ACLS post-test

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1. A. Call for help A 48-year-old man became unresponsive shortly after

and begin chest presenting to you with nausea and generalized chest dis-
compressions. comfort. You observe gasping breathing and are unsure if
you feel a pulse. You should know:
A. Call for help and begin chest compressions.
B. Wait until breathing stops and then check again for a
pulse.
C. Begin chest compressions only if you are certain a
pulse is absent.
D. Observe the patient for 2 minutes, then reassess his
breathing and pulse.

2. C. Bradydys- Which of the following is the most likely complication of

rhythmias inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI)?
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Ventricular rupture
C. Bradydysrhythmias
D. Tachydysrhythmias

3. D. Procainamide A 52-year-old man is complaining of palpitations that came

or amiodarone on suddenly after walking up a short flight of stairs. His
symptoms have been present for about 20 minutes. He de-
nies chest pain and is not short of breath. His skin is warm
and dry; breath sounds are clear. His blood pressure (BP)
is 144/88 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg), his heart rate is
186 beats per minute (beats/min), and his ventilatory rate
is 18 breaths/min. The cardiac monitor reveals the rhythm
here. Vascular access has been established. Which of the
following medications is most appropriate in this situation?
A. Dopamine or sotalol
B. Furosemide or atropine
C. Nitroglycerin (NTG) or morphine
D. Procainamide or amiodarone

4. C. Assess Your general impression of a 78-year-old woman reveals

breathing and de- that her eyes are closed, she is not moving, you can see
no rise and fall of her chest or abdomen, and her skincolor

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termine whether is pale. When you arrive at the patient's side, you confirm
she has a pulse. that she is unresponsive. Your best action in this situation
will be to:
A. Open her airway and give two breaths.
B. Apply an automated external defibrillator (AED).
C. Assess breathing and determine whether she has a
pulse.
D. Prepare the necessary equipment to insert an ad-
vanced airway.

5. C. Gurgling A 60-year-old woman has suffered a cardiac arrest. A

sounds heard health care professional trained in endotracheal intubation
over the epigas- has intubated the patient. Which of the following findings
trium would indicate inadvertent esophageal intubation?
A. Jugular vein distention
B. Subcutaneous emphysema
C. Gurgling sounds heard over the epigastrium
D. Breath sounds heard on only one side of the chest

6. C. Epinephrine, Hypotension (ie, a systolic BP of less than 90 mm Hg)

dopamine, or after the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) may
norepinephrine. necessitate the use of:
A. Fluid boluses and isoproterenol.
B. Procainamide, epinephrine, or dopamine.
C. Epinephrine, dopamine, or norepinephrine.
D. Fluid boluses, procainamide, and isoproterenol.

7. C. The gather Which of the following is incorrect with regard to a

phase of the de- postevent debriefing?
briefing includes A. The facilitator should use open-ended questions to en-
a comparison of courage discussion.
the team's ac- B. Team members are encouraged to identify lessons
tions with cur- learned in a nonpunitive environment.
rent resuscita- C. The gather phase of the debriefing includes a com-
tion algorithms. parison of the team's actions with current resuscitation
algorithms.
D. Team members are given an opportunity to reflect on
their performance and how their performance can be im-
proved.

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8. B. Vagal maneu- Assuming there are no contraindications, which of the
vers following can be performed as an initial intervention for a
stable but symptomatic patient with the rhythm shown?

A. Defibrillation
B. Vagal maneuvers
C. Administration of intravenous (IV) diltiazem
D. Administration of IV epinephrine

9. B. Administer A 62-year-old man received IV tissue plasminogen activa-

IV antihistamines tor (tPA) 2 hours ago after a diagnosis of acute ischemic
and steroids. stroke. While assessing the patient's vital signs, you ob-
serve swelling of the patient's lips and tongue. Your best
course of action will be to:
A. Administer aspirin and IV heparin.
B. Administer IV antihistamines and steroids.
C. Observe and reassess the patient every 15 minutes.
D. Request an emergent brain computed tomography
scan.

