THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

CANDIDATES’ ITEM RESPONSE ANALYSIS

REPORT ON THE CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY
EDUCATION EXAMINATION
(CSEE) 2022

PHYSICS
 THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

CANDIDATES’ ITEM RESPONSE ANALYSIS

REPORT ON THE CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY
EDUCATION EXAMINATION
(CSEE) 2022

031 PHYSICS
Published by
The National Examinations Council of Tanzania,
P. O. Box 2624,
Dar es Salaam, Tanzania.

© The National Examinations Council of Tanzania, 2023

All rights reserved.

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 TABLE OF CONTENTS
FOREWORD ........................................................................................................... iv
1.0 INTRODUCTION ........................................................................................ 1
2.0 THE CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS PER QUESTION IN
PHYSICS PAPER 1 ..................................................................................... 3
2.1 Section A: Objective Questions ............................................................ 3
2.1.1 Question 1: Multiple Choice Items ....................................................... 4
2.1.2 Question 2: Matching Items ................................................................ 10
2.2 Section B: Short Answer Questions .................................................... 13
2.2.1 Question 3: Light and Optical Instruments ......................................... 13
2.2.2 Question 4: Pressure and Forces in Equilibrium ................................. 18
2.2.3 Question 5: Newton’s Law of Motion and Simple Machines ............. 23
2.2.4 Question 6: Thermal Expansion and Vapour and Humidity ............... 29
2.2.5 Question 7: Current Electricity and Radioactivity .............................. 33
2.2.6 Question 8: Geophysics and Waves .................................................... 38
2.3 Section C: Structured Questions ......................................................... 43
2.3.1 Question 9: Waves and Electromagnetism ................................................. 43
2.3.2 Question 10: Current Electricity and Electronics ....................................... 49
2.3.3 Question 11: Waves .................................................................................... 56
3.0 THE CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS IN EACH
QUESTION IN PHYSICS PAPER 2 ......................................................... 61
3.1 Question 1: Forces in Equilibrium ...................................................... 61
3.1.1 031/2A Physics 2A ..................................................................................... 62
3.1.2 031/2B Physics 2B ...................................................................................... 69
3.1.3 031/2C Physics 2C ...................................................................................... 74
3.2 Question 2: Current Electricity ........................................................... 82
3.2.1 031/2A Physics 2A ..................................................................................... 83
3.2.2 031/2B Physics 2B ...................................................................................... 90
3.2.3 031/2C Physics 2C ...................................................................................... 97
4.0 THE CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS IN EACH TOPIC
IN PHYSICS PAPER 1&2 ....................................................................... 106
5.0 CONCLUSION AND RECOMMENDATIONS ..................................... 107
5.1 Conclusion......................................................................................... 107
5.2 Recommendations ............................................................................. 108
Appendix I: The Summary of the Topic-wise Candidates’ Performance in Physics
1 ......................................................................................................... 111
Appendix II: The Summary of the Topic-wise Candidates’ Performance in Physics
2 ......................................................................................................... 112

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 FOREWORD

The National Examinations Council of Tanzania (NECTA) among other things is

mandated to administer Examinations at National level. The Certificate of
Secondary Education Examination (CSEE) is a summative evaluation after four
years of study in secondary school level. The CSEE aims at examining the
competences acquired by the candidates after four years of study as per the 2010
Physics Syllabus for Secondary.

This Candidates Item Response Analysis (CIRA) report for the 2022 Physics
subject Form Four National Examination (CSEE), has been prepared to provide
feedback to education stakeholders about the responses given by the candidates in
the examination items. It helps in understanding reasons for the observed
performance of the candidates in the Physics subject.

The report highlights factors that contributed to the candidates’ performance,

including: failure to follow instructions, inability to understand the demand of the
questions, poor English Language proficiency, inadequate knowledge about the
concepts examined, lack of drawing skills and inability to solve numerical
problems. It is expected that the recommendations provided in this report will
enable the policy makers, education administrators, school managers, teachers and
candidates to identify proper measures to be taken in order to improve candidates’
performance in future examinations administered by the Council.

The Council would like to express its sincere appreciation to the examination
officers, examiners and others who participated in the preparation of this report.
The Council is also grateful to staff members who were involved in processing the
statistical data that have been used in this report.

Dr. Said Ally Mohamed

EXECUTIVE SECRETARY

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1.0 INTRODUCTION

This report presents an analysis of the candidates’ Items Responses in the

2022 Physics Certificate of Secondary Education Examination (CSEE). The
examination consisted of two papers namely, 031/1 Physics1 (Theory
Paper) and 031/2 Physics 2 (Actual Practical Paper). The Examination
intended to assess competences achieved by the candidates based on the
2010 Physics Syllabus for Secondary Education. The competences tested
included the ability of a candidate to: apply Physics knowledge, principles
and concepts in daily life; apply scientific methods in solving problems in
daily life; apply technological skills in conservation and sustainable use of
environment; manage simple technological appliances; and design and
implement simple electronic circuits in daily life.

The Physics 1 examination paper consisted of three sections, namely; A, B

and C with a total of eleven (11) questions. The candidates were required to
answer a total of 10 questions which weighed 100 marks. Section A
consisted of two (2) questions, one with multiple choice items and the other
matching items. The candidates were required to answer all the questions.
Each item in both multiple choice and matching items weighed one (01)
mark making a total of 15 marks.

Question 1 had ten multiple choice items which were constructed from nine
(9) topics. The topics included; Measurement; Archimedes Principle and
the Law of Flotation; Structure and Properties of Matter; Light; Motion in
a Straight Line, Measurement of Thermal Energy, Vapour and Humidity;
Temperature; Thermionic Emission; Elementary Astronomy; Question 2
had five (5) homogeneous items for matching which were set from the
topic of Waves. Section B consisted of six (6) short answer questions set
from the topics of Light; Optical Instrument; Pressure; Forces in
Equilibrium; Newton`s Laws of Motion; Simple Machines; Thermal
Expansion; Measurement of Thermal Energy; Current Electricity;
Radioactivity; Geophysics; and Waves. Each question carried ten (10)
marks making a total of 60 marks. Section C had three (3) short answer
questions aimed to assess the candidates’ skills in managing the application
of Physics and other technological devices in daily life. The questions were
constructed from four (4) topics. The topics included: Waves,

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Electromagnetism, Current electricity and Electronics. The candidates were
required to answer two questions from this section. Each question carried
12.5 marks, making a total of 25 marks.

The practical part of the examination, Physics 2, had three option papers.
The papers were 031/2A Physics 2A, 031/2B Physics 2B, and 031/2C
Physics 2C. Each alternative paper consisted of two questions. In each
alternative, the candidates were required to answer all the questions. Each
question carried 25 marks, making a total of 50 marks.

The number of candidates who sat for the Physics examination was
114,472 out of which 78,009 (68.34%) passed the examination and 36,463
(31.66%) failed. In the Year 2021, the candidates who sat for Physics
examination were 116,610 out of which 64,096 (55.33%) passed and
52,514 (44.67%) failed. In the Year 2020, 120,856 candidates sat for
Physics examination of out of which 58,808(48.87%) passed and 62,048
(51.13%) candidates failed. This indicates that the candidates` performance
in Physics for the Year 2022 has increased by 13.01% compared to the
Year 2021. Table shows the performance of the candidates from the Year
2020 to 2022 in Physics.

Table 1: The Physics Candidates Performance from 2020 to 2022 in

Physics

Candidates Candidates who Passed

Year who Sat for
the Paper Number Percentage
2020 120,342 58,808 48.87
2021 115,846 64,096 55.33
2022 114,472 78,009 68.34

Table: 1 indicates that the performance of the candidates has increased by

19.47% from 2020 to 2022. However, the number of candidates enrolled
has been gradually decreasing from 120,342 in 2020 to 114,472 in 2022.

This report provides a comprehensive analysis of the performance of the

candidates in each question. The analysis begins with description of what
the candidates were supposed to do and how they responded to each
question. Thereafter it summarizes the reasons behind the candidates`

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 performance in a particular question. Extracts representing samples of the
candidates’ good and weak responses are presented to show clearly what
the candidates did.

The percentage of performance in each question is divided into three

categories namely; weak, average, and good performance. The performance
is considered to be weak if the marks of the candidate range from 0-29 per
cent. If the marks of the candidate range from 30-64 per cent the
performance is average. Good performance ranges from 65-100 per cent.
Red, Yellow and Green colours have been used to indicate weak, average
and good, respectively. The report comprises of Appendix I which indicates
the general performance in each topic while Appendix II shows the
comparison of candidates’ performance between CSEE 2021 and 2022
topic-wise.

The samples of candidates’ responses are presented as extract to indicate

good and weak cases. Graphs and charts are used to summarize the
candidates’ performance in each question. Clarifications on specific
questions and extracts of candidates’ answers have been thoroughly
explained to illustrate a particular case.

Finally, the report draws conclusion and gives recommendations that may
help to improve candidates’ performance in future examinations.

2.0 THE CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS PER

QUESTION IN PHYSICS PAPER 1

This section describes the performance of the candidates in each question.

It covers types of the questions, topics from which the questions were set as
well as the performance of the candidates in each question. The
candidates’ scores have been analysed as weak, average and good
according to the performance.

2.1 Section A: Objective Questions

This section consisted of two objective questions (1 and 2). Question One
consisted of 10 items and Question Two had 5 items each item carrying 1
mark.

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2.1.1 Question 1: Multiple Choice Items

This question comprised of ten (10) multiple choice items numbered (i) to
(x). The question items were constructed from nine (9) topics which are:
Measurements, Archimedes Principle and the Law of Floatation, Structure
and Properties of Matter, Light, Motion in a Straight Line, Measurement of
Thermal Energy, Temperature, Thermionic Emission, and Elementary
Astronomy. The candidates were required to choose the correct answer
from the five (5) (A, B, C, D or E) alternatives and write its letter against
the item number in the answer booklet provided. Each item weighed 1 mark
making a total of 10 marks for the question.

The question was attempted by 114,472 (100 %) candidates out of which

43,296 (37.82%) candidates scored from 0.0 to 2.0 marks; 63,574 (55.54%)
scored from 3.0 to 6.0 marks and 7,602 (6.40%) scored from 7.0 to 10.0
marks. Thus the general performance of this question was average as
71,176 (62.18%) candidates scored from 3.0 to 10.0 marks. Figure 2 shows
the candidates’ performance in this question.

