12/07/2023 Code A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Current Electricity
Chemistry : Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics
Botany : Principles of Inheritance & Variation
Zoology : Reproductive Health

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. Effective resistance between A and B in the 2. Flow of charge through a given cross-
following circuit is section of a conductor is given by Q = (t3 +
2t) C. Then the current through the
conductor at t = 1 s is
(1) 15 A
(2) 10 A
(3) 5 A
(4) 2.5 A

(1) 10 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 5 Ω @DefeatNEET
(4) 20 Ω
3

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

3. The equivalent resistance across AB is 8. The current I in the circuit is

(1) 15 Ω
(2) 8/15 Ω
(3) 1/15 Ω (1) 1 A
(4) 15/8 Ω (2) 2 A
(3) 1
A
3

4. In the given circuit, the current flowing (4) 1

A
through the 2 Ω resistor is 2

9. Two electric bulbs rated as (100 W, 220 V)

and (50 W, 220 V) are connected in series
across a 300 V supply. Heat generated will
be more in
(1) 100 W bulb
(2) 50 W bulb
(3) Both bulbs will be equally bright
(1) 2 A (4) 50 W bulb will fuse
(2) 0.2 A
(3) 0.5 A 10. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is
(4) 1 A connected in series with an external
resistance nr. The terminal potential
difference across the cell will be
5. Current density is
(1) E
(1) A scalar quantity n+1

(2) A vector quantity (2) E

n
(3) Neither a scalar nor a vector quantity
(3) (n+1)E

(4) Sometimes a scalar sometimes a n

vector quantity (4) n

( )E
n+1

6. Two bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio

2 : 3 are connected in series with a steady 11. A : Electric energy consumption is measured
voltage source. The ratio of powers in commercial units.
expended in the bulbs will be R : Kilovolt-ampere and kilowatt-hour have
(1) 3 : 4 the same dimensions.
(2) 4 : 9 (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(3) 2 : 3 the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(4) 1 : 2
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
7. A potentiometer wire of length 4 m is explanation of the assertion
connected to an ideal cell of EMF 5 V (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
through a series resistance of 2 Ω. is false
Resistance per unit length of the
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
potentiometer wire is 2 Ωm–1 . Current in the statements
wire is
(1) 0.6 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) 0.4 A
(4) 0.2 A

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

12. Choose the correct statement about the 10 V 16. A wire of resistance 9 ohm is broken into two
and 20 V battery in the given circuit. parts. The ratio of cut length 1 : 2. These two
pieces are connected in parallel. The net
resistance will be
(1) 2 Ω
(2) 3 Ω
(3) 4 Ω
(1) Only 20 volt battery is discharging
(4) 5 Ω
(2) Both 10 volt and 20 volt battery are
discharging
(3) Both 10 volt and 20 volt battery are 17. The energy lost per second through the
being charged resistor 4 Ω in the circuit will be
(4) 10 volt battery is discharging and 20
volt battery is being charged

13. Meterbridge is application of

(1) Archimede’s principle
(2) Newton’s principle
(3) Balance Wheatstone's bridge
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) 0.5 watt
(2) 1 watt
14. The reading of the ammeter in the adjoining (3) 0.16 watt
figure will be (4) 50 watt

18. The equivalent resistance between points A

and B in the infinite ladder circuit is

(1) 0.4 A
(2) 0.8 A (1) √5+1
Ω
(3) 0.2 A 2

(4) 0.6 A (2) √5−1

Ω
2

(3) 3Ω
15. The potential difference between points X
–
and Y of the circuit shown in figure is (4) √5 Ω

19. Three cells each of emf E and internal

resistance r are connected in mixed
combination across a resistance R as shown
in the figure. The power dissipated in the
resistor R is maximum if

(1) 5
V
9

(2) 5
V
3

(3) 5 V
(4) Zero (1) R = 3r
(2) R=r
(3) R = 3r/2
(4) R = r/2

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

20. The power dissipated across the 3 Ω resistor 24. In the circuit shown below,
in the circuit shown is

(1) 30.45 W
(2) 21.33 W
(3) 36 W
(4) 2 W

The potential difference between point A

21. In the meterbridge shown below, the and B is
balance point is found to be 0.625 m from A.
(1) Zero
The value of resistor R is
(2) –2 V
(3) 4 V
(4) – 4 V

25. Two cells A and B, each of emf 20 V, are

connected in series to an external resistance
R = 10 Ω. If the internal resistance of cell `A'
is 2 Ω and that of cell "B" is 3 Ω, then
(1) 10 Ω potential difference between the terminals of
(2) 5 Ω cell B is
(3) 20 Ω
(4) 15 Ω

22. Two bulbs of power rating 100 W, 220 V, are

connected in series across a 220 V supply.
The power consumed in circuit will be
(1) 50 W (1) 10 V
(2) 100 W (2) 12 V
(3) 200 W (3) 11 V
(4) 25 W (4) 14 V

23. The ratio of effective resistance between A to 26. The current I through the 2Ω resistor in the
B and A to F for the network shown below network shown in figure.