10. B. Attempt in- During a cardiac arrest, multiple attempts to establish a

traosseous ac- peripheral IV have proved unsuccessful. Your best course
cess. of action at this time will be to:
A. Insert a central line.
B. Attempt intraosseous access.
C. Discontinue resuscitation efforts.
D. Continue peripheral IV attempts until successful.

11. B. Delivers a Synchronized cardioversion:

shock during A. Is used only for atrial dysrhythmias.
ventricular depo- B. Delivers a shock during ventricular depolarization.
larization. C. Delivers a shock between the peak and end of the T
wave.
D. Is used only for rhythms with a ventricular rate of less
than 60 beats/min.

12.
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A. Prepare An 84-year-old man presents with an acute onset of al-
for transcuta- tered mental status. The cardiac monitor shows the rhythm
neous pacing. here. The patient's BP is 58/30 mm Hg andhis ventilatory
rate is 14 breaths/min. His skin is cool, moist, and pale. His
blood oxygen saturation level (SpO2) on room air is 95%.
An IV has been established.

On the basis of the information provided, your best course

of action will be to:
A. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.
B. Give amiodarone 300 mg IV push.
C. Give epinephrine 1 mg IV bolus and reassess.
D. Observe the patient and monitor for signs of deteriora-
tion.

13. B. Obtaining a Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
12-lead is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
electrocardio- his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
gram (ECG) chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
Which of the following actions performed at the scene is
most likely to reduce subsequent treatment delays at the
hospital?
A. Giving aspirin
B. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
C. Assessing vital signs and oxygen saturation
D. Assessing the patient's degree of discomfort

14. B. Establishing Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
IV access and is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
giving aspirin. his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
The patient rates his discomfort 9/10. His BP is 126/72 mm
Hg and ventilations 14 breaths/min. His SpO2 on room air
is 95%. The cardiac monitor shows a sinus rhythm at 60
beats/min. Immediate management of this patient should
include:
A. Giving aspirin and NTG.
B. Establishing IV access and giving aspirin.
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C. Administering oxygen and establishing IV access.
D. Administering oxygen and obtaining a targeted history.

15. A. 10 minutes Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
Current guidelines recommend obtaining an initial 12-lead
ECG within ____ of patient contact when an acute coro-
nary syndrome (ACS) is suspected.
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes

16. D. STE, STD, nor- Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
mal or nondiag- is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
nostic ECG his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
When the patient's 12-lead ECG is reviewed, the results
should be used to classify the patient into one of three
groups.Which of the following correctly reflects these cat-
egories?
A. ST elevation (STE), normal ECG, Q waves
B. Q waves, ST depression (STD), inconclusive ECG
C. STD, normal ECG, inconclusive ECG
D. STE, STD, normal or nondiagnostic ECG

17. C. STE in leads I, Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
aVL, and V2 to V6. is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
A 12-lead ECG has been obtained.

The patient's 12-lead ECG shows:

A. STE in leads II, III, and aVF.
B. STD in leads I, II, III, and aVL.
C. STE in leads I, aVL, and V2 to V6.
D. STD in leads V1, V4, V5, and V6.

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18. B. V2, V3, and V4 Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
To be considered significant, ECG findings, such as STE
or STD, need to be viewed in two or more contiguous
leads. Which of the following are contiguous leads?
A. V1, V4, and V5
B. V2, V3, and V4
C. III, aVF, and V1
D. I, II, III, and aVL

19. C. Anterolateral Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
The patient's 12-lead ECG findings suggest a(n) _____
MI.
A. Posterior
B. Inferolateral
C. Anterolateral
D. Non-ST elevation

20. B. The patient Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
should be clas- is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
sified as having his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
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an ST elevation chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
MI (STEMI) and On the basis of the patient's 12-lead ECG findings:
should be eval- A. The patient should be classified as having a nondiag-
uated for imme- nostic ECG and discharged with follow-up instructions.
diate reperfusion B. The patient should be classified as having an ST eleva-
therapy. tion MI (STEMI) and should be evaluated for immediate
reperfusion therapy.
C. The patient should be classified as having a normal
ECG; serial ECGs should be obtained at 30-minute inter-
vals to detect the development of ST elevation.
D. The patient should be classified as having a non-ST
elevation ACS (NSTE-ACS) and should be admitted to a
monitored bed for further evaluation.

