?
reduced. 1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum
3. These vaccines have no side effects and wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
cause no allergic reactions. 2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless
communication.
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster
(a) 1 only
than Bluetooth.
(b) 1 and 2 only
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used
6 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
in the context of (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) Digital security infrastructure (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) Food security infrastructure
(c) Health care and education infrastructure 1. With reference to “Blockchain Technology”,
1
(d) Telecommunication and transportation consider the following statements:
infrastructure 1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect,
but which no single user controls.
. Which of the following statements are correct
7 2. The structure and design of blockchain is such
regarding the general difference between plant and that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency
animal cells? only.
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst 3. Applications that depend on basic features of
animal cells do not. blockchain can be developed without
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membranes anybody’s permission.
unlike animal cells which do.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst
(a) 1 only
an animal cell has many small vacuoles.
(b) 1 and 2 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S (c) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. With reference to solar water pumps, consider the
1
(d) 1, 2 and 3 following statements:
1. S olar power can be used for running surface (d) Neither 1 nor 2
pumps and not for submersible pumps.
2. Solar power can be used for running . In the context of digital technologies for
4
centrifugal pumps and not the ones with entertainment, consider the following statements:
piston. 1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated
environment is created and the physical world
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
is completely shut out.
(a) 1 only
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from
(b) 2 only
a computer are projected onto real-life objects
(c) Both 1 and 2
or surroundings.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the
world and improves the experience using the
3. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under
1
camera of smart-phone or PC.
“IAEA safeguards” while others are not?
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an
(a) Some use uranium and others use thorium
individual, providing complete immersion
(b) Some use imported uranium and others use
experience.
domestic supplies
(c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
others are operated by domestic enterprises (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Some are State-owned and others are (b) 3 and 4
privately-owned (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
. With reference to the recent developments in
5
2019
science, which one of the following statements is not
. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
1 correct?
(a) Department of Science and Technology (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining
(b) Ministry of Labour and Employment segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(c) NITI Aayog (b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can
. For the measurement/estimation of which of the
2 be made to replicate outside a living cell in a
following are satellite images/remote sensing data laboratory.
used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a . Consider the following statements:
6
specific location A digital signature is
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies 1. an electronic record that identifies the
of a specific location certifying authority issuing it
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an
location individual to access information or server on
Internet
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S 3. an electronic method of signing an electronic
(a) 1 Only document and ensuring that the original
(b) 2 and 3 only content is unchanged
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
. With reference to communication technologies, what
3 (b) 2 and 3 only
is/are the difference/differences between LTE (c) 3 only
(Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over (d) 1, 2 and 3
Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE . In the context of wearable technology, which of the
7
is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is devices?
voice-only technology. 1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S 3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
( b) 2 and 3 only ( c) Globally, the number of people infected with
(c) 3 only Hepatitis B and C viruses arc several times more than
(d) 1, 2 and 3 those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C
. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained
8 viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing
therapies.
2018
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the
treatment of cancer. . Consider the following pairs:
1
3. It can be used to develop hormone Commonly used/consumed materials Unwanted or
replacement therapies. controversial chemicals likely to be
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are found in them
resistant to viral pathogens. 1. Lipstick —
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S Lead
(a) 1, 2 and 4 2. Soft Drinks —
(b) 2 and 3 Brominated vegetable oils
(c) 1 and 3 3. Chinese fast food —
Monosodium glutamate
. Recently, Scientists observed the merger of giant
9 hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
W
blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. matched?
What is the significance of this observation? (a) 1 only
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through (d) 1, 2 and 3
‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. . With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles,
2
consider the following statements:
0. Which of the following are the reasons for the
1 1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth
occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are
pathogens in India? designed mainly to launch communication
1. Genetic predisposition of some people satellites.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain
diseases permanently fixed in the same position in the
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming sky, as viewed from a particular location on
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people Earth.
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S 3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle
(a) 1 and 2 with the first and third stages using solid rocket
(b) 2 and 3 only motors; and the second and fourth stages
(c) 1, 3 and 4 using liquid rocket engines.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
1. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in
1 (b) 2 and 3
news? (c) 1 and 2
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing (d) 3 only
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of
pathogens in patients 3. Consider the following:
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant 1. Birds
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically 2. Dust blowing
modified crops 3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
2. Which one of the following statements is not
1
correct? hich of the above spread plant diseases?
W
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) Hepatitis B. unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a (b) 3 and 4 only
vaccine. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense
4 3. G
M mustard has been developed jointly by the
(THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
(a) An Israeli radar system
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) An American anti-missile system
(b) 2 only
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South
(c) 2 and 3 only
Korea.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
. “3D printing” has applications in which of the
5
. Consider the following pairs:
9
following?
Terms sometimes Context/Topic
1. Preparation of confectionery items
seen in news
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
1. Belle II experiment — Artificial
3. Automotive industry
Intelligence
4. Reconstructive surgeries
2. Blockchain technology —
5. Data processing technologies
Digital/Cryptocurrency
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S 3. CRISPR – Cas9 — Particle
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only Physics
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
W
(c) 1 and 4 only
matched?
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation
6
(c) 2 and 3 only
Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following
(d) 1, 2 and 3
statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary
0. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the
1
and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.
which causes your geyser to be switched on
km beyond its borders.
automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom
3. India will have its own satellite navigation
shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of
system with full global coverage by the middle
water in your overhead tank. After you take some
of 2019.
groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an
(a) 1 only order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you
(b) 1 and 2 only step out of your house and lock the door, all lights,
(c) 2 and 3 only fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off
(d) None automatically. On your way to office, your car warns
you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an
7. Consider the following statements: alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it
1. Light is affected by gravity. sends a message to your office accordingly.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding. In the context of emerging communication
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. technologies, which one of the following terms best
applies to the above scenario?
hich of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of
W
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often
(b) Internet of Things
discussed in media?
(c) Internet Protocol
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Virtual Private Network
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. In which of the following areas can GPS
1
(d) 1, 2 and 3
technology be used?
1. Mobile phone operations
. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard
8
2. Banking operations
(GM mustard) developed in India, consider the
3. Controlling the power grids
following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
that give the plant the property of (a) 1 only
pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant (c) 1 and 3 only
cross-pollination and hybridization. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and Eternal Blue’
1 . What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser
2
sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related Interferometer Space Antenna’ (eLISA) project?
to (a) To detect neutrinos
(a) Exoplanets (b) To detect gravitational waves
(b) Cryptocurrency (c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence
(c) Cyber attacks system
(d) Mini satellites (d) To study the effect of solar flares on our
communication systems
3. The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open
1
“Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What . What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear
3
does it imply? Transfer Technology?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. (a) Production of biolarvicides
2. Online authentication using iris is possible. (b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the
4
(c) Both 1 and 2
technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify
4. India enacted the Geographical Indications of
1
genetic markers for disease resistance and
Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order
drought tolerance in various crop plants.
to comply with the obligations to
2. This technique helps in reducing the time
(a) ILO
required to develop new varieties of crop
(b) IMF
plants.
(c) UNCTAD
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen
(d) WTO
relationships in crops
5. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a
1 elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear (a) 1 only
Suppliers Group’? (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It will have access to the latest and most (c) 1 and 3 only
efficient nuclear technologies. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The
Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear . In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the
5
Weapons (NPT)”. following to report on cyber security incidents?
1. Service providers
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
2. Data centers
(a) 1 only
3. Body corporate
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
2017
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is . Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to
6
transmitted by ‘the same mosquito that create digital display in many devices. What are the
transmits dengue. advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is displays?
possible 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible
plastic substrates.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be
(a) 1 only made using OLEDs.
(b) 2 only 3. Transparent displays are possible using
(c) Both 1 and 2 OLEDs.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
below:
( a) 1 and 3 only ( a) Amphibious warfare ship
(b) 2 only (b) Nuclear-powered submarine
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
(d) None of the above statement is correct (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier
. India is an important member of the ‘International
6
Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this
2016
experiment succeeds, what is the immediate
. ‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is
1 advantage of India?
related to (a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for power
(a) waste management technology generation.
(b) wireless communication technology (b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
(c) solar power production technology (c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission
(d) water conservation technology reactors in power generation
(d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation
. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
2
Viruses can infect . In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics,
7
1. bacteria the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news,
2. fungi refers to
3. plants (a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing
(b) the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S organism
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) the description of the mechanism of gene
(b) 3 only expression
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) a mechanism of genetic mutation taking place in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 cells
. Consider the following statements:
3 . With reference to pre-packed items in India, it is
8
The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the
1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission following information on the main label, as per the
2. made India the second country to have a Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling)
spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA Regulation, 2011?
3. made India the only country to be successful 1. List of ingredients including additives
in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its 2. Nutrition information
very first attempt 3. Recommendations, if any, made by the
medical profession about the possibility of any
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W
allergic reaction
(a) 1 only
4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
(d) 1, 2 and 3 below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
. With reference to ‘Astrosat’, the astronomical
4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
observatory launched by India, which of the following (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
statement(s) is/are correct? (d) 1 and 4 only
1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only
country to have launched a similar observatory . With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news, which
9
into space. of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an 1. It uses light as the medium for high speed data
orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the transmission.
Earth. 2. It is a wireless technology and several times
faster than ‘WiFi’.
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
(a) 1 only elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. Which one of the following is the best description of
5
‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? 10. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the
ews, which of the following statement(s) is/are
n article detector located at South Pole, which was
p
correct? recently in the news:
1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of 1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector,
the countries. encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and 2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark
receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a matter.
Bitcoin address. 3. It is buries deep in the ice.
3. Online payments can be sent without either
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
side knowing the identity of the other.
(a) 1 only
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 . The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen news in the
3
context of
1. What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)’, recently in
1 (a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the
the news? Earth
(a) Electric plane tested by NASA (b) regions inside the Earth where shale gas is
(b) Solar-powered two-seater aircraft designed by available
Japan (c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
(c) Space observatory launched by China (d) search for meteorites containing precious metals
(d) Reusable rocket designed by ISRO
. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich
4
2. What is Medecins Sans Frontiers (MSF)?
1 fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity,
(a) An agency formed by the International Olympic consider the following statements:
Committee (IOC) to check misuse of drugs by 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell
sportspersons emits heat and water as by-products.
(b) A non-governmental organization which specializes 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings
in international humanitarian aid and emergency and not for small devices like laptop
medical assistance computers.
(c) An organization to develop applications of 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of
nanotechnology in medicine Alternating Current (AC).
(d) An organization of medical practitioners funded by
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
the European Union which carries out reach against
(a) 1 only
spread of AIDS
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2015
. In which of the following activities are Indian Remote
5
. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power
1 Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
plants using coal as fuel, which of the following 1. Assessment of crop productivity
statements is/are correct? 2. Locating groundwater resources
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks 3. Mineral exploration
for building construction. 4. Telecommunications
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for 5. Traffic studies
some of the Portland cement contents of
concrete. elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
calcium oxide only, and does not contain any (b) 4 and 5 only
toxic elements. (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(a) 1 and 2 . With reference to the use of Nano-technology in
6
(b) 2 only health sector, which of the following statement(s) is/are
(c) 1 and 3 correct?
(d) 3 only 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by
nanotechnology.
. In the context of modern scientific research,
2
consider the following statements about ‘lceCube’, a
2. N
anotechnology can largely contribute to gene ( b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and
therapy. stored
(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
water
(a) 1 only
(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water
(b) 2 only
vapour are given out.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. Which of the following is/are the example/examples
4
of chemical change?
. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news
7
1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
with reference to which one of the following diseases?
2. Melting of ice
(a) AIDS
3. Souring of milk
(b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(d) Swine flu (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
. With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC)
8 (c) 1, 2 and 3
Technology’, which of the following is/are correct? (d) None
1. It is a contactless communication technology
that uses electromagnetic radio fields. . Which of the following statements is/are correct
5
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can regarding vegetative propagation of plants?
be at a distance of even a metre from each 1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal
other. population.
3. NFC can use encryption when sending 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the
sensitive information. virus.
3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
of the year.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2014
. Consider the following pairs:
6
. Which of the following are some important pollutants
1 Vitamin Deficiency disease
released by steel industry in India? 1. Vitamin C Scurvy
1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Vitamin D Rickets
2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Vitamin E Night blindness
3. Carbon monoxide hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
W
4. Carbon dioxide matched?
elect the correct answer using the code given below
S (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) None
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. Consider the following techniques/phenomena:
. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological
2 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
succession even on a bare rock, are actually a 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
symbiotic association of 3. Gene silencing
(a) Algae and bacteria hich of the above is/are used to create transgenic
W
(b) Algae and fungi crops?
(c) Bacteria and fungi (a) 1 only
(d) Fungi and mosses (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
. Which one of the following is the process involved in
3 (d) None
photosynthesis?
(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy . Among the following organisms, which one does not
8
belong to the class of other three?
( a) Crab
pacecra
S Purpose
(b) Mite
ft
(c) Scorpion
(d) Spider
C
1 assini-H : rbiting the Venus and
O
. uygens transmitting data to the Earth
9. Consider the following statements:
1. Maize can be used for the production of
M
2 esseng : apping and investigating the
M
starch.
. er Mercury
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock
for biodiesel.
V
3 oyager : Exploring the outer solar system
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using
. 1 & 2
maize.
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the
1
10. Consider the following diseases
following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Diphtheria
1. It is surface-to-surface missile.
2. Chickenpox
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
3. Smallpox
3. It can deliver one tonne nuclear warhead
hich of the above diseases has/have been
W about 7500 km away.
eradicated in India?