(1) 3A
(2) 4A
(3) 1A
(4) 2A

(1) 2:3
27. For an electric field of 10 N/C, a current
(2) 1:1 density of 2 A/m2 is produced in a metallic
(3) 1:3 conductor. The electric field required for a
(4) 3:4 current density of 1 A/m2 is
(1) 50 N/C
(2) 5 N/C
(3) 2 N/C
(4) 1 N/C

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

28. In the following figure the equivalent 32. Kirchhoff’s loop rule is based on
resistance of the circuit between the points P (1) Law of conservation of energy
and S is
(2) Law of conservation of charge
(3) Law of conservation of momentum
(4) Wheatstone bridge

33. In the given figure current in some branches

of an electrical circuit is shown. Value of I is

(1) 55 Ω
(2) 30 Ω
(3) 48 Ω
(4) 34 Ω

29. Figure shows a balanced wheatstone

bridge. The value of R is

(1) 4 A
(2) 12 A
(3) 5 A
(4) 3 A

34. If the reading of voltmeter as shown in figure

is 5 V, then resistance of the voltmeter will
(1) 20 Ω be
(2) 25 Ω
(3) 40 Ω
(4) 15 Ω

30. The effective resistance of the circuit shown

in figure across XY is

(1) 20 Ω
(2) 30 Ω
(3) 50 Ω
(4) 40 Ω
(1) 10 Ω
(2) 15 Ω
35. The reading of ammeter in the circuit shown
(3) 25 Ω
in the figure is
(4) 70 Ω

31. Find the ratio of currents i1 and i2

(1) 3A
(2) 2A
(1) 7:2 (3) 1.5 A
(2) 9:2 (4) 2.5 A
(3) 5:4
(4) 9:1

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

SECTION-B

36. A potentiometer wire is 200 cm and a 39. What is the ratio of maximum and minimum
constant potential difference is maintained resistance obtained by combining n
across it. Two cells are connected in series resistors, each of resistance R?
first to support one another and then to (1) n2
oppose each other. The balance point
obtained at 80 cm and 30 cm from positive (2) n
end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of (3) 1

emf is
2
n

(1) 7 (4) 1

n
5

(2) 7

3
40. A battery of emf 6.0 volts and internal
(3) 11
resistance 0.10 Ω is being charged with a
3
current of 5.0 A. What is the potential
(4) 11
difference between terminals of battery?
5

(1) 3 volt
(2) 6.5 volt
37. In the network shown points A, B and C have
potential of 70 V, zero and 10 V respectively. (3) 5.5 volt
(4) 1 volt

41. In meter bridge set-up with null deflection in

galvanometer as shown in figure. The value
of unknown resistor R is

The ratio of current in the section AD, DB

and DC are
(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 3 (1) 80 Ω
(3) 5 : 3 : 1 (2) 100 Ω
(4) 1 : 3 : 5 (3) 160 Ω
(4) 120 Ω
38. If the ammeter in the given circuit reads 2 A,
then the value of resistance R will be 42. Find the equivalent resistance between A &
B

(1) R1 + R2 + R3
(2) R1 R2
+ R3
R1 +R2

(3) R1 +
R2 R3

(1) 1Ω R2 +R3

(2) 2Ω (4) 1
+
1

R1 R2 +R3
(3) 4Ω
(4) 3Ω

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

43. In the wheatstone bridge network shown in 47. The resistance of the following carbon
figure. The current passing through battery is resistor is

(1) (42 × 102 ) Ω ± 10%

(2) (22 × 102 ) Ω ± 20%
(3) (42 × 102 ) Ω ± 5%
(4) (12 × 103 ) Ω ± 5%

48. The current (I) supplied by the battery is

(1) 4 A
(2) 3 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 1 A

44. The V-I characteristics of a non-ohmic

device is shown in the figure. Which region
represents the negative resistance region?
(1) 10 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 20 A
(4) 2 A

49. The potential difference

( VA − VB ) between the points A and B in
the given figure is
(1) OA
(2) AB
(3) BC
(4) CD (1) –3 V
(2) +3 V
45. In the given arrangement, the galvanometer (3) +6 V
shows null deflection. The value of X is (4) +9 V

50. An ideal voltmeter V and ideal ammeter A

are connected in a circuit as shown in the
figure. If the reading of the voltmeter is 32 V,
the reading of ammeter will be

(1) 200 Ω
(2) 50 Ω
9

(3) 25 Ω
(4) 25 Ω
2

46. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) 4A
(1) Resistance of ideal ammeter is zero
(2) 8A
(2) Resistance of ideal voltmeter is infinite
(3) 10 A
(3) Melting point of fuse wire is very high
(4) 80 A
(4) Internal resistance of the cell can be
determined by using potentiometer

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. On diluting aqueous solution of weak 56. For a reaction, with every 10°C rise in
electrolyte by 100 times temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
(1) Conductivity increases but equivalent temperature is increased from 10°C to 40°C,
conductivity decreases then the rate of the reaction will become
(2) Molar conductivity decreases but (1) 2 times
equivalent conductivity increases (2) 8 times
(3) Conductivity increases but molar (3) 32 times
conductivity decreases (4) 16 times
(4) Conductivity decreases but molar
conductivity increases
57. Consider the two half cells,
A+(aq) → A(s); Eºred = 0.80 V
52. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode
B2+(aq) → B(s); Eºred = –0.44 V
(pH2 = 1 atm) which is placed in a solution of
The Eºcell for the spontaneous cell reaction
pH = 2, is
is
(1) –0.33 V
(1) 1.24 V
(2) –0.118 V
(2) –0.36 V
(3) –0.71 V
(3) 0.36 V
(4) –0.92 V
(4) –1.24 V