21. A. Aspirin and Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
NTG is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
Vascular access has been established. The patient's BP
is 130/70 mm Hg, his pulse is 60 beats/min, and his
ventilatory rate is 14 breaths/min. Assuming there are
nocontraindications for any of the following medications,
which of the following would be appropriate for this patient
at this time?
A. Aspirin and NTG
B. Aspirin and a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID)
C. An oral beta-blocker and an NSAID
D. Aspirin and a calcium channel blocker (CCB)

22. A. Is contraindi- Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
cated in hypoten- is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
sive patients. his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
NTG has been ordered for administration to this patient.
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NTG:
A. Is contraindicated in hypotensive patients.
B. Should be administered via the IV route for maximum
benefit.
C. Should be used with caution in patients with anterior
infarction.
D. Should be given every 15 to 20 minutes until chest
discomfort is relieved.

23. C. Give a 250 mL Paramedics are on the scene with a 55-year-old man who
IV fluid bolus of is complaining of severe chest discomfort. He describes
normal saline. his discomfort as a "heavy pressure" in the middle of his
chest that has been present for about 1 hour.
The patient's chest discomfort was unrelieved after the
maximum recommended dosage of NTG tablets. Mor-
phine sulfate was ordered and a 4 mg dose was given IV.
The patient's BP is now 80/60 mm Hg and his skin is cool,
moist, and pale. His breath sounds are clear. You should:
A. Prepare a lidocaine infusion at 1 to 4 mg/min.
B. Prepare an epinephrine infusion at 2 mcg/min.
C. Give a 250 mL IV fluid bolus of normal saline.
D. Prepare a dopamine infusion at 2 to 10 mcg/kg/min.

24. A. Check for a Which of the following is not recommended when perform-
pulse immediate- ing defibrillation?
ly after defibrilla- A. Check for a pulse immediately after defibrillation to
tion to determine determine next steps.
next steps. B. Visually check and ensure that everyone is clear of the
patient before shock delivery.
C. Remove transdermal medication patches or ointment
from the patient's chest before the procedure.
D. All team members with the exception of the chest com-
pressor should clear the patient as the machine charges.

25. A. Older adults, Atypical symptoms of ACSs are more common in:
women, and dia- A. Older adults, women, and diabetic individuals.
betic individuals. B. Men, older adults, and individuals who have liver dis-
ease.
C. Women, diabetic individuals, and individuals who have

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liver disease.
D. Men, patients who have a history of coronary artery
disease, and patients who have a history of hypertension.

26. A. Defibrillate im- A 53-year-old woman is unresponsive. The cardiac mon-

mediately. itor initially showed a narrow-QRS tachycardia at 220
beats/min. Her BP was 50 mm Hg by palpation and her
ventilatory rate was 10 breaths/min. Supplemental oxygen
therapy was initiated and an IV established before the
patient's collapse. You promptly delivered a synchronized
shock. Reassessment reveals the patient is not breathing
and has no pulse. The cardiac monitor now reveals the
rhythm shown. What course of action should you take at
this time?

A. Defibrillate immediately.
B. Perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for 2 min-
utes and then prepare to defibrillate.
C. Place an advanced airway and then begin transcuta-
neous pacing.
D. Press the "Sync" control and deliver another synchro-
nized shock.