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3
11. Consider the following:
5. With reference to technologies for solar power
1
1. Bats
production, consider the following statements:
2. Bears
1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates
3. Rodents
electricity by direction conversion of light into
he phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in
T electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a
which of the above kinds of animals? technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to
(a) 1 and 2 only generate heat which is further used in
(b) 2 only electricity generation process.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 2. Photovoltaics generate Alternating Current
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the (AC), while solar Thermal generates Direct
above Current (DC).
3. India has manufacturing base for Solar
2. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to
1 Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.
the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W
1. Volcanic action
(a) 1 only
2. Respiration
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Photosynthesis
(c) 1, 2 and 3
4. Decay of organic matter
(d) None
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(a) 1 and 3 only 6. Brominated flame retardants are used in many
1
(b) 2 only household products like mattresses and upholstery.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Why is there some concern about their use?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the
environment.
3. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly
1 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and
matched? animals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
( a) 1 only ( b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles
1
2013
of some chemical elements that are used by the
industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? 1. Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1. They can accumulate in the environment, and 1. Excretion of urea by animals
contaminate water and soil. 2. Burning of coal by man
2. They can enter the food chains. 3. Death of vegetation
3. They can trigger the production of free
radicals. elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
below:
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S (a) 1 only
below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Consider the following animals:
1. Sea cow
8. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as
1 2. Sea horse
a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation 3. Sea lion
of this has assumed significance. Which one of the
following statements is correct in this context? hich of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
W
(a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the (a) 1 only
manufacture of biodegradable plastics (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the (c) 2 and 3 only
extraction of shale gas (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of
anti-histamines . Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and
3
(d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as
aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal
9. With reference to two non-conventional energy
1 cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by
sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, (a) Bacteria
consider the following statements: (b) Protozoa
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas (c) Moulds
extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is (d) Viruses
a mixture of propane and butane only that can
be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary . Which of the following diseases can be transmitted
4
rocks. from one person to another through tattooing?
2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources 1. Chikungunya
exist, but so far no shale gas sources have 2. Hepatitis B
been found. 3. HIV-AIDS
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
(a) 1 only below:
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
0. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the
2
following can be used in the biometric identification of 5. Consider the following organisms:
a person? 1. Agaricus
1. Iris scanning 2. Nostoc
2. Retinal scanning 3. Spirogyra
3. Voice recognition
hich of the above is/are used as
W
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2
( b) 2 only (d) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only 1. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and
1
used computers or their parts, which of the following
6. Which of the following statements is/are correct are released into the environment as e-waste?
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the 1. Beryllium
generation of energy. 2. Cadmium
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic 3. Chromium
medium. 4. Heptachlor
3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to 5. Mercury
another by biological vectors only. 6. Lead
7. Plutonium
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
(a) 1 only elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
(b) 2 and 3 only below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
7. Consider the following minerals: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
1. Calcium
2. Iron 2. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson
1
3. Sodium particle have become frequent news in the recent past.
What is/are the importance (s) of discovering this
hich of the minerals given above is/are required by
W
particle?
human body for the contraction of muscles?
1. It will enable us to understand as to why
(a) 1 only
elementary particles have mass.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. It will enable us in the near future to develop
(c) 1 and 3 only
the technology of tranferring matter from one
(d) 1, 2 and 3
point to another without traversing the physical
space between them.
. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer
8
3. It will enable us to create better fuels for
storage life because
nuclear fission.
(a) exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b) concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
is increased (a) 1 only
(c) rate of respiration is decreased (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) there is an increase in humidity (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
. The known forces of nature can be divided into four
9
classes, viz. gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear 3. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
1
force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, (a) the new soil does not contain favourable minerals
which one of the following statements is not correct? (b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
(a) Gravity is the strongest of the four (c) most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation
(b) Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an (d) leaves get damaged during transplantation
electric charge
(c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity 4. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic
1
(d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
inside the nucleus of an atom 1. Across different species of plants
2. From animals to plants
10. Consider the following phenomena: 3. From microorganisms to higher organisms
1. Size of the sun at dusk
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
2. Colour of the sun at dawn
(a) 1 only
3. Moon being visible at dawn
(b) 2 and 3 only
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
(c) 1 and 3 only
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
(d) 1, 2 and 3
hich of the above are optical illusions?
W
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 5. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in
1
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only enables the plants to
. r esist drought and increase absorptive area
1 s evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of
a
2. tolerate extremes of pH universe?
3. resist disease infestation 1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshirt phenomenon in space
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
3. Movement of asteroids in space
(a) 1 only
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
(b) 2 and 3 only
code
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ( a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above
2012
1. Consider the following kinds of organisms: . Electrically charged particles from space travelling
5
1. Bat at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely
2. Bee harm living beings if they reach the surface of the
3. Bird earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface
of the earth?
hich of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
W (a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them toward its
(a) 1 and 2 only poles
(b) 2 only (b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to
(c) 1 and 3 only outer space
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Moister in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents
them from reaching the surface of the Earth
. Consider the following statements:
2 (d) None of the statements (a),(b) and (c) is correct.
If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp . Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After
6
2. One would not be able to use a straw to the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what
consume a soft drink still are the sources of lead poisoning?
3. The blotting paper would paper would fail to 1. Smelting units
function 2. Pens pencils
4. The big trees that we see around would not 3. Paints
have grown on the earth 4. Hair oils and cosmetics
hich of the following statements given above are
W elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
correct? below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its
3 . What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the
7
important? water purification systems?
1. It is a twodimensional material and has good 1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms
electrical conductivity. in water.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials 2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the
tested so far. water
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high 3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles,
optical transparency. removes turbidity and improves the clarity of
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ water.
requires for touch screens, LCD’s and organic
LED’s hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 . Other than resistance to pests, what are the
8
prospects for which genetically engineered plants have
4. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists been created?
( a) To enable them to withstand drought ( c) 1 and 3 only
(b) To increase the nutritive value of the produce (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in
spaceships and space stations 3. Recently, there has been a concern over the short
1
(d) To increase their shelf life supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth
metals’. Why?
. Which one of the following sets of elements was
9 1. China, which is the largest producer of these
primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth? elements, has imposed some restrictions on
(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium their export.
(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen 2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorous Chile, these elements are not found in any
(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the
10. Consider the following kinds of organisms: manufacture of various kinds of electronic
1. Bacteria items and there is a growing demand for these
2. Fungi elements.
3. Flowering plants
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W
ome species of which of the above kinds of
S (a) 1 only
organisms are employed as bio pesticides? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d ) 1, 2 and 3 4. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the
1
news, which of the following statement(s) is/are
1. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National
1 correct?
Laboratory including those from India created the 1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
heaviest antimatter (antihelium nucleus) What is/are 2. Stem cells can be used for screenings new
the implications of the creation of antimatter? drugs.
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil 3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
exploration easier and cheaper.
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
2. It will help probe the possibility of the
(a) 1 only
existence of stars and galaxies made of anti
(b) 2 and 3 only
matter.
(c) 3 only
3. It will help understand the evolution of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
universe.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S 5. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to
1
below: the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
(a) 1 only 1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene
(b) 2 and 3 only from a soil funguns into its genome.
(c) 3 only 2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and therefore, the farmers have to buy the
seeds before every season from the seed
2. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some
1 companies.
opine that India should pursue research and 3. There is an apprehension that the
development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear consumption of Bt-brinjal may have adverse
energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium impact on health.
hold over uranium? 4. There is some concern that the introduction of
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than Bt-brinjal may have adverse effect on the
uranium. biodiversity.
2. On the basis of unit mass of mined mineral,
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
thorium can generate more energy compared
below:
to natural uranium
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Thorium produces less harmful waster
(b) 2 and 3 only
compared to uranium.
(c) 3 and 4 only
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 16. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the
ustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this
s
context, which of the following statement(s) is/are . A company marketing food products advertises that
4
correct? its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk campaign signify to the customers?
can be used in biomass gasification. 1. The food products are not made out of
2. The combustible gases generated from hydrogenated oils.
biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and 2. The food products are not made out of animal
carbon dioxide only. fats.
3. The combustible gases generated from 3. The oils used are not likely to damage the
biomass gasification can be used for direct cardiovascular health of consumers.
heat generation, but not in internal combustion
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
engines.
(a) 1 only
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S (b) 2 and 3 only
below: (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only . Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the
5
(d) 1, 2 and 3 market. It consist of amino acids and provides calories
like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a lowcalorie
sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of
this use?
2011
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike
1. Consider the following: table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body
1. Photosynthesis due to lack of requisite enzymes.
2. Respiration (b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the
3. Decay of organic matter sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to
4. Volcanic eruption oxidation.
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion
hich of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon
W into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield
cycle on earth? no calories.
(a) 1 and 4 only (d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table
(b) 2 and 3 only sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years
6
. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but
2 later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of
the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is reason? the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood
(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat. group of the three sons is A positive, B positive , and O
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same positive. The blood group of the adopted son is ?
temperature as the air, no heat is lost. (a) O Positive
(c) The density of water is Maximum at 4 degree (b) A Positive
Celsius. (c) B Positive
(d) None of the above (d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given
data
. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is
3
recommended in the diet since they are a good source 7. What is difference between asteroids and comets?
of antioxidants .How do antioxidants help a person 1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while
maintain health and promote longevity? comets are formed of frozen gases held
(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin together by rocky and metallic material.
synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin 2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits
deficiency. of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of mostly between Venus and mercury.
Carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and avoid 3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while
unnecessary wastage of energy. asteroids do not.
(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the
body during metabolism. hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body (a) 1 and 2 only
and help delay the ageing process. (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 etwork while maintaining the security of the
n
information transmitted
. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular
8 (c) It is a computer network in which users can access
fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up a shared pool of computing resources through a
and dies because service provider
(a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts. (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
(b) Roots are starved of energy. is a correct description of Virtual Private Network
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes.
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration. 3. A new optical disc format known as the Blue-ray
1
Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it
. A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called ionosphere
9 different from the traditional DVD?
facilities radio communication. Why? 1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while
1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection BD supports High Definition video.
of radio waves to earth. 2. Compare to a DVD, the BD format has several
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength. times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2-4 mm while that of DVD
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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is 1.2 mm.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
0. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED
1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour 4. Recently, “oilzapper” was in the news. What is it?
1
and phosphor while an LED lamp uses (a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation
semi-conductor material. of oily sludge and oil spills
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer (b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea
than that of an LED lamp. oil exploration
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to (c) It is genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding
an LED lamp. maize variety
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
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caused flames from oil wells
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
5. At present, scientists can determine the
1
(c) 1 and 3 only
arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA
(d) 1, 2 and 3
sequences on a chromosome. How does this
knowledge benefit us?
1. What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi
1
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock
devices?
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all
(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band,
human diseases.
whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency
3. It is possible to develop disease resistant
band
animal breeds.
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks
(WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
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Area Networks (WWAN) only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) When information is transmitted between two (b) 2 only
devices using Bluetooth technology, the devices have (c) 1 and 3 only
to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi (d) 1, 2 and 3
technology is used the devices need not be in the line
of sight of each other 6. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of
1
(d) The statement (a) and (b) given above are correct sustainable energy. Why?
in this context 1. They use living organisms as catalysts to
generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. What is “Virtual Private Network”?
1 2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as
(a) It is a private computer network of an organization substrates.
where the remote users can transmit encrypted 3. They can be installed in waste water treatment
information through the server of the organization plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.
(b) It is a computer network across a public internet
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
that provides users access to their organization’s
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as
1
the Bt brinjal, has been developed. The objective of
this is
(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer
8. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is
1
to
(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor
(d) Both (a) and (c)
9. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does
1
not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth
(a) does not exist at such distance
(b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion
20. Consider the following:
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
hich of the above is/are the emission/emissions from
W
coal combustion at thermal power plants?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are
2
kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in
such as orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earth’s
equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
GEOGRAPHY 7. With reference to India, consider the following
2022 s tatements:
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
. Consider the following pairs:
1 2. Monazite contains thorium.
Region often mentioned in the news: Country 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian
1. Anatolia Turkey coastal sands in India.
2. Amhara Ethiopia 4. In India, Government bodies only can process
3. Cabo Delgado Spain or export monazite.
4. Catalonia Italy
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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ow many pairs given above are correctly matched?
H (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Only one pair (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) Only two pairs (c) 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three pairs (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) All four pairs 8. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the
2. Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become year normally occurs in the:
dry and turned into a desert? (a) First half of the month of June
1. Lake Victoria (b) Second half of the month of June
2. Lake Faguibine (c) First half of the month of July
3. Lake Oguta (d) Second half of the month of July
4. Lake Volta 9. Consider the following States:
1. Andhra Pradesh
. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by
3
2. Kerala
which one of the following rivers ?
3. Himachal Pradesh
(a) Cauvery
4. Tripura
(b) Manjira
(c) Pennar ow many of the above are generally known as
H
(d) Tungabhadra tea-producing States?
4. Consider the following pairs: (a) Only one State
Peak Mountains (b) Only two States
1. Namcha Barwa Garhwal (C) Only three States
Himalaya (d) All four States
2. Nanda Devi Kumaon 10. Consider the following pairs:
Himalaya Reservoirs : States
3. Nokrek Sikkim Himalaya 1. Ghataprabha : Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar : Madhya Pradesh
hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
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3. Indira Sagar : Andhra Pradesh
matched?
4. Maithon : Chhattisgarh
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only ow many pairs given above are not correctly
H
(c) 1 and 3 matched?