Figure 2: Candidates’ Performance in Question 1

Item (i) was constructed from the topic of Measurement. The candidates
were required to identify the set which represents fundamental quantities
with their SI units. The given alternatives were; A. Length (km), mass (kg),
temperature ( 0C), amount of substance (mol) and electric current (A), B.
Length (m), mass (kg), force (N), temperature (K), time (s), amount of

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substance (mol) and energy (J), C. Length (m), mass (kg), time (s) electric
current (A), temperature ( 0C) and amount of substance (mol) D .Length
(m), mass (kg), time (s), temperature (K), electric current (A) and luminous
intensity (Cd) and E. Length (km), mass (g), time( s), temperature (K),
electric current (A) and amount of substance (mol). The correct alternative
was D. Length (m), mass (kg), time (s), temperature (K), electric current
(A) and luminous intensity (Cd). Most of the candidates managed to choose
the correct answer, showing that the concept of Measurement was well
understood by the candidates. However, a few candidates chose incorrect
alternatives A or B or C or E because they failed to identify a set of the
fundamental quantities with their corresponding SI units. Those who opted
for A. Length (km), mass (kg), temperature (0C), amount of substance (mol)
and electric current (A) lacked the knowledge that the SI unit of length and
temperature are metre (m) and kelvin (K), respectively. Similarly, those
who chose alternative B. Length (m), mass (kg), force (N), temperature (K),
time (s), amount of substance (mol) and energy (J) failed to differentiate the
fundamental from derived quantities. The force (N) and energy (J) in this
alternative are derived quantities. For those who opted for C. Length (m),
mass (kg), time (s) electric current (A), temperature (0C) and amount of
substance (mol), failed to identify the unit for temperature. A few
candidates opted for E. Length (km), mass (g), time(s), temperature (K),
electric current (A) and amount of substance (mol). These candidates did
not know the SI unit for length and mass hence, opted a wrong option.

Item (ii) was set from the topic of Archimedes Principle and the Law of
Floatation. The candidates were required to identify a condition that could
be satisfied for a body to float. The given alternatives were: A. Apparent
weight is equal to the difference between real weight of the body and its
upthrust, B. Upthrust equals to the weight of the fluid displaces, C. Real
weight of the body equals to its upthrust, D. Apparent weight is equal to the
product of real weight of a body and its upthrust and E. Density of a body
is equal to the density of surrounding fluid. The correct alternative was C.
Real weight of the body equals to its upthrust. The alternative is among of
the conditions for a body to float. The conditions are:
(i) The volume of submerged part of the object must be large to displace
a large volume of water.

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(ii) Density of the object must be less than the density of the surrounding
water.
(iii) The upthrust due to water must be equal the weight of the object.
Most of the candidates opted for B. Upthrust equals to the weight of the
fluid displaces, indicating that they failed to distinguish between conditions
for a body to float and the Archimedes’ Principle. Others opted for D.
Apparent weight is equal to the product of real weight of a body and its
upthrust. These candidates had inadequate knowledge about the conditions
for a body to float.

Item (iii) was constructed from the topic of Structure and properties of
matter. The candidates were required to choose the correct statement about
the properties of gaseous state of matter among the given alternatives. The
alternatives were: A. Particles vibrate in fixed positions, B. The shape is
indefinite with definite volume, C. Particles are closely packed together, D.
Both shape and volume are definite and E. The inter-particle distance is
large. The correct alternative was E. The inter-particle distance is large,
since it is one of the properties of gaseous state of matter. Others opted for
B. The shape is indefinite with definite volume; the term indefinite shape
distracted them but failed to recognize that gas has no definite volume,
since it always occupies the volume of the containing vessel.

In item (iv), the candidates were required to identify the position which the
object will be placed for a concave mirror to form virtual, magnified and
erect image behind the mirror. The item was constructed from the topic of
Light. The given alternatives were; A. Between the principle focus (F) and
the pole (P) in front of the mirror, B. Between the principle focus (F) and
pole (P) behind the mirror, C. Between the centre of curvature (C) and
principle focus (F) in front of the mirror, D. Between the centre of
curvature (C) and principle focus (F) behind the mirror and E. Between the
centre of curvature (C) and the pole (P) in front of the mirror. The correct
choice was A. Between the principle focus (F) and the pole (P) in front of
the mirror. The candidates should be able to remember the rules of locating
the images formed in a curved mirror, which are:
(i) Rays passing through the centre of curvature are reflected back along
their own path

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(ii) Rays parallel to the principal axis are reflected through the principal
focus.

(iii) Rays through the principal focus are reflected parallel to the principal
to the principal axis

Most of the candidates responded incorrectly by opting C. Between the

centre of curvature (C) and principle focus, the image will be real, inverted
and beyond centre of curvature. However, a few candidates opted for
alternative B. Between the principle focus (F) and pole (P) behind the
mirror, candidates had inadequate knowledge on images formed by
concave mirrors as “no object placed behind the mirror”.

Item (v) was constructed from the topic of Motion in a Straight Line. The
candidates were required to identify the uniform motion graphs which
represent velocity. The given alternatives were:

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The correct alternative was B, which is the displacement time graph. Most
of the candidates opted for E, which was incorrect response. They were
attracted by the constant velocity represented in velocity time graph, which
shows that they had the knowledge but failed to interpret the alternative
given. Those who opted for A, were not able to differentiate between
distance and displacement.

In item (vi), the candidates were assessed in the topic of Measurement of

Thermal Energy. The candidates were required to choose a correct response
for combination statements that explained the observation when two objects
X and Y were supplied by equal quantities of thermal energy and observed
that the temperature increase of object X is greater than the temperature
increase of object Y. The given alternatives were as follows: A. X has a
lower melting point than Y, B. X has lower density than Y, C. X has lower
thermal capacity than Y, D. X is a better thermal conductor than Y and E.
X is heavier than Y. The correct response was C. X has lower thermal
capacity than Y. Most of the candidates who opted for response D. X is a
better thermal conductor than Y, failed to differentiate thermal conductor
from thermal capacity. The candidates were supposed to understand that
heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the
object by 1K or 1oC, while thermal conductor refers to the material which
allows heat energy to pass through it easily.

Item (vii) was set from the topic of Vapour and Humidity. The candidates
were required to select the correct response which explains what happens to
the mass and weight of the water in the cup while “ hot water in a cup
undergoes evaporation in an open air” from the given alternatives. The
alternatives were as follow: A. Both mass and weight decrease, B. Mass
decreases while weight stay the same, C. Both mass and weight stay the
same, D. Mass increases while weight decreases and E. Mass stays the same
while weight decreases. The correct response was A. Both mass and weight
decrease. Most of the candidates responded correctly showing that they
properly understood that evaporation takes place when water molecules
escape from the surface to the air. As water molecules continue to escape,
their mass and weight on the container/surface is reduced. A few candidates
opted for alternative B. Mass decreases while weight stays the same. Others
opted for D. Mass increases while weight decreases. This suggests that the

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candidates opted randomly, which indicates that the candidates did not
understand the effect of evaporation on mass and weight.

Item (viii) was constructed from the topic of Temperature. The candidates
were provided with the scenario in which a candidate wished to check the
upper and lower fixed points on Celcius scale thermometer. The candidates
had four beakers, namely P, Q, R and S. Beaker P contained a mixture of
ice and salt; Q contained a mixture of ice and water; R contained a mixture
of boiling salt solution and S contained boiling water. The candidates were
required to choose the pair of beaker that was to be used to check the fixed
points. The given alternatives were: A. P and Q, B. P and S, C. Q and S, D.
Q and R and E. S and R. The correct response was C. Q and S. The
candidates who failed this question chose E, S and R indicating that they
had knowledge of how to check upper fixed point using boiling water but
didn’t know how to check for lower fixed point.

In item (ix), the candidates were assessed in a topic of Thermionic

emission. They were required to identify one statement which is not a
property of cathode rays from the following ones: A. They are stream of
fast moving protons, B. They travel in straight line, C. They are deflected
by electric fields, D. They are deflected by magnetic fields and E. They
produce x-rays when stopped suddenly. The correct response was A. They
are stream of fast moving protons. Alternatives B, C, D and E were
properties of cathode rays. Majority of the candidates picked option E. They
produce x-rays when stopped suddenly and a few chose option D. They are
deflected by magnetic fields implying their lack of knowledge about
properties of x-rays.

In item (x), the candidates were required to identify the response which
gives the meaning of the term Milky Way. The given alternatives were: A.
A vast collection of asteroids, B. One of the galaxies of the universe, C. A
group of stars that form a pattern in the sky, D. One of the meteoroids and
E. One of the solar systems. The correct response was B. One of the
galaxies of the universe. Most of the candidates responded correctly. Those
who failed opted for C. A group of stars that form a pattern in the sky.
These candidates were distracted by the definition of constellations which
was not the requirement of the question. Others opted for responses E or D
or A suggesting their lack of knowledge about the elementary astronomy.

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2.1.2 Question 2: Matching Items

This question comprised of five (5) items constructed from the topic of
Waves. The candidates were required to match each of function in List A
with the corresponding electromagnetic radiations in List B. The question
was as follows:

A total of 114,472 (100%) candidates attempted the question and their

scores were as follows: 36,317 (31.73%) scored from 0 to 1 mark, 58,029
(50.69%) scored from 2.0 to 3.0 marks; and 20,126 (17.58%) scored from
4.0 to 5.0 marks. The scores indicate that the candidates’ performance was
good as 78,155 (68.27%) scored from 2.0 to 5.0 marks out of 5 marks.
Figure 2 summarizes the candidates’ performance in Question 2.

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 Figure 2: The Candidates’ Performance in Question 2

In item (i), the candidates were required to provide a suitable response

which matches correctly with the statement “can be used to sterilize fruits
and vegetables”. The correct response was E. gamma rays. Most of the
candidates identified the appropriate answer in this item, showing that they
had knowledge about the concept of waves, particularly the various
electromagnetic radiations contained in the electromagnetic spectrum and
their uses. Some of the candidates were distracted by alternative B. x-rays.
This is because x-rays and gamma rays have the same properties. However,
the two rays differ in their practical applications. For instance, while
gamma rays are used in the sterilization of medical equipment and food, x-
rays are used in the treatment of cancer diseases.

Item (ii) required the candidates to write the letter of the item which
matched correctly the phrase “stimulates the production of vitamin D in the
human skin”. The appropriate response was H. ultra-violet rays. Most of
the candidates chose the correct response, implying that the candidates
were knowledgeable on the functions of ultraviolet rays. However, a few
candidates opted for response F. Infra-red rays. These candidates had no
insight on the functions of x- rays. They were supposed to learn that the
functions of infrared are remote control operation and strengthening of the
human and animal heat patterns.

Item (iii), required the candidates to give the radiation which matched
correctly with the statement“stimulates the sensitive cells in the retina”.
The correct option was A. visible light, whereby visible light is used to
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stimulate the sensitive cells in the retina. Most of the candidates chose the
correct response, showing that they knew the uses of visible light. A few
candidates opted for other responses B, C, D, E, F, G, or H which indicates
that these candidates had poor knowledge about the general uses of
electromagnetic radiations.

In item (iv), the candidates were required to provide a suitable response

which matched correctly with the statement “emitted by a remote control”.
The appropriate response was F. infra-red rays. This item was wrongly
matched by most of the candidates. Most of them opted for G. radio waves
which was an incorrect response. These candidates were supposed to know
that radio waves are used for radio and television communication, but not
in remote control.