53. The relation between t 3 and t 15 for a first

4 10 58. The unit of rate constant for a zero order
order reaction will be reaction is
(1) t = 3 × t
3 15 (1) mol–1 Ls–1
4 16

(2) 1 (2) s–1

t 3 = ×t 15

(3) mol–1 L–1 s

2
4 16

(3) t 3 =
16
×t 15
(4) molL–1 s–1
15
4 16

(4) t 3 = t 15

59. If rate constant of a reaction is 4.606 × 10–3

4 16

s–1 then the time required for the completion

54. Standard Gibb's energy for the given of 90% of the reaction is
reaction is (1) 100 s
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
(2) 200 s
(Given E
∘
= 0.34 Vand
Cu
2+
/ Cu (3) 400 s
E
o
2+
= −0.76 V ) (4) 500 s
Zn / Zn

(1) –212.3 kJ mol–1

60. The rate constant for a reaction is given by
(2) 212.3 kJ mol–1 −2000
In k = T + 20. 14
(3) 110.61 kJ mol–1
Activation energy, Ea for this reaction will be
(4) –110.61 kJ mol–1 (1) 1.67 kJ mol–1
(2) 4 kcal mol–1
55. Half life of a chemical reaction at a particular
(3) 38.3 kJ mol–1
concentration is 75 min. When the
concentration of the reactant is doubled, the (4) 9 kcal mol–1
half life becomes 150 min. What is the order
of reaction?
(1) First order
(2) Zero order
(3) Second order
(4) Third order

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

61. Consider the following statements 67. The half life for a first order reaction is 6.93
a. Inversion of cane sugar is pseudo first min, then its rate constant will be
order reaction (1) 4.2 × 10–1 min–1
b. For first order reaction, t1/2 is independent
(2) 10–2 min–1
of initial concentration of the reactant
c. Artificial radioactive decay of unstable (3) 2 × 10–1 min–1
nuclei follow zero order kinetics
The correct statement (s) is/are (4) 10–1 min–1
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only 68. The ion which has the maximum value of
(3) (a) and (b) only limiting molar conductivity in water at 298 K
is
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Na+
(2) Mg2+
62. The metal which will react with dilute HCl to
give hydrogen gas is (3) Ca2+
(1) Cu (4) H+
(2) Ag
(3) Zn
69. If the equivalent conductance of
M
solution
(4) Au 20

of a weak monobasic acid is 25.0 S cm2 eq–

1 and at infinite dilution is 250 S cm2 eq –1 ,
63. The rate law for a reaction is represented as
then dissociation constant of the acid is
Rate = k[A]1/2 [B]1/2
The overall order of the reaction will be (1) 2.5 × 10–3
(1) 0.5 (2) 5.6 × 10–4
(2) 1 (3) 2.5 × 10–5
(3) 2 (4) 5 × 10–5
(4) 1.5

70. Weight of magnesium (atomic mass = 24 u)

64. Hydrolysis of methyl acetate in presence of deposited by a quantity of electricity which
acid catalyst is an example of displaces 11200 mL of Cl2 gas at STP will
(1) Third order reaction be
(2) Second order reaction (1) 6 g
(3) Pseudo first order reaction (2) 9 g
(4) Zero order reaction (3) 12 g
(4) 24 g
65. Unit of cell constant is
(1) cm 71. The cell potential remains constant in
(2) cm–1 (1) Dry cell
(3) cm2 (2) Mercury cell
(4) cm–2 (3) Lead storage battery
(4) Nickel-cadmium cell

66. A : For a first order reaction t99.9% = 10 ×

t50%. 72. If the half life period of a reaction becomes
halved when initial concentration of reactant
R : Half life of first order reaction is
is doubled, then the order of the reaction is
independent of initial concentration of
reactants. (1) Zero
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) 2
the reason is the correct explanation of (3) 1
the assertion (4) 1.5
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion 73. The slope of plot between ln k vs
1
gives
T

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (1) ln A

is false (2) – ln A
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) − E a

statements R

(4) Ea

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

74. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. rate 80. Limiting molar conductivities for NaCl, HCl
constant? and CH3 COONa respectively are 126.4,
(1) Its value increases with increase in 425.9 and 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 . Limiting molar
temperature conductivity for CH3 COOH is
(2) Its value does not depend upon initial (1) 690.5 S cm2 mol–1
concentrations
(2) 590.5 S cm2 mol–1
(3) Faster reactions have low value of rate
constant (3) 390.5 S cm2 mol–1
(4) It has a definite value at a given (4) 490.5 S cm2 mol–1
temperature

81. Cathode used in Leclanche cell is

75. The quantity of electricity (in Faraday)
(1) Zinc-mercury amalgam
required to completely reduce 0.2 mol of
−
MnO to Mn
2+ ions is (2) Graphite rod surrounded by MnO2 and
4
carbon
(1) 1
(3) Paste of HgO and carbon
(2) 2
(4) Paste of KOH and ZnO
(3) 5
(4) 4
82. Standard reduction electrode potential of
four metals A, B, C and D are –1.6 V, +0.75
76. If 50 ampere current is passed for 965 V, +0.15 V and –0.5 V respectively. The
seconds to a copper sulphate solution, then maximum reducing power is of
the mass of copper deposited at cathode is (1) A
(Atomic weight of copper = 63.5)
(2) B
(1) 31.8 g
(3) C
(2) 15.87 g
(4) D
(3) 63.5 g
(4) 7.93 g
83. The emf of the following cell at 25ºC is
P t, H2 ∣ ∣∣ ∣
∣HCl (1 M ) ∣ ∣HCl(1 M ) ∣ H2 , P t
77. Find the value of Ea of backward reaction (2 atm) (20 atm)