(d) 3 only (a) Only one pair
5. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly (b) Only two pairs PAY
corresponds to which of the following regions? (c) Only three pairs
(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores (d) All four pairs
(b) Region along North African shores stretching from 11. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider
Egypt to Morocco the following statements:
(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
(d) The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry
6. Consider the following countries: of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
1. Azerbaijan 3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in
2. Kyrgyzstan Bengaluru.
3. Tajikistan 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and
4. Uzbekistan Moscow.
5. Turkmenistan
hich of the statements given above are correct?
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hich of the above have borders with Afghanistan?
W (a) 1 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 12. Consider the following statements:
1. H igh clouds primarily reflect solar radiation . Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the
5
and cool the surface of the Earth. production of biofuels.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared Which of the statements given above are correct?
radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
and thus cause warming effect. (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(d) 1,2, 3 and 5
(a) 1 only
4. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due
(b) 2 only
to the weathering of
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Brown forest soil
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Fissure volcanic rock
13.“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in
(c) Granite and schist
which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is
(d) Shale and limestone
practiced, results in:
5. How is permaculture farming different from
1. Reduced seed requirement
conventional chemical farming?
2. Reduced methane production
1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural
3. Reduced electricity consumption
practices but in conventional chemical farming,
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S monoculture practices are predominant.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase
(b) 2 and 3 only in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon
(c) 1 and 3 only is not observed in permaculture farming.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in
such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in
permaculture farming but not necessarily so in
2021
conventional chemical farming.
. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland
1 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
with scattered small trees. The forest development in (a) 1 and 3
such areas is generally kept in check by one or more (b) 1, 2 and 4
or a combination of some conditions. (c) 4 only
Which of the following are such conditions? (d) 2 and 3
1. Burrowing animals and termites. 6. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following
2. Fire statements:
3. Grazing herbivores (a) The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
4. Seasonal rainfall (b) The palm oil is a raw material for some industries
5. Soil properties producing lipstick and perfumes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
(a) 1 and2 Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) 4 and 5 (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 5 (c) 1 and 3 only
2. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, (d) 1, 2 and 3
consider the following statements: 7. With reference to the Indus River system, of the
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more following four rivers, three of them pour into one of the
than the amount of groundwater. which joins the Indus direct. Among the following,
2. The amount of water In polar ice caps and glaciers which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?
is more than the amount of groundwater. (a) Chenab
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Jhelum
(a) 1 only (c) Ravi
(b) 2 only (d) Sutlej
(c) Both 1 and 2 8. With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Sargol, and khatu are the names of
3. Consider the following statements: (a) Glaciers
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen (b) Mangrove areas
tree. (c) Ramsar sites
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia. (d) Saline lakes
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor 9. Consider the following Rivers:
forest produce. 1. Brahmani
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. 2. Nagavali
. Subarnarekha
3 3. T
he temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is
4. Vamsadhara nearly 10 C lesser than that of the
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? surroundings.
(a) 1 and 2
hich of the statements given above is/are correct:
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(b) 2 and 4
a) 1 only
(c) 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
c) 2 only
10. Among the following, which one is the least
d) 1 and 3 only
water-efficient crop?
Q3. Consider the following minerals:
(a) Sugarcane
1. Bentonite
(b) Sunflower
2. Chromite
(c) Pearl millet
3. Kyanite
(d) Red gram
4. Sillimanite
11. Consider the following statements:
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the In India, which of the above is/are officially designated
oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to as major minerals?
the influence of trade winds. a) 1 and 2 only
2. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern b) 4 only
sections of oceans warmer than the western sections c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only Q4. Siachen Glacier is situated to the
(b) 2 only a) East of Aksai Chin
(c) Both 1 and 2 b) East of Leh
(d) Neither 1 and 2 c) North of Gilgit
12. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other d) North of Nubra Valley
biome and as a result, the soil surface is often almost Q5. Consider the following pairs–
bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely River – Flows into
composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy 1. Mekong — Andaman Sea
vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as 2. Thames — Irish Sea
epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This 3. Volga — Caspian Sea
is the most likely description of 4. Zambezi — Indian Ocean
(a) Coniferous forest
(b) Dry deciduous forest hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
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(c) Mangrove forest matched?
(d) Tropical rain forest a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
2020
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature
Q
(OMT), which of the following statements is/are 2019
correct?
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C . On 21st June, the Sun
1
isotherm which is 129 meters in the (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
south-western Indian Ocean during January – (b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
March. (c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
2. OMT collected during January March can be (d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of
used in assessing whether the amount of Capricorn
rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a Answer: A
certain long-term mean. 2. Consider the following pairs:
Famous place – River
elect the correct answer using the code given below
S 1.Pandharpur – Chandrabhaga
a) 1 only 2.Tiruchirappalli – Cauvery
b) 2 only 3.Hampi – Malaprabha
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
Q2. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere (c) 1 and 3 only
only. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. Answer: A
. Consider the following States:
3 ( c) 1, 2 and 4
1.Chhattisgarh (d) 1, 3 and 4
2.Madhya Pradesh Answer: C
3.Maharashtra 8. Consider the following statements:
4.Odisha 1. As per the recent amendment to the Indian Forest
With reference to the States mentioned above, in Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the
terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of bamboos grown on forest areas.
State, which one of the following is the correct 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
ascending order? Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
(a) 2-3-1-4 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
(b) 2-3-4-1 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
(c) 3-2-4-1 Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
(d) 3-2-1-4 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest
Answer: C dwellers.
4. Consider the following pairs: Sea – Bordering Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Country (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Adriatic Sea – Albania (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Black Sea – Croatia (c) 3 only
3. Caspian Sea – Kazakhstan (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Mediterranean Sea – Morocco Answer: B
5. Red Sea – Syria 9. With reference to the management of minor
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? minerals in India, consider the following statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 1.Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only law in the country.
(c) 2 and 5 only 2.State Governments have the power to grant mining
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the
Answer: B formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals
5. Consider the following pairs lie with the Central Government.
1. Bandarpunch – Yamuna 3.Stale Governments have the power to frame rules to
2. Bara Shigri – Chenab prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
3. Milam – Mandakini Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4. Siachen – Nubra (a) 1 and 3 only
5. Zemu – Manas (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the pairs correctly matched? (c) 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4 Answer: A
(c) 2 and 5 10. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in
(d) 3 and 5 India in the last five years, consider the following
Answer: A statements:
6. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night? 1.Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the 2.Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that
Earth’s surface. of oilseeds.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation. 3.Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on sugarcane.
cloudy nights. 4.Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level. decreased.
Answer: B Which of the statements given above are correct?
7. Consider the following statements about Particularly (a) 1 and 3 only
Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. (c) 2 and 4 only
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
criteria for determining PVTG status. Answer: A
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country 11. Among the agricultural commodities imported by
so far. India, which one of the following accounts for the
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
of PVTGs. (a) Spices
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) Fresh fruits
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Pulses
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Vegetable oils
nswer: D
A
12. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in . With reference to solar power production in India,
4
media in reference to consider the following statements:
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs 1. India is the third-largest in the world in the
(b) an early human species manufacture of silicon wafers used in
(c) a cave system found in North-East India photovoltaic units.
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian 2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the
subcontinent Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Answer: B
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only
2018 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. With references to organic farming in India, consider
1
the following statements:
. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation
5
1. ‘The National Programme for Organic
Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”,
Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the
consider the following statements:
guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of
of Rural Development.
agricultural households among its rural
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food
households.
Products Export Development Authority’
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the
(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the
country, a little over 60 percent belong to
implementation of NPOP.
OBCs.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural
State.
households reported to have received
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W maximum income from sources other than
(a) 1 and 2 only agricultural activities.
(b) 2 and 3 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(c) 3 only
(a) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
. Consider the following pairs:
2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Regions sometimes mentioned in the news – Country
1. Catalonia — Spain
6. Consider the following statements:
2. Crimea — Hungary
1. In India, State Governments do not have the
3. Mindanao — Philippines
power to auction non-coal mines.
4. Oromia — Nigeria
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have
hich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
W gold mines.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
(b) 3 and 4 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the
3
(d) 3 only
following statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil
. Among the following cities, which one lies on a
7
drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
longitude closest to that of Delhi?
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur
(a) Bengaluru
cycle.
(b) Hyderabad
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute
(c) Nagpur
to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
(d) Pune
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 and 2 only . Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
8
(b) 3 only (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
(d) Sri Lanka
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano 4. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam,
1
located in the Indian territory. what is the minimum number of States within India
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great through which you can travel, including the origin and
Nicobar. the destination?
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano (a) 6
erupted was in 1991 and it has remained (b) 7
inactive since then. (c) 8
(d) 9
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only
15. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five
(c) 3 only
States only.
(d) 1 and 3
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States
only.
10. Consider the following statements:
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every
few hundred thousand years. hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 (a) 1 and 2 only
million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and (b) 3 only
no carbon dioxide. (c) 2 and 3 only
3. When living organisms orginated, they (d) 1 and 3 only
modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
6. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’
1
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting
(a) 1 only
Indian monsoon, which of the following statements
(b) 2 and 3 only
is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a
(d) 1, 2 and 3
difference in sea surface temperature between
tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical
2017 Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an EI
Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
1. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String
1
Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
the news in the context of (a) 1 only
(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe (b) 2 only
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the
Earth 7. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the
1
seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the
2. Which of the following practices can help in water
1 seawater recedes from the shoreline a few kilometers
conservation in agriculture? and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes.
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field This unique phenomenon is seen at
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field (a) Bhavnagar
(b) Bheemunipatnam
elect the correct answer using the code given
S (c) Chandipur
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Nagapattinam
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 8. the Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the
1
(d) 1, 2 and 3 following countries?
1. Jordan
3. Which of the following is geographically closest to
1 2. Iraq
Great Nicobar? 3. Lebanon
(a) Sumatra 4. Syria
(b) Borneo
(c) Java Select the correct answer using the code given below:
( a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. In India, the steel production industry requires the
2
(c) 3 and 4 only import of
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) Saltpetre
(b) Rock phosphate
9. With reference to river Teesta, consider the
1 (c) Coking coal
following statements (d) All of the above
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that
of Brahamputra but it flows through Sikkim
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a 4. Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of
2
tributary of river Teesta. Brahmaputra?
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the 1. Dibang
border of India and Bangladesh. 2. Kameng
3. Lohit
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 3 only elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2016
5. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen
2
in the news, consider the following statements:
0. Why does the Government of India promote the
2 1. It is a tree species found in a part of South
use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture? India.
(a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen 2. It is one of the most important trees in the
fixation by the soil microorganisms tropical rain forest areas of South India.
(b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
urea in the soil
(a) 1 only
(c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at
(b) 2 only
all released into atmosphere by crop fields
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) It is a combination of a 1,veedicide and a fertilizer
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
for particular crops
6. Consider the following pairs:
2
1. Which of the following is/are the
2
Famous Place Region
advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?
1. Bodhagaya : Baghelkhand
1. Reduction in weed
2. Khajuraho : Bundelkhand
2. Reduction in soil salinity
3. Shirdi : Vidarbha
3. Reduction in soil erosion
4. Nasik (Nashik) : Malwa
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S 5. Tirupati : Rayalaseema
(a) 1 and 2 only
hich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
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(b) 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) None of the above is an advantage of practising
(c) 2 and 5 only
drip irrigation
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
2. In which of the following regions of India are shale
2
gas resources found? 2015
1. Cambay Basin
2. Cauvery Basin
7. Which one of the following countries of South-West
2
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S (a) Syria
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Jordan
(b) 3 only (c) Lebanon
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Israel
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is
2
clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs
igh in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then
h . S
1 risailam : Nallamala Hills
the rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain 2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
is soon over”. Which of the following regions is 3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
described in the above passage?
hich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
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(a) Savannah
(a) 1 only
(b) Equatorial
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Monsoon
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Mediterranean
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific
2
35. Consider the following rivers:
regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate.
1. Vamsadhara
What is the reason?
2. Indravati
(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
3. Pranahita
(b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
4. Pennar
(c) Coriolis force is too weak
(d) Absence of land in those regions hich of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
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(a) 1, 2 and 3
0. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial
3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
counter-current? (c) 1, 2 and 4
(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis (d) 2 and 3 only
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
(c) Difference in salinity of water 6. Which one of the following regions of India has a
3
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest, and
deciduous forest?
1. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which
3 (a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
among the following (b) South-West Bengal
1. Gravitational force of the Sun (c) Southern Saurashtra
2. Gravitational force of the Moon (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
7. Which one of the following National Parks has a
3
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
climate that varies from tropical to subtropical,
(a) 1 only
temperate, and arctic?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Nadadevi National Park
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National Park
2. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of
3
six countries, which of the following is/are not a
38. Consider the following States:
participant/participants?
1. Arunachal Pradesh
1. Bangladesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
2. Cambodia
3. Mizoram
3. China
4. Myanmar In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet
5. Thailand Evergreen Forests’ occur?
(a) 1 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 5
39. Consider the following statements:
1. The winds which blow between 30°N and 60°S
3. Which one of the following pairs of States of India
3
latitude throughout the year are known as
indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?
westerlies.
(a) Assam and Rajasthan
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
in North-Western region of India are part of
(c) Assam and Gujarat
westerlies.
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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4. Consider the following pairs:
3 (a) 1 only
Place of Pilgrimage Location (b) 2 only
( c) Both 1 and 2 2. Glacial cycles
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
elect the correct answer using the codes given below
S
(a) 1 only
0. In India, in which one of the following types of
4
(b) 2 only
forests is teak a dominant tree species?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Tropical rain forest
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
7. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated
4
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands
with which of the following?
