Ref Lev Question Answer (a) Answer (b) Answer (b) Ans

7 80Q Maintenance Practices

Safety Precautions -
7.1 3 (6Q) Aircraft and Workshop
Aspects of safe working practices including
7.1 3 precautions to take when working with electricity,
gases especially oxygen, oils and chemicals
Grease and oil should not be stored near oxygen bottles flammable liquids lead-acid
1 7.1 a
batteries
Gas cylinders containing compressed nitrogen are black with a white grey with a black maroon
2 7.1 coloured shoulder shoulder b
Acetylene is kept in: a green bottle. a grey bottle with a a maroon bottle.
3 7.1 black top. c
Gas bottles for carbon dioxide, air and acetylene are grey, maroon, green, grey, black, grey,
4 7.1 coloured respectively; green maroon maroon c
The pressure in a fully charged oxygen or nitrogen 200psi 1000psi 2000psi
5 7.1 cylinder is approximately c
Gas cylinders for carbon dioxide, air and acetylene are grey, maroon, green, grey, black, grey,
6 7.1 coloured respectively; green maroon maroon c
7 7.1 Cylinders containing inert gases are colour-coded bright green grey red b
a mixture of
8 7.1 Cylinders marked with concentric bands of different highly toxic or gases with more oxygen and b
colours contain corrosive gases than one property nitrogen
Smoking in the workplace is allowed only in not allowed allowed only
designated, marked when there are
9 7.1 areas no aircraft a
parked within
100 feet
To avoid dropping tools in confined spaces you should work in pairs work only in places attach the tools
where dropped to your arm with
10 7.1 items can be easily a piece of string. c
recovered

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 Why must you take extra precaution with loose articles They could make a They could damage They could get
in your pockets when working on the flight line? hole in your an aircraft engine or lost and be
11 7.1 b
overalls. equipment. difficult to
replace.
The bottoms, or soles, of your safety shoes should not fire, caused by electric shock, back injury,
have nails or any metallic objects inserted in them. This sparks igniting a caused by damage caused by
is to prevent: flammable to the insulating carrying excess
12 7.1 substance, and material, and weight, and a
damage to the dangerous fumes. corrosion.
aircraft.
Hearing damage is cumulative. This means that can be very will also affect your don't always
hearing problems: serious, but they eyesight and sense occur
13 7.1 usually go away of smell. immediately but c
after a few months. may affect you
much later in life.
When working in areas where fumes are present from a dust mask. a respirator. dark goggles.
14 7.1 stripping, painting or solvent cleaning, you should b
always wear:
Unsafe acts and unsafe conditions cause accidents. hurrying and taking unguarded using equipment
Examples of unsafe conditions include: dangerous short machinery, slippery or tools without
15 7.1 cuts through the floors and bad the proper b
workplace. lighting. training.
To distinguish between different types of gases, all coded with labelled with plastic colour-coded.
16 7.1 aircraft gas bottles are: numbers and letters identification tags c
Lead-acid batteries are classed as hazardous because battery acid is they can explode at lead is a
17 7.1 corrosive. high altitudes. poisonous a
material
When working with passenger oxygen and the related there is a risk of any oil or grease contaminants in
aircraft systems or components, extreme care must be electric shock. creates an oxygen systems
18 7.1 taken to ensure all tools, clothing and hands are free of unpleasant smell in are potential fire c
grease and oil residual. This is because: the aircraft. or explosion
hazards.
When using compressed air for cleaning in the sound the alarm to check the airflow by protect your eyes
19 7.1 workplace, you must: let everyone know pointing the nozzle and the eyes of c

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 what you are doing. at your hand. others around
you from flying
debris.
If a pneumatic air hose becomes worn at the fitting end: it should not be it could burst and it can only be
kept coiled after cause injury by used for tasks
20 7.1 use. whipping around such as cleaning b
dangerously. the workplace.
In the aircraft maintenance workplace, compressed gas secured to each upright in cylinder in explosion-
21 7.1 cylinders should be stored: other with chains racks proof buildings b
When working with aviation materials, the use of skin problems such eye problems such hearing
22 7.1 approved creams, lotions and gloves helps prevent: as dermatitis. as myopia. problems such a
as tinnitis.
When electricity passes through the human body, it can an increase in heart a drop in body disruption to the
cause: rate and improved temperature and nervous system
23 7.1 mental functions. internal bleeding. and burns at the c
entry and exit
points.
If the insulation on a piece of electrical wiring is arcing compression vibration
24 7.1 damaged, __________ can occur. a
It is important to avoid handling electrical equipment in water acts as an water vapour may water acts as a
places where water has spilled because insulator and cause damage to conductor and
25 7.1 reduces the the equipment. increases the c
equipment's possibility of
efficiency. electric shock.
If a workshop has a good earth leakage detection is not necessary. is difficult to is still required.
26 7.1 system, proper earthing of all electrical equipment: achieve. c
It is good practice to work on aircraft electrical systems take a break while go for help if there clean the tools
in pairs, so that one of you can: the other takes is an accident. and carry the
27 7.1 over. troubleshooting b
manuals.
Flight control balance weights, cabin emergency exit located on the flight sources of linked to a single
28 7.1 signs, weather radar equipment, and HF deck. radiation. electrical circuit. b
communication equipment are all:

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 Flammable material should be kept: together in one for a maximum of 6 a minimum of
29 7.1 clearly-labelled months 100 feet from HF c
container. transmitters
When working around aircraft in the hangar or on the Foreign Object Falling Object Fallen Object
30 7.1 flight line, what do the letters F.O.D. stand for? Damage Damage Damage a
When performing safety wire tasks, (wirelocking): you must always the last, small piece no more than
use 0.020” wire. of twisted wire must two fasteners
be bent under to can be secured
31 7.1 b
prevent injury. together in a
continuous
pattern.
When working with a piece of ____________ welding vibrating rotating
32 7.1 equipment, pull back long hair, and remove neckties, c
jewelry and anything else that could get caught.
When turbine engines are being ground run, there is a the intake and the the fuel control unit the intake and
33 7.1 personal danger from: fuel control unit. and the exhaust. the exhaust. c
Which of the following statements is correct? Lift with your back, Never stand on the Refueling and
not with your legs. top step of a ladder defueling must
34 7.1 to accomplish your be done in the b
job. hangar.
Grease and oil should not be stored near oxygen they might cause the fumes given off consumables
bottles or oxygen system components because: an explosion. by the grease and should never be
35 7.1 oil could cause the stored with parts. a
regulator to
malfunction.
Flammable materials should be stored in a cool area, ventilated shelves an explosion-
normally at the marked as proof cabinet
36 7.1 back of the tool flammable storage. clearly marked c
store. as flammable
storage.
Which of the following items must be stored separately Batteries. Lubricants. Hand tools.
37 7.1 and in a cabinet to prevent fire and to protect them b
from contamination by dust and dirt?

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 When running aircraft engines, ear protection need fire extinguishers there must not
not be worn if the must not be on or be any debris in
engine meets near the ramp area. the area around
38 7.1 current noise the aircraft. c
abatement
standards.
When lifting heavy objects, you should: use your back use your leg use your arm
muscles to provide muscles to provide muscles to
39 7.1 b
lifting power. lifting power. provide lifting
power.
Ear protection must be worn in any overhaul or at all times when when you are
maintenance working in the notified that a
40 7.1 workshop. hangar or work APU or aircraft c
area. engine is about
to be run.
When working in the hangar or in the workshop, eye protection safety shoes ear muffs
41 7.1 ____________ must be worn at all times: b
Smoking is not allowed within a radius of ______ from 10 feet 50 feet 100 feet
42 7.1 an aircraft b
When handling oily or greasy material, you should heat-resistant leather gloves. cotton gloves.
43 7.1 c
wear: gloves.
When handling heavy components or material with rubber gloves. leather gloves. cotton gloves.
44 7.1 sharp edges, you should wear: b
When working with Hands should be protected from the rubber gloves. leather gloves. cotton gloves.
45 7.1 effects of, you should wear: a
During the cleaning of components or contaminated overshoes. lightweight shoes. rubber boots.
46 7.1 floors, you should wear: c
Whenever working on aircraft surfaces such as the overshoes. lightweight shoes. rubber boots.
47 7.1 wings and upper fuselage, you should wear: a
Dark goggles should always be worn when you are: using compressed chiseling, drilling or gas or arc
48 7.1 air. grinding. welding. c
Clear goggles should always be worn when you are: using compressed brazing or working gas or arc
49 7.1 air. in bright light. welding. a

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 A rubber apron should be worn: to protect the body to protect the body when welding,
against sparks and from splashes when deburring and
50 7.1 hot components. hosing and dipping forging. b
components.
Which of the following statements is true? Barrier creams can Bandages can get Abrasive
dry out the natural caught in powders and
51 7.1 fats in your skin and machinery. solvents can be b
cause irritation. used to clean
your skin.
Nitrogen is kept in: a green bottle. a grey bottle with a a maroon bottle.
52 7.1 black top. b
Acetylene is kept in: a green bottle. a grey bottle with a a maroon bottle.
53 7.1 black top. c
Before starting work on a machine for maintenance or remove the fuses. make sure the drive lock the switch of
repair, it is essential to: belt is working. a machine with
54 7.1 individual drive in a
“ON” position.
A layer of __________ is the best shielding against rubber steel lead
55 7.1 radiation. c
56 7.1 Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with tin and silver tin and copper copper and silver c
Gas bottles for carbon dioxide, air and acetylene are grey, maroon, green, grey, black, grey,
57 7.1 coloured respectively; green maroon maroon c
In aircraft maintenance workplaces, nitrogen is used to power pneumatic for gas welding and to inflate tires
tools such as drills cutting thick metal. and shock struts
58 7.1 (windies), spray and for servicing c
guns and rivet accumulators.
guns.
Fuel spillage in a hangar or workshop should be applying absorbent sucking up the fuel drying up the
cleaned up by compound or with an industrial spillage with
59 7.1 flushing with large vacuum cleaner industrial heaters a
amounts of water. and fans
Aviation fluids, chemicals, cleaning solvents and oils stored together in a discarded if not clearly identified,
60 7.1 should be: special building used within one marked and c

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 marked "hazardous month of opening stored in
materials" the container approved
cabinets.
Spontaneous ignition can occur when different create inert gases create toxic liquids cause
61 7.1 materials combine to combustion c
Also, instruction in the remedial action to be taken
in the event of a fire or another accident with one or
7.1 3 more of these hazards, including knowledge on
extinguishing agents.
62 7.1 Class C fires should be extinguished with CO2 an insulated blanket water a
Heavy bleeding caused by accidents should be treated immobilising the washing the wound applying
63 7.1 by injured part of the with warm water pressure to the c
body. and soap wound
If a colleague suffers an electric shock, your first treat the burns keep the person check breathing
priority, after removing the person from the source of caused by the entry warm and and pulse rate
64 7.1 electricity and calling for help, is to: and exit of the comfortable to and give CPR if c
electricity. avoid shock. necessary.
65 7.1 A dry powder extinguisher is colored red green blue c
Class B fires should be extinguished with foam, CO2, or a extinguishers with hydrogen
66 7.1 blanket non-conducting a
nozzles
67 7.1 Applying CO2 to a Class D fire could intensify it will extinguish it is not advisable b
7.2 3 (2Q) Workshop Practices
7.2 3 Care of tools, use of workshop materials;
When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, using a suitably using spreader bars fabricating
68 7.2 the component can be protected from damage by the shaped sling and packing alternative lifting b
sling by points
Specialist tools used for aircraft maintenance should be by all licensed in a central tool only by the Chief
69 7.2 held engineers store Engineer b
Consumable materials used in a workshop should be stored in a fully used before controlled by a
70 7.2 moisture-free being replenished storeman, and c
environment their use

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 recorded
Tools used by aircraft maintenance engineers should individual engineer regulatory authority aircraft
71 7.2 be maintained and controlled to standards set by the manufacturer b
Dimensions, allowances & tolerances, standards of
7.2 3 workmanship;
The difference between the nominal dimension of an allowance tolerance reference
72 7.2 aircraft part and its upper limit is termed its a
The level of dimensional accuracy required when deviation tolerance allowance
73 7.2 manufacturing a component is termed its b
Calibration of tools and equipment, calibration
7.2 3 standards.
Torque wrenches and precision measuring instruments before use, by the at specified periods, monthly, by the
should be calibrated user by an approved storekeeper
74 7.2 calibration b
organisation

7.3 3 (10Q) Tools

7.3 3 Common hand tool types;
Which tools have a firm joint, one straight leg with the Inside calipers Jenny calipers Dividers
75 7.3 point bent inward, and a bent leg with a sharp b
adjustable point?
76 7.3 When swinging a hammer, you should bend the wrist and elbow. elbow only wrist only b
An engineer's ball peen hammer can be used for: shaping soft driving nails and bending or
material and forging large parts. straightening
77 7.3 pounding. thick bars, plates a
and shafts.
78 7.3 Two hands should always be used when using a claw hammer ball peen hammer sledgehammer c
Which type of punch is commonly used to remove Transfer punch. Pin punch. Prick punch.
79 7.3 rivets? b
Which type of chisel must be sharpened with a smooth Carbon tool steel Alloy steel Chamfered steel
80 7.3 file only? b