(1) 0.06 V
(2) 0.03 V
(3) – 0.03 V
(4) – 0.01 V

84. Which of the following statements about

order and molecularity of a reaction is
(1) 100 J incorrect?
(2) 60 J (1) Order of a reaction is an experimental
quantity
(3) 40 J
(2) Order of a reaction may be fractional
(4) 80 J
(3) Molecularity is applicable only for
elementary reactions
78. If conductivity of 0.2 M CuSO4 at 298 K is 1.8 (4) For complex reactions, order has no
× 10–2 S cm–1 then its molar conductivity is meaning
(1) 180 S cm–2 mol–1
(2) 45 S cm2 mol–1 85. Consider the following statements.
a. All rate constants have same dimensions.
(3) 90 S cm2 mol–1
b. Rate constants depend on temperature.
(4) 130 S cm2 mol–1 c. Rate constant can never be negative.
Select the incorrect statement(s).
(1) Only a
79. In lead storage battery, what happens to the
(2) a & b
mass of PbO2 on charging and discharging
respectively? (3) b & c
(1) Increases, decreases (4) a & c
(2) Decreases, increases
(3) Increases, increases
(4) Decreases, decreases

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

SECTION-B

86. Mechanism of the reaction, 2O3 → 3O2 will 91. For strong electrolyte, variations of molar
be as follows. conductivity with concentration is given by
Ke q equation
−
−
(I) O3 ⇌ O2 + O (Fast step) (1) λm = λ∘m + A√C
K1
−
−
(II) O3 + O → 2O2 (slow step) (2) ∘
λm = λm + A√C
Order of reaction with respect to O3 is (3) ∘
3 −
−
λm = λm + A√C
(1) 1 3 −
−
(4) ∘
λm = λm + A√C
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) 1 92. Which of the following is correct at
2 equilibrium?
(1) E°cell = 0, ΔG° = 0
87. The rate law for a reaction between the (2) Ecell = 0, ΔG = 0
substances A & B is given by rate = k[A]n (3) Ecell ≠ 0, ΔG = 0
[B]m on doubling the concentration of A and
(4) E°cell ≠ 0, ΔG° = 0
halving concentration of B the ratio of the
new rate to the earlier rate of reaction will be
__ 93. In H2 –O2 fuel cell, the overall cell reaction is
(1) m + n
(1) H2 O(I) → H
+
(aq) + OH
−
(aq)
(2) n – m
(2) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2 O(l)
(3) 2(n – m)
(4) 2m+n (3) 2H2 O(l) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)

(4) H
+
(aq) + OH
−
(aq) → H2 O(l)

88. Iron is galvanised by

(1) Copper 94. For a hypothetical reaction A → B the rate
(2) Nickel constant is 0.25 s–1 . If the concentration of A
(3) Zinc is reduced in half, then the value of rate
constant is _________
(4) Chromium
(1) 0.30 sec–1
(2) 0.25 sec–1
89. The half cell potential for the electrode
Pt, Cl2 (1 bar) | 2 Cl– (10 M); (E° = 1.36 V), is (3) 0.075 sec–1
(1) 1.3 V (4) 2.25 sec–1
(2) 1.11 V
(3) 1.9 V 95. For which of the following hydrogen
(4) 1.01 V electrode, half cell potential is 0 volt?
(1) Pt(s) |H2 (g, 1 bar)| H+ (aq, 1 M)
90. A : Order of a reaction can be zero. (2) Pt(s) |H2 (g, 2 bar)| H+ (aq, 2 M)
R : Order of reaction is a theoretical term.
(3) Pt(s) |H2 (g, 1 bar)| H+ (aq, 2 M)
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (4) Pt(s) |H2 (g, 2 bar)| H+ (aq, 1 M)
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct 96. Among the following which represents
explanation of the assertion concentration cell?
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (1) Pt |H2 | H+ ∥ Ag+ ∣ Ag
is false (2) + +
Pt |H2 | H ||H |H2 | Pt
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (3) Cu ∣
∣Cu
2+
∣ ∣Au
∣∣
3+
∣ Au
∣

(4) Zn ∣
∣Zn
2+
∣∣
∣ ∣Ag
+
∣
∣ Ag

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Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

97. In Arrhenius equation 99. During the electrolysis of dil. H2 SO4 using
k = Ae
−Ea / RT
inert electrodes, the gas liberated at anode
When T → ∞, the value of rate constant will is
be (1) H2
(1) A (2) O2
(2) A/Ea (3) SO2
(3) Zero
(4) SO3
(4) A × Ea

