KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN

MUMBAI REGION

STUDENT STUDY SUPPORT MATERIAL

For
CBSE BOARD EXAMS 2023-24

CLASS – 10th
SUBJECT - SCIENCE
 GUIDANCE

Smt. SONA SETH

DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, KVS, MUMBAI REGION

Sh. SAMAJ V JOGLEKAR Sh. RAYAMALLU SOKALLA Sh. SUMIT MEHRA Smt. ALICE P KACHCHAP
ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER,
KVS, MUMBAI REGION KVS, MUMBAI REGION KVS, MUMBAI REGION KVS, MUMBAI REGION

SH. FEROZ KHAN SMT. SHABANA KHAN

Principal Principal
KV AJNI, NAGPUR KV GANESHKHIND, PUNE

Compilation and editing by

Dr. Deepesh (TGT-Bio) KV WCL, Chandrapur

Mrs. Archana R. Bhandare (TGT-Bio) KV No.1 Devlali, Nasik
Mrs. Rupa Sidhu (TGT-Sci) KV No.1 Vasco Da Gama, Goa
Mrs. Shipra Mishra(TGT Sci) KV Kamptee Nagpur
Ms. Saumya Neeraj (TGT-Sci) KVAurangabad Cantt
ALL TGT (BIO/SCI) of MUMBAI REGION
 CHAPTER 1
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

Content
Chemical reactions: Chemical equation, Balanced chemical equation, Implications of a balanced
chemical equation, types of chemical reactions: combination, decomposition, displacement, double
displacement, precipitation, endothermic, exothermic reactions, oxidation and reduction.
Chemical Reaction: A chemical reaction is a process in which one or more substances, also
called reactants, are converted to one or more different substances, known as products.
Substances are either chemical elements or compounds. The following activities are as given
below:

1. Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame and changes into a white powder.
This powder is magnesium oxide. It is formed due to the reaction between magnesium
and oxygen present in the air.
2. Take lead nitrate solution in a test tube; add potassium iodide solution to this, and then
we observed that lead (II) iodide and potassium nitrate is formed.
 3. Take a few zinc granules in a conical flask, add dilute hydrochloric acid or sulphuric acid
to this, and then we observed that hydrogen gas is evolved.
From the above three activities, any observation as stated below helps us to
determine whether a chemical reaction has taken place-
• Change in state
• Change in colour
• Evolution of gas
• Change in temperature.

Chemical Equations:
Chemical equations are symbolic representations of chemical reactions in which the reactants
and the products are expressed in terms of their respective chemical formulae.
Rules for writing chemical equation:

Certain rules have to be followed while writing a chemical equation.

1. The reactants taking part in the reaction are written in terms of their symbols or molecular
formulae on the left-hand side of the equation.
2. A plus (+) sign is added between the formulae of the reactants.
3. The products of reaction are written in terms of their symbols or molecular formulae on
the right-hand side of the equation.
4. A plus (+) sign is added between the formulae of the products.
5. In between the reactants and the products an arrow sign (⟶) is inserted to show which
way the reaction is occurring.
A + B ⟶ C + D
Reactants Products

In this hypothetical equation, A and B are the reactants, and C and D are the products. The
arrow indicates that the reaction proceeds towards the formation of C and D.
Representing the Direction of the Chemical Reaction
The reactants and the products can be separated by one of the following four symbols:

• In order to describe a net forward reaction, the symbol → is used.

• In order to describe a net backward reaction, the symbol is used.
• In order to describe a reaction that occurs in both forward and backward directions, the
symbol ⇄ is used.
• In order to describe a state of chemical equilibrium, the symbol ⇌ is used.
Multiple entities on either side of the reaction symbols describe above are separated from each
other with the help of the + symbol in a chemical equation. It can be noted that the → symbol,
when used in a chemical equation, is often read as gives rise to or yields.

Representing the Physical States of the Reacting Entities

These symbols may be one of the following:
 • The symbol (s) describes an entity in the solid state
• The symbol (l) denotes the liquid state of an entity
• The symbol (g) implies that the entity is in the gaseous state.
• The (aq) symbol corresponding to an entity in a chemical equation denotes an aqueous
solution of that entity.
In some reactions, a reactant or a product may be in the form of a precipitate which is insoluble
in the solution that the reaction is taking place in. The ↓ symbol is written next to the chemical
formula of these entities to describe them as precipitates.

Representing the Input of Energy in a Chemical Equation:

The Greek letter delta in its capitalized form (Δ) is used to state that an input of heat energy is
required by the reaction.

An example for which is represented below:

The reaction between hydrogen gas and oxygen gas to form water.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O (1)
Reactants Products
The reacting entities are written on the left-hand side (2 molecules of hydrogen and one molecule
of oxygen) whereas the products are written on the right-hand side (2 molecules of water is
formed) of the chemical equation.
Equation (1) divided by 2 both sides and we get
H2 + ½ O2 → H2O
Reactant Product
The reacting entities are written on the left-hand side (1 molecules of hydrogen and half
molecule of oxygen) whereas the products are written on the right-hand side (1 molecules of
water) of the chemical equation.
It can also be observed that there are coefficients assigned to each of the symbols of the
corresponding reactants and products. These coefficients of entities in a chemical equation are
the exact value of the stoichiometric number for that entity.
Balanced Chemical Equations:
The law of conservation of mass that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical
reaction. The total mass of the elements present in the products of a chemical reaction has to be
equal to the total mass of the elements present in the reactants.

EXAMPLE 1:
Write the chemical equation for the formation of magnesium oxide.
Step 1: Magnesium burns in oxygen to give magnesium oxide. Here, the reactants are
magnesium and oxygen. The product is magnesium oxide.
Step 2: Thus, the word equation is
Magnesium + Oxygen ⟶ Magnesium oxide
Step 3: Replacing the names with symbols and formulae, we get the chemical equation as
Mg + O2 ⟶ MgO
Reactants Products
Step 4: The numbers of atoms of the elements are
 Element Number of atoms in LHS Number of atoms in RHS

Mg 1 1

O 2 1

To balance oxygen on both sides, multiply RHS by 2, i.e.,

Mg + O2 ⟶ 2MgO
Now, the number of oxygen atoms is balanced but the number of magnesium atoms is not.
Therefore, multiply magnesium on the LHS by 2. Thus, the equation becomes
2Mg + O2 ⟶ 2MgO
this is the balanced chemical equation.

EXAMPLE 2:
The word-equation represented as –
Zinc + Sulphuric acid Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen
The above word-equation may be represented by the following chemical equation –
Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2

Let us examine the number of atoms of different elements on both sides of the arrow.
Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products (RHS)
(LHS)
Zn 1 1
H 2 2
S 1 1
O 4 4

As the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides of the arrow is a balanced
chemical equation.

EXAMPLE 3:
Let us try to balance the following chemical equation –
Fe + H2O Fe3O4 + H2

Step I: To balance a chemical equation, first draw boxes around each formula. Do not change
anything inside the boxes while balancing the equation.
Fe + H2O Fe3O4 + H2

Step II: List the number of atoms of different elements present in the unbalanced equation.
Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products (RHS)
(LHS)
Fe 1 3
H 2 2
O 1 4
Step III:
Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products (RHS)
(LHS)
Fe 1x3 3
H 2x4 2x4
O 1x4 4

Balanced equation:
3Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

As the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides of the arrow is a balanced
chemical equation.

List some Examples of Chemical Equations.

A few examples of chemical equations are listed in bulleted text below.

• PCl5 + H2O → H3PO4 + HCl

• SnO2 + H2 → H2O + Sn
• TiCl4 + H2O → TiO2 + HCl
• H3PO4 + KOH → K3PO4 + H2O
• Na2S + AgI → NaI + Ag2S
• Fe + CuCl2 ⟶ FeCl3 + Cu
• CaCl2 + AgNO3 → Ca(NO3)2 + AgCl↓

TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS:

1. Combination Reaction: A reaction in which two or more substances combine to form a

single new substance. Combination reactions can also be called synthesis reactions.

1. CaO(s) + H2O (l) Ca (OH)2(aq)

(Quick lime) (Slaked lime)
2. Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
(Calcium hydroxide) (Calcium carbonate)
3. C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g)
4. 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l)
5. CH4(g) + 2O2 (g) CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
6. C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(aq) 6CO2(aq) + 6H2O(l) + energy
(Glucose)

2. Decomposition Reaction: A reaction in which a compound breaks down into two or more
simpler substances.

Most decomposition reactions require an input of energy in the form of heat, light, or electricity.
 1. 2FeSO4(s) Heat Fe2O3(s) + SO2 (g) + SO3 (g)
(Ferrous sulphate) (Ferric oxide)
Heat
2. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(Limestone) (Quick lime)
3. 2AgCl(s) Sunlight 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)

4. 2Pb(NO3)2(s) Heat 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)

(Lead nitrate) (Lead oxide) (Nitrogen dioxide) (Oxygen)

Sunlight
5. 2AgBr(s) 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)

3. Displacement Reaction: A chemical reaction in which a more reactive element displaces a

less reactive element from its aqueous salt solution.

1. Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

(Copper sulphate) (Iron sulphate)
2. Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(Copper sulphate) (Zinc sulphate)
3. Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq) PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)
(Copper chloride) (Lead chloride)
4. Double Displacement Reaction: A chemical reaction in which ions gets exchanged between
two reactants which form a new compound is called a double displacement reaction.

1. Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

(Sodium sulphate) (Barium chloride) (Barium sulphate) (Sodium chloride)

5. Precipitation reaction: A precipitation reaction is a chemical reaction that occurs in aqueous

solution and form precipitates. The insoluble salt that falls out of the solution is known as the
precipitate. It can occur when two solutions containing different salts are mixed, and a
cation/anion pair in the resulting combined solution forms an insoluble salt. For example,
Aqueous silver nitrate (AgNO3) is added to a solution containing potassium chloride (KCl), and
the precipitation of a white solid, silver chloride (AgCl), is observed:
AgNO3 (aq) + KCl (aq) → AgCl (s) + KNO3 (aq)

EXOTHERMIC AND ENDOTHERMIC CHEMICAL REACTIONS:

EXOTHERMIC CHEMICAL REACTIONS: Reactions in which heat is released along with

the formation of products are called exothermic reactions. For examples:
CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
C6H12O6 (aq) + 6O2 (aq) 6CO2 (aq) + 6H2O (l) + energy
(Glucose)

ENDOTHERMIC CHEMICAL REACTIONS: A reaction that the system absorbs energy

from its surrounding in the form of heat.
When ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) is dissolved in water, an endothermic reaction takes place.
The salt dissociates into ammonium (NH4+) and chloride (Cl–) ions. The chemical equation can
be written as follows:
NH4Cl (s) + H2O (l) + Heat ⟶ NH4Cl (aq)
N2 + O2 2NO
Other Endothermic Processes:
(i) The melting of ice to form water.
(ii) Evaporation of liquid water, forming water vapour.
(iii) Sublimation of solid CO2.
(iv) The baking of bread.
OXIDATION: Oxidation refers to the loss of electrons by amolecule, atom, or ion.
REDUCTION: Reduction refers to the gain of electrons by amolecule, atom, or ion.
REDOX REACTIONS: A reduction-oxidation or redox reaction is a type of chemical reaction
in which reduction and oxidation occur at the same time.
OXIDATION: If substance gains oxygen during a reaction, it is said to, be oxidised. For
example:
2Cu + O2 2CuO
REDUCTION: If substance loses oxygen during a reaction, it is said to, be reduced. For
example:
CuO +H2 Cu+H2O
REDOX REACTIONS: If one reactant gets oxidised while other gets reduced during a reaction.
Such reactions are called oxidation-reduction reaction or Redox reaction.
OX
Heat
CuO +H2 Cu + H2O

RED

Some other examples of Redox reactions are:

1. ZnO + C Zn + CO

OX

ZnO + C Zn +CO

RED

2. MnO2 + HCl MnCl2 + H2O + Cl2

OX

MnO2 + HCl MnCl2 + H2O + Cl2

RED
 QUESTION BANK
MCQ
Q.1 Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4 H2 (g)
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised
(ii) Water is getting reduced
(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent
(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (in) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Q.2 Which of the following are exothermic processes?

(i) Reaction of water with quick lime
(ii) Dilution of an acid
(iii) Evaporation of water
(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Q.3 MnO2 + 4HCl → 2 + 2H2O + Cl2

Identify the substance oxidized in the above. equation.
(a) MnCl2
(b) HCl
(c) H2O
(d) MnO2

Q.4 Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen
gases liberated during electrolysis of water is:
(a) 1: 1 (b) 2:1
(c) 4:1 (d) 1:2

Q.5 The following reaction is an example of a 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)

(i) displacement reaction
(ii) combination reaction
(iii) redox reaction
(iv) neutralisation reaction
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Q.6 Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium
chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?
(i) Displacement reaction
(ii) Precipitation reaction
(iii) Combination reaction
(iv) Double displacement reaction
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iv) only
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Q.7 What type of chemical reactions take place when electricity is passed through water?
(a) Displacement
(b) Combination
(c) Decomposition
(d) Double displacement

Q.8 Name the products formed when iron filings are heated with dilute hydrochloric acid
(a) Fe (III) chloride and water
(b) Fe (II) chloride and water
(c) Fe (II) chloride and hydrogen gas
(d) Fe (III) chloride and hydrogen gas

Q.9 When green colored ferrous sulphate crystals are heated, the color of the crystal
changes because
(a) it is decomposed to ferric oxide
(b) it loses water of crystallization
(c) it forms SO2
(d) it forms SO3

Q.10 Which of the following statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO(s) + C(s) ⟶ 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
1. Lead is getting reduced.
2. Carbon dioxide is getting oxidized.
3. Carbon is getting oxidized.
4. Lead oxide is getting reduced.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) all of the above

Q.11 Before burning in air, the magnesium ribbon is cleaned by rubbing with a sand paper
to:
(a) Make the ribbon surface shinier
(b) Remove the layer of magnesium oxide from the ribbon surface
(c) Remove the dust from the ribbon surface
(d) Remove the moisture from the ribbon surface.

Q.12 One of the following is an endothermic reaction.

(a) Combination of carbon and oxygen to form carbon monoxide
(b) Combination of nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen monoxide
(c) Combination of glucose and oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water.
(d) Combination of zinc and hydrochloric acid to form zinc chloride and hydrogen

Q.13 On heating a blue coloured powder of copper (ii)nitrate in a boiling tube, copper oxide (black)
oxygen gas and a brown gas x is formed. Identify to brown gas x.
(a) Nitrogen oxide (b)Nitrogen di oxide
(c) Nitrogen tri oxide (d) Hydrogen

Q.14 What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide is added to silver nitrate
solution?
(a) No reaction takes place
(b) White precipitate of silver iodide is formed
(c) yellow precipitate of Agl is formed
(d) Agl is soluble in water.
Q.15 Lead nitrate Pb (NO3)2 on heating forms Lead oxide (PbO) solid and Nitrogen dioxide
gas. What are the colour of lead oxide and nitrogen dioxide?
(a) White, Colourless
(b) White, Brown
(c) Yellow, Brown
(d) Yellow, Colourless
Q.16 A chemical reaction does not involve:
(a) Formation of new substances having entirely different properties than that of the reactants
(b) Breaking of old chemical bonds and formation of new chemical bonds
(c) Rearrangement of the atoms of reactants to form new products
(d) Changing of the atoms of on element into those of another element to form new products
17.The given diagram represents a........... reaction.

(a) Thermal decomposition

(b) Displacement
(c) Double displacement
(d) Combination
18. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water
 Identify the incorrect statements.
1. It is an endothermic reaction.
2. Slaked lime is produced.
3. Quick lime is produced.
4. It is an exothermic reaction.
5. It is a combination reaction

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 4 and 5

19.Which reaction is used in photography?

20.A substance ‘X’ is used in white-washing and is obtained by heating limestone in the absence of
air. Identify ‘X’.
(a) CaOCl2
(b) Ca (OH)2
(c) CaO
(d) CaCO3

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTION
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false
Q.1. Assertion (A): Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an example of exothermic
reactions.
Reason (R): Exothermic reaction are those reactions in which heat is evolved.
Q.2. Assertion (A): Calcium carbonate when heated gives calcium oxide and water.
Reason (R): On heating calcium carbonate, decomposition reaction takes place.
Q.3. Assertion (A): Brown fumes are produced when lead nitrate is heated.
Reason (R): Nitrogen dioxide gas is produced as a by-product due to the
decomposition of lead nitrate.
Q.4. Assertion (A): White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.
Reason (R): Decomposition of silver chloride in presence of sunlight takes place to form
silver metal and chlorine gas.
Q.5. Assertion (A): AgBr is used on photographic and X-ray film.
Reason (R): AgBr is photosensitive and changes to Ag and bromine in presence
of sunlight and undergoes decomposition reaction.
Q.6. Assertion (A): In a balanced chemical equation, total mass of the reactants is equal to the
total mass of the products.
Reason (R): Mass can neither be created nor destroyed during a chemical
change.
Q.7. Assertion (A): In a reaction of copper with oxygen, copper serves as a reducing agent.
Reason (R): The substance which gains oxygen in a chemical reaction act as a
reducing agent.
Q.8. Assertion (A): Pungent smelling gas is produced when sulphur burns in air.
Reason (R): Sulphur trioxide is formed on reaction of sulphur with oxygen.
Q9. Assertion : Zinc reacts with sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas and it is a
displacement reaction.
Reason : Zinc reacts with oxygen to form zinc oxide.
Q10.Assertion: Photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction.
Reason : Energy gets released in the process of photosynthesis.

ANSWERS
MCQ
1-(c), 2-(a), 3-(d),4-(b), 5-(c), 6-(d), 7-(c), 8-(d),9-(b),10-(a),11-(b), 12-(b), 13-(b),
14-(c), 15-(c), 16-(d),17-(a), 18-(c), 19-(d),20-(a)

ASSERTION- REASON
1-(a), 2-(d), 3-(a),4-(a), 5-(a), 6-(a), 7-(a),8-(c), 9-(b), 10-(c)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 1 MARK)

Q.1 Name the type of chemical reaction represented by the following equation.
(i) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
(ii) 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
Answer:
(i) Combination reaction.
(ii) Precipitation reaction or double displacement reaction.

Q2-On which chemical law, balancing of chemical equation is based?

Answer- Balancing of a chemical equation is based on the law of conservation of mass.
Q.3 How will you test whether the gas evolved in a reaction is hydrogen?
Answer- Bring a burning match stick close to the mouth of the tube from which hydrogen gas
escapes. The gas will immediately catch fire and this will be accompanied by pop sound
Q.4 What happens chemically when quick lime is added to water?
Answer-When quick lime (CaO) is added to water, slaked lime Ca(OH)2 is formed. The reaction is
highly exothermic in nature.
Q.5 Write the chemical equation in the balanced form.
Fe(s) + H2O(g) ———–> Fe3O4(s) + H2(g)
Answer- 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) ————> Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
Q.6 Why is silver bromide stored in dark bottles in the laboratories?
Answer- When light falls on pale yellow coloured silver bromide, it changes to greyish white due to
the formation of silver metal. To prevent the decomposition of silver bromide, it is stored in dark
bottles in the laboratories.
Q.7- Why does not a wall immediately acquire a white colour when a coating of slaked lime is
applied on it?
Answer- Slaked lime as such is not very white. When applied on the wall, CO 2 gas present in air
reacts with calcium hydroxide to form calcium carbonate. It is quite white and therefore, imparts
white look to the wall.
Ca(OH)2 + CO2(g) ———> CaCO3(s) + H2O(l).
Q.8 Why are eatables preferably packed in aluminium foils?
Answer- Aluminium foils do not corrode in atmosphere even if kept for a long time. Actually, a
protective coating of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) is formed on the surface of the metal. It stops any
further reaction of the metal with air (oxygen) and water. The eatables do not get spoiled.
Q.9 Take a small amount of calcium oxide or quick lime in a beaker and slowly add water to this.
Is there any change in temperature?
Answer- Yes, the temperature increases since the process of dissolution of calcium oxide (CaO)
in water is highly exothermic in nature.
10.Which of the following is a combination reaction and which is a displacement reaction ?
(a) Cl2 + 2KI ——–> 2KCl + I2
(b) 2K + Cl2 ——–> 2KCl.