8
 The cutting edge of a cold chisel is forged and ground 30 to 55 degrees. 50 to 75 degrees. 70 to 85
81 7.3 to a cutting angle of: degrees. b
82 7.3 Which part of a file fits into the handle. heel point tang c
Which of these files are commonly used in aviation? Mill file and half- Vixen file and four- Knife file and
83 7.3 round file. square file. batch file. a
When draw filing, pressure is applied only on the only on the forward on both the
backward stroke. stroke. forward and
84 7.3 b
backward
strokes.
Aviation snips (or shears) that cut to the right: have a green have a yellow have a red
85 7.3 a
handle. handle. handle.
Slip point pliers should be: part of any aircraft used only for used only for
86 7.3 technician’s tool kit. turning nuts. holding things. c
Standard engineer’s pliers, or combination pliers, have a pipe grip two joint cutters side cutting jaws
87 7.3 __________ for shearing off steel wires. b
When not being used, the tension of a hacksaw frame removing the blade loosening the set loosening the
88 7.3 should be released by screw wing nut c
In all types of hacksaws, the blade is fitted with the facing away from facing towards facing the same
89 7.3 teeth __________ the handle. direction as a
You should only use _____________ as an an open-end a ratcheting box- an open-end ring
90 7.3 “emergency tool” when the correct spanner is not adjustable spanner end spanner spanner a
available.
A socket wrench being used in a restricted area should speed handle. ratchet handle. sliding T-handle
91 7.3 be fitted with a b
When the force applied to a nut or bolt is critical, you a torque wrench. an Allen wrench or an adjustable
92 7.3 should use: Allen key. wrench. a
Which of the following screwdrivers is shaped like the Dumpy screwdiver. Star point Offset
93 7.3 letter “S”? screwdriver. screwdriver. c
94 7.3 Drill bits are secured in drilling machines by their body. shank. flute b
When drilling a pilot hole for a reamer, the hole should 0.001 to 0.002 0.001 to 0.002 0.001 to 0.002
95 7.3 be about _____________ than the reamer. inches smaller inches larger times smaller a
Keeping tools ________________ ensures that missing in a locked cabinet on a shadow board under the
96 7.3 tools are noticed at a quick glance. workbench b

9
 When fitting a replacement hacksaw blade, the new towards the user away from the user either direction,
blade's teeth should face not dependent
97 7.3 b
on safety or
efficiency of saw
The most appropriate instrument for checking the spring joint calliper jenny calliper vernier calliper
98 7.3 setting of an adjustable reamer is a c
Which grinding wheel should be used to sharpen a Fine Medium Coarse
99 7.3 HSS drill bit? a
The tap used to fit a Helicoil should be the same as the the next size up the tap supplied
100 7.3 original thread size from the original tap with the Helicoil c
size kit
When using the old style vernier caliper for taking add the nib subtract the nib the nib size has
101 7.3 internal measurements measurements measurements no relevance and a
can be ignored
How many teeth per inch are there on a fine hacksaw 16 32 64
102 7.3 blade? b
A stud broken off below the surface is removed by using a stud box cutting a slot in it a stud remover
103 7.3 and removing with tool fitted into a c
a screwdriver drilled hole
How many strokes per minute should be used with a 30 55 60
104 7.3 hacksaw? a
Expanding reamers are used to ream holes in metal ream holes of ream tapered
that has been different diameters holes
105 7.3 heated by adjusting the b
position of the
blades
The "pitch" of a hacksaw blade refers to its length the total number of the number of
106 7.3 teeth on the blade teeth per inch c
Reamers are used to drill accurate holes enlarge holes to to make holes
107 7.3 accurate oversize b
dimensions
A rivet shaver is used to mill the head flush mill the tail after mill the tail after
108 7.3 setting cutting a

10
 How many strokes per minute are used on a hacksaw 30 55 65
109 7.3 when cutting thick metal? a
A typical hacksaw blade used for cutting hard metal will 26 36 54
110 7.3 have________teeth per inch. b
The correct lubricant to use with a reamer is the same lubricant silicon grease carborundum
111 7.3 that was used on paste a
the drill bit
Threads are cut in a blind hole by using a bottoming tap tapered reamer bottoming
112 7.3 a
reamer
7.3 3 Common power tool types;
When using a pneumatic hand tool, the chuck key attaching it to the placing it in your placing it in its
113 7.3 should be kept safe by tool or tool cord pocket. correct place in a
with string. the tool store
When fitting a plug to an electrical tool, the live wire is green and yellow blue brown
114 7.3 coloured c
7.3 3 Operation and use of precision measuring tools;
If a castellated nut does not line up with a split pin hole, secured with a tab slightly slackened slightly tightened
after it has been fully torqued, it should be washer to align the holes beyond its torque
115 7.3 setting to align c
the holes.
If the pointer of a beam-type torque wrench shows a it can be used but it must not be used the scale should
slight deflection before being used the deflection must be adjusted to
116 7.3 be taken into read zero before b
account when use
reading it.
Torque loading is carried out to provide as tight a joint as flexibility sufficient
117 7.3 possible clamping without c
overstressing
When torque loading, a wrench should be selected at the top end of the at the bottom end of in the middle of
118 7.3 where the required value falls range the range the range a
119 7.3
120 7.3 The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is 0.5 mm 0.02 mm 1.mm a

11
 One revolution of the thimble of the English micrometer 0.040" 0.001" 0.025"
121 7.3 produces a linear movement of the spindle of c
The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as micrometer bevel protractor vernier caliper
122 7.3 c
the
The main scale on a 24/25 vernier caliper is divided into inches, tenths and inches, tenths and inches, tenths
123 7.3 fortieths twentieths and thousandths a
Micrometers are read by combining the measurements frame thimble spindle
124 7.3 indicated on the sleeve and the b
125 7.3 An Imperial micrometer measures to an accuracy of 1 micron 0.0025" 0.001" c
Measurements with the outside micrometer are made thimble. frame. anvil.
126 7.3 between the movable contact face of the spindle and c
the fixed contact called the:
When reading a micrometer, the actual reading is taken frame. thimble. spindle.
127 7.3 from two scales. One is located on the sleeve or barrel b
and the other is located on the:
Measurements from an Imperial micrometer are hundredths of an microns thou
128 7.3 verbally expressed in inch (thousandths of c
an inch)
If the results of your measuring with an Imperial one hundredth of one hundred one ten
129 7.3 micrometer produced a reading of 0.010", you would an inch. thousandths of an thousandth of an a
verbally state this as: inch. inch.
The line increments, or pitch, on the sleeve of the 0.0025" 0.025" 0.25mm
130 7.3 Imperial micrometer are: b
When using an Imperial micrometer, four revolutions of 1mm 0.010" 0.100"
131 7.3 the thimble represents: c
The purpose of the ratchet on the thimble of a ensure an even indicate when the provide a means
micrometer is to pressure for each proper torque has to "lock in" the
132 7.3 measurement. been achieved. measurement a
obtained.
133 7.3 The main scale on a Vernier caliper is marked on the: lock. jaw. beam. c

12
 A Feeler Gauge, a Radius Gauge and a Thread Pitch are all used to all consist of a all consist of a
Gauge: check flat surfaces spindle, a scriber number of steel
134 7.3 accurately. and a fine adjusting leaves that fold c
screw. into a handle.
Which tool can be used to measure holes ranging in hole gauge telescopic gauge combination set
135 7.3 size from 1/2” to 6 inches? b
The Vernier Caliper can be used to measure outside width and outside width and outside width,
136 7.3 inside width only. depth only. inside width and c
depth.
The bore of a cylinder is measured by a depth micrometer. an internal precision
137 7.3 micrometer. calipers b
The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into 50 equal divisions 25 equal divisions 40 equal
138 7.3 a
divisions
The vernier scale on an English micrometer is divided 50 equal divisions 25 equal divisions 40 equal
139 7.3 into divisions b
The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer 0.050 in 0.0001 in 0.025 in
140 7.3 is c
7.3 3 Lubrication equipment and methods.
141 7.3 The primary purpose of lubricating oil is to reduce wear prevent corrosion reduce heat a
Dry-film lubricant is normally applied with a hand-operated a pneumatic grease an aerosol or
142 7.3 grease gun gun paint brush c

Operation, function and use of electrical general Previously Mod

7.3 3 test equipment; 7C
When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest
143 7.3 coil shunt bushes b
amount of current flows through the
limit the voltage divert current
dampen movement
144 7.3 Shunt resistors are used in moving coil ammeters to applied to the meter away from the c
of the pointer
coil meter coil
145 7.3 The sensitivity of a voltmeter is measured in ohms per ampere ohms per volt volts per ampere b
The correct instrument to measure the forward/reverse
146 7.3 an ohmmeter a megger an ammeter a
resistance of a silicon diode is

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 The voltage output of a megger used to check mains-
147 7.3 500V DC 250V DC 250V AC a
operated appliances is approximately
mid-point
full-scale deflection
Before measuring resistance with a multimeter, it zero with short deflection with a
148 7.3 with open circuit b
should be adjusted for circuited probes known value of
probes
resistor
digital multimeter
The most accurate instrument for measuring resistance
149 7.3 on its lowest range safety ohmmeter bonding tester c
values of less than 1 ohm is
setting
the circuit must be power must be
150 7.3 When using a voltmeter for troubleshooting, power must be off. c
isolated. on.
at least the same
less than the
When selecting an insulation tester its output voltage twice that of the voltage as that
151 7.3 circuit voltage b
must be: circuit voltage. used in the circuit
under test.
under test.
reduces the
increases the
overall
current flowing extends the voltage
152 7.3 A shunt resistor used with a moving coil instrument: resistance at the c
through the meter range of the meter.
terminals of the
movement.
instrument
voltages higher
A multiplier resistor is used to convert a moving coil currents higher than
153 7.3 than full scale a.c. currents. a
meter to read: full scale deflection.
deflection.
checked for
polarity to ensure
Before using an ohmmeter to test components in an
154 7.3 switched off switched on that it will not a
electrical circuit, the power in that circuit should be
damage the
instrument
provides opposing provides
The aluminium former supporting the coil of a moving ensures that the
155 7.3 torque for meter damping of the c
coil meter: movement is linear.
movement. movement.
A voltmeter has a 2% error on a 100 V range. If the
156 7.3 meter reads 50 volts, the correct value of the voltage 48 - 52 volts. 49 - 51 volts. 49.5 - 5-.5 volts. b
lies between:

14
 Current to the moving coil of an analogue measuring slip rings in the brushes on the the control
157 7.3 c
instrument is applied via: armature. armature. springs.
A Bonding tester operates using two leads. When the
in the current coil in the voltage coil through both
158 7.3 double pronged lead has its prongs shorted together by c
only. only. coils in series.
metal other than the second lead, current flows:
159 7.3
If both the static and test leads of a bonding tester are
160 7.3 be zero be a maximum not change a
shorted together, the reading on the instrument will
A typical value obtained using an insulation resistance
161 7.3 tester to measure the impedance of a serviceable 50 Megohms. 50 ohms. 0.05 ohms. a
length of single core cable to ground would be:
If the leads of a megger are held apart the spring will if the handle was the spring will
162 7.3 return the needle to turned the meter return the needle
the zero stop would read infinity to infinity b
7.4 2 (1Q) Avionic General Test Equipment
The efficiency of a coaxial transmission line is forward and impedance and
163 7.4 voltage and current b
calculated by comparing its reflected power resistance
The timebase control on an oscilloscope controls the
164 7.4 the vertical axis. the horizontal axis. both axis. b
movement of the spot on the screen in:
forward and reverse
RF power
impedance of RF power passing
165 7.4 Thruline wattmeters are used to measure the transmitted by an b
transmission lines down RF
antenna
transmission lines
The efficiency of an RF transmission line is usually
166 7.4 thruline wattmeter 500V megger bonding tester a
measured with a
Engineering Drawings,
7.5 2 (8Q) Diagrams and Standards
Drawing types and diagrams, their symbols,
7.5 2 dimensions, tolerances and projections;
The internal relationships between components of sectional view orthographic schematic
167 7.5 complex assemblies are best illustrated by drawings projection diagrams a

15
 The more conventional method of showing dimensions perpendicular to the at the same angle parallel to the
168 7.5 on an aircraft drawing is to write them dimension lines as the surfaces bottom edge of c
they relate to the drawing
What type of drawing projection shows one face of an Orthographic Oblique Isometric
169 7.5 object in its true shape and a second face at either 30° b
or 45° to the horizontal?
In aviation engineering drawings, a line of short dashes leader lines or centre lines. hidden outlines
170 7.5 is used to indicate visible edges. or edges. c
In an aviation engineering drawing, a thin "chain" line a center line. a hidden edge. a visible outline.
171 7.5 would indicate: a
In an aviation engineering drawing, a medium-thick center lines. visible edges and hidden outlines.
172 7.5 continuous line indicates: outlines. b
Whenever possible, the dimension lines of an aviation inside across outside
173 7.5 engineering drawing are to be placed ________ the c
actual outline of the object.
An aircraft drawing of scale 1:4 is four times larger one fourth the four centimeters
174 7.5 than actual size. actual size. for one meter. b
What color is used to identify primary structures on an yellow green red
175 7.5 aircraft engineering diagram or drawing? c
For this question use image 3) This symbol found on an cylindricity concentricity angularity
176 7.5 engineering drawing would mean c
Design drawings of aircraft components are produced CAA in accordance British Standards SBAC
177 7.5 by organizations approved by with the BCAR’s Institute a
The term "GA" on an installation drawing means general general assembly general aspects
178 7.5 a
arrangement
179 7.5 The width of a visible outline on a drawing is 0.3 mm 0.5 mm 0.7 mm c
(For this question use image 4) This drawing indicates a blind hole a countersunk hole a counterbored
180 7.5 a
hole
The dimensions on an engineering drawing with a scale 16 times smaller 4 times smaller 4 times larger
181 7.5 of 1:4 are than the item than the item than the item b