In item (v), the candidates were required to give the electromagnetic

radiation which matched correctly the statement “used for rapid cooking in
an oven”. The correct response was C. microwaves. Most of the candidates
opted for the correct answer. This implied that they were familiar with the
uses of microwaves. A few candidates failed to match the correct response
which alludes that they had insufficient knowledge about the concept and
the uses of the electromagnetic radiations. These candidates were supposed
to understand that some of the uses of micro waves include: cooking and
reheating food, disinfecting kitchen items, proofing yeast, and heating
beauty products. Extract 2.1 shows a sample of responses from a candidate
who matched all items of the question correctly while Extract 2.2 shows a
sample of incorrect responses given by one of the candidates in this
question.

Extract 2.1: A sample of correct responses in Question 2

In extract 2.1, the candidate matched all the items of the question correctly
and scored full marks.

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 Extract 2.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 2

In extract 2.2, the candidate showed to have insufficient knowledge about

the uses of electromagnetic radiations of the electromagnetic spectrum from
the topic of Waves.

2.2 Section B: Short Answer Questions

This section comprised of six Short Answer Questions which had six (6)
items set from twelve (12) topics. The topics included Light; Optical
instruments; Pressure; Forces in Equilibrium; Newton`s Laws of Motion;
Simple Machines; Thermal Expansion; Vapour and Humidity; Current
Electricity; Radioactivity; Geophysics and Waves. Each question carried 10
marks.

2.2.1 Question 3: Light and Optical Instruments

The question had two parts, namely (a) and (b). In part (a), the candidates
were required to use a well labelled diagram to show how an upright and
enlarged image can be formed in a concave mirror. In part (b), the
candidates were required to use a diagram to describe three ways in which a
human eye can be compared to a photographic camera.

The question was attempted by 114,472 (100%) candidates out of whom

90,702 (79.24%) scored from 0 to 1.0 mark, 18,928 (16.54%) scored from
2.0 to 3.0 marks and 4,842 (4.22%) scored from 4.0 to 5.0. The
performance of the candidates in this question was weak as 90,702
(79.24%) candidates scored 0.0 to 1.0 mark. Figure 3 summarizes the
performance of the candidates in Question 3.

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 Figure 3: The Candidates’ Performance in Question 3

The candidates who scored low marks (0.0 to 1.0) had inadequate
knowledge and poor drawing skills in the topic of Light. In part (a), most of
the candidates who responded incorrectly used the concept of refraction of
light by concave lens, glass block or triangular glass prism instead of using
the concept of reflection of light in a concave mirror. This shows that they
had inadequate knowledge about the rules and ways of the construction of
ray diagrams in the reflection of light for curved surfaces.

Other candidates were able to draw the concave mirror diagram but failed
to indicate on it the position of the pin object, principal focus, centre of
curvature and the pole of the mirror. For instance, one of the candidates
stated that “the upright and magnified image is obtained by placing the
object between the centre of curvature and the principal focus of the
concave mirror.” This candidate was supposed to realize that although the
image formed is enlarged upon placing the object between the centre of
curvature and the principal focus, the image is real and inverted. Some of
the candidates drew a convex mirror instead of the concave mirror. In order
to be able to draw a correct diagram, the candidates were supposed to know
that the outer side of the curved mirror is silvered such that the inner
becomes reflective, hence a concave mirror. If the inner part is silvered and
the outer becomes reflective the mirror is convex. They were also supposed
to understand that, upright and enlarged image in a concave mirror is

14
formed whenever the object is placed between the principal focus and the
pole, and that the image is formed behind the mirror.

In part (b), the candidates who scored unsatisfactory marks had

inappropriate skills in drawing the diagrams of the human eye and that of
the photographic camera. These candidates had also, insufficient
knowledge pertaining to the features or parts of the human eye and those of
the photographic camera. A few candidates managed to draw and indicate
properly some parts of the photographic camera but drew incorrect diagram
of the human eye The candidates were supposed to use the concepts of
optical instruments to draw a well labelled diagram of both the human eye
and photographic camera and hence, compared distinctive features as
follows: both have convex lens system to focus the image; the amount of
light entering is controlled by variable aperture called iris in the eye and
diaphragm in the camera; both have surfaces in which the image is formed;
film in the camera and retina in the eye; and while the camera has shutter,
the eye has a pupil both meant for controlling light. Extract 3.1 is a sample
of the incorrect responses from one of the candidates who scored low
marks in this question.

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 Extract 3.1: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 3

In extract 3.1, the candidate drew a diagram of the glass block which is
usually for demonstrating the laws of refraction of light, specifically the
Snell’s law instead of the diagram of a concave mirror for the formation of
images in curved surfaces. She/he also drew the diagram of an ear instead
of drawing the diagram of the eye.

Statistics show that, the highest score in this question was 5.0 marks out of
10.0. The candidates who scored relatively good marks in part (a) had
sufficient knowledge about the concept of reflection of light, especially the
rules of constructing ray diagrams in the location of images in a concave
mirror. They also used the rules to draw the correct ray diagrams by placing
the object in a correct position along the principal axis. Thus, they
produced an upright and enlarged image formed by a concave mirror
behind the mirror.

In part (b), the candidates had good performance in the concepts of optical
instruments, specifically, on the photographic camera. These candidates
drew well labelled diagrams of both the human eye and photographic
camera. Likewise, they managed to describe the different ways in which a
human eye could be compared to a photographic camera. Generally, their
16
responses suggest that they had understood the topics of Light and Optical
Instruments. Extract 3.2 shows a sample of one of the candidates who
performed well in this question.

17
 Extract 3.2: A sample of correct responses in Question 3

In extract 3.2, the candidate provided correct responses to all parts of the
question.

2.2.2 Question 4: Pressure and Forces in Equilibrium

This question comprised of parts (a) and (b). Part (a) required the
candidates to study the following Figure carefully and determine the
pressure of the gas when the atmospheric pressure was 102,000 Pa and
density of mercury was 13.6 g cm3 . In part (b), the candidates were
required to give reason as why a ship cannot overturn when hit by a strong
wave on one side.

18
The question was attempted by 114,472 (100%) candidates out of whom
110,068 (96.15%) scored from 0 to 2.5 marks; 3,964 (3.46%) scored from
3.0 to 6.0 marks; and 440 (0.39%) scored from 6.5 to 10 marks. These
scores suggest that the performance of the candidates in this question was
generally weak, since 110,068 (96.15%) candidates scored below the pass
mark range (from 0.0 to 2.5 marks). Figure 4 shows the performance of the
candidates in Question 4.

Figure 4: The Candidates’ Performance in Question 4

In this question, 96.15 per cent of the candidates scored the lowest mark. In
part (a), they failed to determine the pressure of the gas enclosed in a U-
tube partially filled with a liquid (mercury). Most of them scored low marks
in this question due to lack of both the content knowledge and
computational skills. Some of the candidates applied incorrect formula to
determine the pressure of the gas. For instance, some of the candidates
determined the pressure of the gas by using the equation;
Volume
Pressure = which bears no meaningful scientific implication.
Density
Others, employed the concept of current electricity to determine the
pressure of the gas by using the parameters of length, resistivity and cross-
sectional area to calculate the resistance of the material by using the
Length ×Resistivity
formula; Resistance = . This indicates that they had
Cross sectional area
poor knowledge about the pressure of the gas by failing to differentiate the
concept of pressure from those of current electricity. These candidates were
supposed to know that the atmospheric pressure pushes the liquid in the U-
tube causing the level in the two limbs of the tube to be different. The level
19
of mercury was higher in the limb of the manometer that is connected to the
nitrogen gas than that which was open to the atmosphere. The difference in
height of the liquids shows that atmospheric pressure is greater than the
pressure of the gas (Nitrogen gas).
Patm  Pgas  gh
Patm  Pgas  gh
Pgas  Patm  gh
patm  102, 000 Pa, ρ =13600 kg m 3 and h  0.2 m
Pgas  102000 Pa  13600  10  0  2 pa
Pgas  74800 Pa

In part (b), most of the candidates failed to explain why a ship cannot
overturn when hit by a strong wave on one side. For instance; one of the
candidates responded that: “Because the surface of the bottom of ship is flat
and detects resistance of sea water, therefore it will be difficult to move and
to overturn when hit by strong wave”. Another candidate responded that,
“Ship cannot overturn when hit by strong wave on one side because, when
the ship moves with the transverse wave so it is very difficult to overturn
because it moves with the speed of transverse wave motion”. These
candidates confused the concepts of forces in equilibrium and those of
waves. They failed to conceptualize the idea of stability of a ship as it
moves on water. The candidates were supposed to realize that a ship has
long and wide projecting plates extending from their bases into the water to
increase stability as shown hereunder.

20
When a strong wave hits the ship on one side, it tends to overturn. The
projection then meets a lot of resistance as it tends to sweep the large mass
of water in contact with it. The resistance due to water causes an opposing
moment about the centre of gravity. Thus, the ship is saved from
overturning. Extract 4.1 shows a sample of incorrect responses from one of
the candidates who performed this question.

Extract 4.1: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 4

21
On the other hand, the analysis of the candidates’ responses shows that the
candidates (0.39%) who scored high (6.5-10.0) marks in this question were
able to use the correct formula and computed correctly the pressure of
nitrogen gas in a U-tube filled partially with mercury. These candidates had
adequate knowledge about the pressure and the concept of equilibrium
(stability). They applied the appropriate formula to determine the pressure
of the gas and correctly explained the stability of a ship when it was hit by
strong wave. Extract 4.2 shows a sample of good responses from one of the
candidates who performed this question.

Extract 4.2: A sample of correct responses in Question 4

22
2.2.3 Question 5: Newton’s Law of Motion and Simple Machines

This question consisted of two parts, namely (a) and (b). In part (a), the
candidates were provided with a Figure showing a car that was moving to
the farm. The candidates were required to identify four pairs of
action/reaction forces taking place and describe their effects.

In part (b), the candidates were required to sketch a well labelled diagram
of the machine that is made up of four (4) pulleys and determine the effort
required to raise two bags of maize each weighing 100 kg, if the pulley
system has efficiency of 75 per cent.

The question was attempted by 114,472 (100%) candidates out of whom

83,991 (73.37%) scored from 0 to 2.5 marks; 29,427 (25.71%) scored from
3.0 to 6.0 marks; and 1,054 (0.92%) scored from 6.5 to 10 marks. The
general performance in this question was weak, since 83,991 (73.37%)
candidates scored from 0.0 to 2.5 marks. Figure 5 shows a summary of the
candidates’ performance in Question 5.

23
 Figure 5: The Candidates’ Performance to Question 5

In part (a) of this question, most of the candidates failed to identify pairs of
action and reaction forces in a given diagram, instead they mentioned
different types of forces such as Friction force, gravitational force,
compression force, upthrust force, spring force, fundamental force and
tensional force as expressed in the topic of Force. These candidates failed
to differentiate the facts of Newton’s Law of Motion from different types of
forces. Others copied the labelling worlds shown in the Figure such as
Manure, Trailer, string and car. This indicates that, these candidates had
insufficient knowledge on the concept of Newton’s third law of motion
which states that “to every action there is equal and opposite reaction”.
They were supposed to give the correct pairs of action and reaction forces
for the question as follows; (i) Action of tyres pushing the road backward,
road produces reaction force which pushes the car forward. (ii) Action
force of total weight of trailer and manure, the ground produces reaction.
(iii) Action force of total weight of car and manure, the ground produces
reaction. (iv) Action produced by car to the trailer, the trailer produces the
reaction forces to the car. (v) Action force of weight of manure on trailer,
the reaction force of trailer to the manure. (vi) Action force of weight of
manure on car, the reaction force of car to the manure.