Answer- (a) It is a single displacement reaction,

(b) It is a double displacement reaction also called neutralisation reaction.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q.1Which types of reactions are represented by the following equations?
(a) CaO + CO2 ——-> CaCO3
(b) Mg + CuSO4 ——–> MgSO4 + Cu
(c) CH4 + 2O2 ———–> CO2 + 2H2O
(d) NH4NO2 ———-> N2 + 2H2O.
Answer-(a) Combination reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Combustion reaction
(d) Decomposition reaction
Q.2 A silvery white metal X is in the form of ribbons. Upon ignition, it burns with a dazzling white
flame to form white powder Y. When water is added to the powder Y, it partially dissolves to form
a substance Z which is used as an antacid.
(a) What is metal X?
(b) Name the white powder Y.
(c) What is the substance Z ?
Answer-(a) The metal is X is Mg.
(b) The white powder Y is MgO.
(c) White powder Y dissolves partially in water to form substance Z. It is Mg(OH), and is used as
an antacid.
Q.3- You could have noted that when copper powder is heated in a China dish, the surface of
copper powder gets coated with black coloured substance.
(i) Why is this black coloured substance formed?
(ii) What is this black substance?
Answer- (a) The black substance is formed because copper combines with oxygen.
(b) The black substance is copper oxide (CuO).
Q.4 Write balanced chemical equations for the following chemical reactions:
(a) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
(b) Lead + Copper chloride → Lead chloride + Copper
(c) Zinc oxide + Carbon → Zinc + Carbon monoxide
Answer:
(a) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
(b) Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq) → PbCl2(aq)+ Cu(s)
(c) ZnO(s) + C(s) → Zn(s) + CO(g)
Q.5- Write the chemical equation of the reaction in which the following changes have taken place
with an example of each:
(i) Change in colour
(ii) Change in temperature
(iii) Formation of precipitate
Answer.
(i) Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq)———–> Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag
The solution will become blue in colour and shiny silver metal will be deposited.
(ii) NaOH + HCl ———–> NaCl + H2O+ heat
The temperature will increase because heat will be evolved.
(iii) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq)———–> Pbl2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
Yellow ppt
Yellow precipitate of Pbl2will be formed.
Q.6- Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Write two observations.
Answer. It is because displacement reaction takes place.
Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution and forms pale green
coloured solution of FeS04 and reddish-brown copper metal gets deposited.
Fe(s) + CuS04(aq) ——–> FeS04(aq) + Cu(s)
Q.7 What is redox reaction? Identify the substance oxidised and the substance reduced in the
following reactions.
(i)2PbO + C —–> 2Pb + CO2
(ii)MnO2 + 4HCl —–> MnCl2 + 2H20 + Cl2
Answer. Those reactions in which oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously are called
redox reactions.
(i) PbO is getting reduced and C is getting oxidised.
(ii) MnOs is getting reduced and HCl is getting oxidised.
Q.8 What do you mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Answer- Exothermic reactions are those in which heat is evolved, e.g.
C(s) + 𝑂2(g) ———–> 𝐶𝑂2(g)+ Heat
CH4(g) +2O2 (g) ———–> CO2(g) +H2O (l) +Heat
Endothermic reactions are those reactions in which heat is absorbed, e.g.
CaC𝑂3 (s) ———–> CaO(s) +CO2 (g)
Q.9- 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube.
(a) List any two observations.
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(a) Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4.7H2O) lose water when heated and the colour of the crystals
changes. It then decomposes to ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulphur dioxide (SO2) and sulphur trioxide
(SO3) with a smell of burning sulphur.
(b) This is a thermal decomposition reaction.
Q.10-dentify the type of reaction in the following examples:
(i) Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) ———-> BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
(ii) Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) ———-> FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(iii) 2H2(g) + O2(g) ———> 2H2O(l)
Answer-(i) It is an example of double displacement reaction.
(ii) It is an example of displacement reaction.
(iii) It is an example of combination reaction.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS)

Q.1-Mention with reason the colour changes observe when:
(i) silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.
(ii) copper powder is strongly heated in the presence of oxygen.
(iii) a piece of zinc is dropped in copper sulphate solution.
Answer-(i) When white silver chloride is left exposed to sunlight, its colour changes to grey as it
decomposes to silver in the presence of sunlight. This type of reaction is called
photodecomposition reaction.
2AgCl(s) sunlight ->2Ag(s) +Cl2 (g)
———
(ii) When copper powder is strongly heated in presence of oxygen, the reddish-brown surface of
copper powder becomes coated with a black substance which is copper oxide.
2Cu(s) +O2(g) ———->2CuO(s)
(iii) When a piece of zinc is dropped in copper sulphate solution, then the blue colour of copper
sulphate fades gradually due to the formation of colourless zinc sulphate solution and reddish-
brown copper metal gets deposited on zinc piece.
CuSO4 +Zn ———->ZNSO4 (aq) +Cu(s)
Q.2 (a) Define a balanced chemical equation. Why should an equation be balanced?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction:
(i) Phosphorus burns in presence of chlorine to form phosphorus Penta chloride.
(ii) Burning of natural gas.
(iii) The process of respiration.
Answer.
(a) Balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the
reactants and products. According to law of conservation of mass, matter can neither be created
nor be destroyed in a chemical reaction.
(b)(i) P4 (s) + 10Cl2 (g) ———> 4PCl5 (S)
(i)CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ———> CO2 (g) + 2H2O(l) + heat energy
(iii) C6H12O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) + 6H2O ———> 6CO2 (aq) + 12H2O (l) + energy
Q.3 (A) What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of
lead nitrate? Name the type of reaction. Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the
above chemical reaction.
(B)Translate the following statement into chemical equation and then balance it Barium chloride
reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
State the two types in which this reaction can be classified
Answer-(A) Yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. It is precipitation reaction.
Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) —-> Pbl2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
It is also called double displacement reaction.
(B) 3BaCl2(aq) + A12(S04)3(aq) ——–> 3BaS04(s) + 2AlCl3(aq)
It can be classified as double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.
Q.4(a) Why cannot a chemical change be normally reversed?
(b) Why is it always essential to balance a chemical equation?
(c) Why do diamond and graphite, the two allotrops forms of carbon evolve different amounts of
heats on combustion?
(d) Can rusting of iron take place in distilled water?
Answer- (a) In a chemical change, the products are quite different from the reactants. Therefore, it
cannot be normally reversed.
(b) A chemical equation has to be balanced to meet the requirement of the law of conservation of
mass. According to the law, the total mass of the reacting species taking part in the reaction is the
same as that of the products formed. Since there is a direct relationship between the mass of the
different species and their number, it is always essential to balance a chemical equation.
(c) Because they differ in the arrangement of carbon atoms present and have different shapes.
The attractive forces among the atoms in the two cases are not same. That is why they evolve
different amount of heat.
C(diamond) + O2(g) ———–> CO2(g) + 393.5 kj
C(graphite) + O2(g) ———–> CO2(g) + 395.4 kj
(d) No, rusting of iron cannot take place in distilled water because it neither contains dissolved
oxygen nor carbon dioxide. Both are essential for the rusting of iron.
Q.5 (a) Write the difference between oxidation and reduction reaction.
(b) What is the difference between exothermic and endothermic reactions.
(c) Why respiration is considered as an exothermic reaction?

Answer. (a) Oxidation Reaction -The addition of oxygen to a substance is called oxidation. - The
removal of hydrogen from a substance is also called oxidation
Reduction Reaction - - The addition of hydrogen to a substance is called reduction. The removal
of oxygen from a substance is also called reduction
(b) the endothermic reactions absorb energy from the surrounding, which is in the form of heat.
Whereas, an exothermic reaction releases the energy into the surrounding of the system.
(c) Exothermic reactions release heat or energy.
Carbohydrates present in food are broken down to form glucose. This glucose
combines with oxygen in the cells of our body and provides energy. This reaction is
known as respiration. hence, respiration is considered as an exothermic reaction.

CASE STUDY BASE QUESTIONS

Q.1 A chemical reaction is a representation of chemical change in terms of symbols and formulae
of reactants and products. There are various types of chemical reactions like combination,
decomposition, displacement, double displacement, oxidation and reduction reactions. Reactions
in which heat is released along with the formation of products are called exothermic chemical
reactions. All combustion reactions are exothermic reactions.
Q1.1 Define decomposition reaction.
Answer: The chemical reaction in which a single substance breaks down into two or more simpler
substances upon heating is known as thermal decomposition reaction.
Q1.2. A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and yellow residue is left
behind. The yellow residue left is of which chemical?
Answer: Lead nitrate decomposes to give brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide gas and yellow residue
of lead oxide is left behind.
Q1.3. Give an example of a combination reaction?
Answer: CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)
Q1.4. Complete the following statements by choosing correct type of reaction for X and Y.
Statement 1: The heating of lead nitrate is an example of ‘X’ reaction.
Statement 2: The burning of magnesium is an example of ‘Y’ reaction.
Answer- X- Decomposition, Y-Combination
Heating of lead nitrate to form nitrogen dioxide and lead oxide is an example of thermal
decomposition reaction and the burning of magnesium ribbon in the air to form magnesium oxide
is an example of combination reaction.