16
 An orthographic projection usually shows three, two- one, three- a pictorial view of
182 7.5 dimensional views dimensional view of the object a
of an object an object
183 7.5 Hatching lines are usually drawn at 45° 30° 60° a
If a design amendment is made on a drawing the old issue a new issue no change in
number is retained, number and date issue number or
184 7.5 with the must be allocated date is b
amendment date to the drawing necessary
added
Which pictorial projection shows one face in true oblique perspective isometric
185 7.5 elevation and line of depth normally draw at 30° or 45° a
to the horizontal
Drawing numbers are unique to each changed after each the same as
186 7.5 drawing drawing amended serial numbers a
after May 28,1999
When dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines the minimum as many only size
should be number of dimensions as dimensions
dimensions possible
187 7.5 necessary to a
enable the
component to be
manufactured
2 Identifying title block information;
In an aircraft drawing, the signature of the person left of the title in the bottom left in the top right
189 7.5 responsible for the design of the part is usually placed corner corner a
Microfilm, microfiche and computerised
2 presentation;
Aircraft manuals that are published in CD-ROM form allow easier access are more useful take up less
to various parts of since they can be storage space
the manual than used with a but are more
190 7.5 paper, microfiche or computer or a difficult to use a
microfilm forms microfiche and than paper,
microfilm reader microfiche or
microfilm forms

17
 Specification 100 of the Air Transport Association
2 (ATA) of America;
The international standard for the layout of aircraft International Civil Federal Aviation Air Transport
manuals is specified by the Aviation Authority (FAA) Association of
191 7.5 c
Organisation America (ATA)
(ICAO)
The standards for the layout of aircraft illustrated parts International Civil aircraft design Air Transport
catalogues (IPCs) are specified by the Aviation authority Association of
192 7.5 c
Organisation America (ATA)
(ICAO)
Specification 100 of the Air Transport Association of standard procedures which international
America, (ATA 100) contains procedures for must be complied standards for
amending aircraft with before an aircraft
manuals and aircraft can be maintenance
documentation. given a Certificate manuals,
193 7.5 of Airworthiness in illustrated parts c
the Transport catalogues,
Category overhaul and
(Passenger) repair manuals,
service bulletins
and letters
ATA 100 is organized into two levels:- four levels:- three levels:-
Unit/Subject; Group; Group,
194 7.5 Subsystem/Section System/Chapter; System, b
Subsystem/Section; Page
Unit/Subject.
ATA 100 numbering format is laid out in a three Group Unit/Subject System/Chapter
195 7.5 element format i.e. "28-40-01". The first element "28" c
refers to:
ATA 100 prescribes blocks of pages for certain topics 'Description and 'Certification' pages 'Modifications'
such as: operation' pages 1 501 to 599 pages 201 to
196 7.5 to 99 'Maintenance 299 a
'Troubleshooting' Practices' pages 'Testing' pages
pages 101 to 199 201 to 299 501 to 599

18
 ATA 100 warnings are used to emphasise practices cause damage to cause personal limit the
197 7.5 that could equipment if not injury or death if not operational use b
followed correctly strictly observed. of an aircraft
Aeronautical and other applicable standards
7.5 2 including ISO, AN, MS, NAS, & MIL;
Standards and specifications for aircraft hardware are regulatory authority design authority operator
198 7.5 generally set by the b
In the identification process for specifications and military standard mechanical military
199 7.5 standards of aircraft hardware, the designation MS standards specifications a
refers to what?
In the identification process for specifications and Army - Navy Air Force - Navy Aviation Nitriding
200 7.5 standards of aircraft hardware, the designation AN b
refers to what?
In the identification process for specifications and National Aerospace Naval Aviation Naval Aircraft
201 7.5 standards of aircraft hardware, the designation NAS Standard Standards Specifications a
refers to
Aircraft items identified with the prefix AS comply with Aviation Air Force Standards Aeronautical
202 7.5 Specifications Standards c
In the identification process for specifications and military metals in latent materials in
203 7.5 standards of aircraft hardware, the designation MIL specifications heat liquid a
refers to what?
In the identification process for specifications and the grade of metal society of standard aviation
standards of aircraft hardware, the designation SAE used in the automotive explanations
204 7.5 refers to what? manufacturing engineers b
process

19
 All aircraft materials and hardware must be to a standard size to a standard of to a standard
manufactured quality for which shape (length
specifications have and density)
been established
205 7.5 and whose b
manufacture the
regulatory body
approves

7.5 2 Wiring diagrams and schematic diagrams.

Schematic drawings are normally used to show in a parts manual. to show how an
206 7.5 dimensions. aircraft system c
operates.
7.6 2 (2Q) Fits and Clearances
7.6 2 Drill sizes for bolt holes, classes of fits;
207 7.6 The cutting angle of a general-purpose drill is usually 130° 59° 12° b
208 7.6 The best drills for carbon fibre are carburundum tungsten carbide diamond tipped c
When drilling out a rivet, the drill bit should be same size as the larger than the hole smaller than the
209 7.6 hole hole c
210 7.6 What is a drill cutting angle? 59° 12° - 15° 125° - 135° a
211 7.6 The web angle of a twist drill is 59° 12° 130° c
212 7.6 The holes in a drill and wire gauge are numbered 1 to 50 1 to 80 10 to 60 b
The normal drill angles are cutting angle cutting angle cutting angle
130°,web angle 59° 59°,web angle 130° 12°,web angle
213 7.6 and clearance and clearance 130° and b
angle 12° angle 12° clearance angle
130°
7.6 2 Common system of fits and clearances;
Whenever possible the head of the aviation bolt must upwards or downwards or upwards or in the
214 7.6 be installed rearwards rearwards forward position c
Shrink fit parts are assembled by heating both and freezing one and using a hide-
215 7.6 then using a heating the other faced hammer b
hydraulic press

20
 A transition fit is suitable for bolts required for plain when both
holding parts bearings clearance and
216 7.6 together interference c
might occur
together
Bearings that require specific distances between a clearance fit a transition fit an interference
217 7.6 moving parts are assembled with fit a
Schedule of fits and clearances for aircraft and
7.6 2 engines;
7.6
7.6 2 Limits for bow, twist and wear;
218 7.6 The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube or strut is 1:400 1:600 1:200 b
Standard methods for checking shafts, bearings
7.6 2 and other parts.
Run-out checks on shafts are carried out by using a DTI and 'V' blocks a ball bearing and a a surface plate
219 7.6 micrometer and a three leg a
trammel
7.7 2 (8Q) Electrical Cables and Connectors
Continuity, insulation and bonding techniques and Previously Mod
7.7 2
testing; 7C
the applied
voltage should
the cable assembly the other end of the
When carrying out insulation tests between two wires in not exceed the
220 7.7 should be wires should be a
the same bundle normal operating
electrically isolated connected together
voltage of the
wires
The insulation resistance of of an electrical cable increased relative decreased relative decrease in
221 7.7 a
decreases with humidity humidity cable length
transistorised
Which of the following should not be checked with a radio antennae
222 7.7 equipment wiring electronic b
megger? feeder cables
equipment
What type of check would be used to find a high a continuity
223 7.7 a bonding check a milli-volt drop test c
resistance or open circuit on a cable assembly? check

21
 To carry out an insulation test on a wire rated at 115
224 7.7 500 volts 250 volts 115 volts b
volts the test voltage should be a minimum of
Continuity testing on aircraft electrical cables is
225 7.7 a megger an ohmmeter a bonding tester b
normally carried out using
Bonding resistance between aircraft primary structures less than 50
226 7.7 1 ohm 0.1 ohms c
is typically milliohms
What type of test is used to ensure that all parts of an
227 7.7 Bonding test. Continuity test. Insulation test a
aircraft are at the same electrical potential?
The insulation resistance of an electrical wire is
228 7.7 a megger a bonding tester an ohmmeter a
measured with
If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted zero full scale deflection off-scale high
229 7.7 together, the meter would read a
The leads of a bonding tester have critical lengths are supplied in 60 are
and the resistance foot and 6 foot interchangeable,
of the leads is lengths but can be one 60 foot long
230 7.7 accounted for varied due to wear having two a
prongs and a 6
foot one with a
single prong
A 250 volt megger should not be used on fuel tanks sensors electronic radio aerials
231 7.7 b
equipment
To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out a bonding check a milli-volt drop test a continuity
232 7.7 c
check
Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the continuity, bonding, functional, bonding, bonding,
following order functional, continuity, continuity,
233 7.7 c
insulation insulation insulation,
functional
The insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage 10 megohms 5 megohms 2 megohms
234 7.7 wheel wells should normally be not less than c
The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft 0.001 ohms 0.01 ohms 0.05 ohms
235 7.7 primary structure should be c
The maximum value of bonding of a secondary 1 kilohm 1 megohm 1 ohm
236 7.7 structure is c

22
 When carrying out insulation tests between two wires in the cable assembly the other end of the the applied
the same bundle should be wires should be voltage should
electrically isolated connected together not exceed the
237 7.7 a
normal operating
voltage of the
wires
The insulation resistance of of an electrical cable is directly proportional inversely not affected by
238 7.7 to relative humidity proportional to relative humidity b
relative humidity
Which of the following should not be checked with a fuel tank sensors transistorised radio aerials
239 7.7 megger? electronic b
equipment
What type of check would be used to find a high a bonding check a milli-volt drop test a continuity
240 7.7 resistance or open circuit on a cable assembly? check c
To carry out an insulation test on a wire rated at 115 500 volts 250 volts 115 volts
241 7.7 volts the test voltage should be a minimum of b
Continuity testing on aircraft electrical cables is a megger an ohmmeter a bonding tester
242 7.7 normally carried out with b
Bonding resistance between aircraft primary structures 1 ohm 0.01 ohms less than 50
243 7.7 is typically milliohms c
What type of test is used to ensure that all parts of an Bonding test. Continuity test. Insulation test
244 7.7 aircraft are at the same electrical potential? a
7.7 2 Use of crimp tools: hand and hydraulic operated;
using different
varying the torque
The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG changing the colored crimping
245 7.7 applied to the b
crimping tool can be changed by position of the pins pliers and
handles
terminations
A Go/No-Go test A ratchet
What feature of a hand-operated crimping tool ensures Interchangeable
246 7.7 carried out at mechanism in c
that pressure is applied consistently to joints? turret heads.
regular intervals the handles.
Which of the following crimping tools would be used for AMP hand Hydraulically Erma Buchanan
247 7.7 b
wire size AWG 6? operated. operated hand operated

23
 When crimping a wire to a terminal, the conductor
248 7.7 should protrude beyond the crimp barrel by a maximum 3/16 inch 1/64 inch 1 mm a
of
249 7.7 Red Amp crimping pliers are used with wire sizes of 22 to 16 AWG 26 to 22 AWG 16 to 14 AWG a
with the jaws after the jaws
Crimping tools are checked by inserting a GO/NO-GO with the jaws of the
250 7.7 partially open then have been c
gauge between the dies tool fully open
closing them fully closed fully
Crimping tools in regular use should be inspected for
once every three
251 7.7 good working order and that their dies are free from once a month once a year b
months
damage and foreign matter
When attaching a terminal to the end of a Copper wire, Either Copper or Aluminum Copper
252 7.7 you must ensure that the terminal is made from: Aluminum for c
aircraft wiring.
When stripping insulation from 6 AWG aluminum wire 4 Nicked, none 2 Nicked, none None Nicked and
253 7.7 how many strands of wire are allowed to be nicked or broken broken none broken c
broken ?
Before attaching a wire to a terminal, the wire must be A tool which both A multipurpose wire A tool which has
stripped. Which of the following wire stripping tools is grips the wire stripper, that can various cutters
approved for aircraft use: insulation while strip a variety of with different
254 7.7 stripping it, and has wire sizes and can wire sizes a
various cutters with be adjusted with a marked on them.
different wire sizes movable stop.
marked on them.

When using crimp splices to join several broken wires Ensure that the Stagger the splices Use only Teflon
in a wire bundle you must: splices are not and locate them on coated splices.
255 7.7 located in an area the outside of the b
of high vibration. bundle.
Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends of a cable twisted lightly in the straightened out tightly twisted
256 7.7 should be direction of the lay a

24
 The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG varying the torque changing the using different
crimping tool can be changed by applied to the position of the pins colored crimping
257 7.7 handles pliers and b
terminations
7.7 2 Testing of crimp joints;

The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the crimp is the correct tool was the correct
258 7.7 the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates properly formed used to crimp the connector has b
whether connector. been used

electrical
259 7.7 Crimped joints are tested for electrical efficiency by millivolt drop tests pull-off checks a
continuity tests
measuring the
diameter of the checking the colour checking the dot
An inspector can check that the correct AMP crimping
260 7.7 crimped connection of the terminal code on the c
tool has been used by:
with a go/ no-go insulation. terminal barrel.
gauge
is serviceable as is serviceable, but
If the dot code on a crimped termination you have just long as the wire will you must squeeze should not be
261 7.7 c
made is not visible, the termination not pull out of the the tool harder next used
terminal time
check that at least 5 test the electrical
establish the
The millivolt drop test is used on new cable looms prior millivolts is dropped efficiency of a
262 7.7 continuity of each c
to installation to: across each crimped
connection.
connection. connector.
After repairing a cable harness, the electrical efficiency bonding or
263 7.7 of crimped connections should be checked by carrying dead weight test. continuity test on millivolt drop test c
out a the cable.
After crimping a terminal, you must inspect the terminal Test the security of Ensure that the Looking at the
as follows: the crimp by pulling stripped portion of rear of the
it while holding the the wire protrudes terminal ensure
264 7.7 c
wire, ensure that slightly out of the the crimp has
the stripped portion front of the crimped close correctly
of the wire area. around the wire