27. C. Perform syn- An unstable patient with a narrow-QRS tachycardia re-

chronized car- quires electrical therapy. You have a biphasic defibrillator
dioversion with available to you. Which of the following correctly reflects
50 to 100 J for the the recommended energy dose that should be delivered
initial shock. in this situation?
A. Defibrillate with 120 joules (J).
B. Defibrillate with 360 J.
C. Perform synchronized cardioversion with 50 to 100 J for
the initial shock.
D. Perform synchronized cardioversion with 100 to 200 J
for the initial shock.

28. B. Using contin- The preferred method used to verify the proper placement
uous waveform of an endotracheal tube is:
capnography. A. Obtaining a chest radiograph.
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B. Using continuous waveform capnography.
C. Auscultating the presence of bilateral breath sounds.
D. Observing adequate chest rise with positive pressure
ventilation.

29. B. The team Which of the following is incorrect with regard to the events
leader should of a typical resuscitation effort?
encourage a A. The team leader should state his or her instructions one
respectful ex- at a time.
change of ideas. B. The team leader should encourage a respectful ex-
change of ideas.
C. Team members must be knowledgeable about current
resuscitation algorithms.
D. Team members should be encouraged to confer among
themselves throughout the resuscitation effort.

30. C. Epinephrine Which of the following statements is correct about the use
should be giv- of medications during cardiac arrest?
en as soon as A. Amiodarone is the drug of choice for cardiac arrest
feasible after the resulting from asystole.
onset of cardiac B. Lidocaine is contraindicated in cardiac arrest associat-
arrest associated ed with a shockable rhythm.
with a nonshock- C. Epinephrine should be given as soon as feasible after
able rhythm. the onset of cardiac arrest associated with a nonshockable
rhythm.
D. Vasopressin can be substituted for either the first or
second dose of epinephrine in the treatment of cardiac
arrest.

31. B. STE is present This 12-lead ECG is from a 50-year-old man complaining
in leads V1 to V4. of chest discomfort.
An anterior STE-
MI is suspected. Which of the following is true regarding this 12-lead ECG?
A. This 12-lead reveals no significant findings.
B. STE is present in leads V1 to V4. An anterior STEMI is
suspected.
C. STE is present in leads I, aVR, and V6. A lateral STEMI
is suspected.

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D. STD is present in leads III and aVF. An inferior STEMI
is suspected.

32. D. Second-de- A 65-year-old man is complaining of a sudden onset of

gree AV block dizziness. He is awake, alert, and diaphoretic. The patient
(2:1 AV block). states that his symptoms began 45 minutes ago while
cleaning his garage. He denies chest pain, shortness
of breath, and nausea. The patient's breath sounds are
clear bilaterally. His BP is 78/50 mm Hg, ventilations 18
breaths/min. His SpO2 on room air is 96%.
The cardiac monitor reveals the following rhythm.

This rhythm is:

A. Junctional rhythm.
B. Sinus bradycardia.
C. Third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block.
D. Second-degree AV block (2:1 AV block).

33. B. Administer at- A 65-year-old man is complaining of a sudden onset of

ropine 0.5 mg IV. dizziness. He is awake, alert, and diaphoretic. The patient
states that his symptoms began 45 minutes ago while
cleaning his garage. He denies chest pain, shortness
of breath, and nausea. The patient's breath sounds are
clear bilaterally. His BP is 78/50 mm Hg, ventilations 18
breaths/min. His SpO2 on room air is 96%.
An IV is in place. Your best course of action will be to:
A. Defibrillate immediately.
B. Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV.
C. Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV.
D. Administer vasopressin 40 units IV.

34. B. Is indicated An 89-year-old man is complaining of a "racing heart." He

and should be states his symptoms began while playing a card game with
delivered using a friends. He had an MI 15 years ago and a coronary artery
nasal cannula. bypass graft 5 years ago. His BP is 140/90 mm Hg and his
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ventilatory rate is 16 breaths/min. Breath sounds are clear
and his tidal volume is adequate. His SpO2 on room air is
88%.
On the basis of the information provided, supplemental
oxygen:
A. Is unnecessary at this time.
B. Is indicated and should be delivered using a nasal
cannula.
C. Is indicated for all patients who are experiencing a
tachycardia.
D. Should ideally be administered only after placement of
an advanced airway.