100. Equilibrium constant of a reaction at 25°C

98. A plot of concentration vs time gives a involving 2 electrons will be (Given,
straight line for zero order reaction. The standard cell potential = 0.295 V)
slope of the line is (k is rate constant of (1) 10
reaction)
(2) 1010
(1) k
(2) 1 (3) 10–10
k
(4) 1
(3) –k
(4) –
1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are 104. Skin colour in human, an example of
similar as ‘polygenic inheritance’ is controlled by
(1) Genes responsible for both of them are (1) 7 genes
present on chromosome 11 (2) 3 genes
(2) Both are qualitative problem of (3) 12 genes
synthesising incorrectly functioning
(4) 8 genes
globin protein
(3) These are X linked disorders
(4) These occur due to transversion 105. In ABO blood grouping
mutation (1) Allele IA and IB do not produce any
sugar
102. A man with blood group O is married with a (2) Allele i produces a slightly different
woman with blood group AB. What are the form of sugar
possible blood groups of their children? (3) A total of four different genotypes are
(1) A and B formed
(2) A and AB (4) Individuals with AB blood group will
never have allele i
(3) B and O
(4) O and AB
106. Select the incorrect statement with respect
to law of segregation?
103. Select the incorrect one for polygenic
(1) The law is based on the fact that two
inheritance.
factors of a character do not show any
(1) Controlled by multiple genes blending
(2) It can be influenced by environment (2) Both the traits are recovered as such in
(3) It counts expression of each allele F2 generation
(4) In human skin colour, the phenotype (3) Gamete receives both the factors of a
reflects the contribution of only character during gamete formation
dominant alleles in additive manner
(4) Heterozygous individual produces two
kinds of gametes each having one
factor with equal proportion

12
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

107. What is the probability of obtaining 113. Human females have

individuals with genotype PpqqRr, when a (1) Autosomes + XX
cross is made between the parents with
(2) Autosomes + XY
genotypes PpQqRr × ppqqrr?
(1) 1 (3) Autosomes + XO
8
(4) Autosomes + ZW
(2) 1

(3) 1 114. ‘X-body’ observed by Henking in few insects

16
is
(4) 1
(1) Received by all the sperms after
4
spermatogenesis
(2) The X-chromosome of insects
108. Mark the incorrect ratio w.r.t. genetic
crosses. (3) Present in only 50% of the eggs in
grasshoppers
(1) Monohybrid phenotypic ratio- 3 : 1
(4) Found in those species which have
(2) Dihybrid genotypic ratio -1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : only XY type of sex determination
2:1:2:1
(3) Monohybrid genotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 1
115. A haemophilic male marries to a normal
(4) Incomplete dominance –1 : 1 : 1
woman who is daughter of a haemophilic
father. What percentage of male progenies
109. In a clinical diagnosis a female ‘A’ was of this couple will be normal?
identified with absence of secondary sexual (1) 50%
characters and has rudimentary ovaries. (2) 100%
Which of the given statements can be true
for the female ‘A’? (3) 25%
(1) The chromosome complement of the (4) 75%
female cannot be 44 + XO
(2) The female is suffering from a sex 116. Slightly different forms of the same gene are
recessive linked disorder called
(3) Mother of this female may be producing (1) Genotype
abnormal egg (22 + O) and father (2) Phenotype
producing normal sperm (22 + X)
(3) Alleles
(4) This female may pass this disorder to
(4) Homozygous
her daughters

117. Male honeybee

110. Mendel selected pea plant due to many
reasons. One of those reasons is that (1) Is developed parthenogenetically
(1) It completes its life cycle in one season (2) Produces sperms by meiosis
(2) It produces few number of seeds (3) Has father but not grandfather
(3) No plants are true breeding (4) Show ZZ-ZW type of sex determination
(4) Pea has little number of alternative
traits 118. Which of the following cannot be studied by
using monohybrid cross?
111. If the F1 resembles both the parents, the (1) Law of dominance
condition is known as (2) Law of segregation
(1) Dominance (3) Law of independent assortment
(2) Co-dominance (4) Incomplete dominance
(3) Blending inheritance
(4) Incomplete dominance 119. The term linkage was given by
(1) W. Sutton
112. Drosophila melanogaster is used as (2) T. Boveri
experimental material as it (3) G. Mendel
(a) Can be easily grown on simple synthetic
(4) T.H. Morgan
medium
(b) Has large life span
(c) Has clear cut sex differentiation
(d) Reproduce parthenogenetically
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

13
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

120. The disease sickle cell anaemia can be 127. The condition that results polyploidy is
transmitted from parent to offspring when (1) Segregation of chromosomes without
(1) Only mother is the carrier for the gene DNA replication
(2) Only father is the carrier for the gene (2) Unequal distribution of chromosomes
(3) Both the parents are the carrier for the during cell division
gene (3) Failure in cell division after DNA
(4) Only father carries homozygous replication
recessive trait (4) Presence of more than one origins of
replication in DNA
121. Incomplete dominance is exemplified by
(1) AB blood group in humans 128. The chromosome compliment that results
Klinefelter’s syndrome is
(2) Flower colour in Antirrhinum
(1) 44 + XXY
(3) Flower colour in garden pea
(2) 42 + XY
(4) ABO blood group
(3) 44 + X
(4) 45 + XX
122. Select the correct option w.r.t. multiple
alleles of a gene.
(1) They affect different characters 129. Allosomic monosomy is seen in
(2) Show crossing over between (1) Down’s syndrome
themselves (2) Turner’s syndrome
(3) Can be found only when population (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome
studies are made (4) Edward syndrome
(4) Can be easily studied in an individual
130. Linkage
123. Which one of the following genotype can (1) Term was coined by Sutton and Boveri
produce only eight different types of
(2) Describes the generation of non-
gametes?
parental gene combinations
(1) AaBbcc
(3) Refers to physical association of genes
(2) AaBbccDd on same chromosomes
(3) AaBbCcDd (4) Is 100% in genes located on different
(4) AABBccdd chromosomes