25
 protrudes slightly insulation and
out of the front of test the security
the crimped area. of the crimp by
pulling it while
holding the wire,
ensurealso that
the stripped
portion of the
wire protrudes
slightly out of the
fr
The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the crimp is the correct tool was the correct
265 7.7 the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates properly formed used to effect the connector has b
that connection been used
Crimped connections are checked for mechanical
266 7.7 insulation checks continuity checks pull-off checks c
security by carrying out
7.7 2 Connector pin removal and insertion;
released from
released from the released from rear
the front and
267 7.7 In a front release connector the pins are front and extracted and extracted from a
extracted from
from the rear the front
the front
sealed with potting sealed with
268 7.7 Unused positions in a multi-pin connector should be connected to earth c
compound blanking pins
With a rear release connecter, the pin will be released from the released from the released from
front and extracted rear and extracted the rear and
269 7.7 b
from the rear from the rear extracted from
the front
In a front release connector the pin will be released from the released from rear released from
front and extracted and extracted from the front and
270 7.7 a
from the rear the front extracted from
the front
Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin connector fitted with pins fitted with blanks left open
271 7.7 should be b

26
 What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract 12 - 10 22 - 18 16
272 7.7 tool be used on? c
What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert / extract 12 - 10 20 16 - 14
273 7.7 tool be used on? b
What gauge of pin would a large yellow plastic insert / 12 - 10 22 - 18 16 - 14
274 7.7 extract tool be used on? a
What gauge of pin would a small yellow plastic insert / 12 22 16 - 14
275 7.7 extract tool be used on? b
Co-axial cables: testing and installation
7.7 2 precautions;
audio frequency
mixing them in the
When fitting co-axial cables in an aircraft, special interference from altering their
276 7.7 same bundle as c
precautions must be taken to avoid communications impedance
unshielded wires
equipment.
increased
Over-tightening the securing clamps on co-axial an impedance reduced current
277 7.7 interference from a
transmission lines could cause mismatch carrying capacity
radio equipment
When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables avoid distortion to distortion of the the clamps must
the co-axial cable to outer sheath is be no more than
278 7.7 maintain the allowed providing 1 meter apart a
dielectric constant the inner cable is
not affected
When incorporating an aerial cable it must be in the center of the outside the other positioned
279 7.7 other wires wires for easy separately from c
access the loom
too close to with clamps which
The efficiency of co-axial cables can be impaired if they with tight-radius
280 7.7 screened twisted are not fully c
are installed bends
pair cables tightened
Wiring protection techniques: Cable looming and
loom support, cable clamps, protective sleeving
7.7 2 techniques including heat shrink wrapping,
shielding.

27
 high-
glass fibre,
In areas where the temperature is typically 260°C, wire heat shrink temperature,
281 7.7 electrical insulation c
bundles should be tied with wrapping tape pressure-
tape
sensitive tape
When fitting heat shrink sleeving to connectors, its 70% of the 1.4 times the
the diameter of the
282 7.7 recovered diameter should not be less than diameter of the diameter of the b
connector
approximately connector connector
areas of possible areas subject to
Cable looms in aircraft should be routed such that they unpressurised
283 7.7 contamination from high levels of a
avoid areas of the aircraft
fluids and vapours condensation
wherever the
within six inches of
Where possible, wire bundles in aircraft should be every six inches bundle is
284 7.7 their terminating b
supported by cable clamps along their length subjected to
points.
vibration
A common method of protecting aircraft cables from lay them in ducted bind them with oil- run them through
285 7.7 c
contamination by oils and hydraulic fluids is to looms resistant tape. conduits
tape approved for
Cables in areas where temperatures may exceed self clinching cable glass fibre
286 7.7 continuous b
250°F should be secured by straps insulating tape
operation at 500°F
sealing the holes
Cable bundles that pass through an unpressurised
287 7.7 grommets with potting "P" clips a
bulkhead are protected from abrasion damage by
compound
What is the minimum bending radius of a wire bundle, 10 Times the outer 10 Times the radius 5 Times the
288 7.7 to avoid excessive stress on the insulation ? diameter of the of the bundle. outer diameter of a
bundle. the bundle.
Wire bundles are held together with either wax lacing A Tie-Strap Wax lacing Cord. A Tie-Strap
cord or Tie-Straps. When holding wire bundles together complying with MS- complying with
289 7.7 in areas were the temperature is likely to exceed 120 17821 MS-17822 b
deg C or were high vibration might exist you should
use:

28
 Cable clamps are used to support wire bundles running At an angle of not Above Below
through the aircraft. When installing a cable clamp on a greater than 15 deg
290 7.7 vertical member the loop of the clamp should always be from the vertical. c
________________ the mounting screw.
If a wire bundle must pass through a bulkhead, what as 1/4 Inch 1/2 Inch 1/8 Inch
a general rule, is the minimum clearance required
291 7.7 between the bulkhead and the bundle, if no grommet is a
installed ?
If an aircraft wire bundle must run near fuel, oil, or To the top of the Above the fluid line Below the fluid
292 7.7 hydraulic lines then the wire bundles must be secured fluid line. line. b
_____________ .
Shielded wires are often grounded to the airframe at This ensures that This prevents the In circuits
only one end:- static build-up in the creation of a circuit carrying high
shielded wire will for current to travel current loads.
293 7.7 have to travel along through the b
the shield in only airframe and back
one direction. around the shield.
A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at 10 times the 3 times the 5 times the
294 7.7 the other end should have a bend radius of no less than diameter of the wire diameter of the wire diameter of the b
wire
What causes knuckling on older type electrical cables? excessive pull over-temperature applying cable
295 7.7 through forces soldering ties too tightly a

7.8 2 (3Q) Riveting

7.8 2 Riveted joints, rivet spacing and pitch;
Before a rivet is driven, it should extend beyond the one half the rivet’s one and a half two times the
296 7.8 base material by at least original diameter times the rivet’s rivet’s original b
original diameter. diameter.
Once driven, the rivet shank expands to fill the hole and one half the rivet’s one and a half two times the
297 7.8 the bucktail expands to: original diameter. times its original rivet’s original b
diameter. diameter
What size drill bit should be used when fitting 3/32" #30 #40 #21
298 7.8 solid rivets? b

29
 What colour cleco should be used when fitting 3/32" copper silver black
299 7.8 solid rivets? b
When using an original template to lay out a new skin transfer punch. pin punch. prick punch.
300 7.8 pattern, rivet holes are marked out by a a
When riveting sheet metals together, too little clearance separation of the buckling of the indentations on
301 7.8 between the shank and the hole could cause sheets sheets the material a
302 7.8 What units are used to grade the length of solid rivets? 1/10" 1/16" 1/32" b
For purposes of calculating solid rivet repair layouts, 2 D. 3 D. 4 D.
303 7.8 the minimum edge distance is: a
304 7.8 In a solid rivet repair, the minimum rivet pitch should be 2D 3D 4D b
When using a rivet that requires a #30 drill bit, the 3/8" 3/16" 1/4"
305 7.8 minimum edge distance should be c
306 7.8 What is the normal spacing between rivets 4D 2D 3D a
If the thickness of a single sheet of material, about to 3/16" 1/16" 1/8"
be joined by riveting was 1/16" of an inch thick what
307 7.8 would be the approximate diameter of the rivets to be a
used
When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet 1D 2D 4D
308 7.8 (land) should not be less than b
The shear strength of a riveted joint compared to that of 75% 100% 125%
309 7.8 the original metal is a
To replace one 1/8 inch rivet two 1/16 inch rivets four 1/16 inch rivets three 1/16 inch
310 7.8 would be required would be required rivets would be b
required
When riveting two dissimilar sheets of metal together paint grease jointing
311 7.8 the joint should be protected with compound c
The minimum space between rivets is determined by length of the rivets diameter of the thickness of the
312 7.8 the being used rivets being used material being b
riveted

7.8 2 Tools used for riveting and dimpling;

30
 When using a hand-held pneumatic rivet gun, the tool the retaining spring the header or set. the chuck.
313 7.8 that is placed into the barrel of the rivet gun to or beehive. b
compress the rivet is known as:
The striking portion of a pneumatic hand-held rivet gun beehive or retaining rivet set or header chuck key
314 7.8 is secured to the end of the barrel by a spring a
When dimpling a sheet of metal with a squeeze adjust the jaws to the jaws are not use a lubricant
dimpling tool accommodate adjustable
315 7.8 different material a
gauges
When dimpling a sheet of metal you would require a male die only a male and female an oversized
316 7.8 die rivet and special b
reaction block
A micro-shaver is used to cut rivets to length trim the shank mill the rivet
317 7.8 prior to forming diameter prior to head after c
forming forming
7.8 2 Inspection of riveted joints
318 7.8 A joggle in a removed rivet indicates excessive shear bearing compression a

7.9 2 (1Q) Pipes and Hoses

Bending and belling/flaring aircraft pipes and
7.9 2 hoses;
When bending aircraft pipes with a hand-operated the radius block a hand-held the slide bar
319 7.9 bending tool, the angle of the bend is measured by protractor a
aligning the incidence mark with
320 7.9 The flaring angle for a hydraulic pipe is 37° 25° 45° a
Pipe flaring is carried out in the annealed as supplied after normalizing
321 7.9 b
state
When assembling a banjo hose a washer is placed either side of the on the outside of on the inside of
322 7.9 banjo the banjo only the banjo only a
7.9 2 Inspection and testing of aircraft pipes and hoses;
Fretting corrosion on a braided pipe would mean it was unserviceable and not necessarily only
323 7.9 should be replaced unserviceable unserviceable if a

31
 the corrosion
penetrates the
braids
If the outer cover of a flexible hose is found to be it is unserviceable it is unserviceable it may still be
324 7.9 cracked since it may have a since it may leak serviceable c
restricted flow
When checking a hose after installation it should be by flexing +/- 15° by flexing through by flexing
checked for freedom of movement either side of the the normal through the
325 7.9 b
neutral position operating range normal operating
plus 15° range only
Hydraulic pipes and hoses are tested at their working 1.5 2 2.5
326 7.9 pressure multiplied by a
7.9 2 Installation and clamping of pipes.
Flareless couplings should be tightened to a specified 2 flats 3 flats 1 flat
327 7.9 torque plus a
Which of these components deteriorate with age and Steel nuts and Aluminium skin Rubber hoses.
328 7.9 therefore have a limited shelf life? bolts. panels. c
To prevent damage to seals on fitment you would use grease compress and use a cardboard
stretch them protector over
329 7.9 c
the threaded
portions
To allow for shrinkage, vibration and whip all straight 2% longer than the 3% longer than the 5% longer than
hoses must be distance between distance between the distance
330 7.9 b
the fittings the fittings between the
fittings
7.10 2 (1Q) Springs
7.10 2 Inspection and testing of springs
A coil spring, normally under compression, is no longer is shorter than a shows signs of is longer than a
331 7.10 usable if it specified length wear when specified length a
when unloaded unloaded when loaded
332 7.10 Over time, compression springs are likely to shorten lengthen twist a
7.11 2 (1Q) Bearings
7.11 2 Testing, cleaning and inspection of bearings;

32
 Before checking bearings for wear, surplus grease a lint-free cloth trichloroethylene petroleum spirit
333 7.11 should be removed with a
Routine inspections of aircraft bearings are normally by removing them in-situ by measuring the
carried out from the aircraft amount of play
334 7.11 with a precision b
measuring
instrument
Shielded ball bearings are inspected by running at operating dismantling and rotating slowly by
335 7.11 speed and listening inspecting hand c
for signs of wear
Inspection of bearings is normally carried out in situ when dismantled when removed
336 7.11 from an a
assembly
7.11 2 Lubrication requirements of bearings;
When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be copper or aluminum steel drift with light soft steel or
337 7.11 carefully positioned using a tube drift blows brass tube drift c
Graphite prevents seizure and conducts heat. It is lithium based copper based sodium based
338 7.11 normally used in greases greases greases c
7.11 2 Defects in bearings and their causes.
Damage to the shield of a bearing should result in rejection of the replacement of the no action
339 7.11 bearing shield a
A watermark on a bearing indicates bearing running dry lack of lubrication intergranular
340 7.11 corrosion c
Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be caused by heavy landing rotation of the outer overheating of
341 7.11 race in the wheel the brakes a
housing
342 7.11 Small indentations in the race of a ball bearing indicate brinelling corrosion over-torqueing a
7.12 2 (1Q) Transmissions
7.12 2 Inspection of gears, backlash;

33
 It is important to measure the amount of backlash in a allows for thermal reduces wear on allows for
gear train because it expansion at the gear teeth thermal
343 7.12 unusually high expansion and c
torque values lubrication
The amount of backlash in a gear train is measured feeler gauges a micrometer a vernier
344 7.12 a
with
High levels of contact stress on gear teeth are likely to dissimilar-metal scoring spalling
345 7.12 cause corrosion c
On bevel gear teeth, the wear pattern should be greatest at the toe, greatest at the heel, spread evenly
346 7.12 least at the heel least at the toe across the teeth a
Inspection of belts and pulleys, chains and
7.12 2 sprockets;
During a inspection interval one segment of a long replace the replace 3 segment replace the
chain is found to be defective, the solution to this is to particular segment either side of the whole chain
and run deficiency
347 7.12 c
components to
check for
serviceability
If a chain is removed for routine maintenance it must be proof it must be proof it does not have
348 7.12 checked to ½ max checked to full load to be proof c
load checked
Excessive wear on a sprocket will result in cracks in the link hooked teeth elongation of the
349 7.12 plates chain b
To check a chain for articulation it should be run move each link lay on a flat
over the finger individually and surface and
through 180° and check for tightness check for kinks
350 7.12 a
checked for
smoothness and
kinks
The procedure for ckecking the elongation of a chain is apply a load, apply a load, hang the chain
to measure chain and measure chain and under its own
351 7.12 use 2% max use 5% max weight, measure a
formula to check formula to check chain and use
extension extension 2% max formula