Q.2 A solution of slaked lime produced by the reaction is used for white washing walls. Calcium
hydroxide reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on
the walls. Calcium carbonate is formed after two to three days of white washing and gives a shiny
finish to the walls. It is interesting to note that the chemical formula for marble is also CaCO3.
2.1. Give the reaction for the formation of calcium carbonate with physical states.
Answer- Ca(OH)2(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s)↓ + H2O(l)
2.2 Write any one application of calcium carbonate other than white washing.
Answer- Calcium carbonate is also used in the production of antacids and can also be used to
increase the levels of calcium in body.
2.3 Why calcium carbonate is used for white washing and not any other substance.
Answer- Calcium carbonate is used for whitewashing as it produces a shiny film whilst the
production of carbon dioxide and act as hard coating for the walls.
2.4 Write the formulas of slaked lime and quick lime.
Answer- Slaked lime: Calcium hydroxide is called as slaked lime with a formula of:
Ca(OH)2 ,whereas calcium oxide is called as quick lime with a formula of : CaO
Q.3 Redox reactions are those reactions in which oxidation and reduction occur Simultaneously. A
redox reaction is made up of two half reactions. In the first half reaction, oxidation takes place and
in second half reaction, reduction occurs. Oxidation is a process in which a substance loses
electrons and in reduction, a substance gains electron. The substance which gains electrons is
reduced and acts as an oxidizing agent. On the other hand, a substance which loses electrons is
oxidized and acts as a reducing agent.
3.1 What is a redox reaction?
Answer- A reaction in which both oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously is termed as
redox reaction.
3.2 Identify reducing agent and substance oxidized in the given reaction
2Hl+𝐻2𝑂2⟶2𝐻2O+I2
Answer- Reducing agent- H2O2
 Substance oxidised - H2O2
3.3. In the given reaction, identify the substance reduced and oxidising agent.
ZnO+CO⟶Zn+C𝑂2
Answer- A-ZnO is reduced to Zn and Zn is oxidising agent
3.4. In the following reaction, which substance is reduced and which is reduced?
PbS + 4𝐻2𝑂2⟶PbS𝑂4+4𝐻2O
Answer- H2O2 is reduced and PbS is oxidised.
 CHAPTER - 2

ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

Content:
• Their definitions in terms of furnishing of H+ and OH– ions
• General properties, examples and uses
• Neutralization
• Concept of pH scale (Definition relating to logarithm not required)
• Importance of pH in everyday life
• Preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide, Bleaching powder, Baking soda, Washing
soda and Plaster of Paris.
Acids: Acids are sour in taste, turn blue litmus red, and dissolve in water to release H+ ions.
Example: Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Acetic Acid (CH3COOH), Nitric Acid (HNO3) etc.
Properties of Acids:

• Acids have a sour taste.

• Turns blue litmus red.
• Acid solution conducts electricity.
• Release H+ ions in aqueous solution.

Types of Acids: Acids are divided into two types on the basis of their occurrence i.e., Natural
acids and Mineral acids.
(i) Natural Acids: Acids which are obtained from natural sources are called Natural Acids or
Organic Acids. Methanoic acid (HCOOH), Acetic acid (CH3COOH), Oxalic acid (C2H2O4) etc.
(ii) Mineral Acids: Acids that are prepared from minerals are known as Mineral Acids Example;
Inorganic acids, man-made acids or synthetic acid are also known as Mineral Acids. Hydrochloric
acid (HCl), Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Nitric acid (HNO3), Carbonic acid (H2CO3) Phosphoric acid
(H3PO4) etc.
Chemical Properties of Acid:
(i) Reaction of acids with metal: Acids give hydrogen gas along with respective salt when they
react with a metal.
Examples: Hydrogen gas and zinc chloride are formed when hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc
metal.
Zn (s) + 2HCl (aq) ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Test for Hydrogen Gas: The gas evolved after reaction of acid with metal can be tested by
bringing a lighted candle near it. If the gas bums with a pop sound, then it confirms the evolution
of hydrogen gas. Burning with pop sound is the characteristic test for hydrogen gas.
(ii) Reaction of acids with metal carbonate: Acids give carbon dioxide gas and respective salts
along with water when they react with metal carbonates.
Examples: Hydrochloric acid gives carbon dioxide gas, sodium chloride along with water when
reacts with sodium carbonate.
Na2CO3 (aq) + 2HCl (aq) 2NaCl (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
(iii) Reaction of acid with hydrogen carbonates (bicarbonates): Acids give carbon dioxide
gas, respective salt and water when they react with metal hydrogen carbonate.
Example: Sulphuric acid gives sodium sulphate, Carbon dioxide gas and water when it reacts
with sodium bicarbonate.
2NaHCO3 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) Na2SO4 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
TYPES OF ACIDS:
Strong Acids: An acid which is completely ionized in water and produces (H+) is called Strong
Acid.
Examples: Hydrochloric acid (HCl), Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Nitric acid (HNO3)
Weak Acids: An acid which is partially ionized in water and thus produces a small amount of
hydrogen ions (H+) is called a Weak Acid.
Example: Acetic acid (CH3COOH), Carbonic acid (H2CO3)

Bases: Bases are bitter in taste, have soapy touch, turn red litmus blue and give hydroxide ions
(OH–) in aqueous solution.
Examples: Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda) – NaOH, Calcium hydroxide – Ca (OH)2
Potassium hydroxide (caustic potash) – (KOH)
Properties of Bases:

• Have a bitter taste.

• Soapy to touch.
• Turns red litmus blue.
• Conducts electricity in solution.
• Release OH– ions in Aqueous Solution

Types of bases: Bases can be divided in two types – Water soluble and Water-insoluble.
The hydroxide of alkali and alkaline earth metals are soluble in water. These are also known as
alkali. For example NaOH, Mg (OH)2, Ca(OH)2

Chemical properties of bases:

(i) Reaction of Base with Metals: Some alkali (base) reacts with metals like aluminium and
zinc, it produces salt andhydrogen gas.

Examples: Sodium hydroxide gives hydrogen gas and sodium zincate when reacts with zinc
metal.
2NaOH (aq) + Zn (s) Na2ZnO2 (aq) + H2 (g)

(ii) Reaction of Base with Oxides of Non-metals: when a base reacts with non-metal oxide,
both neutralize each other resulting respective salt and water.
Examples: Sodium hydroxide gives sodium carbonate and water when it reacts with carbon
dioxide.
2NaOH (aq) + CO2 (g) Na2CO3 (aq) + H2O (l)
(iii) Neutralisation Reaction: An acid neutralizes a base when they react with each other and
respective salt and water are formed.
Examples: Sodium chloride and water are formed when hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium
hydroxide (a strong base).
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
(iv) Reaction of Acid with Metal Oxides: Metal oxides are basic in nature. Thus, when an acid
reacts with a metal oxide both neutralize each other. In this reaction, the respective salt and water
are formed.
Examples: When an acid, such as hydrochloric acid, reacts with calcium oxide, neutralization
reaction takes place and calcium chloride, along with water is formed.
2HCl (aq) + CaO (aq) CaCl2 (aq) + H2O (l)
Salts: Salts are the ionic compounds which are produced after the neutralization reaction
between acid and base. Salts are electrically neutral. There are number of salts but sodium
chloride is the most common among them. Sodium chloride is also known as table salt or
common salt. Sodium chloride is used to enhance the taste of food.

Acid + Base → Salt + Water

HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
Characteristics of salt:

• All salts are crystalline solid.

• Salts may be transparent or opaque.
• Most of the salts are soluble in water.
• Aqueous Solution of the salts conducts electricity. Melted salt also conduct electricity due to presence
of movable ions.
• The salt may be salty, sour, sweet, and bitter.
• Neutral salts are odourless.
• Salts can be colourless or coloured.
Example: Sodium chloride (NaCl), Sodium Sulphate (Na2SO4), Calcium chloride (CaCl2),
Calcium sulphate (CaSO4), Zinc chloride (ZnCl2) and Zinc sulphate (ZnSO4)
Neutral, Acidic and Basic Salts:
(i) Neutral Salt: Salts produced because of reaction between a strong acid and strong base are
neutral in nature. The pH value of such salts solutions is equal to 7, i.e. neutral.
Example: Sodium chloride, Sodium sulphate. Potassium chloride, etc.
Sodium chloride (NaCl): It is formed after the reaction between hydrochloric acid (a strong
acid) and sodium hydroxide (a strong base).
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
Sodium Sulphate (Na2SO4): It is formed after the reaction between sodium hydroxide (a strong
base) and Sulphuric acid (a strong acid).
H2SO4 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) Na2SO4 (aq) + 2H2O (l)

Potassium Chloride (KCl): It is formed after the reaction between potassium hydroxide (a
strong base) and hydrochloric acid (a strong acid).
HCl (aq) + KOH (aq) KCl (aq) + H2O (l)
(ii) Acidic Salts: Salts which are formed after the reaction between a strong acid and weak base
are called Acidic salts. The pH value of acidic salt is lower than 7. For example: Ammonium
chloride, Ammonium sulphate etc.
Ammonium chloride is formed after reaction between hydrochloric acid (a strong acid) and
ammonium hydroxide (a weak base).
HCl (aq) + NH4OH (aq) NH4Cl (aq) + H2O (l)

Ammonium sulphate is formed after reaction between ammonium hydroxide (a weak base) and
Sulphuric acid (a strong acid).

H2SO4 (aq) + 2NH4OH (aq) [NH4]2SO4 (aq) + 2H2O (l)

(iii) Basic Salts: Salts which are formed after the reaction between a weak acid and strong base
are called Basic Salts. For example; Sodium carbonates, Sodium acetate, etc.
Sodium carbonate is formed after the reaction between sodium hydroxide (a strong base) and
carbonic acid (a weak acid).

H2CO3 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) Na2CO3 (aq) + 2H2O (l)

Sodium acetate is formed after the reaction between a strong base, sodium hydroxide (a strong
base) and acetic acid, (a weak acid).

CH3COOH (aq) + NaOH (aq) CH3COONa (aq) + H2O (l)

pH Scale:

Strength of Acid and Base: Acids which dissociate completely and give hydrogen ion are called
Strong Acids. Similarly, bases which dissociate completely and give hydroxide ions are called
Strong Bases.
Mineral acids, such as hydrochloric acid, Sulphuric acid, nitric acid, etc. are dissociate
completely and give hydrogen ions hence, they are considered as strong acids. Since
inorganic acids do not dissociate completely, so they are weak acids.

Importance of pH everyday life:

(i) pH in our digestive system: Dilute HCl (Hydrochloric acid) helps in digestion of food
(proteins) in our stomach. Excess acid in stomach causes acidity (indigestion). Antacids like
magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2] also known as milk of magnesia and sodium hydrogen
carbonate (baking soda) are used to neutralize excess acid.
(ii) Tooth decay caused by acids: The bacteria present in our mouth converts the sugar into
acids. When the pH of acid formed in the mouth falls below 5.5, tooth-decaying starts. The
excess acid has to be removed by cleaning the teeth with good quality toothpaste because these
kinds of toothpaste are alkaline in nature.