1. Terrace cultivation
1. Which one of the following regions of India has a
4
2. Deforestation
combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest, and
3. Tropical climate
deciduous forest?
(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh elect the correct answer using the codes given below
S
(b) South-West Bengal (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Southern Saurashtra (b) 2 only
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. In India, the steel production industry requires the
4
import of 8. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical
4
(a) saltpeter characteristic of
(b) rock phosphate (a) Equatorial climate
(c) coking coal (b) Mediterranean climate
(d) All of the above (c) Monsoon climate
(d) All of the above climates
3.”Each day is more or less the same, the morning is
4
clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs 49. Consider the following statements:
high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then 1. Maize can be used for the production of
the rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain starch.
is soon over.” Which of the following regions is 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock
described in the above passage? for biodiesel.
(a) Savannah 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using
(b) Equatorial maize.
(c) Monsoon
(d) Mediterranean hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only
4. Which one of the following is the national aquatic
4 (b) 1 and 2 only
animal of India? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Saltwater crocodile (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin 0. What are the significances of a practical approach
5
(d) Gharial to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable
Sugarcane Initiative’?
5. In a particular region in India, the local people train
4 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the
the roots of a living trees into robust bridges across conventional method of cultivation.
streams. As the time passes these bridges become 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively
stronger. These unique ‘Living Root Bridges’ are found in this.
in 3. There is no application of chemical inorganic
(a) Meghalaya fertilizers at all in this.
(b) Himachal Pradesh 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this
(c) Jharkhand compared to the conventional method of
(d) Tamil Nadu cultivation.
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
2014 (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
6. Which of the following phenomena might have
4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
influenced the evolution of organisms?
1. Continental drift 51. Consider the following pairs
egion
R Well-known for the production of (d) Sumatra and Java
1. Kinnaur : Areca nut
2. Mewat : Mango 56. Consider the following pairs:
3. Coromandel : Soya bean 1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Saramati Park : Nagaland
(b) 3 only
hich of the above paris is/are correctly matched?
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(c) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(d) None
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Consider the following pairs:
5
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Programme/Project Ministry
1. Drought-Prone : Ministry of
57. Which of the following have coral reefs?
Agriculture Area Programme
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Desert Development : Ministry of
2. Gulf of Kachchh
Programme Environment and Forests
3. Gulf of Mannar
3. National : Ministry of Rural
4. Sunderbans
atershed Development project Development for
W
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
Rainfed Areas Which of the above pairs is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
correctly matched?
(b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
58. Consider the following rivers:
1. Barak
3. Consider the following pairs:
5
2. Lohit
National Highway Cities connected
3. Subansiri
1. NH4 : Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata hich of the above flows/flow through Arunachal
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3. NH 15 : Ahmedabad and Pradesh?
Jodhpur (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
hich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
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(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
9. Consider the following pairs:
5
(d) None
Hills Region
1. Cardamon Hills : Coromandel Coast
4. What are the benefits of implementing the
5
2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?
3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India
1. Prevention of soil runoff
4. Mikir Hills : North-East India
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with
seasonal rivers hich of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of (a) 1 and 2
groundwater table (b) 2 and 3
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation (c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(a) 1 and 2 only
0. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely
6
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
to see which of the following plants naturally growing
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
there?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
5. Which one of the following pairs of islands is
5
3. Sandal wood
separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree
Channel’? elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra (b) 3 only
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 . K
3 ancheepuram
4. Kamal
1. In the context of food and nutritional security of
6
hich of the above are famous for the production of
W
India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of
traditional sarees/fabric?
various crops helps in achieving the food production
(a) 1 and 2 only
targets of the future. But what is/are the
(b) 2 and 3 only
constraint/constraints in its wider/greater
(c) 1, 2 and 3
implementation?
(d) 1, 3 and 4
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private sector seed
companies in the supply of quality seeds of 2013
vegetables and planting materials of
horticultural crops.
3. There is a demandsupply gap regarding 6. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime
6
quality seeds in case of low value and high from season to season are due to
volume crops. (a) The earth’s rotation on its axis
(b) The earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S manner
(a) 1 and 2 (c) Latitudinal position of the place
(b) 3 only (d) Revolution of the earth on a titled axis
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None 7. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists
6
as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining
2. Turkey is located between
6 freshwater, the largest proportion:
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea (a) Is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea (b) Is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea (c) Exists as groundwater
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea (d) Exists as soil moisture
3. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the
6 68. Consider the following
following cities in SouthEast Asia as one proceeds 1. Electromagnetic radiation
from south to north? 2. Geothermal energy
1. Bangkok 3. Gravitational force
2. Hanoi 4. Plate movements
3. Jakarta 5. Rotation of the earth
4. Singapore 6. Revolution of the earth
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S hich of the above are responsible for bringing
W
(a) 4213 dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(b) 3241 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3412 (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 4321 (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
4. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India,
6
consider the following statement: 9. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation
6
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand. used in
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine (a) Desert margins, liable to strong wind action
wool. (b) Low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled flooding
Tribes. (c) Scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
(d) None of the above
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
0. The annual range of temperature in the interior of
7
(b) 2 and 3 only
the continents is high as compared to coastal areas.
(c) 3 only
What is/are the reason(s)?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Thermal difference between land and water
2. Variation in altitude between continents and
65. Consider the following towns of India:
oceans
1. Bhadrachalam
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
2. Chanderi
4. H
eavy rains in the interior as compared to ( b) 2 and 3 only
coasts (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
(a) 1 only
5. Which one among the following industries is the
7
(b) 1 and 2 only
maximum consumer of water in India?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Engineering
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Paper and pulp
(c) Textiles
1. During the thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is
7
(d) Thermal power
produced by the
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
6. Which of the following is/are the
7
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
3. violent upward movement of air and water
1. High ash content
particles
2. Low sulphur content
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S 3. Low ash fusion temperature
(a) 1 only
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
(b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(d) None of the above produces the thunder
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Which of the following statements regarding laterite
7
soils of India are correct?
77. Consider the following statements:
1. They are generally red in colour,
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana belts.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these
soils hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 and 2
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S
(b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
8. Consider the following pairs:
7
National Park through the park River Flowing
73. Consider the following crops:
1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
1. Cotton
2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
2. Groundnut
3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri
3. Rice
4. Wheat hich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
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(a) 1 and 2
hich of these are Kharif crops?
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(b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
9. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most
7
other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
4. With reference to the usefulness of the by-products
7
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
of sugar industry which of the following statements
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
is/are correct?
Satpuras.
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India
generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
feedstocks for the production of synthetic (a) 1 only
chemical fertilizers. (b) 2 and 3
3. Molasses can be used for the production of (c) 1 and 3
ethanol. (d) None
elect the correct answer using the codes given below
S
80. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 only
1. Nokrek Biosphere reserve : Garo Hills
. ( Loktak) Lake
2 : Barail Range 2012
3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hill
hich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
W 86. Consider the following factors:
(a) 1 only 1. Rotation of the Earth
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Air pressure and wind
(c) 1, 2 and 3 3. Density of ocean water
(d) None 4. Revolution of the earth
1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
8 hich of the above factors influence the ocean
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matched? currents?
Geographical Region Feature (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Atlas Mountains : NorthWestern Africa (c) 1 and 4 only
(c) Guiana Highlands : SouthWestern Africa (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Okavango Basin : Patagonia
7. Normally, the temperature decreases with the
8
2. The most important fishing grounds of the world
8 increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because
are found in the regions where 1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only
(a) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet from the Earth’s surface
(b) rivers drain out large amounts of fresh water into 2. there is more moisture in the upper
the sea atmosphere
(c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet 3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
(d) continental shelf is undulating elect the correct answer using the codes given below
S
(a) 1 only
3. Which of the following is/are unique
8 (b) 2 and 3 only
characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests? (c) 1 and 2 only
1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns (d) 1, 2 and 3
forming a continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of species 8. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is
8
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes this phenomenon a cause of concern?
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S 1. The growth and survival of calcareous
(a) 1 only phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be
(c) 1 and 3 only adversely affected.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The survival of some animals that have
phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely
4. “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the
8 affected.
people used to be nomadic herders.” 4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will
The above statement best describes which of the be adversely affected.
following regions? hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W
(a) African Savannah (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Central Asian Steppe (b) 2 only
(c) North American Prairie (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Siberian Tundra (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Consider the following pairs:
8 9. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night
8
Tribe State and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5
1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim km east of the point where he was standing. He had
2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh no instruments to find the direction, but he located the
3. Dongaria : Odisha polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his
4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu village is to walk in the
hich of the above pairs are correctly matched?
W (a) direction facing the polestar
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) direction opposite to the polestar
(b) 2 and 4 only (c) direction keeping the polestar to his left
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) direction keeping the polestar to his right
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
0. Which one of the following is the characteristics
9
climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
( a) Rainfall throughout the year ( b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) Rainfall in winter only (c) 3 and 4 only
(c) An extremely short dry season (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) A definite dry and wet season
96. Consider the following statements:
1. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of
9 1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from
‘mixed farming’? southern India to northern India.
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops 2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field plains of India decreases from east to west.
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(d) None of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
92. Consider the following crops of India:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Groundnut
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet
2011
hich of the above is/are predominantly rainfed
W
crop/crops?
(a) 1 and 2 only 7. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ
9
(b) 2 and 3 only method of conservation of flora?
(c) 3 only (a) Biosphere Reserve
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
93. Consider the following crops of India: (d) Wildlife Sanctuary
1. Cowpea
2. Green gram 8. Two important rivers- one with its sources in
9
3. Pigeon pea Jharkhand (and Know by a different name in Odish(a),
and another, with its source in Odisha- merge at a
hich of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and
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place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of
green manure?
Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important
(a) 1 and 2 only
site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.
(b) 2 only
Which one of the following could be this?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Bhitarkanika
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
4. A particular State in India has the following
9
(d) Simlipal
characteristics:
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes
9. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species
9
through northern Rajasthan.
diversity. Which one among the following is the most
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
appropriate reason for this phenomenon?
3. Over 12% of forest cover constituted Protected
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant
Area Network in this State.
vegetative growth
hich one among the following States has all the
W (b) It is a confluence of different biogeographical zones
above characteristics? (c) Exotic and invasive species have not been
(a) Arunachal Pradesh introduced in this region
(b) Assam (d) It has less human interference
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand 100. A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
5. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the
9 2. Its central part produces cotton.
following: 3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over
1. Deep gorges food crops.
2. U-turn river courses
hich one of the following states has all of the above
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3. Parallel mountain ranges
characteristics?
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding
(a) Andhra Pradesh
hich of the above can be said to be the evidence for
W (b) Gujarat
Himalayas being young fold mountains? (c) Karnataka
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Tamil Nadu
( a) Its high population in the age group below 15
01. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that
1 years.
mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge[44] (b) Its high population in the age group of 1564 years.
against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function (c) Its high population in the age group above 65
as a safety hedge? years.
(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human (d) Its high total population.
settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which
people neither live nor venture out. 06. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by
1
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines humid climate with high temperature throughout the
which people are in need of after any natural disaster. year. Which one among the folloWing pairs of crops is
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies most suitable for this region?
and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or (a) Paddy and Cotton
Tsunami. (b) Wheat and Jute
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms (c) Paddy and Jute
and tides because of their extensive roots. (d) Wheat and cotton
02. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent
1 07. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the
1
floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from EI following statements is/are correct?
Nino? 1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold 2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land
ocean temperature in equatorial Indian ocean farming.
whereas EI Nino is characterized by unusually 3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground
warm ocean temperature in the equatorial water table can be checked.
pacific ocean.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
2. EI Nino has adverse effect on southwest
below:
monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on
(a) 1 only
monsoon climate.
(b) 2 and 3 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 08. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water
1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind
salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization
03. Between India and east Asia, the navigationtime
1 on the irrigated land?
and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the (a) It greatly increases the crop production
following? (b) It makes some soils impermeable
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between (c) It raises the water table
Malaysia and Indonesia. (d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
2. Opening a new canal across the kra isthmus
between the gulf of Siam and Andaman sea. 09. What is the difference between asteroids and
1
comets?
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while
(a) 1 only
comets are formed of frozen gases held
(b) 2 only
together by rocky and metallic material.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found
mostly between Venus and Mercury.
04. Among the following States, which one has the
1
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while
most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a
asteroids do not.
large variety of orchids with minimum cost of
production, and can develop an export oriented hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W
industry in this field? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) 3 only
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Uttar Pradesh
10. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger
1
05. India is regarded as a country with “Demographic
1 and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?
Dividend’’. This is due to–
1. S outhern hemisphere has less landmass as (d) Both (a) and (b) above
compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere
as compared to northern hemisphere
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called
1
Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?
1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection
of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. What could be the main reason(s) for the
1
formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure
cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean
currents.
hich of the statement(s) give above is/are correct in
W
this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the
1
lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate
explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the
lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower
stratosphere.
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct in
W
this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. The Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy and Mekong rivers
1
originate in Tibet narrow and parallel mountain ranges
in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra
makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This
“U” turn is due to?
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series.
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas.
(c) Geotectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded
mountain chains.
ANCIENT AND ART AND CULTURE ( a) Buddhism
Ancient History and Art & Culture (b) Jainism
(c) Shaivism
2023 (d) Vaishnavism
Q. Consider the following pairs :
. In which one of the following regions was
Q Site – Well known for
Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent 1. Besnagar: Shaivite cave shrine
Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? 2. Bhaja: Buddhist cave shrine
(a) Andhra 3. Sittanavasal: Jain cave shrine
(b) Gandhara
ow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
H
(c) Kalinga
(a) Only one
(d) Magadha
(b) Only two
Q. With reference to ancient India, consider the
(c) All three
following statements :
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative 2022
structure in Buddhist tradition.
. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the
1
ow many of the statements given above are correct?
H following are correct?
(a) Only one 1. A person could be a slave as a result of a
(b) Only two judicial punishment.
(c) All three 2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she
(d) None was legally free.
Q. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, 3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by
Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as her master, the son was entitled to the legal
(a) capital cities status of the master’s son.
(b) ports
(c) centres of iron-and-steel making hich of the statements given above are correct?
W
(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras (a) 1 and 2 only
Q. Which one of the following explains the practice of (b) 2 and 3 only
‘Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Kings employing women body guards (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to 2. With reference to Indian history, consider the
discuss religious and philosophical matters following pairs:
(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields Historical person Known as
and driving away birds and animals 1. Aryadeva Jaina scholar
(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide 2. Dignaga Buddhist scholar
by starving himself to death 3. Nathamuni Vaishnava scholar
Q. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider
ow many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
H
the following pairs :
(a) None of the pairs
Literary work : Author
(b) Only one pair
1. Deuichandragupta : Bilhana
(c) Only two pairs
2. Hammira-Mahakauya : Nayachandra Suri
(d) All three pairs
3. Milinda-panha : Nagatjuna
3. With reference to Indian history, consider the
4. Nitiuakyamrita : Somadeva Suri
following texts:
ow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
H 1. Nettipakarana
(a) Only one 2. Parishishtaparvan
(b) Only two 3. Avadanashataka
(c) Only three 4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
(d) All four
hich of the above are Jaina texts
W
Q. “Souls are not only the property ‘of animal and plant
(a) 1,2 and 3
life, but also of rocks, running water and· many other
(b) 2 and 4 only
natural objects not looked ‘on as living by other
(c) 1,3 and 4
religious sects.”
(d) 2, 3 and 4
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of
4. Consider the following pairs:
which one of the following religious sects of ancient
Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts
India?
Location in the State of
1. D hauli ( 5) The Yadavas of Devagiri
Odisha (6) The Maitrakas of Valabhi
2. Erragudi Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Andhra Pradesh (a) 1, 2 and 5
3. Jaugada (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6
Madhya Pradesh (c) 2, 3 and 4
4. Kalsi (d) 5 and 6
Karnataka 3. With reference to the history of ancient India, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
ow many pairs given above are correctly matched?
H
(1) Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and
(a) Only one pair
Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
(b) Only two pairs
(2) In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim the
(c) Only three pairs
right to the property during the lifetime of the father,
(d) All four pairs
whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the
5. Which one of the following statements about
death of the father that the sons can claim the right to
Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
the property.
(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to
(3) The Mitakshara system deals with matters related
material culture.
to the property held by male members only of a family,
(b) The social classification of Varna was known to
whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters
Sangam poets.
related to the property held by both male and female
(c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
members of a family.
(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
irrational.
(a) 1 and 2
6. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new
(b) 2 only
Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of
(c) 1 and 3
the following statements are correct regarding
(d) 3 only
Somnath Temple?
4. With reference to the history of ancient India,
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga
Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were
shrines.
famous
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by
(a) Jain monks
Al-Biruni.
(b) playwrights
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple
(c) temple architects
(installation of the present day temple) was
(d) philosophers
done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
5. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S near Morena, consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only (1) It is a circular temple built during the reign of
(b) 2 and 3 only Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
(c) 1 and 3 only (2) It is the only circular temple built in India.
(d) 1,2 and 3 (3) It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the
region.
(4) Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it
was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament
2021 building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
. Which one of the following ancient towns is well
1
(a) 1 and 2
known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and
(b) 2 and 3 only
management by building a series of dams and
(c) 1 and 4
channelising water into connected reservoirs?
(d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Dholavira
6. Consider the following pairs:
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Rakhigarhi Historical place Well-known for
(d) Ropar
2. From the decline of Guptas until the rise of
(1) Burzahom Rock-cut shrines
Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of
the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern
India? (2) Chandraketugarh Terracotta art
(1) The Guptas of Magadha
(2) The Paramaras of Malwa
(3) Ganeshwar Copper artefacts
(3) The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
(4) The Maukharis of Kanauj
hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
W . With reference to the religious history of India,
4
matched? consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism
(b) 1 and 2 2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the
(c) 3 only Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism
(d) 2 and 3 3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas
7. Which one of the following statements is correct? fostered Mahayana Buddhism
(a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the
(b) 2 and 3 only
Narmada river.
(c) 3 only
(d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari
(d) 1, 2 and 3
river.
5. With reference to the cultural history of India,
8. Consider the following statements:
consider the following pairs:
(1) 21st February is declared to be International
1. Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer
Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. Shramana — Priest with a high status
(2) The demand that Bangla has to be one of the
3. Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism
national languages was raised in the Constituent
Assembly of Pakistan. hich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
W
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. With reference to the cultural history of India, which
9. With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and one of the following is the correct
Kui’ pertain to description of the term ‘paramitas’?
(a) dance forms of Northwest India (a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in
(b) musical instruments aphoristic (sutra) style
(c) pre-historic cave paintings (b) Philosophical schools that did not accept the
(d) tribal languages authority of Vedas
(c) Perfections whose attainment led to the
Bodhisattva path
2020 (d) Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South
India
. Which of the following phrases defines the nature of
1
the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the
post-Harsha period? 2019
(a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates
(b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts .Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
1
(c) A bill of exchange (a) Chanhudaro
(d) An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates (b) Kot Diji
2. Who among the following rulers advised his subjects (c) Sohgaura
through this inscription? (d) Desalpur
“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other Answer: C
sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with 2. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions
the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with
own sect very severely.” the stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a) Ashoka (a) Kanganahalli
(b) Samudragupta (b) Sanchi
(c) Harshavardhana (c) Shahbazagrhi
(a) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Sohgaura
3. With reference to the period of the Gupta dynasty in Answer: A
ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and 3. Consider the following:
Chaul were well known as 1.Deification of the Buddha
(a) ports handling foreign trade 2.Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
(b) capitals of powerful kingdoms 3.Image worship and rituals
(c) places of exquisite stone art and architecture Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of
(d) important Buddhist pilgrimage centres Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) 1 only
( b) 1 and 2 only ( a) Avalokiteshvara
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Lokesvara
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Maitreya
Answer: D (d) Padmapani
4.Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature
in the temple construction in the kingdom of . The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the
5
(a) Chalukya (a) Bundi school
(b) Chandela (b) Jaipur school
(c) Rashtrakuta (c) Kangra school
(d) Vijayanagara (d) Kishangarh school
Answer: D
. With reference to the religious practices in India, the
6
“Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to
(a) Buddhism
2018
(b) Jainism
. Consider the following pairs:
1 (c) Vaishnavism
Tradition State (d) Shaivism
1. Chapchar Kut Festival — Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
3. Thang-Ta Dance — Sikkim 2017
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 . With reference to the difference between the culture
7
(c) 1 and 2 of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of
(d) 2 and 3 the following statements is/are correct?
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and
. With reference to culture history of India,consider
2 helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus
the following statements: Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional of using them.
songs in praise of Lord Krishna. 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are and iron.
contemporaries. 3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse
4. Annamacharya kirtnas are devotional songs in whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley
praise of Lord Venketshwara. people having been aware of this animal.
hich of the statement is given above are correct?
W elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
. With reference to the cultural history of India,
3 . With reference to the religious history of India,
8
consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. White marble was used in making Buland 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of
Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri. Jainism.
2. Red Sandstone and marble were used in 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of
making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza in phenomena were not wholly momentary, but
Lucknow. existed forever in a latent form.
hich of the following statements given above is/are
W hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
. Which one of the following was a very important
9
. With reference to the Indian History, who among the
4 seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?
following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the (a) Kakinada
world? (b) Motupalli
( c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) Term Description
(d) Nelluru 1. E ripatti Land, revenue from which was set
apart for the maintenance of the village tank
0. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of
1 2. Taniyurs Villages donated to a single
the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at: Brahmin or a group of Brahmins
(a) Ajanta 3. Ghatikas Colleges generally attached to the
(b) Badami temples
(c) Bagh
hich of the pairs given above correctly matched?
W
(d) Ellora
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
11. Consider the following pairs:
(c) 2 and 3
Traditions Communities (d) 1 and 3
5. With reference to the cultural history of India, the
1
1 Chaliha Sahib Festival Sindhis
memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and epic
tales was the profession of who of the following?
2 Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra Gonds (a) Shramana
(b) Parivrajaka
(c) Agrahaarika
3 Wari-Warkari Santhals
(d) Maagadha
hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
W
6. Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts
1
matched?
of Emperor Ashoka?
(a) 1 only
(a) Georg Buhler
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) James Prinsep
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Max Muller
(d) None of the above
(d) William Jones
2. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun
1
7. Which one of the following books of ancient India
1
temples?
has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga
1. Arasavalli
dynasty?
2. Amarakantak
(a) Swapnavasavadatta
3. Omkareshwar
(b) Malavikagnimitra
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S (c) Meghadoota
(a) 1 only (d) Ratnavali
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 8. With reference to the cultural history of medieval
1
(d) 1, 2 and 3 India, consider the following statements:
1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were
3. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider
1 monotheistic and condemned idolatry.
the following statements: 2. Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the
1. It is a song and dance performance. theory of rebirth and rejected the caste
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments hierarchy.
used in the performance.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of
(a) 1 only
Lord Krishna.
(b) 2 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 9. Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts
1
(d) 1 only of Emperor Ashoka?
(a) Georg Buhler
(b) James Prinsep
(c) Max Muller
2016
(d) William Jones
0. With reference to the religious history of India,
2
4. In the context of the history of India, consider the
1
consider the following statements:
following pairs:
1. T he concept of Bodhisattva is central to
Hinayana sect of Buddhism. 4. Kalamkari painting refers to
2
2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his (a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India
way to enlightenment. (b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in
3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own North-East India
salvation to help all sentient beings on their (c) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan
path to it. region of India
(d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
North-Western India
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
5. Which of the following kingdoms were associated
2
(c) 2 only
with the life of the Buddha?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
1. What is/are common to the two historical places
2
3. Kosala
known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?
4. Magadha
1. Both were built in the same period.
2. Both belong to the same religious elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
denomination. (a) 1, 2 and 3
3. Both have rock-cut monuments. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(d) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
6. Who of the following founded a new city on the
2
(c) 1 and 3 only
south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a
deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna
2. In the context of the history of India, consider the
2
was supposed to belong?
following pairs:
(a) Amoghavarsha I
Term Description
(b) Ballala II
1. Eripatti : Land, revenue from which was set
(c) Harihara I
apart for the maintenance of the village tank
(d) Prataparudra II
2. Taniyurs : Villages donated to a single
Brahmin or a group of Brahmins
7. With reference to the art and archaeological history
2
3. Ghatikas : Colleges generally attached to the
of India, which one among the following was made
temples
earliest?
hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
W (a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
matched? (b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
(a) 1 and 2 (c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
(b) 3 only (d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 8. Which one of the following was given classical
2
language status recently?
(a) Odia
(b) Konkani
2015 (c) Bhojpuri
(d) Assamese
3. Which of the following kingdoms were associated
2
with the life of the Buddha?
1. Avanti 2014
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha 9. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated
2
with the life of the Buddha?
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S 1. Avanti
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Gandhara
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Kosala
(c) 1, 3 and 4 4. Magadha
(d) 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
( a) 1, 2 and 3
1 A
grand image of Buddha’s jant
A
(b) 2 and 4
Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial a
(c) 3 and 4 only
musicians above and the sorrowful
(d) 1, 3 and 4
figures of his followers below
0. Which one of the following pairs does not form part
3
2 A
huge image of Varaha Avatar ou
M
of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?
(boarincarnation) of Vishnu, as he nt
(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
rescues Goddess Earth from the deep Abu
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(d) Sankhya and Yoga
3 “ Arjuna’s Penance”/ “Descent of Ganga” am
M
31. Consider the following towns of India: sculpated on the surface of huge alla-p
1. Bhadrachalam boulders uram
2. Chanderi hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly
W
3. Kancheepuram matched?
4. Karnal (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
hich of the above are famous for the production of
W
(c) 1 and 3 only
traditional sarees/fabric?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
5. With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what
3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
is `Kalaripayattu’?
(d) 1, 3 and 4
(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still
prevalent in some parts of South India
32. Consider the following languages
(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still
1. Gujarati
found in southern part of Coromandel area
2. Kannada
(c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living
3. Telugu
tradition in the northern part of Malabar
hich of the above has/have been declared as
W (d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in
‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government? some parts of South India
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only 36. Consider the following pairs:
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. Garba : Gujarat
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Mohiniattam : Odisha
3. Yakshagana : Karnataka
3. With reference to the famous Sattriya dance,
3
hich of the pairs given above is / are correctly
W
consider the following statements:
matched?
1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and
(a) 1 only
drama.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of
(c) 1 and 3 only
Vaishnavites of Assam.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of
devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir
7. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and
3
and Mirabai.
culture in India, consider the following pairs:
hich of the statements above is/are correct?
W
Famous shrine Location
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 1 T
abo monastery and temple Spiti Valley
(d) 1, 2 and 3 complex
4. With reference to the Indian history of art and
3 2 L
hotsava Lhakhang temple, anskar
Z
culture, consider the following pairs: Nako Valley
Famous work of sculpture Site
3 Alchi temple complex Ladakh
hich of the pairs given above is/are correctly atched?