34
 to check
extension
Chains used in transmission systems should be stored uncoiled and flat in hanged so they do oiled and coiled
352 7.12 greaseproof paper not kink in greaseproof c
paper
If a control chain can be lifted clear of a tooth, it should removed and an cleaned, re- rejected as
be elongation check tensioned and unserviceable
353 7.12 carried out inspected after a a
period of time
An aircraft control chain is connected using a split link and quick release pins nuts and bolts
354 7.12 spring clip c
A chain removed for routine inspection does not need proof must be proof must be proof
355 7.12 loading loaded to 50% loaded to 150% a
356 7.12 Where would you disconnect a chain? at a bolted joint at a spring clip joint at an riveted joint a
Inspection of screw jacks, lever devices, push-pull
7.12 2 rod systems.
On a hollow tube where would a small indentation in either of the outer in the mid 1/3 nowhere on the
normally be unacceptable? 1/3 portion of the section tube is an
357 7.12 b
tube indentation
acceptable
What would you use to check the run out on a control DTI + V blocks Micrometer + ball 3 leg trammel +
358 7.12 rod? bearing feeler gauge a
359 7.12 Screw jacks are used extensively on aircraft to operate main wheels windscreen wipers thrust reversers c
7.13 2 (2Q) Control Cables
7.13 2 Swaging of end fittings;
A foot operated hydraulic swaging tool is checked for vertically horizontally only when
fluid level operating
360 7.13 c
pressure is
reached
When using a hydraulic swaging tool on aircraft control swage pressure is the bypass valve the bypass valve
361 7.13 cables, the swage is formed when reached on the closes and ram is opens and ram is c
gauge neutrally loaded neutrally loaded

35
 When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable using a chisel on a using a hacksaw using an oxy-
362 7.13 can be cut by flat metal surface with the cable acetylene torch a
under tension
When swaging terminals onto a cable, they are adhesive tape bending the cable adhesive paste
normally held in position by slightly before
363 7.13 inserting it into the b
termination
7.13 2 Inspection and testing of control cables;
Swaged terminations are normally proof-tested by 3 times their normal double their normal 1.5 times their
364 7.13 applying a tensile load of operating load operating load estimated c
maximum load
A control cable that has been contaminated with acid cleaned cleaned, inspected, rejected
should be and re-inspected
365 7.13 c
after a period of
time
366 7.13 After installing new control cables, proof testing is not required sometimes required always required a
Control cables are inspected for fraying by running your fingers running a rag along visual inspection
367 7.13 along the cable the cable b
The maximum number of threads exposed at the ends one two three
368 7.13 of a turnbuckle barrel is c
How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer? use a load meter to use a standard riser use correct chart
apply the correct and use the chart to and correct riser
369 7.13 load correct for different c
sized cables
Fairleads in an aircraft flight control system are used to assist in a flight prevent rubbing change the
control surface between control tension of a
370 7.13 movement. cables and aircraft control cable. b
structures.
A balance cable is installed in a control system to allow the aircraft to correct for wing enable the cable
371 7.13 be flown 'hands off' heaviness to be tensioned c

36
 Pulley cable guard pins are used to change direction of protect control retain control
372 7.13 a control cable. cables against cables in pulley c
corrosion. grooves
The smallest size control cable that can be used in a 1/8 inch diameter. 1/16 inch diameter. 1/4 inch
373 7.13 primary control system is: diameter. a
374 7.13 Torsional force is applied to aircraft control surfaces by push-pull rods torque tubes bell cranks b
What percent of the cable strength is developed by a 60% 100% 80%
375 7.13 swaged cable terminal? b
Which tool is used to determine whether or not a Protractor. Tensiometer. "Before and
376 7.13 swaged control cable terminal is properly installed? after" gauge c
What should be done to an aircraft control cable that Replace the cable Replace the cable Lubricate the
377 7.13 shows indications of internal corrosion? immediately. at the next cable. a
servicing.
What can be used to protect control cables from Steam clean the Brush the cable at Coat the cable
378 7.13 corrosion? cables. regular intervals. with par-al - c
ketone
7x19 cable used on primary control systems, consists 7 wires in a 19 inch 7 strands of 19 7 cables joined
379 7.13 of distance wires each by 19 strands b
Cable tension regulators are used in some flight control The fact that the The difference The fact that as
systems, because of: airframe and cables between the altitude
freeze at the same expansion of the increases, cable
380 7.13 rate as altitude aluminium structure length will b
increases. and the steel decrease,
control cables increasing the
cable tension.
After fitting swaged terminals to aircraft control cables, coated with anti- pull tested to within checked with a
381 7.13 they should be corrosion chemicals manufacturer's go/no go gauge c
limits
If an aircraft is operating in a highly corrosive Are made of Can be coated with Can be coated
382 7.13 environment, control cables: corrosion resisting Methyl -ethyl- with Par-al- c
aluminium cable ketone ketone

37
 When inspecting a control cable for broken strands: Bend it into a loop Run bare hands Rotate the
and check for wire along the cable, if a pulley, and use a
383 7.13 ends that pop out of rag is not available strong light a
the cable
A Proof Load test, is when a control cable is tested: To 100% of it's To 60% of it's After the cable is
breaking strength, breaking strength fitted to the
384 7.13 gradually applied aircraft b
for a period of 3
minutes
Fairleads are usually constructed of some form of: High strength steel Soft plastic or fibre Magnesium,
which will not
385 7.13 b
wear out the
steel cable
When a control cable passes through the bulkhead of a The control cable The control cable The control cable
pressure vessel: must pass through passes through a must pass
386 7.13 a sealed fairlead grease filled seal through a fully b
pressurized
rubstrip
387 7.13 Anti -friction rod end bearings are generally of the: Fixed type Roller type Self aligning type c
Threaded rod-ends on push-pull control rods, are An adjustable rod Rivets A check nut
388 7.13 normally attached to the tube by: end clevis b
Control system bellcranks: Gain or decrease Change the Are used where
the mechanical direction of control air loads are not
advantage and cable systems excessive
389 7.13 change direction of a
a push-pull tubing
system
In order for a turnbuckle to develop it's full strength: There must be There must be no The safety hole
more than 4 more than three must be covered
390 7.13 threads exposed at threads exposed at by thread b
each end of the each end of a
turnbuckle barrel turnbuckle barrel

38
 When adjusting "springback" in a control system, it is The actuating The actuating The stop at the
important that: control and surface control experiences surface is
stops are contacted a full stop, before it contacted first
391 7.13 at the same time, to reaches the surface c
allow a slight spring
back to be felt
When installing a cable to a swaged termination: Compress the Crimp the cable Coat the cable
392 7.13 sleeve 3 times with with a corrosion b
the correct tool preventative
The pulleys used in aircraft control systems are High strength steel Carbon fibre Linen,
393 7.13 generally made of: impregnated with c
phenolic resin
The main reason that fairleads are fitted to aircraft, is They will wear at They are more rigid They will wear
394 7.13 that: the same rate as than metal and not damage c
the metal cable the cable
7.13 2 Bowden cables; aircraft flexible control systems.
7.13
7.14 2 (2Q) Material Handling
7.14.1 2 Sheet Metal
7.14.1 2 Marking out and calculation of bend allowance;
What is meant by the term pitch ratio? the distance the distance the area of
between two holes between the hole contact between
395 7.14.1 and the edge of the the two sheets of a
material metal when
joining by rivets
Bend radius on sheet metal is outside radius inside radius inside radius + ½
396 7.14.1 the thickness of b
the metal
Sheet metal working, including bending and
7.14.1 2 framing;

39
 Sheet metal should be stored on its edge in racks stacked flat to above 25
397 7.14.1 prevent bending of degrees a
sheets centigrade
What care should you take with 2024-T3? do not bend at do not scratch or do not remove
398 7.14.1 sharp angles make nicks in it the surface of b
the sheet metal
Aircraft skin is joggled to conform to the provide smooth make a frame
399 7.14.1 "Area rule" airflow at faying lighter but b
surfaces stronger
In sheetmetal working, the 'setback' is the distance from the distance from the distance from
the mold point to the bend tangent the edge of the
400 7.14.1 the bend tangent line to the setback metal to the a
line line bend tangent line
In sheet metal working, relief holes are holes drilled in the holes drilled in a holes drilled to
corner of a metal battery container to stop a crack
401 7.14.1 box to prevent provide drainage a
cracking
In sheetmetal working, the mold point is an imaginary point the center of the mid point in
from which real curvature of a the thickness of
base radiused corner in a a sheet of metal
402 7.14.1 a
measurements are metal fabricated to which the
provided component radius dimension
is calculated
403 7.14.1 Surface scratches are removed from sheet metal by burnishing blending polishing a
7.14.1 2 Inspection of sheet metal work.
Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused hogging sagging tension
404 7.14.1 by a
Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black. This would aluminum duralumin magnesium alloy
405 7.14.1 indicate the metal is b

7.14.2 2 Composite and non-metallic

7.14.2 2 Bonding practices;

40
 Before bonding composite materials, their surfaces a suitable solvent clean, lint-free resin
406 7.14.2 should be cleaned with cloths a
The most common method of inspecting composite non-destructive dye-penetrant visual inspection
407 7.14.2 materials is by testing testing c
7.14.2 2 Environmental conditions
7.14.2
7.14.2 2 Inspection methods
A common inspection technique for materials that have an insulation test a tap test a continuity test
408 7.14.2 been joined by adhesive bonding is with a megger with an b
ohmmeter
7.15 2 (1Q) Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding
7.15a 2 Soldering methods, inspection of soldered joints.
movement of the
When soldering wires to electrical connectors, a insufficient solder insufficient flux
409 7.15a surfaces during the a
common cause of dry joints is applied applied
soldering process
seal the finished
etch the surfaces of prevent oxidation of
joint from
410 7.15a Flux is used in soldering to the joint for better the joint during the b
contamination by
adhesion soldering process
moisture and dirt
blowing cold air on
When soldering, cable insulation and nearby using thermal
411 7.15a the joint to cool it using less solder c
components should be protected from heat damage by shunt(s)
faster
the wires should be the joints should be the contours of
412 7.15a When inspecting wires that are soldered to tags completely covered covered by a thin the wire should c
by the solder film of flux be clearly visible
A common method of fitting terminals to aircraft soft soldering silver soldering brazing
413 7.15a electrical cables is by a
414 7.15a A dry joint when soldering is caused by too much flux too little heat too large an iron b
A dry joint in soldering is caused by flux not used components not hot wrong solder
415 7.15a enough used b

41
 Flux is used in soldering to etch the metal dissolve oxides prevent solder
416 7.15a surface for more spikes b
adhesion
The flux used for soft soldering is active non-active either active or
417 7.15a non-active b
Composition of silver solder is tin and lead tin, lead and silver tin, lead, silver
418 7.15a and antimony c
High temperature solder is used where the operating lead / copper / tin / zinc / tin / lead /
419 7.15a temperature is high. It is an alloy of antimony antimony / silver antimony / silver c
The melting point of soft solder increases as the zinc lead tin
420 7.15a proportion of ________ in it increases c
7.15b 2 Welding and brazing methods;
Brazed joints are held together by adhesion between fusion non-metallic
421 7.15b metals (amalgamation) adhesive a
between metals
422 7.15b A gas which can be used for welding is Nitrogen Oxygen Oxy-acetylene c
423 7.15b The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and borax powder hydrochloric acid zinc chloride a
Normalisation is carried out after welding to remove carbon release the remove oxidation
424 7.15b build up from the stresses from the from the welded b
welded joint material joint
The flame of burning acetylene is yellow blue-white approximately
425 7.15b 3,500°C a
426 7.15b Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with tin and silver tin and copper copper and silver c
7.15b 2 Inspection of welded and brazed joints;
7.15b
7.15b 2 Bonding methods and inspection of bonded joints.
7.15b
The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft 0.001 ohms 0.01 ohms 0.05 ohms
427 7.15b primary structure should be c
The leads of a bonding tester have critical lengths are supplied in 60 are
and the resistance foot and 6 foot interchangeable,
428 7.15b a
of the leads is lengths but can be one 60 foot long

42
 accounted for varied due to wear having two
prongs and a 6
foot one with a
single prong
If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted zero FSD off-scale high
429 7.15b together, the meter would read a
In composite materials, which test is used to measure Shear test Tension test Peel test
430 7.15b the strength of a bonded join? c
The maximum value of bonding of a secondary 1 kilohm 1 megohm 1 ohm
431 7.15b structure is c
Bonding resistance between airframe and electrical 1 megohm 1 ohm 0.05 ohm
432 7.15b components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts c
RMS or DC, or main ground return should not exceed
When carrying out airframe bonding checks, the 50 milliohms 100 milliohms 1 ohm
433 7.15b resistance should be less than a
When carrying out a bonding check on a surface the anodic film the film is add a bonding
protected by anodic film should be removed conductive so no factor to the
locally to ensure a preparations are result of the test
434 7.15b a
good contact required to account for
the resistance of
the anodic film
7.16 2 (4Q) Aircraft Weight and Balance
Centre of Gravity/Balance limits calculation; use of
7.16a 2 relevant documents;
The "empty" weight of an aircraft is its basic weight minus basic weight plus basic weight only
435 7.16a unusable fuel plus unusable fuel plus b
oil oil

43
 The maximum weight of a particular aircraft can by weighing the in the Aircraft by adding the
normally be found; aircraft to obtain Specification or empty weight
empty weight and Type Certificate and payload.
mathematically Data Sheet.
436 7.16a adding the weight b
of fuel, oil, pilot,
passengers, and
baggage.