In part (b), the candidates who scored low marks, failed to sketch a well
labelled diagram of four (4) pulley systems of machines. Some of the
candidates sketched the diagrams of pulleys but failed to interpret that the

24
four pulley system is a combination of compound pulleys which comprises
of fixed and movable pulleys. Others sketched four (4) pulleys with
improper rope connection. Some of the diagrams by these candidates had
overlapping rope or last terminal (effort) pointed up. These candidates also
failed to calculate the effort required to raise the two bags of maize of 100
kg each. They used weight of one bag (1000 N) as a load in calculating the
effort instead of the weight of two bags (2000 N). Essentially, in the four
pulley system, one end of the rope is fixed while the other end is left for a
person to pull thereby lifting a movable pulley and the load. Most of
candidates demonstrated poor drawing and computational skills. In
addition, the candidates had to know that velocity ratio is equal to a number
of pulleys. Then, they had to do as follows:
MA
Efficiency  100%
V R
Efficiency
M A V  R
100%
If V.R = 4, and efficiency = 75%
75%
Then M  A  4
100%
M A3
Load = 2 x mass of a single bag x acceleration due to gravity
Load  2  m  g
Load  2 100 kg 10 N kg
Load = 2000 N
L
From M  A 
E
L
E
M A
2000
E  666.7 N
3
The effort required to raise two bags of maize by four pulley system was
666.7 N.
Extract 5.1 is a sample of incorrect responses from one of the candidates
who scored low marks in this question.

25
 Extract 5.1: A sample of the incorrect responses in Question 5

In extract 5.1, the candidate drew a wheelbarrow instead of pulley system.

This candidate confused between a pulley system and a lever. A
wheelbarrow is an example of second class lever which cannot lift a load
vertically.

On the other hand, a few candidates who performed well in this question
had adequate knowledge on the topics of Newton’s Laws of Motion and
Simple Machines. They managed to identify four pairs of action/reaction
forces taking place and describing their effects. Moreover, some of the
candidates correctly sketched a well labelled diagram of four pulley
systems and determined its effort used to raise the two bags of maize.
Extract 5.2 shows a sample of good responses from one of the candidates
who attempted this question.

26
27
28
 Extract 5.2: A sample of the correct responses in Question 5

In extract 5.2, the candidate performed correctly all parts of the question.

2.2.4 Question 6: Thermal Expansion and Vapour and Humidity

This question had two parts, namely (a) and (b). In part (a), the candidates
were required to study a circuit diagram for controlling the temperature of
the sitting room. Then they were required to describe how a circuit controls
the temperature when the switch is closed.

29
In part (b), the candidates were required to give reasons on why it takes less
time to boil vegetables in a cooking pot with a lid on than one without a lid.

A total of 114,472 (100%) candidates attempted this question. Out of these

candidates, 88,255 (77.10%) scored from 0 to 2.5 marks; 21,864 (19.10 %)
scored from 3.0 to 6.0 marks; and 4,353 (3.80%) scored from 6.5 to 10
marks. The general performance in this question was weak, since 88,255
(77.10%) of the candidates scored from 0.0 to 2.5 marks. Figure 6 shows a
summary of the candidates’ performance in Question 6.

Figure 6: The Candidates’ Performance in Question 6

30
The candidates who scored low marks in part (a) had insufficient
knowledge about the concept of thermal expansion. Consequently, they
were not able to describe how the circuit controls the temperature of the
sitting room. One of the candidates explained that “when the circuit is
closed, the bimetallic strip will bend towards the copper strip to connect
the contact x”. Another candidate stated that “when the switch is closed the
brass relax and iron contract”. These candidates were supposed to know
that, the strips are bounded together throughout their lengths. The brass
expands faster than iron, therefore it bends towards an iron. In cooling, iron
cools slower than brass, therefore it bends towards brass.

The candidates who provided the correct responses demonstrated

competences on the application of expansion and contraction of solid
materials. They were able to tell that the bimetallic strips bend towards the
iron because the linear expansivity of brass is greater than that of an iron.
Also they were able to make proper interpretation of the circuit diagram
that when the switch is closed, the current will flow through the brass strip
and the bimetallic strip will gain heat in contact with copper strip at x.
When the temperature rises, the bimetallic strip expands. The brass in the
bimetallic strip expands more than the iron causing it to curve away from
the copper strip and bend towards iron and at one stage the contact at x is
not in contact with the bimetallic strip. There will be no flow of current in
the strip, the strip cools and turn back in contact with copper strip at x
where the temperature rise again to cause the process to repeat.

In part (b), majority of the candidates failed to briefly explain the

phenomenon behind putting a lid on cooking pot. They did not understand
the factors which cause the liquid within the container to boil faster. Some
candidates who responded incorrectly explained that “to boil vegetable in
the cooking pot with lid, takes short time than one with no lid because the
lid is contactor material”. This signifies insufficient knowledge on the
concept of vapour and humidity. The candidates were supposed to
understand that when you put a lid on, the heat stays in the pot. This helps
to cook the food faster. This is because when a lid is put on a boiling pot,
the water vapour will be prevented from going out and hence speeds up the
cooking time. This will increase the pressure inside the boiling pot and will
keep the steam inside the pot. However, when the lid is off the pot, water
vapour escapes from the cooking pot to the surrounding air, and hence
31
cools the content instead of boiling. Extract 6.1 is a sample of incorrect
responses from one of the candidates who scored low marks in this
question.

Extract 6.1: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 6

In extract 6.1, the candidate employed the concepts of electricity and waves
to explain why a cooking pot with a lid on takes less time to cook
vegetables instead of using the concepts of vapour and humidity due to the
process of boiling and evaporation.

Those who responded correctly, were able to explain that lid on the cooking
pot reduces heat loss by evaporation. Since the vapour has higher
temperature than liquid, the overall temperature inside the cooking pot will
rise. Also the vapour collected over the liquid will increase the vapour
pressure. Thus the vegetable will take short time to boil in a cooking pot
with lid than that with no lid. Extract 6.2 shows a sample of correct
responses from one of the candidates who performed the question well.

32
 Extract 6.2: A sample of correct responses in Question 6

2.2.5 Question 7: Current Electricity and Radioactivity

This question comprised of two parts, namely (a) and (b). In part (a), the
candidates were provided with electric cattle containing two heating coils A
and B such that coil A takes 10 minutes and coil B takes 20 minutes to boil
33
the same amount of water. The candidates were required to determine the
time that would be taken to boil the water if the two coils were joined in
series. In part (b), the candidates were required to determine the number of
undecayed atoms left after 690 days, if a sample of the substance has 1.6 x
1011 undecayed atoms at the beginning with half-life of a radioactive
substance of 138 days.

This question was attempted by 114,472 (100%) candidates out of which

71,308 (62.29%) scored from 0 to 2.5 marks; 42,538 (37.16%) scored from
3.0 to 6.0 marks; and 626 (0.55%) scored from 6.5 to 10 marks. Generally,
the candidates’ performance in this question was average as 43,164
(37.71%) scored from 3.0 to 10.0 marks. Figure 7 summarizes the
performance of candidates in this question.

Figure 7: The Candidates’ Performance in Question 7

The candidates who scored low marks failed to interpret the question and
applied incorrect formulae as a result they provided wrong responses. In
part (a), they lacked knowledge on the concept of electrical energy. This
led to incorrect interpretation of the requirement of the question which
resulted into incorrect responses. The candidates were supposed to
understand that the voltage is the same in either case. For coils in series the
power dissipated must be maintained and therefore the consumption will be
the same. They were supposed to use the following formula:
V2
For coil A : H  ( )t A
RA

34
 V2
For coil B : H  ( )t B
RB
V2
H T  ( )t S
RT
Where H = Heat consumed, V = voltage, tA = time taken by coil A to heat
water,
tB = time taken by coil B to heat water and tS = time taken by coil A and B
to heat water.
But R T  R1  R 2 (For series connection);
V2
H( )t S
R1  R 2
V2
H( )t S
V2 V2
tA t2
H H
V 2 .t s
H 2
V
(t A  t B )
H
tS  t A  t B
Some candidates swapped the arrangement of the coils. They considered
parallel connection instead of series connection. In so doing the time for
heating the same amount of water decreased.

Part (b) of the question, was correctly done by most of the candidates
although a few failed to use the concept of half-life in radioactivity that is,
“half-life is the time taken for an atom to decay to its a half”. Insufficient
knowledge and use of wrong formula in connection to poor mathematical
computation skills led them to score low marks. For example, some
N t
candidates calculated the half-life by using the wrong formula 
N0 t 1
2

Ni t
instead of  2 n and  n to obtain a number of undecayed atoms.
Nf t1
2

Where N i = initial number of atoms, N f = number of atoms left, t = time

35
taken for an atom to decay, t 1 = half-life and n = number of half-life.
2

Extract 7.1 is a sample answer of one of the candidates who provided

incorrect responses to this question.

Extract 7.1: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 7

In extract 7.1, the candidate applied the incorrect concept of capacitances

instead of one relating to radioactivity.

The candidates who scored high marks in part (a) and (b) demonstrated
knowledge on two topics of Current Electricity and Radioactivity that were
tested in this question. They demonstrated their computational skills on
current electricity and radioactivity. Most of these candidates were able to
find time taken for the water to boil and determine the number of
undecayed atoms by using appropriate formula. Extract 7.2 shows a sample
of the correct responses from one of the candidates who scored high marks
in this question.
36
37
 Extract 7.2: A sample of correct responses in Question 7

2.2.6 Question 8: Geophysics and Waves

This question comprised of two parts, namely (a) and (b). Part (a) required
the candidates to analyse five (5) effects of volcanoes eruption on the
Earth’s surface. In part (b), the candidates were required to determine the
wavelength of tuning fork when it produces resonances in a tube at 40 cm
and 85 cm , respectively for part (a) and (b).

The question was attempted by 114,472 (100%) candidates out of whom

40,551 (35.42%) scored from 0.0 to 2.5 marks; 60,671 (53.01%) scored
from 3.0 to 6.0 marks; and 13,250 (11.57%) scored from 6.5 to 10.0 marks.
Generally the candidates’ performance in this question was average as 73,
921 (64.58%) candidates scored from 3.0 to 10.0 marks. Figure 8
summarizes the candidates’ performance in Question 8.

38
 Figure 8: The Candidates’ performance in Question 8

Most of the candidates who scored high marks were able to use the concept
of geophysics in analysing the effects of volcanoes eruption on the earth’s
surface. They also demonstrated good computational and derivational skills
on the determination of the wavelength of the tuning fork. This indicates
that they were competent on music sounds especially production of
resonances in closed tubes. Extract 8.1 shows a sample of correct responses
from a candidate who scored high marks in this question.