W
(a) 1 only
( b) 2 and 3 only 2. T hey worshipped both male and female
(c) 1 and 3 only deities.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in
warfare.
8. A community of people called Manganiyars is
3
elect the correct statement/ statements using the
S
well-known for their
codes given below.
(a) martial arts in North-East India
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) musical tradition in North-West India
(b) 2 only
(c) classical vocal music in South India
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) pietra dura tradition in Central India
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
9. With reference to the cultural history of India, the
3
3. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas,
4
term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to
while the others are called Viharas. What is the
(a) an assembly of village elders
difference between the two?
(b) a religious sect
(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the
(c) a style of temple construction
dwelling place of the monks
(d) an administrative functionary
(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the
dwelling place of the monks
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave,
2013 while Vihara is the hall axial to it
(d) There is no material difference between the two
0. Which of the following statements is/are applicable
4 4. Which one of the following describes best the
4
to Jain doctrine? concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to (a) The extinction of the flame of desire
practice penance (b) The complete annihilation of self
2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a (c) A state of bliss and rest
soul (d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be
ended 5. Which of the following characterizes/characterize
4
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S the people of Indus Civilization?
below: 1. They possessed great palaces and temples
(a) 1 only 2. They worshipped both male and female deities
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in
(c) 1 and 3 only warfare
(d) 1, 2 and 3 elect the correct statement/statements using the
S
codes given below:
1. The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang)
4 (a) 1 and 2 only
who visited India recorded the general conditions and (b) 2 only
culture of India at that time. In this context, which of (c) 1, 2 and 3
the following statements is/are correct? (d) None of the statements given above is correct
1. The roads and river-routes were completely
immune from robbery. 6. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut
4
2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals architecture, consider the following statements:
by fire, water and poison were the instruments 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving
for determining the innocence or guilt of a rock-cut caves in India
person. 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta
barrier stations. Maurya
elect the correct answer using the codes given below.
S 3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
(a) 1 only hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Which of the following characterizes/ characterize
4
the people of Indus Civilization? 47. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in
1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
ance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a
d 1. A voidance of extremities of penance and
favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. enjoyment
Which one of the following statements best describes 2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
this pose? 3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
oppositely curved at waist and neck
below:
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up
(a) 1 only
are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic
(b) 2 and 3 only
characters
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to
(d) 1, 2 and 3
express oneself or to tell a story
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand
2. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the
5
gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of
hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It
love or eroticism
symbolizes
(a) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara
48. Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
1. Dadu Dayal
(b) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity
2. Guru Nanak
and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
3. Tyagaraja
(c) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all
ho among the above was/were preaching when the
W arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth,
Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over? and thus this life is transitory
(a) 1 and 3 (d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this
(b) 2 only context
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 3. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient
5
India that played a very important role in the country’s
49. Consider the following historical places: economy, which of the following statements is/are
1. Ajanta Caves correct?
2. Lepakshi Temple 1. Every guild was registered with the central
3. Sanchi Stupa authority of the State and the king was the
chief administrative authority on them.
hich of the above places is/are also known for mural
W
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and
paintings?
prices were fixed by the guild.
(a) 1 only
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own
(b) 1 and 2 only
members.
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
below:
0. With reference to the history of philosophical
5 (a) 1 and 2 only
thought in India, consider the following statements (b) 3 only
regarding Sankhya school: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth (d) 1, 2 and 3
or transmigration of soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge 4. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient
5
that leads to liberation and not any exterior India, which of the statements given below are
influence or agent. correct?
1. Different kinds of specialized surgical
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
instruments were in common use by 1st
(a) 1 only
century AD.
(b) 2 only
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human
(c) Both 1 and 2
body had begun by the beginning of 3rd
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in
2012 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was
known in 7th century AD.
1. With reference to the history of ancient India, which
5
of the following was/were common to both Buddhism elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
and Jainism? below:
( a) 1 and 2 only 1. D harma was a conception of obligations and
(b) 3 and 4 only of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only to others.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing
the functioning of the universe and all it
5. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
5 contained.
(a) Bhakti
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(b) image worship and Yajnas
(a) 1 only
(c) worship of nature and Yajnas
(b) 2 only
(d) worship of nature and Bhakti
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the
5
(a) three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
0. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created
6
(b) three main linguistic divisions into which the
and maintained by
languages of Indian can be classified
(a) Universal Law
(c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(b) Universal Truth
(d) three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
(c) Universal Faith
(d) Universal Soul
7. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major
5
traditions of India that has been kept alive for
1. India maintained its early cultural contacts and
6
centuries, which of the following statements are
trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of
correct?
Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the
of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the
Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
most convincing explanation/explanations?
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual
(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better
music.
ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from
(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized
Mantras.
traders, brahmin priests and buddhist monks in this
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S context
below: (c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated
(a) 1 and 2 only sea voyages
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this
(c) 1, 2 and 3 context
(d) None of the above is correct
2. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider
6
8. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and
5 the following statements:
Bharatanatyam dances? 1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and
1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is the religious element, though present, did not
found in Kuchipudi dance but not in dominate the scene.
Bharatanatyam. 2. During this period, cotton was used for
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet manufacturing textiles in India.
on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of
(a) 1 only
movements.
(b) 2 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2011
9. The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of
5
ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context,
consider the following statements:
MEDIEVAL ( d) Sayyids
2023 4. Consider the following pairs:
King Dynasty
Q. Consider the following dynasties : 1. Nannuka Chandela
1. Hoysala 2. Jayashakti Paramara
2. Gahadavala 3. Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara
3. Kakatiya 4. Bhoja Rashtrakuta
4. Yadava
ow many pairs given above are correctly matched?
H
ow many of the above dynasties established their
H (a) Only one pair
kingdoms in early eighth century AD? (b) Only two pairs
(a) Only one (c) Only three pairs
(b) Only two (d) All four pairs
(c) Only three 5. “Yogavãsistha” was translated into Persian by
(d) None Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
Q. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara (a) Akbar
Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra (b) Humayun
River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres (c) Shahjahan
long from the river to the capital city? (d) Aurangzeb
(a) Devaraya I 6. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of
(b) Mallikatjuna Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of
(c) Vira Vijaya India at Hyderabad recently.
(d) Virupaksha Which one of the following statements correctly
Q. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat represents the teachings of Ramanuja?
surrendered Diu to Portuguese? (a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
(a) Ahmad Shah (b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly
(b) Mahmud Begarha authoritative.
(c) Bahadur Shah (c) Logical arguments were meant for the highest bliss.
(d) Muhammad Shah (d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.
2022 2021
. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:
1 . According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in
1
(a) Clothing the Vijayanagara empire were experts in which the
(b)Coins following areas?
(c) Ornaments (1) Wrestling
(d) Weapons (2) Astrology
2. With reference to Indian history, consider the (3) Accounting
following statements: (4) Soothsaying
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened Select the correct answer using the code given below:
during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one (b) 1, 3, and 4 only
Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and (c) 2 and 4 only
besieged the city. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost 2. Consider the following statements:
portions of north-west of his kingdom to (1) It was during the reign of Iltumish that Chengiz
Mongols. Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive
Khwarezm prince.
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W (2) It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq
(a) 1 and 2 that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
(b) 2 only (3) It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of the
(c) 1 and 3 Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the
(d) 3 only coast of Kerala.
3. With reference to Indian history, who of the following Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
were known as “Kulah-Daran” ? (a) 1 only
(a) Arab merchants (b) 1 and 2
(b) Qalandars (c) 3 only
(c) Persian calligraphists (d) 2 and 3
. With reference to medieval India, which one of the
3 2. L
and assignments to Jagirdars were
following is the correct sequence in ascending order in hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars
terms of size? were not hereditary.
(a) Paragana – Sarkar – Suba
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(b) Sarkar – Paragana – Suba
(a) 1 only
(c) Suba – Sarkar – Paragana
(b) 2 only
(d) Paragana – Suba – Sarkar
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. With reference to Indian history, which of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
following statements is/are correct?
Answer : D
(1) The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad
2.With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India
state.
during the Gupta period, which one of the following
(2) The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of the
statements is correct?
Vijayanagara empire.
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State,
(3) Rohilkhand kingdom was formed out of the
a sort of tax paid by the people.
territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
below:
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(a) 1 and 2
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the
(b) 2 only
forced labourer.
(c) 2 and 3
Answer: A
(d) 3 only
3.Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi
Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection
2020 was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The lqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an
1. Consider the following events in the history of India : ancient indigenous institution.
1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja 3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence
2. Establishment of Pallava power under during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Mahendravarman – I
3. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka – hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
I (a) 1 only
4. The Pala dynasty was founded by Gopala (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
hat is the correct chronological order of the above
W (d) 1, 2 and 3
events, starting from the earliest time? Answer: A
(a) 2-1-4-3 4.Consider the following statements:
(b) 3-1-4-2 1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
(c) 2-4-1-3 2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh
(d) 3-4-1-2 Ahmad Sirhindi.
2. With reference to the history of India, the terms
“kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(a) measurement of land (a) 1 only
(b) coins of different monetary value (b) 2 only
(c) classification of urban land (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) religious rituals (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
5. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the
following statements is not correct?
2019 (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor
Akbar.
. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the
1
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and
difference/differences between Jagirdar and
goddesses.
Zamindar?
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas
Answer: A
Zamindars were holders of revenue rights
6. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted
without obligation to perform any duty other
emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and
than revenue collection.
individual portraits?
(a) Humayun
( b) Akbar ( b) 2 only
(c) Jahangir (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Shah Jahan (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
. Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian
6
history were generally
(a) agriculturists
2018
(b) warriors
(c) weavers
. Which one of the following foreign travellers
1 (d) traders
elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond
mines of India?
(a) Francois Bernier 2015
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre . Consider the following pairs:
7
Medieval Indian State Present Region
1. Champaka : Central India
2. Durgara : Jammu
2017
3. Kuluta : Malabar
hich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
W
. Which one of the following was a very important
2 (a) 1 and 2
seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom? (b) 2 only
(a) Kakinada (c) 1 and 3
(b) Motupalli (d) 3 only
(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
(d) Nelluru . Consider the following:
8
The arrival of Babur into India led to the
1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
2. introduction of the arch and dome in the
region’s architecture
3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region
2016
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(a) 1 and 2 only
. With reference to the economic history of medieval
3 (b) 3 only
India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) bonded labour (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) land grants made to military officers
(c) waterwheel used in the irrigation of land . With reference to Indian history, which of the
9
(d) wasteland converted to cultivated land following is/are the essential element/elements of the
feudal system?
. With reference to the cultural history of India, the
4 1. A very strong centralized political authority and
memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories, and epic a very weak provincial or local political
tales was the profession of who of the following? authority
(a) Shramana 2. Emergence of administrative structure based
(b) Parivraajaka on control and possession of the land
(c) Agrahaarika 3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between
(d) Maagadha the feudal lord and his overlord
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
. Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the
5 (a) 1 and 2 only
ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on (c) 3 only
the quality of the land. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Private owners of workshops paid an
industries tax. 0. Who of the following founded a new city on the
1
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and
(a) 1 only undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a
eity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna
d (d) 1, 2 and 3
was supposed to belong?
(a) Amoghavarsha I
(b) Ballala II
(c) Harihara I
(d) Prataparudra II
2014
1. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was
1
(a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family
(b) Akbar’s private prayer chamber
(c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with
scholars of various religions
(d) the room in which the nobles belonging to different
religions gathered to discuss religious affairs
2. In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and
1
‘Pattakila’ were used for
(a) military officers
(b) village headmen
(c) specialists in Vedic rituals
(d) chiefs of craft guilds
2013
13. Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1. Dadu Dayal
2. Guru Nanak
3. Tyagaraja
ho among the above was/were preaching when the
W
Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
2012
4. With reference to the religious history of medieval
1
India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of
the following practices?
1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of
ecstasy in their audience
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
MODERN ( d) 3 only
2023 3. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission,
consider the following statements:
. By which one of the following Acts was the
Q 1. The Constituent Assembly would have
Governor General of Bengal, designated as the members nominated by the Provincial
Governor General of India? Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
(a) The Regulating Act 2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept
(b) The Pitt’s India Act the new Constitution would have the right to
(c) The Charter Act of 1793 sign a separate agreement with Britain
(d) The Charter Act of 1833 regarding its future status.
Q. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess
(a) 1 only
and Walter Elliot were associated with
(b) 2 only
(a) archaeological excavations
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
4. With reference to Indian history, consider the
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India
following statements:
Q. Consider the following statelllents :
1. The Dutch established their
Statement-I : 7th August is declared as the National
factories/warehouses on the east coast on
Handloom Day.
lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from
Movement was launched on the same day.
the Bijapur Sultanate.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
3. The English East India. Company established
above statements?
a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
from a representative of the Vijayanagara
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
empire.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for hich of the statements given above are correct?
W
Statement-I (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Stateinent-II is correct (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2022
2021
. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions
1
of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” . With reference to Indian history, which of the
Q
and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following following statements is/are correct?
were treated as “Reserved” subjects? 1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of
1. Administration of Justice Hyderabad State.
2. Local Self-Government 2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of
3. Land Revenue Vijaynagara Empire.
4. Police 3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the
territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 ● a) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 ● b) 2 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 ● c) 2 and 3
2. Consider the following freedom fighters: ● d) 3 Only
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Q. Consider the following statements:
3. Rash Behari Bose 1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919
recommended granting voting rights to all the
ho of the above was/were actively associated with
W women above the age 21.
the Ghadar Party? 2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave
(a) 1 and 2 women reserved seats in legislature.