During the weight and balance computations, what Manufacturer's The advisory Aircraft
document will reference the required equipment maintenance notices posted by Specification or
437 7.16a needed to maintain validity of a standard Airworthiness manual. the regulatory Type Certificate c
Certificate? authority. Data Sheet.
An aircraft as loaded weighs 4,954 pounds at a CG of 61.98 pounds. 30.58 pounds. 57.16 pounds.
+30.5 inches. The CG range is +32.0 inches to +42.1
438 7.16a inches and the ballast arm is +162 inches. What is the c
minimum weight of the ballast necessary to bring the
CG within the CG range.
The empty weight of an airplane is determined by; adding the net subtracting the tare multiplying the
weight of each weight from the measured
weighing point and scale reading and distance from
multiplying the adding the weight each weighing
439 7.16a measured distance of each weighing point to the b
to the datum. point. datum times the
sum of scale
reading less the
tare weight.
A weight of 50 lbs is placed 25 inches forward of the -9.3 inches ahead 9.3 inches aft af 9.3 inches ahead
440 7.16a datum and a weight of 55 lbs is placed 5 inches aft of of the datum the datum of the datum a
the datum. The C of G is
The "useful load" of an aircraft is the combined weight crew, usable fuel, crew, usable fuel, crew,
of the passengers, and oil, and fixed passengers,
441 7.16a cargo. equipment. usable fuel, oil, a
cargo, and fixed

44
 equipment.
In aircraft weight and balance, the distance from the balance arm lever arm. fulcrum arm.
442 7.16a fulcrum to an object is termed the b
In aircraft weight and balance, the factor that location of the result of a weight location of the
determines whether the value of the moment is datum in reference being added or weight in
443 7.16a preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign is the to the aircraft CG. removed and its reference to the b
location relative to datum.
the datum.
The maximum weight of an aircraft is the; empty weight plus empty weight plus empty weight
crew, maximum crew, passengers, plus useful load.
444 7.16a c
fuel, cargo, and and fixed
baggage. equipment.
In aircraft weight and balance, if the reference datum all measurement all measurement calculations will
445 7.16a line is placed at the nose of an airplane rather than at arms will be in arms will be in be more b
the firewall, negative numbers. positive numbers. complex.
Zero fuel weight is the; dry weight plus the basic operating maximum
weight of full crew, weight without permissible
passengers, and crew, fuel, and weight of a
446 7.16a cargo. cargo. loaded aircraft c
(passengers,
crew, and cargo)
without fuel.
In aircraft weight and balance, the term `maximum the empty aircraft. the useful load. the aircraft and
447 7.16a weight` refers to the maximum weight of its contents. c
The useful load of an aircraft is the: difference between difference between sum of the empty
the maximum gross the net weight and weight and the
448 7.16a weight and empty total weight. maximum gross a
weight. weight.
Where would the leveling means be located for a Type data sheet Maintenance Maintenance
449 7.16a particular aircraft? only. Manual only. manual and type c
data sheet.

45
 When carrying out aircraft weight and balance, the determine the determine the certify the
Aircraft Specification sheet is used to maximum weight of required and Certificate of
450 7.16a the aircraft.. approved optional Airworthiness b
equipment fitted to
the aircraft.
For a particular type and model of aircraft, the weight aircraft equipment battery aircraft
451 7.16a and arm of its battery should be stated in the list. compartment maintenance a
manual.
To determine the position of a item of newly fitted anti- refer to the refer to the Type calculate the
collision beacon you could measure its position from modification sheet Data Sheet for that position using
452 7.16a c
the datum or; or FAA 1830 particular aircraft. the station
number.
When computing weight and balance, an airplane is the average all moment arms of the movement of
considered to be in balance when; moment arm of the the plane fall within the passengers
loaded airplane falls CG range. will not cause the
453 7.16a a
within its CG range. moment arms to
fall outside the
CG range.
When weighing an aircraft, distance measurements are Previous C of G Datum position Nose of the
454 7.16a taken from the position aircraft b
A radio of weight 5 pounds is removed from an aircraft. – 10 inches per + 250 inch pounds - 250 inch
455 7.16a The arm is + 50 inches. The moment is pound pounds c
The amount of fuel used for computing empty weight empty fuel tanks. unusable fuel. the amount of
and corresponding CG is; fuel necessary
456 7.16a b
for 1/2 hour of
operation.
An overloaded aircraft; Stalling speeds are Will takeoff at a Will need more
457 7.16a decrease during lower speed than runway to c
flight. normal. takeoff.
Takeoff weight of an aircraft; Is the same as taxi Is the greatest Is not affected by
weight. amount of weight the atmospheric
458 7.16a an aircraft is safely conditions of the b
capable of lifting day.
from the ground.

46
 The centre of gravity of an aircraft is calculated by; dividing the total adding the total mutiplying the
459 7.16a weight by the total moments to the total moments by a
moments total weight the total weight.
The center of gravity range of an aircraft; Will change during Is determined by Is determined by
flight. the pilot for the day. the manufacturer
460 7.16a and cannot be c
change during
flight.
The primary purpose for weight and balance control on For the aircraft to fly To fly the aircraft To limit load
461 7.16a aircraft is; efficiently. safely. factors on the b
aircraft.
If an item of equipment is forward of the datum the negative positive negative or
distance is considered positive
depending on
462 7.16a whether the a
equipment is
being added or
removed
If an item of equipment is fitted to the aircraft the sign Negative Positive Negative or
attached to the weight for the purpose of centre of positive
gravity calculations is depending on
whether the
463 7.16a b
equipment is
forward or
behind the
datum
In aircraft weight and balance, an aircraft datum is at any position between the firewall at the centre of
located specified by the and that part of the gravity of the
464 7.16a manufacturer fuselage level with aircraft a
the main landing
gear
A 20 lb weight is 10 inches forward of the datum point + 1 inch - 1 inch At the datum
and a 30 lb weight is 5 inches behind the datum point. point
465 7.16a What is the position of the centre of gravity in relation to b
the datum point.

47
466 7.16a The position of equipment in an aircraft is given by its Moment Lever Arm c
The centre of gravity of an aircraft is defined as the About which nose On the fuselage Equal in position
point heavy and tail midway between to the datum
467 7.16a heavy moments the main wheels point a
have equal
magnitude
When calculating weight and balance Crew and Crew and Crew and
passenger weights passenger weights passenger
should be and fuel and oil weights and fuel
468 7.16a established by weights are and oil weights b
weighing but fuel specified and do should be
and oil weights are not have to be established by
specified weighed weighing
If the centre of gravity (C of G) is within the centre of The C of G may The C of G may The C of G will
gravity range for a fully loaded and fuelled aircraft then move outside of the move outside of the remain within
range during flight range during flight range for the
causing an unsafe but the flight duration of the
condition characteristics will flight
469 7.16a c
be unchanged
because the range
is deliberately made
very small

The centre of gravity operating range is expressed In pound inches In terms of inches As a percentage
from the aircraft of the mean
470 7.16a c
nose aerodynamic
chord
471 7.16a The moment of an item of equipment is measured in Inch pounds Inches per pound Pounds a
An aircraft is weighed for the purpose of establishing Only by scales Either by scales Only by load
the position of its centre of gravity place under the placed under the cells between
wheels wheels or by load the jacks and the
472 7.16a cells between the jacking points b
jacks and the
jacking points
473 7.16a When weighing an aircraft to find the centre of gravity It should be It should be It will b

48
 approximately level accurately leveled automatically be
as judged by eye by means of a spirit level if scales are
level or plumb bob placed under the
wheels
Aircraft data sheets include The location of Maximum weight Location of
474 7.16a optional equipment for crew members datum and c
and the datum and fuel maximum weight
Aircraft below 5,700 kg not used for commercial air every 5 years as required by the every 2 years
475 7.16a transport purposes are required to be reweighed QCAA b
476 7.16a Points forward of the datum point are positive negative neutral b
7.16b 2 Preparation of aircraft for weighing;
When weighing an aircraft the hydrostatic weighing one under each one on top of each either under or
477 7.16b units are positioned jack jack on top of each b
jack
When weighing an aircraft by the weighbridge method jacked and leveled only leveled resting on the
478 7.16b the aircraft is laterally wheels c
What tasks are required to be completed prior to Remove all items Remove all items Remove all items
weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight? except those on the on the aircraft except those on
aircraft equipment equipment list; the aircraft
479 7.16b list; drain fuel and drain all the fuel. equipment list; c
hydraulic fluid. drain fuel and fill
hydraulic
reservoir.
With regard to the weighing of a particular aircraft, The aircraft Type Aircraft Aircraft
480 7.16b where would the procedures for jacking the aircraft be Data Sheet. maintenance Specification b
found? manual. sheet.
481 7.16b The position of flaps when weighing an aircraft is usually up is usually down does not matter a
Before weighing an aircraft Make sure that it is Clean it thoroughly Remove
fully fuelled and and remove all unusable fuel
482 7.16b cleaned items which are not since we need to b
equipment find the empty
weight

49
 To determine an aircraft's C of G, it must be weighed; in a level attitude. with all items of with at least
483 7.16b useful load minimum fuel in a
installed. the fuel tanks.
Before weighing an aircraft, it is necessary to become the applicable AC 43.13-2A, the
familiar with the aircraft CG range in the weight and Aircraft chapter 11. manufacturer's
484 7.16b balance information in; Specification or service bulletins a
Type Certificate and letters.
Data Sheet.
7.16b 2 Aircraft weighing;
When an aircraft has been reweighed under QCAR destroyed after 3 kept in the aircraft kept in the
OPS, what should be done to the old weight and months logbook weight and
485 7.16b a
balance report? balance
schedule
Aircraft weight and balance checks should be carried at intervals each time the at each
out specified in the aircraft is loaded scheduled
486 7.16b a
maintenance with freight maintenance
programme
Non-aircraft items that add weight during the aircraft load cells, which ballast, which must tare, which must
487 7.16b weighing procedure are termed must be included in be included in the be excluded from c
the calculations calculations the calculations
7.17 2 (4Q) Aircraft Handling and Storage
Aircraft taxying/towing and associated safety
7.17 2 precautions;
When marshalling an aircraft, the instruction to stop drawing the edge of crossing the arms waving both
moving is given by the hand across the above the head arms slowly up
throat and down from
488 7.17 b
the shoulder to
the side of the
legs
When an aircraft marshaller draws the edge of his hand stop immediately shut down the continue taxiing
across his throat, the pilot should and apply the engines without
489 7.17 b
brakes marshaller
assistance
490 7.17 When towing a large aircraft, the brakes of the towing usually are usually are are not sufficient b

50
 vehicle sufficient to sufficient to to overcome a
overcome a large overcome a large large aircraft's
aircraft's aircraft's momentum so
momentum so the momentum but in the aircraft
aircraft brakes do case of emergency brakes must be
not need to be a qualified person used for stopping
operated should be in the
cockpit to operate
the aircraft brakes
When the park brake has been applied on an aircraft full system pressure no indication full scale
which has a pressurized hydraulic system and is deflection
491 7.17 reading maximum system pressure, the brake gauges a
to the left and right main wheels will read
Aircraft jacking, chocking, securing and associated
7.17 2 safety precautions
When using an axle jack to change a wheel on a bogey all wheels should the nose of the only the wheel to
492 7.17 be lifted off the floor aircraft must be be changed c
at the same time clear of the ground need be lifted
If an aircraft with a tail wheel is tied down facing into the fully up position fully down position. neutral position
493 7.17 wind, the elevator should be locked in the a
7.17 2 Aircraft storage methods;
Aircraft in long term storage should have all openings sealed all fluids drained all electronic
494 7.17 systems a
removed
The information needed to check an aircraft after a long the aircraft the aircraft logbook the aircraft
495 7.17 period of storage is contained in maintenance maintenance a
manual schedule
7.17 2 Refuelling/defuelling procedures;
When refuelling an aircraft, the aircraft and the tanker independently isolated from each connected to
496 7.17 must be electrically earthed other each other and c
earthed
Aircraft refuelling should NOT be carried out in heavy rain lightning risk extreme cold
497 7.17 conditions of b

51
 7.17 2 De-icing/anti-icing procedures;
Glycol de-icing fluid in contact with a silver cable can corrosion a fire disintegration of
498 7.17 cause the cable b
insulation
Electrical, hydraulic and pneumatic ground
7.17 2 supplies;
When connecting an external hydraulic power supply a drip tray should quick-disconnect, the unit will
unit to an aircraft during maintenance be placed under the self-sealing purge the system
connection point to couplings are used after use so
499 7.17 prevent to prevent leakage allowing any b
contamination of and air entering the hydraulic fluid to
the floor. system be used
Effects of environmental conditions on aircraft
7.17 2 handling and operation.
7.17
Disassembly, Inspection, Repair and Assembly
7.18 3 (10Q) Techniques
7.18a 3 Types of defects and visual inspection techniques.
500 7.18a Dye penetrant testing is most commonly used to detect fatigue cracks filiform corrosion fretting corrosion a
Defect investigation is best carried out by obtaining all the first changing the taking into
relevant information part which, from account all
on the defect, experience, is relevant
carrying out the known to fail information,
repair then further frequently then carry out initial
501 7.18a inspecting and carrying out post and further c
testing the affected rectification testing inspections, as
part or system. necessary, then
rectification and
post rectification
testing.