39
 Extract 8.1: A sample of correct responses in Question 8

In the extract 8.1, the candidate analysed correctly the effects of volcanoes
eruption on the Earth’s surface. He/she also, utilized the correct formula for
the calculation of the wavelength of the turning fork which produced
resonances at two different levels of a closed tube.

40
The candidates who scored low marks (from 0.0 to 2.5) in part (a), failed to
analyse five (5) effects of volcanoes eruption on the Earth’s surface, This
was contributed by inadequate knowledge on geophysics. For example, one
of the candidates responded incorrectly that “the effects of volcanoes
include global warming, green house, communicable and non-
communicable diseases.” This indicates that the candidate had inadequate
idea on volcanoes and their effects on the earth’s surface. The candidates
were supposed to understand that volcanoes spew hot, dangerous gases,
ash, lava, and rock that are powerfully destructive. They can cause death
due to volcanic blasts. Volcanic eruptions can result in additional threats to
health, such as floods, mudslides, power outages, drinking water
contamination, and wildfires. In general, the eruption of volcanoes can
result in good and detrimental effects such as:
 Destruction of properties and life; many volcanoes erupt violently,
hurling hot lava and ash, poisonous gas and rocks into the
atmosphere, destroying life and damaging property.
 Volcanic activity is responsible for many features on the ground
including mountains, hills and plains of volcanic rocks
 Eruptions emit gases such as hydrogen chloride, carbon dioxide and
hydrogen fluoride and sulphur dioxide, which are harmful to the
environment
 Volcanic activity brings up useful commercial minerals from the deep
part of the crust to the upper surface of the crust.

In part (b), the question tested the ability of the candidates to determine the
wavelength of the tuning fork which produced resonances in a tube.
Majority of the candidates failed to deduce the wave equation for resonance
in accordance with their respective number of harmonics and overtones.
For instance, one of the candidates used unrelated formula by writing; the
2πL
relation: wavelength = to determine the wavelength. Another
L
candidate determined the wavelength by using the formula; wavelength =
L1 × L2. Others determined the wavelength by just adding the two lengths
were the resonance is produced   L1  L2  . All these formulae were
incorrect. The correct formula to be used by the candidates in determining
the positions at which the resonance occurs are related to frequency f and
the velocity of sound v by equation v = 2 f  L 2-L1  .
41
 v
f=
2  L 2 - L1 
L1  40 cm / 0.4 m, L2  85 cm / 0.85 m, v  340 m s
340 m s
f= = 377.8 Hz
2  0.85 m- 0.4 m 
V 340
The wavelength, λ is given by    = 0.9 m. Extract 8.2 shows
f 377.8
a sample of incorrect responses from one of the candidates who attempted
this question.

Extract 8.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 8

42
2.3 Section C: Structured Questions

2.3.1 Question 9: Waves and Electromagnetism

This question comprised two parts namely, (a) and (b). In part (a), the
candidates were required to calculate a frequency of the first and second
harmonics, when a stretched taut string of length 40 cm and mass
2×10-3 kg is pulled with tension of 100 N is plucked at its middle. Part (b)
required the candidates to find the potential difference across the secondary
circuit if a current of 0.15 A flows in secondary circuit of a transformer
while a potential difference of 60 V and current of 3.7 A flows across the
primary circuit of a transformer when the efficiency was 95%.

The question was attempted by 79,656 (69.6%) candidates out of which

44,771 (56.21%) candidates scored from 0 to 3.5 marks, 21,124 (26.52%)
scored from 4.0 to 8.0 marks and 13,761 (17.28%) scored from 8.5 to 12.5
marks. The overall candidates’ performance in this question was average as
34,885 (43.80%) scored from 4.0 to 12.5 marks. Figure 9 shows the
performance of the candidates in this question.

Figure 9: The Candidates’ Performance in Question 9

The candidates who performed well in this question had a good

understanding of the concepts tested. Most of the candidates were able to
use correct formula and mathematical skills to answer part (a) and (b). They

43
correctly substituted values and converted the unit well. Extract 9.1 shows
sample of responses from a candidate who scored the higher marks on this
question.

44
 Extract 9.1: A sample of correct responses in Question 9

The candidates who demonstrated weak performance lacked understanding

of some specific concepts from the topics of both Waves and Current
Electricity. They also lacked mathematical skills. Some candidates applied
incorrect formula f n  (n  1) f 0 to find the frequency at n harmonics, f n
where f 0 is the fundamental frequency. It should be noted that the formula
45
is correct only if n represent the number of overtones. Other candidates
used the length of the string, 40 cm without changing to metre (m) while
others applied an incorrect formula to find the fundamental frequency by
1 Tm 1 Tl 1 T
writing f 0  instead of: f 0 = = , as a result they got
2l l 2l m 2l μ
the inappropriate answers. The candidates were supposed to perform the
calculations as follows:
1 T
Frequency of the first harmonic, f1 
2l 
1 100
f1  Hz
2  0.4 5.0  103

f1  176.8HzHz
For the second harmonic frequency, f 2  2 f 0
f 2  2 176.8Hz
f 2  353.6Hz

Thus, the frequency of the first harmonic was 176.8 Hz and that of second
harmonic was 353.6 Hz.

In part (b), some of the candidates applied incorrect formula for the
efficiency of the transformer by writing,
power input
Effenciency  100% , instead of
power output
power output
Effenciency = ×100% . Others treated the transformer as an
power input
ideal one (100% efficiency) by applying the equation
I p  V p  I s  Vs which led to incorrect computations. These candidates
were supposed to determine the potential difference across the secondary
circuit by using the correct formula for efficiency of transformer as follows:
Power output
Efficiency = ×100%
Power input
Is ×Vs
Efficiency = ×100%
Power input

46
 95×3.7×60
Vs = V
100×0.15
Vs =140V
The voltage across the secondary coil was 140 V.
Extract 9.2 shows a sample of incorrect responses from a candidate who
scored low marks on this question.

47
 Extract 9.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 9

In extract 9.2, the candidate demonstrated extreme poor knowledge about

the factors which affect the frequency of a note produced by a stretched
string and hence, failed to establish a relation that would help to determine
the frequency of first and second harmonics. Moreover, this candidate
failed to find the output voltage across the secondary circuit of a non-ideal
transformer.

48
2.3.2 Question 10: Current Electricity and Electronics

This question had three parts; (a), (b) and (c). In part (a), the candidates
were required to explain four factors that affect the resistance of a
conductor. In part (b), they were required to draw the circuit diagram and
find the current flowing through a 5  resistor when the parallel
combination of 2  and 5  resistors are connected across the external
resistor of 3  through the supply of 4 V. Part (c) required the candidates
to use a common-emitter amplifier circuit to explain why n-p-n transistor
was named so.

The question was attempted by 107,895 (94.3%) candidates out of which

40,516 (37.55%) scored from 0 to 3.5 marks; 59,682 (55.31%) scored from
4.0 to 8.0 marks; and 7,697 (7.14%) scored from 8.5 to 12.5 marks. This
suggests that the general performance was average as 67,379 (62.45%)
candidates scored from. 4.0 to 12.5 marks. Figure 10 shows the candidates’
performance in this question.

Figure 10: The Candidates’ Performance in Question 10

The candidates who scored high marks in this question had satisfactory
knowledge of the factors affecting the resistance of the conductor. They
also showed to have skills in drawing electric circuit diagram used to
calculate the current passing through a resistor of 3 Ω. This implies that
49
they had acquired enough knowledge from both electricity and electronics.
Consequently, they managed to draw an appropriate common-emitter
amplifier circuit and explain correctly why n-p-n transistor is named so.
Extract 10.1 shows a sample of correct responses from one of the
candidates who did it correctly.

50
 Extract 10.1: A sample of the correct responses in Question 10

On the other hand, the candidates who scored low marks, in part (a), were
not able to explain the factors affecting the resistance of the conductor
clearly. Some candidates managed to mention the factors correctly but with
wrong explanations in relation to resistance of the conductor. For example,
one of the candidates wrote “when temperature increases the resistance of
the conductor decreases”. This candidate lacked the knowledge that when
temperature increases in a conductor the collision among electrons
increases which in turn limits their flow. Some candidates listed the factors
51
like conduction, forbidden gap, valence band and semiconductor. These
candidates failed to distinguish the concept of current electricity and those
from electronics, particularly the energy band theory. They were supposed
to explain the following factors:

(i) Temperature, for most metals and metal alloys: The resistance of the
conductor increases with increase in temperature.

(ii) Length of the conductor: The resistance of a conductor which is made

of the same material and thickness increase with the increase of the
length of conductor. The long the conductor, the resistance of the
conductor becomes high.

(iii) Cross sectional area of the conductor: When the cross sectional area
increases and other factors held constant, the resistance decreases.
Therefore, a thin conductor has high resistance than a thick
conductor.

(iv) Nature of the material: Resistance of the conductor depends on the

type of material making it. For example, steel wire has higher
resistance than copper wire of identical dimension at the same
temperature.

In part (b), the candidates who failed had inadequate knowledge on

drawing the electric circuit and solving the electric circuit problems. Some
Atm
candidates used the relation, RD  . Others connected the two parallel
cn
resistors ( 2  and 5  ) in series with the 3 Ω resistor, hence ended up with
incorrect answer. The correct circuit diagram was supposed to be as shown
below:

52
 V
Where the correct formula was supposed to be: From Ohm’s law I 
R
Since 2  , 5  and 3  are connected in parallel the voltage is the same.
4 V
I  0.8 A
5 

Thus, the current passing through 5  resistor was 0.8A

In part (c), the candidates who scored low marks had inadequate knowledge
on the topic of Electronics especially, the common emitter transistor
circuit. Some of the candidates failed to draw and to explain with the aid of
common emitter amplifier, why the n-p-n transistor is named so. One of the
candidates stated that “it is named so because diodes help the transistor to
direct the current in one direction”. Despite the fact that the candidate
responded contrary to the need of the question, he/she did not understand
how the diode and transistor differ in terms of their configurations and
operations. The candidates were supposed to understand that a diode is a
semiconductor device that essentially acts as a one-way switch for current.
It allows current to flow easily in one direction, but severely restricts the
current from flowing in the opposite direction. On the contrary, a transistor
is a miniature semiconductor that regulates or controls the current or
voltage flow in addition amplifying and generating these electrical signals
and acting as a switch/gate for them. As n-p-n transistor, the current flows
from the collector (C) to the Emitter (E). A common n-p-n transistor is
called so because both the signal source (input) and the load (output) share
the emitter lead as the common connection point i.e Emitter is common to
both Base and Collector.

The candidates were expected to draw the common emitter amplifier using
n-p-n transistor as shown in the following diagram.

53
Extract 10.2 shows a sample of incorrect responses from a candidate who
scored low marks on this question.

54
55
 Extract 10.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 10

In Extract 10.2, a candidate drew the diagram of energy bands in

semiconductor to explain factors affecting resistance in a conductor. She/he
also failed to draw the common emitter amplifier using n-p-n transistor.
This implies that the candidate had poor knowledge about the concepts of
current electricity and electronics.