124. Which one is not an autosomal recessive 131. XO type of sex determination is found in
disorder? (1) Grasshopper
(1) Thalassemia (2) Human
(2) Sickle cell anaemia (3) Butterfly
(3) Colourblindness (4) Bird
(4) Phenylketonuria
132. In pedigree analysis, the symbol for affected
125. First genetic map for Drosophila was male is
prepared by (1)
(1) T.H. Morgan
(2) A.H. Sturtevant (2)
(3) Sutton and Boveri
(4) G.J. Mendel (3)

126. Down's syndrome occurs due to (4)

(1) Substitution mutation
(2) Duplication of chromosomes
(3) Non-disjunction of chromosome
(4) Polyploidy

14
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

133. Genotype of a true breeding tall pea plant 135. Mark true (T) or false (F) for the statements
can be written as given below and select the correct option.
(a) TT (A) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is
(b) Tt controlled by a pleiotropic gene
(c) tt (B) Dominance is not an autonomous
(1) (a) only feature of a gene
(C) A single gene product never produce
(2) (b) only
more than one effect
(3) (c) only
ABC
(4) Both (a) & (b)
(1) T T F
(2) F T T
134. Which one of the following Mendelian
disorder is autosomal and dominant? (3) T F F
(1) Cystic fibrosis (4) F F T
(2) Myotonic dystrophy (1) (1)
(3) Sickle cell anaemia (2) (2)
(4) Haemophilia (3) (3)
(4) (4)

SECTION-B

136. Find out correct option w.r.t. constricted pod 139. Which of the given diseases is caused by
shape trait in pea plant. transversion of the gene controlling β-chain
(1) Can express only in homozygous of haemoglobin?
condition (1) Thalassemia
(2) Can express in heterozygous condition (2) Sickle-cell anaemia
(3) Can express in both homozygous and (3) Phenylketonuria
heterozygous condition (4) Haemophilia
(4) Is controlled by polygenes
140. When a pyrimidine base is substituted by
137. Probability of three sons to a couple is another pyrimidine base the type of mutation
(1) 1 is called
2
(1) Transition
(2) 1

4 (2) Transversion
(3) 1
(3) Inversion
8
(4) Insertion
(4) 1

16

141. Chromosomal aberration includes

138. Male heterogamety means males are able to (1) Deletion of a part of chromosome
produce two different types of gametes. In (2) Deletion of one base
which of the following, 50% of sperms are
without sex chromosome? (3) Transition
(1) Humans (4) Transversion
(2) Drosophila
(3) Grasshopper 142. The abnormality which arises due to
increase in chromosome number is
(4) Birds
(1) Myotonic dystrophy
(2) Down’s syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Cystic fibrosis

15
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

143. In pedigree analysis, symbol for the 147. The recessive allele
consanguineous mating is (1) May produce non functional enzyme
(1) (2) Is unmodified allele
(3) Produces normal enzyme
(2)
(4) Can express itself in heterozygous
condition

148. In how many of the following organisms,

(3) sperm will decide the sex of progenies?
(a) Drosophila
(b) Birds
(4) (c) Moths
(d) Humans
(1) 4
144. Point mutation is a change in
(2) 2
(1) A single base pair of DNA
(3) 3
(2) Entire sequence of base pairs in a
(4) 1
mRNA
(3) Three base pairs of DNA due to
deletion 149. Queen Victoria was carrier of the disease
(4) Two base pairs of DNA due to addition called
(1) Sickle–cell anaemia
(2) Phenylketonuria
145. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. typical
test cross. (3) Myotonic dystrophy
(1) Progenies of such cross can be (4) Haemophilia
analysed to predict the genotype of the
test organism
150. Identify the inheritance pattern in the given
(2) Organism showing a dominant pedigree.
phenotype is crossed with the
recessive parent
(3) Organisms are self-crossed
(4) Genotypic ratio is for monohybrid test
cross will be 1 : 1

146. A diploid organism is heterozygous for five

loci and homozygous for 2 loci. If out of the 5
heterozygous loci three are completely
linked then how many gametes will be
formed? (1) Y-linked
(1) 8 (2) Autosomal recessive
(2) 12 (3) Autosomal dominant
(3) 14 (4) Sex linked recessive
(4) 28

16
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Which of the following is wrongly matched in 153. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. the
the given table? technique shown in figure
Contraceptive Nature Effect
Prevent
conception
by blocking
(1) Cervical caps Barrier the entry of
sperm
through
cervix.
Makes
Hormone uterus
(2) Progestasert releasing unsuitable
IUD for
implantation
Oral
contraceptive
Prevents (1) It is a sterlisation procedure
(3) Saheli progesteron-
ovulation (2) It has poor reversibility
estrogen
combination (3) It represents vasectomy
Inhibits (4) It blocks gamete transport
Oral
ovulation
(4) POP contraceptive
and
of progestin 154. In a mature human male, if the vasa
implantation
deferentia of both sides are cut and ligated
(1) (1) then all of the following may be observed
(2) (2) except
(3) (3) (1) Secretion of male sex hormone
continues
(4) (4)
(2) Semen is without sperms
(3) Transport of sperms to ejaculatory duct
152. Match column I with column II and select the
is blocked
correct option.
(4) Increase in sperm count
Column I Column II
a. Syphilis (i) HPV 155. Contraceptive efficiency of cervical caps can
be increased by
Genital Haemophilus
b. (ii) (1) Re-using the same device
herpes ducrei
(2) Use along with spermicides
Genital Treponema
c. (iii) (3) Insertion into cervix after seven days of
warts pallidum
coitus
d. Chancroid (iv) HSV-2 (4) Insertion by a doctor or a nurse