52
 Fatigue cracks are most likely to be are generally cannot be
found in areas of uniform, unbroken detected by
502 7.18a low stress and often jagged in Eddy Current b
appearance Inspection
503 7.18a Spot welds can be inspected for corrosion, by using a plumb bob straight edge weld tester b
careless
movement between
flexing of the handling causing
504 7.18a Corrosion caused by chaffing is due to parts in contact with a
aircraft wings small dents or
each other
nicks
Fretting corrosion is caused by contamination with different metals in parts rubbing
505 7.18a hydraulic oil close contact with together c
each other
A hidden failure is not detectable by detectable by the not detectable by
the crew but can be crew but cannot be the crew and
detected by detected by cannot be
maintenance staff maintenance staff detected by
on a zonal without dismantling maintenance
506 7.18a inspection. the aircraft or part staff without c
of the aircraft dismantling the
and/or carrying out aircraft or part of
NDT. the aircraft
and/or carrying
out NDT.
Internal engine components can be visually checked magnetic particle a fibre-optic an ultra-sonic
507 7.18a without dismantling the engine by using inspection borescope probe b
7.18a 3 Corrosion removal, assessment and re-protection.
a method of
a method of a method of
protecing any
protecting steel protecting non-
metal surface by
508 7.18a Phosphating is from corrosion by ferrous materials by a
applying a
applying an electro- electro-chemical
phosphate-
chemical coating treatment
based paint
Care must be taken to avoid contact of chemical aluminum non ferrous high strength
509 7.18a corrosion removal products and materials steel materials c

53
 When corrosion is found on aluminium aircraft parts, it removing it with neutralising it with applying chrome
510 7.18a is generally treated by fine-grade steel chemicals plating to the b
wool area
The most effective way to protect aircraft parts against coat them with a apply cadmium ensure they are
511 7.18a damage caused by chaffing is to protective varnish plating rigidly secured c
Cadmium plating of ferrous alloys protects the base sacrificial corrosion excluding air and strengthening
512 7.18a metal by moisture the surface a
Chrome plating, cadmium plating, galvanizing, and protection for non- protecting a ferrous treating or
metal spray techniques, are all forms of ferrous metals metal against removing
513 7.18a b
against corrosion. corrosion. corrosion from
metals.
Jointing compound is used to make components bond components prevent
514 7.18a easier to together dissimilar metal c
disassemble corrosion
When removing corrosion, the maximum depth of metal assessed by the given in the 10% of the
lost is person issuing the Structural Repair original thickness
Certificate of Manual or in a
515 7.18a Release to Service Service Bulletin b
based on
experience and the
function of the part

Corrosion in a piano hinge can be minimised by keeping the hinge using a water using a high
516 7.18a as clean and dry as attracting lubricant grade lubricant a
possible such as shell 7.
After removing corrosion from aluminium alloy, the treated with alu lightly coated with coated with
517 7.18a surface must be prep before alodine anti-corrosive cadmium a
treatment is used. grease
What may be done to protect a welded steel tube from The tube is coated They are made of The tube is filled
corrosion inside and out with stainless steel and with linseed oil,
cadmium require no drained and the
518 7.18a c
protection hole is plugged
with a metal
screw

54
 When cleaning an aircraft, which statement is correct? Aromatic naptha Lubrication should Lubrication
can be used to be carried out should be done
519 7.18a clean aircraft before cleaning the after the aircraft c
aircraft has been
cleaned
Electronic printed circuit boards (PCB's) are protected coating them with a using the principle anodising them
520 7.18a from corrosion by clear plastic film of sacrificial before a
corrosion installation
Battery sump jars for a lead acid battery are moistened boric acid or bitumastic (tar) bicarbonate of
521 7.18a with. vinegar base soda c
Fayed surfaces cause concern when chemical forming passive entrapping corrosion by
522 7.18a cleaning. This is because of the danger of oxides. corrosive materials. embedded iron b
oxide.
Corrosion on aircraft should be inspected weakens primary must always be
for at every 50 hour structural members cut away and
523 7.18a inspection replaced with b
metal of the
same thickness
The process of protecting steel parts with a coating of galvanising alodine chemical cladding
524 7.18a zinc is termed treatment. a
What is used to remove corrosion from magnesium? chromic acid phosphate acid sulphuric acid
525 7.18a solution solution solution a
What action should be taken on finding intergranular de-corrode and re- renew corroded replace complete
526 7.18a corrosion? protect area by patching component part c
Heavy corrosion deposits on clad aluminum alloys mechanically using chemically by use hemically by use
527 7.18a should be removed a pneumatic of trichloroethylene of phosphoric c
vibrator acid
If it is necessary to remove corrosion from a steel chromic acid nitric acid phosphoric acid
528 7.18a component in-situ, the base of a suitable solution for c
this purpose is

55
 Corrosion products should be removed from a solution of 10% aluminum wool a solution of 10%
magnesium alloys by the use of by weight of by volume of
chromic acid in chromic acid in
529 7.18a distilled water with distilled water a
0.1% by volume of with 1%
sulphuric acid phosphoric acid
Anodizing protects alloy metal from corrosion and makes a good makes the surface seals the surface
530 7.18a surface for paint to alkaline from moisture a
adhere to
Galvanic action between dissimilar metals is best applying a non- spraying the galvanising them
prevented by porous dielectric surfaces with
531 7.18a material between conductive paint a
the surfaces
7.18b 2 General repair methods, Structural Repair Manual:
If cleaning a metal surface for for painting, the best aliphatic naptha. washing detergent kerosene.
532 7.18b solvent is a
Design requirements state that all repairs must be Maintenance Flight Operations Structural Repair
533 7.18b carried out in accordance with the approved: Manual Manual Manual c
Scotchbrite cleaning pads used on aluminium alloy must be discarded must not can be reused
after use subsequently be until their
used on other cleaning action
metals because becomes
small particles may ineffective as
become embedded long as the
534 7.18b b
in the surface and cleaning action is
cause dissimilar not vigorous
metal corrosion enough to
dislodge
particles in the
pad
Parts with intergranular corrosion are best repaired by re-anodising painting the surface replacement
535 7.18b with zinc chromate. c

56
 Damage to an anodized surface coating can be partially using metal polish chemical surface a suitable mild
536 7.18b restored by treatment cleaner b
Corrosion of aluminium parts should be removed by fine grade an aluminium wire a steel brush
537 7.18b sandpaper brush. b
Aircraft control cables affected by corrosion should be coated with a waxy removed for replaced
grease appropriate
538 7.18b treatment, then c
refitted to the
aircraft
When welding aluminium, excess flux should be hot water hot linseed oil carborundum
539 7.18b removed with paper a
When an anodized surface coating is damaged, it may metal polish chemical surface a suitable mild
540 7.18b be repaired by using treatment. cleaner. b
What is used for general cleaning of aluminium Carborundum Aluminium wool. Crocus cloth.
541 7.18b surfaces, by mechanical means? paper. b
Spillage from a nickel cadmium battery should be boric acid. sodium bi- potassium
542 7.18b neutralized with carbonate. hydroxide. a
If you are unable to identify a structure classification as grade as secondary upgrade as primary paint it red and
543 7.18b either primary or secondary what action should you stamp it as b
take? tertiary
If a material is found to be in the tertiary phase of creep the crack should be the component the component
the following procedure should be implemented stop drill, condition should be replaced should under go
monitoring should immediately dye penetrant
544 7.18b b
be applied process and
condition
monitored
If you have limited access to both sides of a structure, a Hi-Lok fastener a Pop rivet a Blind rivet
545 7.18b what would you use to repair the structure? a
The collar of a Hi-Lok fastener should be de-greased before is pre-lubricated
546 7.18b lubricated before fitting by the c
fitting manufacturer
7.18b 2 Ageing, fatigue and corrosion control programmes;

57
 Maintenance programmes for ageing aircraft should prevention and extending the enhancing the
include a programme for control of corrosion periods between operational
547 7.18b maintenance capability of the a
activities aircraft
The purpose of a Reliability Programme is to: Maintain the level of Avoid having any Replace the
reliability inherent in Hard Time items in maintenance
548 7.18b the design of the the maintenance schedule a
aircraft and its programme
parts.
Two of the principal structural elements that would be door frames and seat attachments overhead lockers
549 7.18b inspected as part of an Ageing Aircraft Programme are external fairings and engine and door frames b
mountings
The two most important dangers to be aware of when corrosion and metal tyre blow-outs and increased costs
550 7.18b operating older aircraft, are fatigue increased oil and reduction of a
consumption. fatigue.
Non destructive inspection techniques including,
7.18c 2 penetrant, radiographic, eddy current, ultrasonic
and boroscope methods.
The sequence for doing a simple dye penetrant test is clean the area with clean the area with clean the area
developer, apply penetrant, remove with solvent,
penetrant and then excess penetrant apply penetrant
551 7.18c c
apply solvent. with solvent, and and then apply
then apply developer.
developer.
Borescopes are typically used to: inspect inaccessible measure internal detect cracks in
components without diameters components by
552 7.18c a
disassembly the use of
magnetic flux
Dye penetrant is used to detect cracks in composite materials non-ferrous both ferrous and
553 7.18c materials only non-ferrous c
metals
When carrying out a Magnetic Particle Inspection to using Alternating longitudinally and with the North
554 7.18c find a crack, to ensure that all flaws are identified, the Current circularly Pole of the b
part should be magnetised: magnetism at the

58
 widest part of the
crack
Two ultrasonic methods of corrosion detection are eddy current and pulse echo and dye resonance and
555 7.18c coin tap tests penetrant tests pulse echo tests c
Dye penetrant is used to inspect composite inspect ferrous and remove stains
556 7.18c materials for non ferrous metals from soft b
delamination. for cracking furnishings
If working near X ray equipment, used for corrosion It is important to always wear eye It will be safe, if
inspection. wear a monitor protection using an
557 7.18c a
disc. approved
borescope.
When leak testing with a color contrast field kit, the at least the normal at least twice the at least 3 times
558 7.18c soak time for a component less than 1/8 in.(3mm) thick soak time normal soak time the normal soak c
would be time
Delamination of composite materials is best detected color contrast dye eddy current ultrasound
559 7.18c by penetrant c
Magnetic particle testing detects faults longitudinally transverse longitudinal and
560 7.18c transverse b
Dye penetrant in a cold climate is not affected takes longer to works more
561 7.18c b
work quickly
If after spraying the developer, red blotches appear, the was not cleaned is porous has sub-surface
562 7.18c part properly defects b
What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant it is drawn to the it seeps into the it acts as a
inspection? crack by crack and makes it blotter to draw
563 7.18c electrostatic show up out the penetrant c
attraction that has seeped
into the crack
The main advantage of dye penetrant inspection is the part to be the penetrant the defect must
inspected does not solution works on be opened to the
564 7.18c require cleaning any non-porous surface b
material

59
 When checking an item with the magnetic particle reveal all possible evenly magnetize ensure uniform
565 7.18c inspection method, circular and longitudinal defects the entire part current flow a
magnetization should be used to
To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant that the developer a longer than the surface to be
566 7.18c inspection usually requires be applied to a flat normal penetrating highly polished b
surface time
Surface cracks in aluminum castings and forgings may the use of dye gamma ray submerging the
usually be detected by penetrants and inspection part in a solution
567 7.18c suitable developers of hydrochloric a
acid and rinsing
with clear water
Which type of crack can be detected by magnetic 45° longitudinal transverse
568 7.18c particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal a
magnetisation?
When carrying out a dye penetrant test, after the as soon as the after 30 minutes after 1 hour
developer has been applied it should be inspected developer is dry
569 7.18c and again after a
approximately 10
minutes
During a color contrast test the penetrant time should longer for a small shorter for a small longer for a wide
570 7.18c be crack crack crack a
Dye penetrant field kits should be stored in a refrigerator in direct sunlight at room
temperature
571 7.18c c
away from direct
sunlight
When carrying out a color contrast test on a pressure the dye should be both the dye and the dye should
vessel applied to the the developer be applied to the
572 7.18c outside and the should be applied inside and the c
developer to the to the outside developer to the
inside outside
When using a color contrast dye penetrant kit, and a less developer less inhibitor should a magnifying
573 7.18c small crack is suspected in the material should be used be used glass is a
recommended

60
 Sub-surface flaws in metals can be detected by using a fibre-optic eddy current testing dye penetrant
574 7.18c borescope testing b
575 7.18c
7.18d 2 Disassembly and re-assembly techniques.
When a nut is turned into the runout area of a threaded must be wire-locked becomes thread- is at the correct
576 7.18d fastener, it in position bound torque b
7.18e 2 Trouble shooting techniques
When trouble-shooting on aircraft systems, a good discoloration of oil seepage surface corrosion
577 7.18e indication of overheating is casings a

7.19 2 (3Q) Abnormal Events

Inspections following lightning strikes and HIRF
7.19a 2 penetration.
Damage caused by a lightning strike. is a major defect can be rectified is permitted,
which will cause during the however the
disruption to the turnaround and a area must be
578 7.19a flying and deferred defect inspected at the a
maintenance entry made in the next scheduled
programmes. tech log. servicing.
After a reported lightning strike, the flight controls before the next on the next and all electronic
should be checked for full and free movement flight scheduled systems
579 7.19a maintenance overhauled a
before the next
flight
When inspecting an aircraft that has been struck by fuselage leading control surface composite
580 7.19a lightning, particular attention should be given to edges hinge bearings panels b
If an aircraft is subjected to High Intensity Radiated the crew should the aircraft should the compass
Fields (HIRF), have a medical be washed to might need to be
581 7.19a checkup before the remove recalibrated c
next flight contamination
Following a lightning strike, functional testing should be aircraft components hydraulic systems radar systems
582 7.19a carried out on all c

61
 Inspections following abnormal events such as
7.19b 2 heavy landings and flight through turbulence.
Which of the following requires an abnormal event Discovery of Tyre burst Aircraft reaching
583 7.19b inspection? excessive an age equal to b
corrossion on a part its design life
After a report of flight through heavy turbulence, you carry out a major check the aircraft not carry out any
584 7.19b would overhaul symmetry checks b
After a heavy landing you should inspect the engine module the engine thrust the engine toe-in
585 7.19b alignment alignment b
Following a burst tyre on landing, the relevant wheel scrapped removed for examined for
586 7.19b assembly must be overhaul hydraulic leaks b

7.20 2 (10Q) Maintenance Procedures

7.20 2 (3Q) Maintenance planning;
Aircraft maintenance programmes are designed to standardise repair eliminate the need minimise the
procedures for unscheduled number of
587 7.20 between aircraft of repairs failures that c
different types and affect flight
sizes safety.
Scheduled maintenance is carried out whenever a defect after a heavy when a specified
occurs landing number of hours,
588 7.20 cycles or days c
have been flown
Replacing an engine after a pre-determined number of on-condition hard time condition-
589 7.20 operating hours is classed as maintenance maintenance monitored b
maintenance
Monitoring the progress of a crack after every flight on-condition hard time scheduled
590 7.20 would be classed as maintenance maintenance maintenance a

removing aircraft testing aircraft parts removing aircraft

parts for inspection in-situ and parts for
591 7.20 Hard time maintenance involves c
and refitting them if replacing them if overhaul or
serviceable unserviceable replacement.