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
● a) 1 only
b
● ) 2 only 3. R abindranath Tagore translated the National
● c) both 1 and 2 Anthem from Bengali to English here.
● d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Madame Blavastsky and Colonel Olcott set up
headquarters of Theosophical Society first
. With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian
Q
here.
history, which one of the following statements is
correct?
1. a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by
the AICC.
2020
2. b) The Viceroy’s Executive council was
expanded to include more Indians. . In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case
Q
3. c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven of 1884 revolved around:
provinces. 1. women’s right to gain education
4. d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full 2. age of consent
Dominion Status once the Second world War 3. restitution of conjugal rights
was over.
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
. Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs
Q [a) 1 and 2 only
from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious [b) 2 and 3 only
lyrics in English? [c) 1 and 3 only
1. a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak [d) 1, 2 and 3
2. b) Jawaharlal Nehru Q. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning
3. c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi of the 20th century because of
4. d) Sarojini Naidu [a) Peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of
. Who among the following was associated as
Q planters
Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came [b) Its unprofitability in the world market because of
to be known as Bethune Female School? new inventions
1. a) Annie Besant [c) National leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of
2. b) Debendranath Tagore indigo
3. c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar [d) Government control over the planters
4. d) Sarojini Naidu Q. Wellesley established the Fort William College at
Calcutta because
. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan,
Q [a) He was asked by the Board of Directors at London
Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are to do so
remembered as [b) He wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in
1. a) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement India
2. b) members of the Interim Government in [c) He wanted to provide William Carey and his
1946 associates employment
3. c) members of the Drafting Committee in the [d) He wanted to train British civilians for administrative
Constituent Assembly purposes in India
4. d) officers of the Indian National Army Q. With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or
the Great Tumult is the description of which of the
. In the first quarter of seventeenth century, in which
Q
following events?
of the following was/were the factory/factories of the
[a) The Revolt of 1857
English East India Company located?
[b) The Mappila rebellion of 1921
1. Broach
[c) The Indigo revolt of 1859 – 60
2. Chicacole
[d) Birsa Munda’s revolt of 1899-1900
3. Trichinopoly
Q. One common agreement between Gandhism and
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Marxism is
● a) 1 Only [a) The final goal of a stateless society
● b) 1 and 2 [b) Class struggle
● c) 3 Only [c) Abolition of private property
● d) 2 and 3 [d) Economic determinism
Q. Which of the following statements correctly explain
. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh,
Q the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during
which one of the following statements is correct? the first half of the nineteenth century?
1. Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian [a) Indian handicrafts were ruined.
National Flag here. [b) Machines were introduced in the Indian textile
2. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India industry in large number.
Movement of Andhra region from here. [c) Railway lines were laid in many parts of the countr
[d) Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of .With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the
2
British manufactures. following statements:
Q. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan
following? crafts and industries.
1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the The National Council of Education was established as
Round Table Conference a part of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
connection with the Civil Disobedience (a) 1 only
Movement (b) 2 only
3. Acceptance of Gandhi’s suggestion for enquiry (c) Both 1 and 2
into police excesses (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not Answer: C
charged with violence 3. Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization —— Leader
elect the correct answer using the code given below
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1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma
[a) 1 only
Gandhi
[b) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
[c) 3 only
3. Self-Respect Movement Naicker E.V. Ramaswami
[d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
Q. With reference to the book “Desher Katha” written
matched?
by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom
(a) 1 only
struggle, consider the following statements :
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. It warned against the Colonial State’s hypnotic
(c) 2 and 3 only
conquest of the mind.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street
Answer: D
plays and folk songs.
4.With reference to the British colonial rule in India,
3. The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the
consider the following statements:
specific context of the region of Bengal.
1.Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W the system of ‘indentured labour
[a) 1 and 2 only 2.In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma
[b) 2 and 3 only Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting
[c) 1 and 3 only Indians for World War.
[d) 1, 2 and 3 3.Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian
Q. The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to people, the Indian National Congress was declared
have the untouchable people as its target audience illegal by the colonial rulers.
was published by Which of the statements given above are correct?
[a) Gopal Baba Walangkar (a) 1 and 2 only
[b) Jyotiba Phule (b) 1 and 3 only
[c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi (c) 2 and 3 only
[d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
5.With reference to Indian National Movement,
consider the following pairs:
2019 Person ——— Position held
1.Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal
.Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter
1
Federation
Act of 1813’:
2.K.C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India
3.P.C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of
Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with
India
China.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over
matched?
the Indian territories held by the Company.
(a) 1 only
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the
(b) 1 and 2 only
British Parliament.
(c) 3 only
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2018
Answer: A
1. Consider the following events: hich of the pairs given above is/are correct?
W
1. The first democratically elected communist (a) 1 and 2
party government formed in a State in India. (b) 2 only
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of (c) 1 and 3
India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’. (d) 3 only
3. Air India was nationalised and became the
national carrier. . The staple commodities of export by the English
7
4. Goa became a part of independent India. East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the
18th century were:
hich of the following is the correct chronological
W
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
sequence of the above events?
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
(b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
(c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
(d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
. Which one of the following is a very significant
8
aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
. In the Federation established by The Government of
2
(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students
India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
and women in the National Movement
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities
(b) Governor General
of India in the National Movement
(c) Provincial Legislature
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National
(d) Provincial Governors
Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation
. Which of the following led to the introduction of
3
crops and commercial crops
English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
. Who among the following were the founders of the
9
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
“Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C.
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S George
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and
(b) 2 only M.N. Roy
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Veeresalingam Pantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to
4
“Swarajya Sabha”? 0. Which one of the following statements does not
1
(a) All India Home Rule League apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced
(b) Hindu Mahasabha by Lord Wellesley?
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation (a) To maintain a large standing army at others
(d) The Servants of India Society expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
. Which among the following events happened
5 (c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
earliest? (d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian
(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj. States
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath. 1. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what
1
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial
succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination. government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Parganas’ were
. With reference to educational institutions during
6 created.
colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land
Institution Founder to a non-Santhal.
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras — William
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
S
Jones
(a) 1 only
2. Calcutta Madarsa — Warren
(b) 2 only
Hastings
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Fort William College — Arthur
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Wellesley
hich of the above statements is/are correct?
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2. Economically one of the results of the British rule in
1 (a) 1 only
India in the 19th century was the (b) 2 only
(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
(d) rapid increase in the urban population 8. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was
1
to?
3. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following
1 (a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial
statements are true? Governments.
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. (b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for
2. Establishment of universities was India.
recommended. (c) Impose censorship on national press.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels (d) Improve the relationship between the Government
of education was recommended. of India and the Indian States.
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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19. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the
(b) 2 and 3 only
British Indian Association
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Gazulu Lakshmi Narasu Chetty — Founder of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the
4. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji,
1
Indian Association
and Shrikrishna ; stayed in America for some time; and
was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was hich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
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(a) Aurobindo Ghosh (a) 1 only
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Motilal Nehru (d) 1, 2 and 3
0. In the context of Indian history, the principle of
2
2017
̀Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to
5. Who among the following was/were associated
1 (a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India (b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and
during the British rule? State governments.
1. Lord Cornwallis (c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and
2. Alexander Read another in Delhi.
3. Thomas Munro (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces
into two categories.
elect the correct answer using the code given below:
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(a) 1 only 1. With reference to Indian freedom struggle,
2
(b) 1 and 3 only consider the following events:
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference
6. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
1
(a) the participation of workers in the management of hat is the correct chronological sequence of the
W
industries. above events?
(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell (a) 1-2-3
industrial disputes. (b) 2-1-3
(c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a (c) 3-2-1
trade dispute. (d) 3-1-2
(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
2016
17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a 2. The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as
2
view to fix the wages of industrial workers and methods of struggle for the first time during the
to allow the workers to form trade unions. (a) Agitation against the Partition of Bengal
2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing (b) Home Rule Movement
the labour movement in British India. (c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Visit of the Simon Commission to India ( b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. Satya Shodhak Samaj organized
2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar.
(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat. 9. Who of the following was/were economic
2
(c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra. critic/critics of colonialism in India?
(d) a peasant movement in Punjab. 1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G.Subramania Iyer
4. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related
2 3. R.C. Dutt
to
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(a) social reforms
(a) 1 only
(b) educational reforms
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) reforms in police administration
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) constitutional reforms
(d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Consider the following:
0. With reference to Congress Socialist Party,
3
1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
consider the following statements:
2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and
3. Indian Reform Association
evasion of taxes.
eshab Chandra Sen is associated with the
K 2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of
establishment of which of the above? proletariat.
(a) 1 and 3 only 3. It advocated, separate electorate for minorities
(b) 2 and 3 only and oppressed classes.
(c) 3 only
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
6. What was the main reason for the split in the
2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?
(d) None
(a) Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by
Lord Minto
1. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly
3
(b) Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the
defined
moderates to negotiate with the British Government
(a) the separation of power between the judiciary and
(c) Foundation of Muslim League
the legislature
(d) Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be elected as the
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial
President of the Indian National Congress
governments
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and
7. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after
2
the Viceroy
the Second World War
(d) None of the above
(a) India should be granted complete independence.
(b) India should be partitioned into two before granting
2. Who of the following organized a march on the
3
independence.
Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?
(c) India should be made a republic with the condition
(a) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
that she will join the Commonwealth.
(b) C.Rajagopalachari
(d) India should be given Dominion status.
(c) K.Kamaraj
(d) Annie Besant
2015
33. Consider the following statements
8. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the
2 1. The first woman President of the Indian
following statements is/are correct? National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian
recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’. National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to Utilize
the Home Rule League. hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon (a) 1 only
Commission coincided with Rowlatt (b) 2 only
Satyagraha. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
(a) 1 only
2. T o place the Indian administration under the
4. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the
3 British Crown.
following statements is/are correct? 3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with
1. It recommended a federal government. India.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
(a) 1 and 2 only
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
2013
5. Which one of the following movements has
3 0. The people of India agitated against the arrival of
4
contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress Simon Commission because
resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and (a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of
‘extremists’? the Act of 1919
(a) Swadeshi Movement (b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of
(b) Quit India Movement Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement (c) there was no indian member in the Simon
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement Commission
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of
2014 the country
6. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in
3 1. Quit India Movement was launched in response to
4
1905 lasted until (a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(a) the First World War when Indian troops were (b) Cripps Proposals
needed by the British and the partition was ended. (c) Simon Commission Report
(b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the (d) Wavell Plan
Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911.
(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience 2. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement
4
Movement. in Bengal was for
(d) the Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from
became East Pakistan. one-half of the crop to one-third
(b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they
7. The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is
3 were the actual cultivators of the land
of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement (c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of
because the serfdom
(a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as the (d) writing off all peasant debts
objective of the Congress
(b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the 43. Annie Besant was
goal of the Congress 1. responsible for starting the Home Rule
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched Movement.
(d) decision to participate in the Round Table 2. the founder of the Theosophical Society.
Conference in London was taken 3. once the President of the Indian National
Congress.
8. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
3
elect the correct statement/statements using the
S
(a) revolutionary association of Indians with
codes given below.
headquarters at San Francisco
(a) 1 only
(b) nationalist organization operating from Singapore
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) communist movement for India’s freedom with
(d) 1, 2 and 3
headquarters at Tashkent
4. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
4
9. What was/were the object/objects of Queen
3
(a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by
Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?
the Indians
1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian
(b) imposition of restrictions en newspapers and
States.
magazines published in Indian languages
( c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans below:
(d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
5. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
4 (c) 3 only
(a) solve the problem of minorities in India (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) give effect to the Independence Bill
(c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan 50. Consider the following
(d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal 1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of
nature of the soil and the quality of crops.
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare.
2012
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies.
6. Consider the following statements:
4 hich of the above was/were introduced into India by
W
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai the English?
Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was (a) 1 only
that he (b) 1 and 2
1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by (c) 2 and 3
the British. (d) None
2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and
restored the self-confidence of Indians. 1. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven
5
3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the provinces in 1939, because
social evils before anything else. (a) the Congress could not form ministries in the other
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W four provinces
(a) 1 only (b) emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made
(b) 2 and 3 only the working of the ministries impossible
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) there were widespread communal disturbances in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 their provinces
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
7. The Rowlatt Act aimed at:
4 is correct
(a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
(b) imprisonment without trial and summary 2. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s)
5
procedures for trial of the Government of India Act, 1919?
(c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive
(d) imposition of restrictions freedom of the press government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates
8. The Lahore Session of the Indian National
4 for Muslims.
Congress (1929) is very important in history, because 3. Devolution of Legislative authority by the
1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding centre to the provinces.
complete independence. elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
2. the rift between the extremists and moderates below:
was resolved in that Session. (a) 1 only
3. a resolution was passed rejecting the (b) 2 and 3 only
two-nation theory in that Session. (c) 1 and 3 only
hich of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
W (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 3. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social
5
(c) 1 and 3 Conference was formed. What was the reason for its
(d) None of the above formation?
(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of
9. Which of the following statements is/are correct
4 Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss
regarding Brahmo Samaj? the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate
1. It opposed idolatry. petitions/ representations to the government.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for (b) Indian National Congress did not want to include
interpreting the religious texts. social reforms in its deliberations and
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are decided to form a separate body for such a purpose.
infallible, (c) Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to
bring together all the social reform group of the country
under one organization.
( d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
is correct in this context. 9. Which amongst the following provided a common
5
factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th
4. Which of the following parties were established by
5 century?
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar? (a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and
1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India taxation of tribal products
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation (b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal
3. The Independent Labour Party areas
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
below:
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order to
(a) 1 and 2 only
the tribal communities
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
0. With reference to the period of colonial rule in
6
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of
drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds
5. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in
5
constituted “Home Charges”?