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

156. One of the most widely accepted artificial
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
method of contraception in India is
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Cervical caps
(3) IUDs
(4) Coitus interruptus

157. Hormone releasing IUD is

(1) LNG-20
(2) Cu7
(3) Lippe’s loop
(4) Multiload 375

17
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

158. In India, legal marriageable age of female is 163. Voluntary termination of pregnancy before
_______ and that of male is _______ years. full term
Select the option that fills the blanks A. Is considered safe up to 12 weeks.
correctly. B. Was legalised by Government of India in
(1) 20, 21 1951.
C. Is always surgical and is effective only
(2) 18, 21
within 72 hours of coitus.
(3) 16, 18 D. Requires assistance of qualified medical
(4) 21, 24 professionals
Choose the correct option
(1) A & B
159. All are medicated intrauterine devices,
except (2) B & D
(1) Cu-T (3) A & D
(2) Progestasert (4) C & D
(3) Cu-7
(4) Lippes loop 164. Which of the following ART involves direct
injection of sperm into the ovum?
(1) IUI
160. Select the mismatch w.r.t. mode of action
(2) GIFT
(1) Oral pills – Inhibit ovulation and
implantation (3) ZIFT
(2) Vasectomy – Block gamete transport (4) ICSI
and gametogenesis
(3) Diaphragms – Prevent physical 165. Which of the following statements is/are
meeting of male and female gametes incorrect regarding birth control methods?
(4) LNG 20 – Alters the quality of cervical I. Condoms protect the user from sexually
mucus and makes cervix hostile to transmitted diseases.
sperms II. Saheli inhibits ovulation and implantation.
III. Saheli is taken orally for 21 days in a
menstrual cycle starting from 5th day and
161. A : Government of India legalised MTP in
1951. ending on 25th day.
R : MTPs are considered illegal after the first IV. Insertion of IUD within 72 hours of coitus
2 months of pregnancy. have been found to be effective as
emergency contraceptives.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (1) I & III only
the assertion (2) II & IV only
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (3) I & II only
the reason is not the correct (4) II & III only
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false 166. Syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection, is
caused by the infection of
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
statements
(2) Treponema pallidum
(3) Human Immuno deficiency virus
162. Select the correct option.
(4) Human papilloma virus
(1) Amniocentesis is used to test for
Down’s syndrome, haemophilia and
sickle cell anemia 167. Read the statements given below and
(2) A rapid increase in maternal mortality choose the correct option regarding true (T)
rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate and false (F) statements.
(IMR) are the reasons for population a. Sterilisation is a terminal method of
explosion contraception to prevent any more possible
(3) “Saheli” was made at NDRI, Lucknow pregnancies.
b. Progestasert makes cervix hostile to the
(4) The “family planning” programmes sperms.
were initiated in India in 1971 c. STDs can increase the chances of ectopic
pregnancies.
d. Saheli contains combination of
progesterone and estrogen.
(1) a(T), b(F), c(T), d(F)
(2) a(F), b(T), c(F), d(T)
(3) a(T), b(T), c(F), d(F)
(4) a(T), b(T), c(T), d(F)

18
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

168. In the ZIFT procedure, zygote or embryo with 174. Choose the correct option on the basis of
upto 8 blastomeres can be transferred into following statements.
the I. MTP is a technique involving induced
(1) Uterus abortion aiming at decreasing the
population.
(2) Placenta
II. MTP is safe up to third trimester of
(3) Fallopian tube gestation period.
(4) Cervix III. Government of India legalised MTP in
1974.
IV. MTP is essential in some cases where
169. Copper releasing IUD is continuation of pregnancy could be harmful
(1) Lippe’s loop to mother.
(2) Progestasert (1) I, II and IV are correct
(3) LNG - 20 (2) I, II and III are correct
(4) Multiload 375 (3) Only III and IV are correct
(4) Only IV is correct
170. Amniocentesis can be used to determine all
of the following except 175. Which contraceptive method delays
(1) Sex of the foetus conception for longest period when applied
(2) Down’s syndrome or taken only once?
(3) Cleft palate (1) Saheli pill
(4) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Diaphragm
(3) Implant
171. Among the following sets which involve only (4) Cervical cap
in-vitro fertilization methods?
(1) GIFT, IUT, ICSI 176. Among the following which has least failure
(2) GIFT, ZIFT only rate?
(3) ZIFT, ICSI, IUT (1) Barrier method
(4) ZIFT, ICSI only (2) Implanted contraceptive
(3) Oral contraceptive
172. Select the mismatch w.r.t. function of (4) Coitus interrupts
contraceptives.
(1) Oral contraceptive pills – Prevent 177. Which is not true for non-steroidal pill
ovulation developed by CDRI, Lucknow?
(2) Barrier methods – Prevent physical (1) It contains centchroman that acts as
meeting of gametes selective estrogen receptor modulator
(3) Lactational amenorrhoea – Prevents (2) It is once a week pill called Saheli and
lactation no side effects have been reported so
far
(4) Vasectomy – Prevents gamete
transport (3) Implantation of embryos formed is
prevented as uterine epithelium has
decreased receptivity
173. Which of the following is not a complication
(4) Underlying principle of Saheli is
associated with STDs?
suppression of ovulation and complete
(1) PID absence of menstrual cycle
(2) Asthma
(3) Cancer 178. Which of the following is true for
(4) Ectopic pregnancies tubectomy?
(1) Ova production decreases
(2) Loss of sexual desire
(3) Degeneration of ovaries
(4) It blocks the transport of ova