(iii) Soil of pH and plant growth: Most of the plants have a healthy growth when the soil has a
specific pH (close to 7) range which should be neither alkaline nor highly acidic.

Some Important Chemical Compounds

1. Common Salt (Sodium Chloride): Sodium chloride (NaCl) is also known as Common or
Table Salt. It is formed after the reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid. It is
a neutral salt. The pH value of sodium chloride is about 7. Sodium chloride is used to enhance
the taste of food. Sodium chloride is used in the manufacturing of many chemicals.

HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)

2. Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH): Sodium hydroxide is a strong base. It is also known as caustic
soda. It is obtained by the electrolytic decomposition of solution of sodium chloride (brine). In
the process of electrolytic decomposition of brine (aqueous solution of sodium chloride), brine
decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. In this process, chlorine is obtained at anode and
hydrogen gas is obtained at cathode as by products. This whole process is known as Chloro –
Alkali process.

2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)

3. Bleaching Powder (CaOCl2): Bleaching powder is also known as chloride of lime. It is a

solid and yellowish white in colour. Bleaching powder can be easily identified by the strong
smell of chlorine.
When calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) reacts with chlorine, it gives calcium oxychloride
(bleaching powder) and water is formed.

Ca (OH)2 (aq) + Cl2 (aq) CaOCl2 (aq) + H2O (l)

Aqueous solution of bleaching powder is basic in nature. The term bleach means removal of
colour. Bleaching powder is often used as bleaching agent. It works because of oxidation.
Chlorine in the bleaching powder is responsible for bleaching effect.

Use of Bleaching Powder:

• Bleaching powder is used as disinfectant to clean water, moss remover, weed killers, etc.
• Bleaching powder is used for bleaching of cotton in textile industry, bleaching of wood
pulp in paper industry.
• Bleaching powder is used as oxidizing agent in many industries, such as textiles industry,
paper industry, etc.

4. Baking Soda (NaHCO3): Baking soda is another important product which can be obtained
using byproducts of chlor – alkali process. The chemical name of baking soda is sodium
hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) or sodium bicarbonate.
Preparation Method: Baking soda is obtained by the reaction of brine with carbon dioxide and
ammonia. This is known as Solvay process.
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 NH4Cl + NaHCO3
Properties of Sodium Bicarbonate:
• Sodium bicarbonate is white crystalline solid, but it appears as fine powder.
• Sodium hydrogen carbonate is amphoteric in nature.
 • Sodium hydrogen carbonate is sparingly soluble in water.
• When baking soda is heated, it decomposes into sodium carbonate, carbon dioxide and
water.
2NaHCO3 + heat → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
• Sodium carbonate formed after thermal decomposition of sodium hydrogen carbonate
decomposes into sodium oxide and carbon dioxide on further heating.
Na2CO3 → Na2O + CO2

Use of Baking Soda:

• Baking soda is used in making of baking powder, which is used in cooking as it produces
carbon dioxide which makes the batter soft and spongy.
• Baking soda is used as an antacid.
• Baking soda is used in toothpaste which makes the teeth white and plaque free.
• Baking soda is used in cleansing of ornaments made of silver.
• Since sodium hydrogen carbonate gives carbon dioxide and sodium oxide on strong
heating, thus, it is used as a fire extinguisher.

Washing Soda (Sodium Carbonate)

Preparation Method: Sodium carbonate is manufactured by the thermal decomposition of
sodium hydrogen carbonate obtained by Solvay process.
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 NH4Cl + NaHCO3

2NaHCO3 + Heat → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O

The sodium carbonate obtained in this process is dry. It is called Soda ash or anhydrous sodium
carbonate. Washing soda is obtained by rehydration of anhydrous sodium carbonate.
Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3 .10H2O

since there are 10 water molecules in washing soda, hence, it is known as Sodium Bicarbonate
decahydrate.
Sodium carbonate is a crystalline solid and it is soluble in water when most of the carbonates are
insoluble in water.
Use of sodium carbonate:
• It is used in the cleaning of cloths.
• In the making of detergent cake and powder.
• In removing the permanent hardness of water.
• It is used in glass and paper industries.

Plaster of Paris: Calcium sulphate hemihydrate [CaSO4. ½ H2O]

CaSO4.2H2O 373K CaSO4. ½ H2O + 3/2H2O
CaSO4.1/2H2O + 3/2H2O CaSO4.2H2O (Gypsum)
 QUESTION BANK

MCQ

1. The graph below depicts a neutralization reaction. The pH of a solution changes as we add
excess of acid to an alkali.

Which letter denotes the area of the graph where both acid and salt are present?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

2. Vinay observed that the stain of curry on a white shirt becomes reddish brown when soap is
scrubbed on it but it turns yellow again when the shirt is washed with plenty of water. What might
be the reason for his observation?
(i) Soap is acidic in nature.

(ii) Soap is basic in nature.

(iii) Turmeric is a natural indicator which gives reddish tinge in bases.

(iv) Turmeric is a natural indicator which gives reddish tinge in acids.

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)

3.In which of the following set ups would the bulb glow?
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

4. In which year is the concentration of hydrogen ion the highest?

(A) 2002 (B) 2008 (C) 2011 (D) 2005

5. Study the following table and choose the correct option.

OPTION Salt Parent Acid Parent Base Nature of Salt

(A) Sodium Chloride HCl NaOH Basic
(B) Sodium Carbonate H2CO3 NaOH Neutral
(C) Sodium Sulphate H2SO4 NaOH Acidic
(D) Sodium Acetate CH3COOH NaOH Basic
6. Study the experimental set up shown in the given figure and choose the correct option from the
following.

OPTION P Q Change observed in calcium hydroxide

solution
(A) K 2CO 3 Cl2 No change
(B) KHCO3 CO2 No change
(C) KHCO3 H2 Turns milky
(D) K2CO3 CO2 Turns milky
7. Which of the following reactions is a neutralization reaction?

(A) 4Na + O2 → 2Na2O

(B) Fe + 2HCl → FeCl2 + H2
(C) MgO + H2O → Mg(OH)2
(D) HNO3 + NaOH → NaNO3 + H2O
8. If 10 ml of H2SO4 is mixed with 10 ml of Mg(OH)2 of the same concentration, the resultant
solution will give the following colour with universal indicator.

(A) Red (B) Yellow (C) Green (D) Blue

9. Which of the following is true when HCl gas is passed through water?

(i) It does not ionize in the solution as it is a covalent compound.

(ii) It ionizes in the solution.

(iii) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ion in the solution.

(iv) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water
molecule.

(A) (i) only (B) (iii) only (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)

10. In the given chemical reactions, Salt X → Salt Y + Gas Z

Salt X is commonly used in bakery products.

Salt Y is common constituent of washing powder.

Gas Z turns lime water milky.

X, Y and Z in the given chemical reaction are:

OPTION X Y Z

(A) Sodium carbonate Sodium chloride Carbon dioxide

(B) Sodium carbonate Water Carbon dioxide

(C) Sodium hydrogen carbonate Sodium carbonate Carbon dioxide

(D) Sodium hydrogen carbonate Calcium carbonate Carbon dioxide

11. Identify gas A in the following experiment.

(A) Nitrogen (B) Hydrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Carbon dioxide

12. Anand took four colourless solutions P,Q,R and S and performed the following tests. What is
the definite conclusion that Anand can reach?

Solution P Solution Q Solution R Solution S

With methyl No change in Turns red No change in No change in
orange colour colour colour
With No change in No change in No change in Turns pink
phenolphthalein colour colour colour
With red litmus No change in No change in No change in Turns blue
colour colour colour
With blue litmus No change in Turns red No change in No change in
colour colour colour
(A) P and S are salt solutions.

(B) Q and S are basic solutions.

(C) Q and R are salt solutions.

(D) P and R are neutral solutions.

13. Some activities cause the soill and water resources in that area to become acidic. Once these
activities are stopped, the land has to be treated to enable plants to grow once again. Which of the
following should be added to the land to decrease the acidity permanently and allow plants to
grow once again?

(A) Water which is neutral.

(B) Calcium oxide which is basic.

(C) Sodium chloride which is neutral.

(D) Dilute hydrochloric acid solution.

14. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed
through a guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in the guard
tube is to
(A) absorb moisture from the gas.

(B) absorb the evolved gas.

(C) moisten the gas.

(D) absorb chloride ions from the gas.

15. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of

(A) strong acid and strong base

(B) weak acid and weak base

(C) strong acid and weak base

(D) weak acid and strong base

16. A compound is prepared from gypsum upon heating to a temperature of 373 K and it changes
back to gypsum on adding water. Which is the incorrect statement about the compound?

(A) The compound is used for setting fractured bone.

(B) The compound is called Plaster of Paris which is calcium sulphate dehydrate with a formula
CaSO4.2HO.

(C) If heated at higher temperature, the compound becomes dehydrated and is called dead burnt
plaster.

(D) The compound is used for sealing gaps in the laboratory.

17. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. Why?

(A) To increase the rate of fermentation.

(B) To decrease the rate of fermentation.

(C) To improve its quality.

(D) To make paneer.

18. Which of the following statements is correct about water of crystallization?

(A) Crystals of salts obtain their shape.

(B) Crystals of salts obtain their colour.

(C) Crystals of salts form a part of crystal structure.

(D) All of the above.

19. The gas which is passed through dry slaked lime to produce bleaching powder is:

(A) H2 (B) O2

(C) Cl2 (D) N2

20. In an aqueous solution A, phenolphthalein solution colour is pink. On addition of an aqueous

solution B to A, the pink colour disappears. Which of the following statement is true for solution A
and B?

(A) A is strongly basic and B is a weak base.

(B) A is strongly acidic and B is a weak acid.

(C) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.

(D) A has pH less than 7 and B has pH greater than 7.

ASSERTION –REASON QUESTIONS

The following questions consist of two statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (R) . Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A) : Acid must always be added to water with constant stirring.

Reason (R) : Mixing of an acid with water decreases the concentration of H+ ions per unit
volume.