2.3.3 Question 11: Waves

This question comprised of three parts, namely, (a), (b) and (c). In part (a),
the candidates were required to briefly explain how sound from the disco
hall can be transmitted into the other room. In part (b), they were required
to explain how microwaves are used in cooking and part (c) required them
to describe how destructive interference is used in noise reduction system.

This question was attempted by 41,358 (36.1%) candidates whose scores

were as follows: 31,301 (75.68%) scored from 0 to 3.5 marks, 8,029
(19.42%) scored from 4.0 to 8.0 marks and 2,028 (4.90%) scored from 8.5
to 12.5 marks. The data shows that the candidates’ performance was weak

56
as majority of the candidates (75.68%) scored below the marks. Figure 11
shows the performance of the candidates in this question.

Figure 11: The Candidates’ Performance to Question 11

Majority of the candidates (75.68%) scored low marks (0.0-3.5) because

they had insufficient knowledge about the behaviours of waves specifically,
the applications of reflection and diffraction of waves in daily life. Also,
they had poor knowledge about the propagation of sound waves in part (a)
of this question. For instance, one of the candidate’s responses in this part
wrote that “trivalent element is doped in intrinsic semiconductor”. This
response from the candidate indicates that he/she failed to understand the
topic from which the question is set. The explanation provided by the
candidate was absolutely contrary to the anticipated responses. The
response was from the topic of Electronics particularly, the concept of
mechanism of doping impurities in intrinsic semiconductors instead of
waves. The candidates were supposed to understand that a noise source in
one room sends air pressure waves which induce vibration to one side of a
wall or element of structure setting it moving such that the other face of the
wall vibrates in an adjacent room.

In part (b), most of the candidates appeared to have insufficient knowledge

about the mode of action of the microwaves in cooking. For example, one
of the candidates wrote that “microwaves used for cooking through the use
of solar and wind which travel from one place to another.” The kinds of
responses indicate that some of the candidates were not familiar with the
functions of microwaves oven used in cooking. The candidates were

57
supposed to realize that microwaves of certain frequencies pass through the
food and get absorbed by the food molecules. The absorbed energy causes
the molecules to rapidly vibrate producing the heat that heats or cooks the
food.

The candidates who scored low marks in part (c) had little knowledge about
the destructive interference of waves. For instance, a response of one
candidate in this part was written as “because there is presence of different
sound so the system is reduced”. Another one wrote that “because of
produce the sound transmit to the ear drum while the reflection was
transfer the sound from one area to another position.” Apart from
possession of inadequate knowledge in the concept of waves especially, the
importance of destructive interference of waves in noise reduction system,
they had poor English Language writing skills which played as an obstacle
for them to clearly present their responses. The candidates were supposed
to know that destructive interference occurs at any location along the
medium where interfering waves have a displacement in opposite direction.
The destructive interference cancel out unwanted sound by creating an
opposing sound wave that copycats the noise you want to get rid of, but just
180° out of phase. Extract 11.1 is a sample of a candidate’s incorrect
responses in this question.

Extract 11.1: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 11

58
In extract 11.1, the candidate applied the knowledge of electronics in the
production of p-type semiconductor in a place which required the concept
of waves.

The data indicates that 4.90 per cent of the candidates did well in this
question. The candidates who scored high marks in this question were able
to describe how sound waves travel from a disco hall to nearby rooms, how
microwave oven works and how destructive interference is used in noise
reduction system. Some candidates used drawings to illustrate the
propagation of sound waves. The candidates also managed to describe the
working mechanism of microwave ovens. Extract 11.2 is a sample of
correct responses from one of the candidates in this question.

59
Extract 11.2: A sample of the candidate’s good responses in Question 11

60
3.0 THE CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS IN EACH
QUESTION IN PHYSICS PAPER 2

The Physics Practical comprised of three alternative papers namely, 031/2A

Physics 2A, 031/2B Physics 2B and 031/2C Physics 2C. Each alternative
paper consisted of two questions each carrying 25 marks. The candidates
were required to answer all the questions. Question 1 was set from the topic
of Forces in Equilibrium and question 2 from the topic of Current
Electricity.

3.1 Question 1: Forces in Equilibrium

The question was attempted by 114,472 (100%) candidates whose scores

were as follows: 61,349 (53.59 %) scored from 0 to 7.0 marks; 33,305
(29.09%) scored from 7.5 to 16.0 marks; and 19,818 (17.31 %) scored from
16.5 to 25.0 marks. This indicates that the candidates’ performance was
average as 53,123 (46.41%) scored from 7.5 to 25.0 marks. Figure 12
shows the candidates’ performance in this question.

Figure 12: The Candidates’ Performance to Question 1 of Physics 2

61
3.1.1 031/2A Physics 2A

The aim of the experiment was to determine the density of a metre rule.
The candidates were required to follow the following procedure:
(a) Locate the centre of gravity C of the metre rule AB by balancing it
freely on the knife edge.

(b) Suspend 100 g mass on the ruler with distance d =10 cm from C,
adjust the position of the knife edge to get a balance as shown in the
following Figure.

(c) Record the distance y from the centre of gravity to a knife edge and
distance x from knife edge to the known mass of 100 g.

(d) Repeat the procedures in 1(b) and (c) by increasing the distance of
100 g to d =15 cm, 20 cm, 25 cm and 30 cm.

They were then required to answer the following questions:

(i) Tabulate the results in a suitable table showing the values of d, x

and y.

(ii) Plot a graph of y (cm) against x (cm).

(iii) Determine the slope of the graph.

(iv) Describe how the slope obtained from the graph is related to the
mass of the metre rule provided and hence determine the mass
of a rule.

(v) Measure and record the length, width and the thickness of the
metre rule provided
62
(vi) Determine the density of a metre rule.

Most of the candidates who scored high marks in this question were
competent in analyzing, evaluating, and applying mathematical skills
systematically to obtain the correct answers. These candidates managed to
set apparatuses, prepare a table of results and record the data correctly.
They also collected the data at a reasonable range and then used them to
plot a graph of y (cm) against x (cm) correctly.

The candidates correctly indicated important features to be considered

when plotting the graph such as the title of the graph including units; the
scales (both vertical and horizontal); labelled axes (vertical and horizontal);
transfer of points with best fit of line; and slope indication. Also they
managed to measure and record the length, width, and thickness of the
metre rule provided from which its volume was determined. Finally, the
candidates were able to calculate the density of the metre rule by using the
value of the slope obtained. Extract 12.1 shows a sample of correct
responses from one of the candidates who did well this question.

63
64
 Extract 12.1: A sample of a candidate’s good responses in Question 1 of
Physics 2A

In extract 12.1, the candidate followed correctly all the required

procedures; recorded the data in a table of results and plotted the graph with
well labelled features. Finally, he/she calculated the value of the slope and
applied it to perform the calculations appropriately. The candidate used
correctly the principle of moment to determine the mass of a meter rule and
used it to calculate the density of the metre rule provided.

65
On the other hand, the candidates who scored low marks in this question
did not have the knowledge of the concept of forces in equilibrium. The
candidates who failed to set up the experiment correctly; collected and
recorded incorrect data in the table of results. Others drew the graphs
without indicating the axes, title of the graph, the scale to be used, best line
and the slope indication. They also transferred the points incorrectly from
table of results to the graph. These candidates had inadequate knowledge of
the choice of points for the calculation of the slope, and thus failed to
determine the mass and density of the metre rule provided.

Other candidates failed to measure the length; width; and the thickness of
the metre rule; as a result, they failed to determine the necessary volume for
the determination of density of a metre rule. Others did not use the standard
mass (100 g) while some of them were found using the rulers having mass
greater or smaller than 100 g according to the values they obtained.

The candidates were supposed to use the correct points of the slope
indication to find the slope of the graph by using the relation:
y cm
slope  . Also candidates were required to apply the principle of
x cm
moment to obtain the mass of the ruler by using the relation: my 100x ,
100 x
y and relating the slope obtained from the graph with that of the
m
100 100
equation, to obtain: slope  ,m =
m Slope
In the graph, the candidates were supposed to indicate the following aspects
when plotting the graph; the title of the graph including its units, (a graph
of y (cm) against x (cm), the scale (vertical and horizontal) in a
recommended way, example; horizontal scale: 1 cm represent 1cm,
labelling of axes (both vertical and horizontal), with their respective SI
units, transfer of points, best line and slope indication. Extract 12.2 shows a
sample of candidates’ weak responses in Question 1.

66
67
Extract 12.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 1 of Physics
2A

68
3.1.2 031/2B Physics 2B

In this question the candidates were provided with unknown mass “m”, a
knife edge, 50 g mass, 100 g mass, and a metre rule. The candidates were
required to perform experiment through the following procedure:

(a) Find and mark the centre of gravity C of the metre rule AB by
balancing it freely on a knife edge.

(b) Place a metre rule on a knife edge at its centre of gravity C.

(c) Suspend the 100 g mass at point x=10 cm from the centre of gravity
of a metre rule. Suspend 50 g mass at distance a =5 cm from C on the
other side of C.

(d) Suspend the mass m to the side of 50 g mass and adjust it until the
metre rule balances horizontally as shown in the following Figure.

(e) Repeat the procedure in 1 (d) when x =15 cm, 25 cm and 30 cm. Find
the corresponding value of y (cm) in each experiment.
The candidates were then required to answer the following questions

(i) Tabulate the results of x (cm) and y (cm).

(ii) Plot a graph of x (cm) against y (cm).
(iii) Calculate the slope of the graph.
(iv) Formulate the equation of the graph.
(v) Determine the unknown mass m.

The candidates who had good scores in this question were knowledgeable
in the concept of forces in equilibrium, particularly the principle of
moments. They managed to set the apparatuses as required, tabulate the
results, good transfer of points, and plot a graph of x (cm) against y (cm).
They drew the best line and indicated the points for the determination of the
69
slope and correctly used it to get the unknown mass ‘m’. Extract 13.1
shows a sample of good responses from one of the candidates who scored
high marks in this question.

70
71
 Extract 13.1: A sample of correct responses in Question 1 in Physics 2B

In extract 13.1, the candidate collected and recorded the correct data, drew a
well labelled graph and in it he/she indicated all the necessary parts or
features. Finally, the candidate correctly calculated the slope and used it to
find the correct value of unknown mass ‘m’.

72
On the other hand, the candidates who performed weakly in this question
had little knowledge on practical work especially, the concept of principle of
moments. Some of the candidates provided the concepts which were
irrelevant to the demands of the question. For instance, one of the candidates
performed wrong mathematical operations to obtain different values of y.
This could have been caused by poor experimental set up and therefore,
recorded improper data of values in the table of results. She/he drew a non-
linear graph and hence, obtained an incorrect slope. It was also observed that
some of the candidates used directly the data recorded in the table of results
to find the slope (mathematical approach) instead of selecting the points
along the drawn best line and use them to calculate the slope. Other
candidates applied an incorrect scale and used it to draw the graph. Extract
13.2 shows a sample of responses from one of the candidates who scored
low marks in this question.

73
 Extract 13.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 1 in Physics
2B

In extract 13.2, the candidate provided incorrect table of results and hence,
failed to plot and interpret the graph for doing the calculations.