179. Which of the following is not a natural

method of avoiding pregnancy?
(1) Lactational amenorrhea
(2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Diaphragm and vaults
(4) Periodic abstinence

19
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

180. The highest failure rate in birth control is 183. According to the 2011 census report, the
associated with population growth rate was still around
A. Condoms (1) 2%
B. Periodic abstinence
(2) 1.7%
C. Foam
D. The rhythm method (3) 3%
E. IUDs (4) 4%
F. Injectable contraceptives
(1) A, B and E
184. All the following are characteristics of ideal
(2) B and D contraceptives except
(3) F and B (1) Reversible i.e., if user wants to
(4) A, B and D conceive, it should be easy
(2) Presence of side effects
181. After IVF, the embryo with more than 8 (3) Prevent conception without interfering
blastomeres is transferred into with libido
(1) Fallopian tube (4) Comfortable and easy to use
(2) Ovary
(3) Vagina 185. A correct statement regarding the new form
(4) Uterus of birth control called ‘implant’ is that it
(1) Allows ovulation but does not allow
fertilization
182. Inability to conceive or produce children
(2) Makes cervical mucus thin in
even after _______ years of unprotected
consistency
sexual co-habitation is called infertility.
Choose an option to fill the blank. (3) Contains progestin as active ingredient
(1) One (4) Always is effective only for one year
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

SECTION-B

186. Unwanted pregnancies due to rape or 188. Read the following statements A and B.
casual unprotected intercourse can be Statement A : MTPs are considered
prevented by relatively safe during second trimester i.e.
(1) Lactational amenorrhea upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
Statement B : The legal standard procedure
(2) Pills within 72 hours of coitus
of prenatal diagnosis to determine the sex of
(3) IUDs after 10 days of coitus the unborn child is to perform amniocentesis
(4) Amniocentesis followed by MTP in India.
Select the correct option.
(1) Statement A is correct
187. Select the incorrect match.
(2) Statement B is correct
Lippes
(1) Non-medicated IUD – (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
loop
(4) Both the statements A and B are
Copper releasing Multiload incorrect
(2) –
IUD 375
Hormone releasing 189. Disease that is completely curable if
(3) – LNG-20
IUD detected early and treated properly is
(1) Hepatitis B
(4) Estrogen based IUD – Saheli
(2) Genital herpes
(1) (1) (3) AIDS
(2) (2) (4) Syphilis
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

20
Term Exam-2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03A

190. Which of the following factors has not 195. Select the correct set of barrier methods of
contributed to population explosion in India contraception.
since independence? (1) LNG-20, Condoms, Diaphragms
(1) Rise in MMR (2) Cervical caps, Vaults, Diaphragms
(2) Decline in IMR (3) Cervical cap, Vaults, Multiload 375
(3) Increase in number of people in (4) LNG-20, Multiload 375, Condoms
reproductive age group
(4) Increased health facilities
196. Which of the following is false w.r.t. hepatitis
B?
191. Read the following statements. (1) It is caused by HBV
A. Progestogen alone or in combination
(2) The causative virus has a dsDNA
with estrogen can also be used by females
genome
as injections or implants under the skin.
B. Their mode of action is similar to pills (3) It is a completely curable STD
but effective period is much shorter. (4) It can be prevented by vaccination
Choose the correct option.
(1) Both the statements are correct
197. An infertile couple where the female is
(2) Only statement A is correct normal while the male suffers from low
(3) Only statement B is correct sperm count in his ejaculate are usually
(4) Both the statements are incorrect treated by all except
(1) AI
(2) IUI
192. Read the following statements regarding
amniocentesis. (3) GIFT
Statement A : It is a test based on study of (4) IVF
chromosomal pattern of embryonic cells in
amniotic fluid to detect genetic disorder.
Statement B : It is useful in detection of 198. Mark the odd one out from the following
certain biochemical and enzymatic MTP, GIFT, IUT, AI
abnormalities. (1) MTP
Choose the correct option. (2) GIFT
(1) Both statements are incorrect (3) IUT
(2) Both statements are correct (4) AI
(3) Statement A is incorrect
(4) Statement B is incorrect 199. Mode of action of IUDs does not involve
(1) Phagocytosis of sperms in uterus
193. Decline in which of the following conditions (2) Inhibiting implantation
will not lead to increase in the growth of
(3) Inhibiting deposition of sperms in
population?
vagina
(1) Death rate
(4) Altering the quality of cervical mucus
(2) Infant mortality rate
(3) Maternal mortality rate
200. Which of the following is not effective for
(4) Number of people in reproducible age emergency contraception after coitus?
(1) Only progestogen pills
194. Multiload 375 (2) Progestogen-estrogen pills
(1) Is effective for nearly 300 days after (3) Only estrogen pills
insertion and placement in vagina
(4) IUDs
(2) Works by suppressing sperm motility
and fertilising capacity of sperms
(3) Is most widely accepted hormonal
method of contraception in the world
(4) Is a hormonal IUD that makes uterus
unsuitable for implantation

21