2. Assertion (A) : Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character.

Reason (R) : Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not give H+ ions.

3. Assertion (A): During electrolysis of concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride,

hydrogen is produced at anode and chlorine gas is produced at cathode.

Reason(R) : Ions get attracted to oppositely charged electrodes.

4. Assertion (A) : If a few drops of concentrated acid accidently spills over the hand of a student,
wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of baking soda.

Reason (R) : A strong base cannot be used to neutralize the acid due to its corrosive nature.
5. Assertion (A) : When milk changes into curd, its pH value increases.

Reason (R) : During curd formation, lactic acid is produced which makes it acidic.

6. Assertion (A) : Universal indicator gives green colour with distilled water.

Reason (R) : pH of distilled water is 7 and it is neutral.

7. Assertion (A) : Sodium hydrogen carbonate is an acidic salt.

Reason (R) : It is produced by the neutralization reaction between a strong base (NaOH) and a
weak acid (H2CO3).

8. Assertion (A) :Fresh milk in which baking soda is added, takes a longer time to set as curd.

Reason (R) : Baking soda decreases the pH value of fresh milk to below 6.

9. Assertion (A): Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used as an ingredient in antacids.

Reason (R): Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a mild non corrosive basic salt.

10. Assertion (A) : When copper sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube, they turn white.

Reason (R) : Water of crystallization is the number of water molecules present in one formula unit
of a salt.

ANSWERS

MCQ

1-(d), 2-(b), 3-(b), 4-(a), 5-(d), 6-(d), 7-(d), 8-(c), 9-(c), 10-(c), 11-(b), 12-(d), 13-(b), 14-(a), 15-(d),
16-(b), 17-(b), 18-(d), 19-(c), 20-(c)

ASSERTION –REASON

1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(a), 5-(d), 6-(a), 7-(d), 8-(c), 9-(b), 10-(b)

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the
type of this salt.

Answer: Washing soda is prepared from sodium carbonate by its recrystallization.

Chemical equation: Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3∙10H2O

Type of salt: It is a basic salt.

2. Under what soil conditions do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his fields with quicklime
(calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or calcium carbonate?

Answer: A farmer would treat the soil with quicklime or slaked lime or calcium carbonate if the soil
has become acidic as all these substances are basic. This will neutralize the acidic nature of the
soil.

3. Oxides of metals are basic while those of non metals are acidic. Explain.

Answer: Oxides of metals are basic as they react with acids to produce salt and water.

Na2O + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O

Oxides of non metals are acidic as they react with bases to produce salt and water.

CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O

4. You are given two solutions A and B having pH 6 and 8 respectively. Answer the following

(i) Which of the two solutions have more hydrogen ion concentration?

(ii) Name the acidic and the basic solution?

Answer : (i) Solution A will have more hydrogen ion concentration.

(ii) A is acidic and B is basic.

5. How will you test the gas liberated when HCl reacts with an active metal?

Answer: The gas liberated is hydrogen gas.

When a burning splinter is brought near the test tube, it will extinguish with a pop sound.

6. What happens when nitric acid is added to egg shells?

Answer: Egg shell is made up of calcium carbonate which will react with HNO 3 to form CO2 and
H2O along with a salt, calcium nitrate.

CaCO3 + 2HNO3 → Ca(NO3)2 + CO2 + H2O

7. Fill in the blanks in the following table.

S,NO. Name of the salt Formula Base Acid

1 Ammonium chloride NH4Cl NH4OH
2 Copper sulphate Cu(OH)2 H2SO4
3 Magnesium nitrate Mg(NO3)2 HNO3
4 Potassium sulphate K2SO4 KOH
Answer:

S,NO. Name of the salt Formula Base Acid

1 Ammonium chloride NH4Cl NH4OH HCl
2 Copper sulphate CuSO4 Cu(OH)2 H2SO4
3 Magnesium nitrate Mg(NO3)2 Mg(OH)2 HNO3
4 Potassium sulphate K2SO4 KOH H2SO4
8. A gas X reacts with lime water and forms a compound Y which is used as a bleaching agent in
chemical industry. Identify X and Y. give the chemical equation of the reactions involved.

Answer: X is Cl2 gas, which reacts with lime water to form Y- bleaching powder, calcium
oxychloride.

Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O

9. Why do HCl, HNO3 etc show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of alcohol
and glucose do not show acidic character?

Answer: HCl, HNO3 etc dissociate into their ions in the presence of water. They form hydrogen
ions (H+). These hydrogen ions combine with H2O to form hydronium ions (H3O+). The reaction
can be given as follows.

HCl → H+ + Cl-

H+ + H2O → H3O+

Due to this property, HCl and HNO3 show acidic characters in aqueous solutions.

On the other hand, alcohol and glucose do not dissociate in water to form hydrogen ions. Hence,
they do not show acidic character.

10. Dry ammonia gas has no action on litmus paper, but a solution of ammonia in water turns red
litmus paper blue. Explain.

Answer: Ammonia dissolves in water and forms ammonium hydroxide which is a base and turns
red litmus blue.

NH3 + H2O → NH4+ + OH-

Dry ammonia gas does not change into OH- ions.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 3 MARKS)

1. The pH of a salt used to make crispy pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a chemical
equation for its formation. List any two uses of this salt.
Answer: Name of the salt: Sodium hydrogen carbonate NaHCO3

Preparation: NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4Cl + NaHCO3

Uses: (i) It is used in the manufacture of baking powder.

(ii) It is used in soda acid fire extinguishers.

2. (A) A student detected the pH of four unknown solutions A,B,C and D as follows 11,5,7and 2.
Predict the nature of these solutions.

(B) Explain how antacids work.

Answer: (A) A is basic, B is acidic, C is neutral and D is strongly acidic.

(B) Acidity is caused by excess of hydrochloric acid in stomach. Antacid is basic in nature. It
neutralizes the excess acid and gives relief from pain caused by acidity.

3. A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.

(A) Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
(B) When this white powder is mixed with water, a hard solid mass is obtained. Write balanced

chemical equation for the change.

Answer: (A) Chemical name: Calcium sulphate hemihydrates

Chemical formula: CaSO4. ½ H2O

(B) The compound changes into gypsum when water is added to it.

CaSO4. ½ H2O + 3/2 H2O → CaSO4 .2H2O

4. 2 ml of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a
test tube. When the contents are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution
before testing.

(A) Write the equation of the chemical reaction involved and the test to detect the gas.

(B) Name the gas which will be evolved when the same metal reacts with dilute solution of a
strong acid?

Answer: (A) Chemical equation: NaOH(aq) + Zn(s) → Na2ZnO2 + H2(g)

In this reaction, sodium zincate is formed and H2 gas is evolved.

Test to detect the gas: As the gas is passed through soap solution, bubbles filled with hydrogen
gas come out. Bring a burning candle near the bubbles, the bubbles burst and the gas inside them
starts burning with a pop sound and extinguishes the candle. This tests the presence of hydrogen
gas.
(B) When zinc reacts with a dilute solution of a strong acid, hydrogen gas is produced.

Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

5.(A) For the preparation of cakes, baking powder is used. If at home, your mother uses baking
soda instead of baking powder, how will it affect the taste of the cake and why?

(B) How is baking soda converted into baking powder?

(C) What makes the cake soft and spongy?

Answer: (A) The cake will taste bitter due to the formation of sodium carbonate on heating.

NaHCO3 (on heating) → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O

(B) Baking soda is converted into baking powder by adding tartaric acid.

(C) Cakes become soft and spongy due to the liberation of CO2 gas.

6.(A) Identify the gases evolved at anode and cathode in the given industrial process.

(B) Name the process that occurs. Why is it called so?

(C) Illustrate the reaction of the process with the help of a chemical equation.

Answer: (A) Anode: Chlorine, Cathode: Hydrogen

(B) This is Chlor-Alkali process. It is called so as the products formed are alkali (NaOH), chlorine
gas and hydrogen gas.

(C) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) (electricity) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2(g) + H2 (g)

7.Explain the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on the following with chemical equations:

(a)Magnesium ribbon

(b)Crushed egg shells

Ans: a)The action of the dilute hydrochloric acid on the reaction with the magnesium ribbon is as
follows:

When dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon, it forms magnesium chloride and
hydrogen gas.

2HCl+Mg→MgCl2+H2

b) The action of the dilute hydrochloric acid on the reaction with the crushed egg cell (CaCO3) is as
follows:
When dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with CaCO3, it forms calcium chloride(CaCl2), carbon dioxide(CO2
) and water(H2O)
2HCl+CaCO3→CaCl2+CO2+H2O

8.15ml of water and 10 ml of sulphuric acid are to be mixed in a beaker.

a)state the method that should be followed with reason

b)what is the process called?

Ans: a) The acid must slowly be added to water. Otherwise, the mixture may splash out causing
burns, as a lot of heat is generated in this process.

b) Dilution of the acid.

9.What is water of crystallisation? Name and give formula two salts which contain water of
crystallisation.

Ans: The water of crystallization:

It is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of salt.

For examples:CuSO4.5H2O (Copper sulfate Penta hydrate) Blue vitriol.

FeSO4.7H2O (Ferrous sulfate heptahydrate) Green vitriol.

10.State reason for the following statements:

a) Tap water conducts electricity whereas as distilled water does not.

b) During summer season a milk man usually adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh
milk.

Ans: a) Tap water contains ions which makes it a good conductor whereas distilled water does not
contain any ions.
 b) Baking soda prevents the formation of lactic acid when milk turns sour

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS)

1. A metal carbonate X on reacting with an acid gives a gas which when passed through a
solution Y gives the carbonate back. On the other hand, a gas G that is obtained at anode during
electrolysis of brine is passed on dry Y, it gives a compound Z, used for disinfecting drinking
water, identify X, Y, G and Z.

Answer: X is calcium carbonate.

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O

Y is calcium hydroxide.

2NaCl + H2O → 2NaOH + Cl2 + H2

The gas G is chlorine gas which is obtained at anode.

Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O

Z is calcium oxychloride used for disinfecting drinking water.

2.(A) Explain why is hydrochloric acid a strong acid and acetic acid, a weak acid. How can it be
verified?