1932, mainly because
1. Funds used to support the India Office in
(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian
London.
political aspirations
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of
(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of
British personnel engaged in India.
opinion
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by
(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal
the British.
Award
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
is correct in this context below:
(a) 1 only
6. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement,consider the
5 (b) 1 and 2 only
following statements (c) 2 and 3 only
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to (d)1, 2 and 3
the government.
2. The government gave the Pattas to the Ryots. 1. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to
6
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of
being taxed. Kheda?
1. The Administration did not suspend the land
hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
revenue collection in spite of a drought.
(a) 1 Only
2. The Administration proposed to introduce
(b) 1 and 2
Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above hich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2011
(c) Both 1 and 2
7. The tendency for increased litigation was visible
5 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
after the introduction of the land settlement system of
Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is 2. What was the purpose with which Sir William
6
normally traced to which of the following provisions? Wedderburn and W.S.Caine had set up the Indian
(a) Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-a-vis the Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
ryot. (a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of of Commons
Zamindars. (b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the
(c) Making judicial system more efficient. Imperial Judiciary
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above. (c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence
in the British Parliament
8. Which one of the following observations is not true
5 (d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the
about the Quit India Movement of 1942? British Parliament
(a) It was a nonviolent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi 3. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest
6
(c) It was a spontaneous movement convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the
essage from the book that transformed Mahatma
m
Gandhi?
(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral
responsibility of an educated man
(b) The good of individual is contained in the good of
all
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are
essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this
context
4. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha
6
Mehta is well-known for
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of
Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table
Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government
under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
5. With reference to the period of India freedom
6
struggle, which of the following was/were
recommended by the ‘Nehru report’?
1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for
minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people
of India in the Constitution.
elect the correct answer using the codes given
S
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
INTERNATIONAL RELATION Q. Consider the following statements :
2023 1. Recently, all the countries of the United
Nations have adopted the first-ever compact
. Consider the following pairs :
Q for international migration, the ‘Global
Regions often mentioned in news — Reason for being Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular
in news Migration (GCM)’.
1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the
and Azerbaijan GCM are binding on the UN member
2. Nagorno-Karabakh: Insurgency in countries.
Mozambique 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between internally displaced people also in its
Israel and Lebanon objectives and commitments.
ow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
H ow many of the above statements are correct?
H
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
Q. Consider the following pairs : Q. Consider the fqllowing statements :
Area of conflict mentioned in news – Country where it Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic
is located relations with some Arab States.
1. Donbas – Syria Statement-II : The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by
2. Kachin – Ethiopia Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
3. Tigray – North Yemen Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements?
ow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
H (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
(a) Only one Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Only two (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
(c) All three Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
(d) None Statement-I
Q. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
consider the following statements : (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct
1. East-West Corridor under Golden Q. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan
Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and caught the international attention for which one of the
Surat. following reasons common to all of them?
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur (a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. (b) Establishment of Chinese military bases.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic (c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh (d) Successful coups
with Q. Consider the following statements about G-20:
Kunming in China. 1. The G-20 group was originally established as
ow many of the above statements are correct?
H a platform for the Finance Ministers and
(a) Only one Central Bank Governors to discuss the
(b) Only two international economic and financial issues.
(c) All three 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s
(d) None G-20 priorities.
Q. Consider the following countries : hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
W
1. Bulgaria (a) 1 only
2. Czech Republic (b) 2 only
3. Hungary (c) Both 1 and 2
4. Latvia (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
ow many of the above-mentioned countnes share a
H 2022
land border with Ukraine?
(a) Only two . Consider the following statements:
1
(b) Only three 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in
(c) Only four north-western Kenya.
(d) Only five 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war
live in Bidibidi.
G
2 uin — S
uspension of Constitution and
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live
. ea Government by military
in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
L
3 eb — S
evere and prolonged economic
(a) 1 and 2
. ano depression
(b) 2 only
n
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
T
4 uni — S
uspension of Parliament by
2. Consider the following countries:
. sia President
1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan ow many pairs given above are correctly, matched?
H
3. Croatia (a) Only one pair
4. Romania (b) Only two pairs
5. Uzbekistan (c) Only three pairs
Which of the above are members of the Organization (d) All four pairs
of Turkic States? 6. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
Country egion often mentioned in the
R
(b) 1 and 3
news
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Anatolia
1 — Turkey
3. With reference to the United Nations Convention on
.
the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth
Amhara
2 — Ethiopia
of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12
.
nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in
accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, C
3 abo — Spain
enjoy the right of innocent passage through the . Delgado
territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend Catalonia
4 — Italy
beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from .
which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. ow many pairs given above are correctly matched?
H
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one pair
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two pairs
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Only three pairs
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All four pairs
(d) 1, 2 and 3 7. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials
4. Which one of the following statements best reflects Committee”, consider the following statements:
the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned 1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council
in the news? and works under its supervision.
(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands 2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September
made by a country around South China Sea. every year.
(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over 3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members
these islands in East China Sea. before submitting a report to the General Assembly for
(c) A permanent American military base has been set approval.
up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
capabilities. (a) 3 only
(d) Though International Court of Justice declared (b) 1 and 3
them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian (c) 2 and 3
countries claim them. (d) 1 and 2
5. Consider the following pairs: 8. Which one of the following statements best
ou
C Important reason for being in the describes the ‘Polar Code’?
ntry news recently (a) It is the international code of safety for ships
operating in polar waters.
C
1 ha — S
etting up of permanent military base (b) It is the agreement of the countries around the
. d by China North Pole regarding the demarcation of their
territories in the polar region.
( c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries ( b) 1, 3 and 4 only
whose scientists undertake research studies in the (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
North Pole and South Pole. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member 13. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit
countries of the Arctic Council. Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by
9. With reference to the United Nations General which one of the following?
Assembly, consider the following statements: (a) Asian Development Bank
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer (b) International Monetary Fund
status to the non-member States. (c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer Initiative
status in the UN General Assembly. (d) World Bank
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly 14. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”,
can maintain missions at the UN headquarters. consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with
(a) 1 and 2 only the Paris Club.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. It is an initiavtive to support Low Income Countries
(c) 1 and 3 only with unsustainable debt.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
10. Consider the following: (a) 1 only
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (b) 2 only
2. Missile Technology Control Regime (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India is a member of which of the above?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
2021
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. ‘Communications Compatibility and Security
Q
11. Consider the following statements: Agreement (COMCASA)’, recently seen in news
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing relates to:
economies in the world in the recent years. (a) USA
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system. (b) European Union
3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its (c) SAARC
integration with global supply chains and focus on (d) ASEAN
exports. Q 2. With reference to ‘BIMSTEC’, consider the
4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and following:
stable exchange rates have attracted global 1. It is a regional organization comprising seven
manufacturers. Member States lying in the littoral and
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal
the Indo-Pacific region. constituting a contiguous regional unity.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. It constitutes seven Member States: five
(a) 2 and 4 deriving from South Asia, including
(b) 3 and 5 Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 and two from Southeast Asia, including
(d) 1 and 2 Myanmar and Indonesia.
12. Consider the following statements: 3. Sri Lanka to host 5th BIMSTEC Summit
1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit
organization that drives climate action by building large hich of the above statements is/are correct?
W
networks and runs them. (a) 1 only
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with (b) 1 and 3 only
the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. (c) 1 and 2 only
3. EP100 brings together leading companies (d) All of the above
committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency Q 3. With reference to ‘Financial Action Task Force
and increasing competitiveness while delivering on (FATF)’, which of the following statements is/are
emission reduction goals. correct?
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 1. India is not a full member of FATF but it has
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat partial membership status of this organization.
to the ‘Under2 Coalition’. 2. All permanent members of the Security
Which of the statements given above are correct? Council except China are members of FATF.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
) 1 only
a 4. The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes
Q
b) 2 only found in news to a grade of
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Crude oil
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Bullion
Q 4. Exercise Khanjar is a joint military exercise c) Rare earth elements
between d) Uranium
a) India-Kyrgyzstan
b) India-Kazakhstan
c) India-Uzbekistan
2019
d) India-Turkmenistan
Q 5. Consider the following statements about the 1. Which of the following adopted a law on data
Q
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation: protection and privacy for its citizens known as
1. It is an intergovernmental organization to ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and
promote cooperation in trade, politics, and started implementation of its from 25th May, 2018?
culture. a) Australia
2. The Anti-Terrorist structure of SCO is located b) Canada
in Beijing. c) The European Union
Which of the above statement is/are correct? d) The United States of America
1. 1 only Q2. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action
2. 2 only Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of
3. Both 1 and 2 Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of
4. Neither 1 nor 2 the following countries?
a) Japan
b) Russia
c) The United Kingdom
2020 d) The United States of America
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Consider the following pairs:
Q 1. The United Nations Convention against
International agreement/ set-up Subject Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against
1. Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and
2. Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Air’.
Weapons 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding
3. Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change global anti-corruption instrument.
4. Under2 Coalition – Child Rights 3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly against Transnational Organized Crime
matched? (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter
a) 1 and 2 only aimed at returning assets to their rightful
b) 4 only owners from whom they had been taken
c)1 and 3 only illicitly.
d) 2,3 and 4 only 4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
Q2. Consider the following statements (UNODC) is mandated by its members States
1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC
increased in the last decade. and UNTOC.
2. “Textile and textile articles constitute an important
hich of the statements given above are correct?
W
item of trade between India and Bangladesh
a) 1 and 3 only
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
trading partner of India in South Asia
c) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 ,2, and 3 2018
Q3. In which one of the following groups are all the
four countries members of G20? 1. What is/are the consequence /consequences of a
Q
a) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear
b) Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Suppliers Group’?
c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient
d) Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty
n the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
o f the littoral states of the Indian Ocean
o
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Region.
a) 1 only
hich of the above statements is/are correct?
W
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
Q2. The term “two-state solution” is sometimes
d) Neither 1 nor 2
mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
Q2. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement
a) China
(BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
b) Israel
negotiations held between India and
c) Iraq
a) European Union
d) Yemen
b) Gulf Cooperation Council
Q3. International Labour Organization’s Conventions
c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and
138 and 182 are related to
Development
a) Child labour
d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
b) Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate
Q3. What is the importance of developing Chabahar
change
Port by India?
c) Regulation of food prices and food security
a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously
d) Gender parity at the workplace
increase.
Q4. In the Indian context, what is the implication of
b) India’s relations with oil producing Arab countries
ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International
will be strengthened.
Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?
c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to
a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA
Afghanistan and Central Asia.
safeguards.
d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of
b) The military nuclear installations come under the
a gas pipeline between Iraq and India
inspection of IAEA
Q4. Consider the following statements:
c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held
from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
under the aegis of the United Nations.
d) The country automatically becomes a member of
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an
the NSG.
organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.
Q5. Consider the following countries:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Australia
a) 1 only
2. Canada
b) 2 only
3. China
c) Both 1 and 2
4. India
d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Japan
Q5. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in
6. USA
the news refers to
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’
a) ASEAN
of ASEAN ?
b) BRICS
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
c) EU
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
d) G20
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Q6. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the
following ? 2015
a) Amnesty International
b) International Court of Justice Q1. India is a member of which of the following?
c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights 1. Asia-Pacific economic corporation.
d) World Justice Project 2. Association of South-East Asian Nations.
3. East Asia Summit
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S
2017 a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
1. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean
Q c) 1, 2, and 3
Naval Symposium (IONS): d) India is a member of none of them
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 Q2. Consider the following countries
under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 1. China
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to 2. France
increase maritime co-operation among navies 3. India
. Israel
4 hich of the following statements given above is/are
W
5. Pakistan correct?
a) 1 only
hich among the above are Nuclear Weapons States
W
b) 2 only
as recognized by the Treaty on the Nonproliferation of
c) Both 1 and 2
Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 4 and 5 only 2014
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q3. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is 1. With reference to a grouping of countries known
Q
related to the affairs of: as BRICS, consider the following statements:
a) ASEAN 1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de
b) BRICS Janeiro in 2009.
c) OECD 2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS
d) WTO grouping.
Q4. Amnesty International is hich of the statements given above is / are correct?
W
a) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of a) 1 only
civil wars b) 2 only
b) a global Human Rights Movement c) Both 1 and 2
c) a non-governmental voluntary organization to help d) Neither 1 nor 2
very poor people Q2. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred
d) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from
emergencies in war-ravaged regions a) Egypt
Q5. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of b) Lebanon
six countries, which of the following is/are not a c) Syria
participant/participants? d) Tunisia
1. Bangladesh Q3. Consider the following countries:
2. Cambodia 1. Denmark
3. China 2. Japan
4. Myanmar 3. Russian Federation
5. Thailand 4. United Kingdom
elect the correct answer using the code given below.
S 5. United States of America
a) 1 only hich of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic
W
b) 2, 3 and 4 Council ‘?
c) 1 and 3 a) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 5 b) 2, 3 and 4
Q6. ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’ often c) 1, 4 and 5
seen in the news, is d) 1, 3 and 5
a) a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism, an Q4. Consider the following pairs:
outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Region often in news Country
Organization. 1. Chechnya : Russian Federation
b) a plan of action for sustainable economic growth in 2. Darfur : Mali
the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of deliberations of 3. Swat Valley : Iraq
the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum
c) an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome hich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
W
of a World Conference convened by the United a) 1 only
Nations b) 2 and 3 only
d) a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration c) 1 and 3 only
of the East Asia Summit d) 1, 2 and 3
Q7. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association
for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’,
Consider the following statements:
1. It was established very recently in response to
incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security
only
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