3.1.3 031/2C Physics 2C

The candidates were provided with a knife edge, metre rule, two strings of
20 cm, each 50 g and 100 g masses. They were required to perform
experiment following procedures (a) to (e).
(a) Balance a metre rule on a knife edge, mark the balancing point, write
letter G at the balancing point using a pencil.
74
(b) Use a Vernier calliper to determine the thickness, t and the width, w
of the metre rule.

(c) Place the metre rule on a knife edge so that the knife edge is at 65 cm
mark. Suspend the given 100 g mass at a point which balances the
metre rule. Record the distance between the knife edge and G as a
cm, and between the knife edge and the position of 100 g mass as y.

(d) Suspend the mass of 50 g on the left hand side of the knife edge at the
position 45 cm and the adjust the position of 100 g mass to balance
the metre rule as shown in Figure 21. Record the new value of y and
then record the distance between the 50 g mass and the knife edge as
x.

(e) Repeat the procedures in 1 (d) by changing the position of 50 g to 40

cm, 35 cm, 30 cm and 25 cm.
The candidates were then required to answer the following questions:
(i) Tabulate the results of x (in cm) and y (in cm).
(ii) Plot a graph of y against x.
(iii) Determine the slope of the graph.
(iv) Calculate the value of z from your experimental results given
za
that, y  Sx  .
100
(v) State the physical significance of z.
(vi) State the aim of doing this experiment.

The candidates who scored higher marks in this question had sufficient
knowledge on the concept of forces in equilibrium. They managed to
assemble the apparatuses and set up the experiment correctly.
Consequently, these candidates tabulated the results correctly as per
75
instruction given in the question. Moreover, they were able to write the
tittle of the graph, design the scale, label the axes, transfer the points, draw
the best line and indicate the slope correctly. Also the candidates were able
to apply mathematical skills to calculate the slope and the value of z from
the given equation. Likewise, by using the table of values, they correctly
plotted well interpretable graph which helped them to find the value of z.
Moreover, the candidates chose the points in the graph along the best line
Δy(cm)
to find the slope of the graph by using the relation: Slope = .
Δx(cm)
Furthermore, they were able to state the physical meaning of the value of z
and gave the suitable aim of the experiment. Extract 14.1 shows a sample
of correct responses from one of the candidates who attempted Question 1
of Physics 2C.

76
77
78
 Extract 14.1: A sample of correct responses in Question 1 of Physics 2C

However, some of the candidates who attempted this question scored

low marks because they had poor knowledge of the concept of forces in
equilibrium especially in the principle of moments. One of the most
observed and a measureable challenge to most of candidates faced in
this topic was failure in locating the centre of gravity of the metre rule.
Another challenge was the use of Vernier calliper as a measuring
instrument to determine the thickness and width of the metre rule. Most
of them failed to use it to find the thickness and width of the metre rule.

They also failed to recall the statement for the principle of moments
that “sum of clockwise moment is equal to sum of anti-clockwise
moment”. Some of the candidates failed to obtain the required table of
results. For example, one candidate was copying the given data and
za
substituting into equation; y  S   . Other candidates used a free
100
hand in drawing the graph which made it difficult to determine the
slope because of a rough line. The candidates were supposed to use the

79
points of the slope indication to determine the slope of the graph by
Δy (cm)
using the relation: Slope = . The data obtained from the graph
Δx (cm)
za
had to be related with the equation y  S   to obtain the value of
100
z. They were also required to relate the given equation with the
equation of the straight line y  mx  c .
za
By comparing, c  which equals to the y-intercept, the
100
candidates would be able to state correctly the physical significance of z
and the aim of doing an experiment. Extract 14.2 shows a sample of
incorrect responses from one of the candidates who attempted Question
1.

80
81
 Extract 14.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 1 of Physics
2C

In extract 14.2, the candidate prepared an incorrect table of results which led to
his/her failure to the rest parts of the question.

3.2 Question 2: Current Electricity

The question was attempted by 114,472 (100%) candidates and the scores
were as follows: 25,883 (22. 61 %) scored 0 to 7.0 marks; 51,568 (45.05 %)
scored from 7.5 to 16.0 marks; and 37,021 (32.34 %) scored from 16.5 to
25 marks. This indicates that the candidates’ performance was good as
88,539 (77.39%) scored from 7.5 to 25.0 marks. Figure 15 summarizes the
performance of the candidates in this question.

82
 Figure 15: The Candidates’ Performance in Question.2 of Physics 2

3.2.1 031/2A Physics 2A

In this question, the candidates were provided with a dry cell, resistance
box, switch, an ammeter, and a set of connecting wires. They were required
to perform experiment through the following procedures:

(a) Connect the given electrical components in series with a switch open.
Thereafter, draw and label clearly the circuit.

(b) Set the resistance R = 1 Ω , and then close the switch. Thereafter, read
and record the ammeter reading. Open the switch immediately after
taking the readings.

(c) Repeat the procedures in 2 (b), setting the value of R = 2 Ω, 3 Ω, 4 Ω

and 5 Ω. The candidates were also required to answer the following
questions;
1
(i) Tabulate the results including the values of .
I
1
(ii) Plot a graph of R against .
I
(iii) From the graph, determine the slope and the vertical intercept.

(iv) Use the results obtained in 2 (iii) to determine the internal

resistance and e.m.f of a given dry cell.

(v) State the aim of doing this experiment.

The candidates who scored high marks managed to correctly connect the
circuit which helped them to get the correct data from the ammeter
83
readings. These candidates plotted the graph correctly and applied
appropriate relation to get the slope. They were competent in applying
mathematical skills to derive the equation which relates the electromotive
force (e.m.f) of the cell ‘E’, internal resistance of the cell ‘r’ and resistance
due to resistance box ‘R’. The candidates obtained the value and units of
e.m.f and internal resistance of the cell correctly. Extract 15.1 shows a
sample of the correct responses from one of the candidates in this question.

84
85
 Extract 15.1: A sample of correct responses in Question 2 of Physics 2A

The candidates who scored low marks in this question had inappropriate
knowledge of how the e.m.f of the cell was related to both internal and
external resistance in the circuit. Most of them failed to make proper
connection of some of the electrical components, specifically the ammeter.
For instance, some candidates connected the ammeter in parallel or across
the resistance box instead of setting it in series as per the principles of
connecting an ammeter in any electric circuit or as per question instruction.
86
This poor knowledge of connection led to incorrect data recording. A few
candidates included a voltmeter in the electric circuit they drew, an
instrument which was not mentioned anywhere in the question. This
indicates that some candidates were not familiar with the electrical
components and how they are connected in the circuit.

Another problem observed was the candidates’ incorrect reading of the

ammeter scale. For example, some of them read and wrote the ammeter
reading as current, I  3 A instead of I  0.3 A when the resistance, R
was 4 Ω. Some candidates wrote incorrect scale such as 2 cm represents
1A-1 instead of 1cm represents 0.5 A-1. Also, they failed to indicate some
essential parts of the graph used for drawing the graph. For example one of
the candidates drew the graph without naming the vertical and horizontal
1
axes. Some candidates wrote a graph of y against x instead of R against .
I
Others wrote incorrect formula for the equation which relates an e.m.f of
the cell, internal resistance, current and external resistance. For instance,
one of the candidates wrote “E = IR” instead of “E = I(R+r)”. Extract 15.2
shows a sample of incorrect responses from one of the candidates who
scored low marks in this question.

87
88
 Extract 15.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 2 of Physics
2A

In extract 15.2, the candidate drew a circuit diagram with an electric

symbol of the battery, but wrote it as a dry cell and ammeter instead of
resistance box. Consequently, he/she utilized an incorrect formula to
determine the slope of the graph by writing the ratio of horizontal increase
to the vertical increase instead of ratio of change in Resistance to change in
reciprocal of current.

89
3.2.2 031/2B Physics 2B

In this question, the candidates were required to determine the e.m.f of the
cell and the resistance of a given piece of wire through the following
procedures:

(a) Connect the circuit diagram as shown below in which E is a battery,

K is a key, L is the length of the wire, R is the resistance box and A is
an ammeter.

(b) With L = 12 cm and R set at 1  , record the ammeter reading I (A).

(c) Without altering the value of L, repeat the procedure in 2 (b) with R =
2 Ω, 3 Ω, 4 Ω and 5 Ω. Record the corresponding values of ammeter
reading in each case.

The candidates were then required to answer the following questions:

1
(i) Tabulate the results of R, I and .
I
1
(ii) Plot a graph of against R.
I
(iii) Calculate the slope S of the graph.
(iv) Find the value of I for which R = 0.

90
 (v) Determine the e.m.f and resistance of the wire L given that, the
internal resistance of the cell was 1.0 Ω. They were also asked
to show clearly how they arrived to their answers.

The candidates who scored high marks had adequate knowledge and
competence about the topic of Current Electricity. They managed to
connect the electric circuit and recorded the ammeter correctly. They also
drew the appropriate graph correctly. Moreover, they possessed
computational skills, as they managed to derive the correct equation which
connects the electromotive force of the cell, internal resistance of the cell,
resistance of the wire and the resistance due to resistance box. This
equation helped them to get the correct numerical value of e.m.f of the cell
and resistance of the wire. Extract 16.1 shows a sample of correct responses
from one of the candidates in this question.

91
92
93
 Extract 16.1: A sample of correct responses in Question 2 of Physics 2B

On the other hand, the candidates who scored low marks had inadequate
knowledge about the topic of Current Electricity. These candidates faced
the challenges in setting the experiment, as a result they ended up with
incorrect value. Some of them were unable to read the ammeter scale which
led them gather incorrect data. For example, one candidate obtained a
94
current, I = 1.7 A at a resistance, R = 1 Ω instead of I = 1.19 A . Some
candidates prepared a complex scale to draw the graph which led to their
failure in reading the graph. For example, one candidate prepared the scale
of 1cm represents 0.0997A-1 instead of 1cm represents 0.1 A-1. Other
candidates who did wrongly exposed his/her poor mathematical skills. For
this reason, they failed to show the relationship between electromotive
force of the cell; internal resistance of the cell; resistance of the wire; and
resistance. For instance, one candidate wrote “E = I(R+r)” which was not
correct, as a result they calculated incorrect value of the e.m.f of the cell
and resistance of the wire. The correct formula was E  I  R  r  Rw 
where Rw is the resistance of the wire. Extract 16.2 shows a sample of
incorrect responses in this question.

95
96
 Extract 16.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 2 of Physics
2B.

In extract 16.2, the candidate prepared an inappropriate table of values and

hence plotted incorrect graph. Similarly, he/she applied a formula which
excluded the resistance of the wire, thus ended up with wrong value of the
e.m.f of the cell.

3.2.3 031/2C Physics 2C

In this question the candidates were required to determine the resistivity of

the material of the wire provided from the following procedures:

(a) Use the micrometre screw gauge to determine the diameter of the
given wire and hence find its cross section area in m2 . Connect the
circuit as shown in Figure 26 where C is a crocodile clip. Measure
the length of wire L = 100 cm and clip it so that the current flows
across the wire. Record the voltmeter reading V.