62
 Aircraft Maintenance Schedules are issued by the national CAA of the aircraft operator with
country of design manufacturer approval from
592 7.20 the national CAA c
of the country of
registration
Aircraft Maintenance Manuals must be approved by the national CAA of the aircraft Chief Engineer
design authority manufacturer of an approved
593 7.20 Maintenance a
Organisation
Defects can be deferred only if allowed by at the sole at the sole
594 7.20 the MEL discretion of the discretion of the a
aircraft captain Chief Engineer
For aircraft below 2730 kg: LAMS (Light A MRB A MRB
Aircraft (Maintenance (Maintenance
595 7.20 Maintenance Review Board) Review Board) a
System) is must be set up may be set up.
applicable
LAMS (Light Aircraft Maintenance System) fixed wing Check A, 50hr/62 Check A, 50 hr/62 100 hr Check,
596 7.20 includes a: day Check, 100 hr day Check, 150 hr Annual b
Check, Annual Check, Annual
Under the LAMS (Light Aircraft Maintenance System), out of phase checks a STAR inspection supplementary
can be deferred is required annually inspections are
597 7.20 until the next specified for c
annual. each aircraft
type.
A LAMS (Light Aircraft Maintenance System) Annual is 10th April 2004 20th March 2003 19th March 2004
due on or before the 10th April 2003. The Annual is
598 7.20 anticipated to coincide with a 150 hour check and be a
completed on the 20th March 2003. The next Annual
will be due on or before:
For aircraft maintained under LAMS (Light Aircraft each annual check renewal of the each out of
599 7.20 Maintenance System), STAR inspections are carried Certificate of phase check b
out to coincide with Airworthiness

63
 Computers can be used in an aircraft maintenance (A) and (B) are true (A) is true and (B) is (A) is false and
planning department to false (B) is true

(A) Ensure that all mandatory work required on an

600 7.20 aircraft is correctly called up a

(B) Carry out calculations required in a reliability

programme.

A networked computer system in a maintenance The computers deal Any member of the The computers
organisation means that: with all aspects of maintenance staff are connected
601 7.20 maintenance can use any together so that c
planning and computer data can be
recording shared
To "escalate" an inspection requirement, means to: increase the depth decrease the time increase the time
602 7.20 of inspection period between period between b
inspections inspections
An aircraft maintenance programme is determined by category, weight category and weight and the
the aircraft's and type of weight but not the type of operation
603 7.20 a
operation type of operation but not the
category
What type of maintenance is suitable for a critical part Hard Time On-Condition Condition
604 7.20 that shows symptoms of potential failure before it Monitoring b
happens?
(A) "Hard time" and "On-Condition" are used to prevent (A) is true and (B) is (A) and (B) are both (A) and (B) are
failures false false both true
605 7.20 c
(B) Condition monitoring is used to improve the
maintenance programme
As an aircraft becomes older, the time period between remain the same increase decrease
606 7.20 inspections should c

64
 An inspection task is required after 1000 flying hours or before the next at the time of the after the next
annually, which ever is the sooner. If the task is carried annual next annual annual
607 7.20 out during an annual check at 2640 hours and the a
aircraft flies an average of 100 hours per month then
the next inspection will be due:
Which of the following would be classed as 'out of Battery capacity Functional checks Checks carried
phase checks"? checks carried out carried out after out after a heavy
608 7.20 every 4 months modifications to landing. a
radio systems
A SB (Service Bulletin) requires a cylinder assembly one-off recurrent event triggered
609 7.20 inspection within the next 50 hours and after that every b
3 years. This inspection is classed as
610 7.20
To "bring forward" an aircraft maintenance task means it is carried out postponed until the a defect has
that earlier than next scheduled occurred which
611 7.20 required check must be rectified a
before the next
check is due
The date of an aircraft's next calendar-based maintenance
612 7.20 out of phase log technical log c
maintenance activity can be found in the aircraft's manual
backed up on
electronic media copied to a
For security purposes, aircraft maintenance data stored also retained in
613 7.20 and secured separate b
in a computer must be hard copy
separately from the computer
computer
Persons allowed to enter maintenance related data into Must be properly Are not normally Must be
a computer system: trained, authorised allowed to access employed by the
614 7.20 and issued a the computer to maintenance a
password read data planning
department

65
 Equalised maintenance programmes are designed to ensure that all increase optimise aircraft
maintenance productivity of the availability to
615 7.20 activities can be maintenance match c
carried out during organisation operational
the night shift. needs
Reliability-Centered Maintenance (RCM) is based on equipment failures the specified aircraft utilisation
statistical analysis of and their effect on "design life" of the and overall
616 7.20 a
aircraft operations aircraft and its operating costs
components
To fly ETOPS routes, airlines must satisfy their national the design life of suitable the aircraft will
Airworthiness Authority that their aircraft will not maintenance not be used for
617 7.20 be exceeded programmes are in short-haul b
place operations
The maintenance procedures for an ETOPS aircraft must include a require all prevent identical
Corrosion Control inspections to be actions on both
618 7.20 Programme duplicated engines at the c
same time
7.20 2 (2Q) Modification procedures;
Service Bulletins issued by manufacturers of aircraft registered owners approved pilots
and equipment are sent directly to all relevant and their maintenance
619 7.20 airworthiness organisations a
authorities
Aircraft modifications that affect fit, form or function are mandatory minor modifications major
620 7.20 normally classified as modifications modifications c
A modification is a change to an aircraft but not an aircraft or its an aircraft
its components components except when
replacing
621 7.20 equipment with a b
later model of
the same
equipment.

66
 Which of the following statements are true? (A) and (B) (A) only (B) only
(A) Only major modifications need to be approved

622 7.20 (B) For approval of a modification the requirements of c

the basis of original certification of the aircraft are used
unless notified by the appropriate Authority.
On receiving an Airworthiness Directive, an schedule the check its enter the details
owner/operator should first modification or applicability by in the aircraft
623 7.20 inspection before its Type/Model, Serial records b
due date number and date
Data used in the design of modifications must be EASA or the FAA the Airworthiness the aircraft
approved by Authority of the manufacturer
624 7.20 b
State of
Registration
Modification embodiment instructions need NOT special inspections that do general purpose
include details of maintenance not contribute to the hand tools to be
techniques, since installation, removal used in carrying
these should be or change of out the work
625 7.20 c
known by the equipment or unless special
authorised engineer structure tool are required.
carrying out the
work
Which documents will need amending after installing a The weight and The weight and The company
new satellite navigation system into an aircraft? balance schedule balance schedule exposition and
626 7.20 and the electrical and the company the electrical a
load analysis exposition load analysis
Aircraft modifications that affect airworthiness must be an authorised part the regulatory the aircraft
approved by 145 maintenance authority of the operator
627 7.20 organisation country of b
registration
Manufacturers' modifications are usually issued as mandatory Service Bulletins optional
628 7.20 Airworthiness Airworthiness b
Directives Directives

67
 Regulatory Authority modifications are normally issued Service Bulletins Airworthiness Are issued in
as Directives Qatar as a
629 7.20 b
DCAM approved
FOD.
A modifications record book must be kept for all aircraft above 2,730 kg below 2,730 kg at the ICAO
630 7.20 headquarters. a
Details of checks and tests to be carried out after the Aircraft the procedures the modification
embodying a modification are located in Maintenance manual for the documentation
631 7.20 Manual equipment that was pack c
modified
7.20 2 (3Q) Stores procedures;
Who is responsible for ensuring that items held in The storeman The aircraft The equipment
632 7.20 stores are in a suitable condition for fitting to an maintenance manufacturer b
aircraft? engineer
Non-consumable aircraft parts that reach the limit of scrapped used immediately re-conditioned
633 7.20 their recommended storage life should be withdrawn c
from stock and
During handling of parts and materials: (A) and (B) are true (A) is true and (B) is (A) is false and
false (B) is true
(A) Only the store man should be allowed to handle the
634 7.20 parts since he is properly trained to do so. c
(B) Care should be taken to avoid tearing, scratching,
excessive strain, denting and contamination.

Items that are particularly susceptible to moisture with a dessicant in a controlled in well ventilated
635 7.20 contamination should be stored temperature areas a
Dessicants emit a vapor which should be used only reduce humidity
protects ferrous in well ventilated by absorbing
636 7.20 parts from areas moisture c
contamination
Parts containing transparent acrylic should be stored in a controlled away from direct vertically
637 7.20 temperature sunlight b

68
 On delivery of aircraft parts: Check the parts Check the Store the parts in
against the certification quarantine until
documentation, document and if needed for an
inspect them and, if satisfactory discard aircraft when the
satisfactory, assign the document after parts will be
638 7.20 a batch number, noting the reference inspected. a
attach a serviceable number on a batch
or batch label and label.
place in the Bonded
store.

Unserviceable labels must: be blue or green in identify the part and be attached to
colour its the shelf life aircraft parts until
639 7.20 expiry date if they prove to be c
applicable serviceable
"Tell-Tale" dessicant should be replaced when its pink blue. green
640 7.20 colour is a
The length of time an item can be stored is known as cure date shelf life pot life
641 7.20 b
it's
Oxygen cylinders in storage should be coated with a never come into be stored in a
fine layer of grease, contact with oil and container
642 7.20 b
to prevent grease marked
corrosion. "Flammable".
Aircraft parts fitted with "Serviceable" labels, need not be must be inspected should be
inspected before before fitment to an packaged in
643 7.20 b
fitment to the aircraft. sealed
aircraft. containers
When storing ferrous metals they should be protected VIP VPI. PSI
644 7.20 from corrosion by b
Items placed in quarantine stores are recorded by paperwork the issue of a the issue of a
accompanying the Certificate of unique batch
645 7.20 part Release to Service number c
by the receiving
organisation

69
 7.20 2 Certification/release procedures;
Aircraft worksheets are used to record the number record and certify provide detailed
of hours worked on all work carried out procedures for
646 7.20 each maintenance on each all maintenance b
task maintenance task tasks
The master reference to all documentation raised for worksheet task card workpack control
647 7.20 work carried out on aircraft is the sheet c
An instruction to "Check Fluid Level of Green, Blue and Workpack control Technical Log Task Card
648 7.20 Yellow Hydraulic Reservoirs from Flight Compartment sheet c
Indication (MM 29-31-00)" would be a typical entry in a
A Maintenance Statement and Scheduled Maintenance Records and Lists all Is another name
Inspection and Certificate of Release to Service: certifies the check maintenance for a Certificate
649 7.20 just completed and carried out as part of Maintenance c
states the next of the current job Review
check due.
650 7.20 A Certificate of Release to Service must be issued after re-fuelling a repair engine runs b
Following a mandatory inspection, a licensed aircraft Flight Release Certificate of Certificate of
651 7.20 engineer will issue a Certificate Release to Service Maintenance b
Review
7.20 2 Interface with aircraft operation;
652 7.20 Details of take off and landing times are found in the tech log engine logbook aircraft logbook a
Maintenance-related information is transferred between aircraft logbook engine logbook aircraft technical
653 7.20 flight operations and maintenance staff by the log c
Maintenance inspection, /Quality Control, /Quality
7.20 2 (2Q) assurance;
In a Quality Assurance system, violations against non-conformances non-compliances observations
654 7.20 approved procedures are termed a
7.20 A Quality item is a luxury product fit for its purpose expensive b
Which of the following is NOT a quality related problem performing work having to work out of date
655 7.20 which is not overtime personnel b
approved records
In an aircraft maintenance organisation, "Quality inspections and the Quality eliminating non-
656 7.20 Control" is achieved by procedures Manager compliances a

70
 Duplicate inspections are required whenever work has by more than one by non-certifying on vital systems
been carried out person engineers such as flight
657 7.20 c
and engine
controls
The primary monitoring technique in a Quality inspections auditing staff feedback
658 7.20 Assurance System is b
Quality audit procedures contained in an Aircraft on all activities that every six months by external
659 7.20 Maintenance Organisation Exposition must be carried could affect aircraft auditors a
out safety
Level 1 findings raised by a QCAA auditor, must be within one month immediately by a date
corrected determined by
660 7.20 b
the accountable
manager
Quality findings are used to reward excellent record monitor
performance by organisational compliance with
661 7.20 b
individuals failures or regulations
deficiencies
7.20 2 Additional maintenance procedures;
What procedure must be carried out following an A Quality Audit A duplicate A second
inspection by a licensed engineer, after disturbing an inspection by an inspection by an
662 7.20 c
aircraft control system? independent approved
Quality Auditor person.
Two items are fitted both providing the same function. A non-critical SB effectivity Standby
663 7.20 Only one is switched on at a time. This is an example function redundancy c
of:
7.20 2 Control of life limited components.
All stored items that reach their recommended shelf life processed in scrapped returned to the
should be withdrawn from stock and accordance with manufacturer for
664 7.20 manufacturers processing a
instructions

71
 Aircraft components that have reached their life limit can never be re- can have their life
used extended iaw can be re-used if
stringent approved by the
665 7.20 regulations Chief Engineer b
of an approved
maintenance
organisation

72