35. C. The patient An 89-year-old man is complaining of a "racing heart." He

is stable. Admin- states his symptoms began while playing a card game with
istration of IV friends. He had an MI 15 years ago and a coronary artery
adenosine can bypass graft 5 years ago. His BP is 140/90 mm Hg and his
be used as a ther- ventilatory rate is 16 breaths/min. Breath sounds are clear
apeutic and diag- and his tidal volume is adequate. His SpO2 on room air is
nostic maneuver. 88%.
Which of the following statements is true with regard to the
management of this patient?
A. The patient is unstable. Sedate the patient and defibril-
late as quickly as possible.
B. The patient is stable. Administration of IV verapamil is
recommended for termination of the rhythm.
C. The patient is stable. Administration of IV adenosine can
be used as a therapeutic and diagnostic maneuver.
D. The patient is unstable. Because there are recognizable
QRS complexes on the monitor, synchronized cardiover-
sion should be performed.

36. B. Regu- An 89-year-old man is complaining of a "racing heart." He

lar, monomor- states his symptoms began while playing a card game with
phic, wide-QRS friends. He had an MI 15 years ago and a coronary artery
tachycardia. bypass graft 5 years ago. His BP is 140/90 mm Hg and his
ventilatory rate is 16 breaths/min. Breath sounds are clear
and his tidal volume is adequate. His SpO2 on room air is
88%.

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You have started an IV and placed the patient on the
cardiac monitor, which reveals the following rhythm:

This rhythm can best be described as a:

A. Regular, polymorphic, wide-QRS tachycardia.
B. Regular, monomorphic, wide-QRS tachycardia.
C. Irregular, polymorphic, wide-QRS tachycardia.
D. Irregular, monomorphic, wide-QRS tachycardia

37. C. Pulseless A 72-year-old woman presented with a sudden onset of

electrical activity shortness of breath and collapsed. After confirming the
(PEA) patient was unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless, CPR
was begun.
Which of the following ACLS treatment guidelines should
be used in the initial treatment of this patient?
A. Symptomatic bradycardia
B. Narrow-QRS tachycardia
C. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
D. ACSs

38. C. Give 1 mg of A 72-year-old woman presented with a sudden onset of

epinephrine IV. shortness of breath and collapsed. After confirming the
patient was unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless, CPR
was begun.
An IV has been established and the patient is being
ventilated with a bag-mask device (BMD). You observe
gentle bilateral chest rise with ventilations. Your next action
should be to:
A. Defibrillate immediately.
B. Give 0.5 mg of atropine IV.
C. Give 1 mg of epinephrine IV.
D. Begin transcutaneous pacing.

39. C. This patient A 73-year-old woman presents with symptoms of acute

is not a can- stroke 3.5 hours after symptom onset. She has a history
didate for fib- of an acute MI 6 years ago, chronic atrial fibrillation, and
rinolytic therapy diabetes mellitus. The patient'sBPis 168/100 mmHg, her
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because she is heart rateis 88 to 100 beats/min, and her ventilations are
taking an oral an- 12 breaths/min. Her National Institutes of Health Stroke
ticoagulant. Scale (NIHSS) score is 22. Daily medications include
lisinopril, metformin, and warfarin. Which of the following
statements with regard to fibrinolytic therapy for this pa-
tient is true?
A. This patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy
because of her age.
B. This patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy
because she is hypertensive.
C. This patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy
because she is taking an oral anticoagulant.
D. This patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy
because too much time has lapsed between symptom
onset and hospital arrival.

40. B. Procainamide Which of the following is true with regard to procainamide?

may cause A. Procainamide is a potent vasoconstrictor.
widening of the B. Procainamide may cause widening of the QRS com-
QRS complex. plex.
C. Procainamide is indicated in the treatment of asystole
and slow PEA.
D. Procainamide is a first-line drug in the management of
torsades de pointes (TdP).