(B) Explain why aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity.

(C) You have four solutions A,B,C and D. The pH of solution A is 6, B is 9, C is 12 and D is 7.

(i) Identify the most acidic and the most basic solution solutions.

(ii) Arrange the solutions in the increasing order of H+ ion concentration.

(iii) State the change in colour of pH paper on dipping in solutions C and D.

Answer: (A) HCl completely ionizes in aqueous solution, hence it is a strong acid. Acetic acid
ionizes partially in aqueous solution, hence it is a weak acid.

(B) Acid forms ions in aqueous solution, hence conducts electricity.

(C)(i) Most acidic : solution A Most basic : solution C

(ii) C < B < D < A

(iii) pH paper will become blue in C and green in D.

3. In the following schematic diagram for the preparation of hydrogen gas , what would happen if
the following changes are made?

(A) In place of Zinc granules, same amount of zinc dust is taken in the test tube.

(B) instead of dilute sulphuric acid, dilute hydrochloric acid is taken.

(C) In place of zinc, copper turnings are taken.

(D) Sodium hydroxide is taken in place of dilute sulphuric acid in the test tube.

Answer: (A) The reaction will become faster because zinc dust has more surface area.

(B) Nearly same smount of hydrogen gas will be evolved.

(C) No reaction will take place as copper is less reactive than hydrogen.

(D) Reaction will take place and hydrogen gas will be evolved.

Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2

4. What happens when :

a) Gypsum is heated at 373K?

Ans: When gypsum is heated to a temperature of 373K, it loses 3/4th of its water of crystallisation
and forms plaster of Paris.

b) Electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride?

Ans: An aqueous solution of sodium chloride decomposes to form sodium hydroxide when
electricity is passed through it. This process is called chlor-alkali process.

c) Chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at room temperature

Ans: When chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at room temperature, the main reaction product
is CaOCl2 (bleaching powder). The reaction is as follows:
 Ca(OH)2+Cl2→CaOCl2+H2O

d)Excess of CO2 is passed through lime water?

Ans: When CO2 is passed through lime water in excess then the white precipitate initially formed
gets dissolved forming Ca(HCO3)2 which is soluble in water as per the following reaction :
CaCO3+H2O+CO2→Ca(HCO3)2

e) Marble is treated with HCl?

Ans: Marble chips are made up of calcium carbonate. When they are treated with HCl, carbon
dioxide gas is released along with the formation of water and calcium chloride.

CaCO3+2HCl→CaCl2+H2O+CO2

5.(a) A salt is produced by the reaction between an acid and a base.Identify the acid and the base
from which of the following salts have been formed:

(i) Na2SO4

(ii) NH4Cl

(iii)KNO3

(iv)NaCl

(b)Which of the above salts has a pH less than 7? Why? Ans:

(a) (i) Na2SO4 is prepared from NaOH and H2SO4

(ii) NH4Cl is formed by NH4OH and HCl.

(iii) KNO3 is formed by KOH and HNO3.

(iv) NaOH is formed by NaOH and HCl.

(b) NH4Cl has pH less than 7 because it is a salt of weak base NH4OH and strong acid, HCl,
therefore the salt is acidic.

4.State reasons for the following:

a) Stain of curry on a white cloth becomes reddish brown when soap is scrubbed on it and turns
yellow again when the cloth in washed with plenty of water.

Ans: Turmeric reacts with sodium hydroxide present in soap to form red coloured compound. It
turns yellow again because sodium hydroxide becomes very dilute on adding lot of water and
reaction stops.

b) Curd should not be kept in copper or brass vessels. What is done to protect it?
Ans: Curd is acidic in nature so it reacts with metals like copper or brass vessels and forms toxic
compounds which may be unfit for human consumption, and may cause food poisoning thus it is
not advisable to keep curd and other acidic or sour food items in copper or brass vessels. So it is
advised to store curd in glass and steel vessels

5.A) For the preparation of cakes, baking powder is used. If at home your mother uses baking
soda instead of baking powder, how will it affect the taste of cake and why?

Ans: Use of baking soda; instead of baking powder; will make the taste of cake bitter. This
happens because of formation of sodium carbonate.

B) How is baking soda be converted into baking powder?

Ans: Baking soda is converted to a baking powder by adding tartaric acid and starch to the baking
soda. Baking soda is basic in nature and bitter in flavor.

C) What makes the cake soft and spongy?

Ans: Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda NaHCO3 and an edible acid like tartaric acid.
Baking powder on heating produces carbon dioxide gas which causes bread or cake to rise
making it soft and spongy.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS ( 4 MARKS)

1. Observe the following figure and answer the questions that follow.

pH is a unit of measure which describes the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution. It is

measured on a scale of 0 to 14.

(A) State the nature of solution if its pH increases from 7 to 14.

Answers: (A) Increase in the strength of alkali. So the solution will be basic.

(B) Drinking more black coffee leads to hyperacidity. Explain.

Answers: The pH of black coffee is found to be 5 which is acidic. Thus drinking more black coffee
leads to hyperacidity.

(C) What is the nature of ammonia which is found in window cleaners?

Answers: Ammonia is basic in nature as its pH is 11.

(D) The pH of rain water collected from two cities A and B was found to be 6 and 5
respectively.The water of which city is more acidic?

Answers: Lesser the pH, more acidic is the solution. Thus, rainwater of city B is more acidic.

2. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Priyanka performed an experiment to understand that heat is produced when a few drops of
concentrated sulphuric acid is slowly added into a beaker containing water. For this, she took 10
ml water in a beaker and added a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid to it. Then she swirled
the beaker slowly. During the process . a vigorous reaction takes place. It is an exothermic
process.

(A) Why is it recommended that acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?

Answer: Dilution of concentrated acid is an exothermic process. If water is added to a

concentrated acid, the heat may splash out and cause burns.

(B) How will the concentration of hydrogen ions get affected by this process?

Answer: Concentration of H+ ions decreases.

(C) What is this process called? Define the process.

Answer: This process is called dilution. It is the process of mixing an acid or a base with water to
decrease the concentration of H+/OH- ions per unit volume

(D) If we have hydrochloric acid and acetic acid of equal concentration, which one will be a strong
acid and why?

Answer: Hydrochloric acid will be a strong acid as it produces more H+ ions.

3. Metals react with acids at different rates depending on their reactivity. Dilute acids react with
relatively reactive metals such as Mg, Al, Zn and Fe. One of the products is a salt. In order to
study this, Sonia treated a metal with dilute sulphuric acid. The gas evolved is collected by the
method shown in the figure.
(A) Name the gas evolved.

Answer: Hydrogen gas

(B) Is the evolved gas soluble or insoluble in water?

Answer: It is soluble in water.

(C) How will you test the gas?

Answer: test for the gas- bring a burning matchstick near the gas jar. It burns with a pop sound

(D) If the metal used above is Zn then write the chemical equation for the evolution of gas. Write
one industrial use of the gas evolved.

Answer:Zn (s) + H2SO4 (dil) → ZnSO4 (aq) + H2(aq)

Hydrogen is used as a fuel in rockets.

 CHAPTER 3 METALS AND NON-METALS

CONTENT:

❖ Properties of metals and non-metals

❖ Reactivity Series
❖ Formation and properties of ionic compounds
❖ Basic metallurgic processes
❖ Corrosion and its prevention

MIND MAP
 PREVENTION OF CORROSION

Refining of Metals
• The metals after extraction are not pure and we have to refine it to obtain pure metal. We
use Electrolytic Refining for this purpose
• Example of metals which are refined using this method are copper, zinc, tin, nickel, silver,
gold, etc.
• In this process, the impure metal is made the anode and a thin strip of pure metal is made
the cathode. A solution of the metal salt is used as an electrolyte
• On passing the current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the anode dissolves
into the electrolyte. An equivalent amount of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on
the cathode. The soluble impurities go into the solution, whereas, the insoluble impurities
settle down at the bottom of the anode and are known as anode mud.
Metals: Elements that are electropositive in nature are called metals. It means metals lose
electrons to form positive ions, e.g. copper.

Physical Properties of Metals:

• Hardness: Most of the metals are hard, except alkali metals, such as sodium, potassium;
lithium, etc. are very soft metals. These can be cut by using a knife.
• Strength: Most of the metals are strong and have high tensile strength. Because of this,
big structures are made using metals, such as copper (Cu) and iron (Fe). (Except Sodium
(Na) and potassium (K) which are soft metals).
• State: Metals are solid at room temperature except for mercury (Hg).
• Sound: Metals produce ringing sound, so, metals are called Sonorous. Sound of metals is
also known as Metallic sound. This is the cause that metal wires are used in making
musical instruments.
• Conduction: Metals are a good conductor of heat and electricity. This is the cause that
electric wires are made of metals like copper and aluminium.
• Malleability: Metals are malleable. This means metals can be beaten into a thin sheet.
Because of this property, iron is used in making big ships.
• Ductility: Metals are ductile. This means metals can be drawn into thin wire. Because of
this property, a wire is made of metals.
• Melting and Boiling Point: Metals have generally high melting and boiling points.
(Except sodium and potassium metals which have low melting and boiling point.)
• Density: Most of the metals have a high density.
• Colour: Most of the metals are grey in colour. But gold and copper are exceptions.

Chemical Properties of Metals

1. Reaction with oxygen: Most of the metals form respective metal oxides when reacting with
oxygen.
Metal + Oxygen → Metal Oxide
Examples:
Reaction of Potassium with Oxygen: Potassium metal forms potassium oxide when reacts with
oxygen.

4K + O2 2K2O
Reaction of Sodium with Oxygen: Sodium metal forms sodium oxide when reacts with oxygen.

4Na + O2 2Na2O
Lithium, potassium, sodium, etc. are known as Alkali-metals. Alkali metals react vigorously with
oxygen.

Reaction of Copper metal with Oxygen: Copper does not react with oxygen at room
temperature but when burnt in air, it gives oxide.

2Cu + O2 2CuO
Silver, gold and platinum do not combine with the oxygen of air even at high temperature. They
are the least reactive.