97
(b) Repeat the procedures in 2 (a) with crocodile clip at L  80 cm ,
60 cm , 40 cm and 20 cm . Record the corresponding voltmeter
reading in each case.
The candidates were then required to:
1 1
(i) Tabulate the values of L, V, and . (The length L should
L V
be in metres).
1 1
(ii) Plot a graph of (v 1 ) against (m 1 ) .
V L
(iii) Determine the slope S.
1
(iv) Find the value of V for which = 0 and state its physical
L
meaning.
(v) Determine the value of resistivity of the wire given that,
1 A 1 1
= + .
V ρE L E

The candidates who scored higher marks in this question were competent in
applying the concept of current electricity. They managed to assemble the
apparatuses as required and set up the experiment correctly. These
candidates performed proper measurement and recorded the results
appropriately. They also plotted the appropriate graph of which they used
to determine the slope of the graph. Consequently, they found the value of
1
V when  0 and stated its physical meaning correctly. Likewise, they
L
98
determined the value of resistivity of the wire using the
1 A 1 1
formula = + . Extract 17.1 shows a sample of candidates’ good
V ρEL E
responses to this question.

99
100
101
 Extract 17.1: A sample of correct responses in Question 2 of Physics
2C

In extract 17.1, the candidate responded correctly to all parts of the

question.

The candidates who scored low marks on the other hand, had little
knowledge of the concept of current electricity, particularly experimental
determination of resistivity of the material. A few candidates (22.61%) had
low standard of performance. These candidates could not set up the
experiment as per instruction, as a result they recorded and tabulated
1 1
incorrect values of L, V, and . The candidates in this category lacked
L V
the skills of simple electric circuits, basic electric components and symbols.
One can tell that, these candidates did not understand the main function of
102
the crocodile clip as a result they failed to clip the required value of the
length of the wire. Similarly, they failed to read precisely the value of the
voltage across the wire. These candidates were supposed to know that
crocodile clips are principally used to create flexible, temporary or
experimental electrical connections of electrical conductors in laboratories.
For example, this could be between two wires or between an electrical lead
or between the entrance and exit points of an electrical current. Therefore,
when a voltmeter is connected across the wire such that the circuit is made
complete by connecting the battery and a key, the resistance or resistivity of
the wire can be determined.

Another challenge shown by these candidates was inability to transfer and

use the data for plotting the graph. In the graph, a few candidates failed to
prepare the scales, transfer of data points, labelling of the axes and slope
indication. For example, one candidate wrote a scale as “2 cm represents
0.01’’, instead of “1cm represents 0.01V-1’’. Moreover, some of the
candidates who managed to obtain the slope failed to indicate the S.I unit.
Those who managed to draw the graph they wrongly interpreted it as a
1
result, they failed to state the physical meaning of V when  0 . These
L
candidates were supposed to apply the mathematical concept of coordinate
1 1 1
geometry that, when a graph of (V ) against (m 1 ) is plotted, letting
V L
one variable as zero gives the intercept of the other variable and vice versa.
In connection to this, some candidates exposed their little knowledge of
applying mathematical abilities and hence, failed to determine the value of
resistivity of the wire.
The formula could help them to determine the value of resistivity of the
1
wire by first, finding the e.m.f of the battery from the intercept of and
V
second, measure the diameter of the wire by using a micrometer screw jack.
Finally, use the diameter of the wire to obtain the cross-sectional area A.
Extract 17.2 indicates a sample of incorrect responses from one of the
candidates in this question.

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104
Extract 17.2: A sample of incorrect responses in Question 2 of Physics
2C

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 In extract 17.2, the candidate failed to prepare table of results and hence,
provided incorrect responses to the rest parts of the question.

4.0 THE CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS IN EACH

TOPIC IN PHYSICS PAPER 1&2

A total of 22 topics were examined in the Physics examination papers. The

topics examined were Measurement; Archimedes Principle and the Law of
Flotation; Structure and Properties of Matter; Pressure; Light; Simple
Machines; Newton’s Laws of Motion; Motion in a Straight Line; Forces in
Equilibrium; Current Electricity; Temperature; Vapour and Humidity;
Measurement of Thermal Energy; Thermionic Emission; Elementary
Astronomy; Optical Instruments; Thermal Expansion; Radioactivity;
Geophysics; Waves; Electromagnetism; and Electronics.

The analysis of performance in Physics paper 1 reveals that sixteen (16)

topics had average performance. The topics are Geophysics and Waves
(64.57%) which were examined in Question 8; Current Electricity and
Electronics (62.44%) set in Question 10; Measurement; Archimedes
Principle and the Law of Flotation; Structure and Properties of Matter;
Light; Motion in a Straight Line, Measurement of Thermal Energy, Vapour
and Humidity; Temperature; Thermionic Emission; and Elementary
Astronomy (62.18%), all examined in Question 1 which was a multiple
choice items.

Other topics with average performance include: Waves (46.29%) which

was examined in Questions 2 & 11; Waves and Electromagnetism (43.80%)
examined in Question 9; and Current Electricity and Radioactivity
(37.71%) examined in Question 7. The average performance was due to the
fact that, some of the candidates attempted only parts of the questions and
skipped other parts especially those who had poor mathematical skills in
performing calculations.

Further analysis shows that, the performance was weak in the topics of
Newton’s Laws of Motion and Simple Machines (26.63%) examined in
Question 5; Thermal Expansion and Vapour and Humidity (22.90%)
examined in Question 6; Light and Optical Instruments (20.77%) examined
in Question 3; and Pressure and Forces in equilibrium (3.84%) examined
in Question 4. The weak performance in these topics were influenced by
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 the candidates’ poor drawing skills, inadequate knowledge about the topics
examined, lack of English language proficiency, failure to understand the
requirement of some questions and inappropriate use of formulae due to
both unsatisfactory knowledge and poor mathematical skills, and the
candidates’ poor English language command. The analysis of candidates’
performance in each topic for Physics paper 1 is summarized in Appendix
I.

On the other hand, the analysis of Physics 2 (Actual Practical Paper)

revealed that the topic of Current Electricity had good performance of
77.39 per cent while the topic of Forces in Equilibrium had an average
performance of 46.41 per cent. This indicates that candidates had better
understanding in practical paper than in theory paper especially in the topic
of Current Electricity (see Appendix II).

5.0 CONCLUSION AND RECOMMENDATIONS

5.1 Conclusion

In general, the performance of candidates in the 2022 Physics was good as

78,009 (68.34%) of the candidates passed the examination and only 36,463
(31.66%) failed. The good performance was due to the candidates’ ability
to understand the requirements of the questions set, correct application of
the principles in interpreting scientific observation, candidates’ good
knowledge and mathematical skills about the subject matter and candidates’
possession of drawing skills.

However, some candidates faced difficulties in understanding the content

and requirements of the questions. Weak performance of some candidates
was due to;

(a) Lack of knowledge about various concepts, hence providing

incorrect responses and poor mastering of the subject matter.

(b) Poor background of mathematical skills. Most of the candidates

who scored low marks in questions which required calculations,
failed to analyse and manipulate the given data through correct
procedures and appropriate calculations.

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 (c) Application of inappropriate formulae. Some candidates used
incorrect formulae to perform calculations. Others applied the
formulae interchangeably.

(d) Poor communication skills. The candidates provided responses with

grammatical errors. In some cases, candidates with problems in
English language communication skills failed to give detailed
responses required in the questions.

(e) Lack of drawing skills. Some of the candidates failed to draw the
image formed in a concave mirror, diagram of human eye,
photographic camera, combinational pulley systems, simple electric
circuits and common emitter amplifier circuit which were required
for one of the questions in CSEE 2022.

5.2 Recommendations

(a) Based on the observations made through the Candidates’ Item

Response Analysis, the following recommendations should be
adhered to in order to improve future performance of the candidates
in the Physics subject:

(i) Teachers and students are advised to read the Candidates' Item
Response Analysis report (CIRA) each year. This will help
them to scrutinize the major factors which affect candidates’
responses and take appropriate actions during classroom
teaching and learning in order to improve the candidates’
performance.

(ii) Teachers and students are urged to use English Language

when discussing various topics in the class and in other
extracurricular activities. This will improve students’ writing
skills and assist them to understand what is taught in the
classrooms and what is asked in the question paper.

(iii) Students should be urged to do experimentation,

demonstrations and drawing activities in order to acquire
competence in drawing diagrams from various topics.

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 (iv) Students should continue learning and practising computation
skills that are required in solving different questions involving
calculations.

(b) Based on the teaching and learning strategies, teachers are advised
to adhere to the Physics syllabus for better students’ acquisition of
knowledge and competences in the unsatisfactory performed topics
as follows:

(i) Guide students to use stiff spiral spring, block of wood or

book, a table and a retort stand to demonstrate the action and
reaction forces by showing their relationship in the topic of
Newton’s Law of Motion. They should also guide students to
use block and tackle pulley system through gallery walk
presentations to determine the effort required to raise two bags
of manure in the topic of Simple Machines.

(ii) Lead students to demonstrate the expansion and contraction of

solids by using brass, iron and copper strips, switch and source
of heat in the topic of Thermal Expansion. Likewise, they
should lead students to brainstorm the factors affecting
evaporation of the liquid by using a cooking pot with or
without a lid, hot water and source of heat in the topic of
Vapour and Humidity.

(iii) Guide students to demonstrate on how to locate the images

formed in a concave mirror by using tools such as a graph
paper, a plane paper, a transparent ruler of 30 cm and a
concave mirror by placing the object at different positions
from the centre of curvature to the pole. Also, they should
guide students to draw the structure of the human eye and that
of photographic camera by using models of the human eye and
photographic camera.

(iv) Lead students by using Think-Pair-Share technique to measure

the pressure of the liquid and the atmospheric pressure with
the help of flushing tanks, syringes, water, siphon and bicycle
pump. Similarly, teachers should lead students’ group
discussion to identify the three states of stability in daily life
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by using a model of a bus or ship and solid objects of various
shapes.

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Appendix I: The Summary of the Topic-wise Candidates’ Performance in
Physics 1

The % of
the
Candidates
Question
S/N Topic who scored Remarks
Number
an Average
of 30% or
Above
Geophysics and Waves 8 64.57 Average
1
Current Electricity and
10 62.44 Average
2 Electronics
Multiple Choice Items 1 62.18 Average
3
Waves 2 & 11 46.29 Average
4
Waves and
9 43.80 Average
5 Electromagnetism
Current Electricity and
7 37.71 Average
6 Radioactivity
Newton’s Laws of
Motion and Simple 5 26.63 Weak
7 Machines
Thermal Expansion and
6 22.90 Weak
8 Vapour and Humidity
Light and Optical
3 20.77 Weak
9 Instruments
Pressure and Forces in
4 3.84 Weak
10 Equilibrium

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Appendix II: The Summary of the Topic-wise Candidates’ Performance in
Physics 2

The % of candidates
Question who scored an
S/N Topic Remarks
number average of 30% or
above
Current
1 2 77.39 Good
Electricity

Forces in
2 1 46.41 Average
Equilibrium

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