41. B. 40% to 60% A BMD that is used with supplemental oxygen set at a flow
rate of 10 to 15 L/min delivers about _____oxygen to the
patient when a reservoir is not used.
A. 21%
B. 40% to 60%
C. 60% to 90%
D. 90% to 100%

42. C. Administer 12 A 35-year-old woman presents with a narrow-QRS tachy-

mg of adenosine cardia. She is stable but symptomatic. Vagal maneuvers
rapid IV push and an initial dose of adenosine were ineffective. You
should now:
A. Perform synchronized cardioversion.
B. Administer 6 mg of adenosine rapid IV push.

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C. Administer 12 mg of adenosine rapid IV push.
D. Administer diltiazem 0.25 mg/kg IV over 2 minutes.

43. D. A BMD with A patient is unresponsive with spontaneous ventilations at

a reservoir at 15 a rate of 4 per minute. Chest movement is barely visible
L/min with each breath. A pulse is present. Which of thefollowing
oxygen delivery devices would be most appropriate to use
in this situation?
A. A nasal cannula at 4 L/min
B. A simple face mask at 6 L/min
C. A nonrebreather mask at 12 L/min
D. A BMD with a reservoir at 15 L/min

44. C. The patient If a patient wakes from sleep or is found with symptoms of
was last known a stroke, the time of onset of symptoms is defined as the
to be symp- time:
tom-free. A. Of awakening.
B. The patient retired for sleep.
C. The patient was last known to be symptom-free.
D. The patient was last seen by a health care professional.

45. B. Bradycardia The most common adverse effects of giving amiodarone

and hypotension. are:
A. Nausea and asystole.
B. Bradycardia and hypotension.
C. Tachycardia and hypertension.
D. Blurred vision and abdominal pain.

46. A. CPR and defib- A 49-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing,
rillation. and pulseless. The cardiac monitor reveals monomorphic
ventricular tachycardia. The most important actions in the
management of this patient are:
A. CPR and defibrillation.
B. Defibrillation and resuscitation medications.
C. CPR and prompt insertion of an advanced airway.
D. Synchronized cardioversion and resuscitation medica-
tions.

47. D. To control the Diltiazem may be used:

ventricular rate A. Concurrently with IV beta-blockers.
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with atrial flutter B. In the management of symptomatic bradycardia.
or atrial fibrilla- C. In the management of a stable patient with a wide-QRS
tion. tachycardia.
D. To control the ventricular rate with atrial flutter or atrial
fibrillation.

48. D. Ventilations CPR is ongoing for a 66-year-old man in cardiac arrest.

should be deliv- The cardiac monitor reveals asystole. Vascular access has
ered at a rate of been achieved and an advanced airway has beeninserted.
one breath every Which of the following statements is correct with regard to
6 seconds. this situation?
A. The depth of chest compressions should be 1.5 to 2
inches.
B. Chest compressions should be delivered at a rate of
100 per minute.
C. The ratio of chest compressions to ventilations deliv-
ered should be 30:2.
D. Ventilations should be delivered at a rate of one breath
every 6 seconds.

49. B. Make sure What precautions should be taken before giving NTG?
there is no ev- A. Make sure the patient's heart rate is at least 70
idence of a beats/min.
right ventricular B. Make sure there is no evidence of a right ventricular
infarction. infarction.
C. Make sure the patient's systolic BP is more than 140
mm Hg.
D. Make sure the patient has not used a diuretic or an
antihypertensive medication in the past 24 hours.

50. B. Can only be A simple face mask:

used in a sponta- A. Requires a minimum oxygen flow rate of 2 L/min.
neously breath- B. Can only be used in a spontaneously breathing patient.
ing patient. C. Does not permit the mixing of the patient's exhaled air
with 100% oxygen.
D. Delivers an oxygen concentration of 70% to 85% at
recommended flow rates.

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