2. Reaction of metals with water: Metals form respective hydroxide and hydrogen gas when
reacting with water.
Metal + Water → Metal hydroxide + Hydrogen
Most of the metals do not react with water. However, alkali metals react vigorously with water.

Reaction of Sodium metal with Water: Sodium metal forms sodium hydroxide and liberates
hydrogen gas along with lot of heat when reacting with water.

Na + 2H2O NaOH + 2H2

Reaction of Calcium metal with Water: Calcium forms calcium hydroxide along with
hydrogen gas and heat when react with water.

Ca + 2H2O Ca (OH) 2 + H2

Reaction of Magnesium metal with Water: Magnesium metal reacts with water slowly and
forms magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Mg + 2H2O Mg (OH) 2 + H2

When steam is passed over magnesium metal, magnesium oxide and hydrogen gas are formed.

Mg + H2O MgO + H2

Reaction of Aluminium metal with Water: Reaction of aluminium metal with cold water is too
slow to come into notice. But when steam is passed over aluminium metal, aluminium oxide and
hydrogen gas are produced.
2Al + 3H2O → Al2O3 + 2H2

Reaction of Zinc metal with Water: Zinc metal produces zinc oxide and hydrogen gas when
steam is passed over it. Zinc does not react with cold water.

Zn +H2O ZnO + H2

Reaction of Iron with Water: Reaction of iron with cold water is very slow and comes intonotice after a
long time. Iron forms rust (iron oxide) when reacts with moisture present in theatmosphere. Iron oxide
and hydrogen gas are formed by passing of steam over iron metal.

2Fe + 3H2O Fe2O3 + 3H2

Both calcium (Ca) and magnesium (Mg) are heavier than water but still float over it: Both
calcium and magnesium float over water surface because hydrogen gas is evolved when these
metals react with water. It is in the form of bubbles which stick on the metal surface. Therefore,
they float over it.

Ca + 2H2O Ca (OH)2 + H2

Other metals usually do not react with water or react very slowly. Lead, copper, silver and gold
do not react with steam. Thus, the order of reactivity of different metals towards water may be
written as:
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > Cu > Ag > Au

3. Reaction of metals with dilute acid: Metals form respective salts when reacting with dilute
acid.
Metal + dil. acid → Metal salt + Hydrogen

Reaction of Sodium metal with dilute hydrochloric acid: Sodium metal gives sodium chloride
and hydrogen gas when react with dilute hydrochloric acid.

2Na + 2HCl 2NaCl + H2

Reaction of Magnesium metal with dilute hydrochloric acid: Magnesium chloride and
hydrogen gas are formed when magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2

Reaction of Zinc with dilute Sulphuric acid: Zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas are formed when
zinc reacts with dilute Sulphuric acid. This method is used in the laboratory to produce hydrogen
gas.

Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2

Hydrogen (H2) gas is not evolved when metal is treated with nitric acid (HNO3):
Nitric acid is strong oxidising agent and it oxidizes the hydrogen gas (H2) liberated into water
(H2O) and itself get reduced to some oxide of nitrogen like nitrous oxide (N2O)3 nitric oxide
(NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Copper, gold, silver are known as noble metals. These do
not react with water or dilute acids. The order of reactivity of metal towards dilute
hydrochloric acid or Sulphuric acid is in the order;K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Cu >
Hg > Ag

Metal Oxides
Chemical Properties: Metal oxides are basic in nature. The aqueous solution of metal oxides
turns red litmus blue.
Reaction of Metal oxides with Water: Most of the metal oxides are insoluble in water. Alkali
metal oxides are soluble in water. Alkali metal oxides give strong base when dissolved in water.

Reaction of Sodium oxide with Water: Sodium oxide gives sodium hydroxide when reacts
with water.

Na2O + H2O 2NaOH

Reaction of Potassium oxide with Water: Potassium oxide gives potassium hydroxide when
reacts with water.

K2O + H2O 2KOH

Reaction of Zinc oxide and Aluminium oxide: Aluminium oxide and zinc oxide are insoluble
in water. Aluminium oxide and zinc oxide are amphoteric in nature. An amphoteric substance
shows both acidic and basic characters. It reacts with base like acid and reacts with an acid like a
base.
When zinc oxide reacts with sodium hydroxide, it behaves like an acid. In this reaction, sodium
zincate and water are formed.

ZnO + 2NaOH Na2ZnO2 + H2O

Zinc oxide behaves like a base when reacts with acid. Zinc oxide gives zinc chloride and water
on reaction with hydrochloric acid.

ZnO + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H2O

In a similar way, aluminium oxide behaves like a base when reacts with acid and behaves like
acid when reacts with a base.
Aluminium oxide gives sodium aluminate along with water when reacts with sodium hydroxide.

Al2O3 + 2NaOH 2NaAlO2 + H2O

Aluminium oxide gives aluminium chloride along with water when it reacts with hydrochloric
acid.
Al2O3 + 6HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2O

Reactivity Series of Metals: The order of intensity or reactivity of metal is known as Reactivity
Series. Reactivity of elements decreases on moving from top to bottom in the given reactivity
series.
In the reactivity series, copper, gold, and silver are at the bottom and hence, least reactive. These
metals are known as Noble metals. Potassium is at the top of the series and hence, most reactive.
Reactivity of some metals is given in descending order:
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > Cu > Hg > Ag > Au
4. Reaction of metals with solution of other metal salts: Reaction of metals with the solution
of other metal salt is displacement reaction. In this reaction, more reactive metal displaces the
less reactive metal from its salt.
Metal A + Salt of metal B → Salt of metal A + Metal B
Examples:
Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.

Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 + Cu

Similarly, aluminium and zinc displace copper from the solution of copper sulphate.

2Al + 3CuSO4 Al2 (SO4)3 + 3Cu

Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu

In all the above examples, iron, aluminium and zinc are more reactive than copper. This is why
they displace copper from its salt solution.
When copper is dipped in the solution of silver nitrate, it displaces silver and forms copper
nitrate.

Cu + 2AgNO3 Cu (NO3)2 + 2Ag

In the reaction, copper is more reactive than silver and hence, displaces silver from silver nitrate
solution.
Silver metal does not react with copper sulphate solution because silver is less reactive than
copper and not able to displace copper from its salt solution.

Ag + CuSO4 No reaction

Similarly, when gold is dipped in the solution of copper nitrate, no reaction takes place because
copper is more reactive than gold.
Au + Cu (NO3)2 No reaction

In similar way, no reaction takes place when copper is dipped in the solution of aluminium
nitrate because copper is less reactive than aluminium.

Al (NO3)3 + Cu No reaction

Non-Metals: Elements that are electronegative in nature are called non-metals. It means non-
metals gain electrons to form negative ions, e.g. iodine

Physical properties of non-metals

• Hardness: Non-metals are not hard rather they are generally soft. But the diamond is an
exception; it is the hardest naturally occurring substance.
• State: Non-metals may be solid, liquid or gas.
• Luster: Non-metals have a dull appearance. Diamond and iodine are exceptions.
• Sonority: Non-metals are not sonorous, i.e., they do not produce a typical sound on being
hit.
• Conduction: Non-metals are a bad conductor of heat and electricity. Graphite which is
allotrope of carbon is a good conductor of electricity and is an exception.
• Malleability and ductility: Non-metals are brittle.
• Melting and boiling point: Non-metals have generally low melting and boiling points.
• Density: Most of the non-metals have low density.
• Colour: Non-metals are in many colours.

Carbon in the form of graphite is non-metal which conduct electricity.

Carbon in the form of diamond is a non-metal which is extremely hard. Diamond is a non-metal
which has a very high melting point and boiling point.
Iodine is non-metal which is lustrous having a shining surface.

Chemical properties of Non-metals:

1. Reaction of Non-metals with Oxygen: Non-metals form respective oxide when reacting with
oxygen.
Non-metal + Oxygen → Non-metallic oxide
when carbon reacts with oxygen, carbon dioxide is formed along with the production of heat.

C + O2 CO2 + heat

When carbon is burnt in an insufficient supply of air, it forms carbon monoxide. Carbon
monoxide is a toxic substance. Inhaling of carbon monoxide may prove fatal.
2C + O2 2CO + heat

Sulphur gives sulphur dioxide when reacting with oxygen. Sulphur catches fire when exposed to
air.

S + O2 SO2

When hydrogen reacts with oxygen it gives water.

2H2 + O2 2H2O
Non-metallic Oxide: Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature. The solution of non-metal oxides
turns blue litmus red.
Carbon dioxide gives carbonic acid when dissolved in water.

CO2 + H2O H2CO3

Sulphur dioxide gives sulphurous acid when dissolved in water.

SO2 + H2O H2SO3

Sulphur dioxide gives Sulphuric acid when reacts with oxygen.

SO2 + 2O2 2SO3

SO3 + H2O H2SO4

2. Reaction of Non-metal with Chlorine: Non-metal gives respective chloride when they react
with chlorine gas.
Non-metal + Chlorine → Non-metal chloride
Hydrogen gives hydrogen chloride and phosphorous gives phosphorous trichloride when reacting
with chlorine.

H2 + Cl2 2HCl

P4 + 6Cl2 4PCl3

3. Reaction of Non-metals with Hydrogen: Non-metals reactive with hydrogen to form

covalent hydrides.
Non-metal + Hydrogen → Covalent Hydride
Sulphur combines with hydrogen to form a covalent hydride is called Hydrogen sulphide.

H2 + S H2S

Nitrogen combines with hydrogen in presence of an iron catalyst to form covalent hydride
ammonia.

N2 + 3H2 2NH3

Non-metals do not react with water (or steam) to evolve Hydrogen gas.

Non-metals do not react with dilute acids.

4. Reaction of Metal and Non-metal: Many metals form ionic bonds when they react with non-
metals. Compounds so formed are known as Ionic Compounds.

Ions: Positive or negative charged atoms are known as ions. Ions are formed because of loss or
gain of electrons. Atoms form ions obtain by the electronic configuration of the nearest noble
gas.
Positive ion: A positive ion is formed because of the loss of electrons by an atom.

Following are some examples of positive ions:

Sodium forms sodium ion because of the loss of one electron. Because of the loss of one
electron, one positive charge comes over sodium.

Na Na+ + e-

Magnesium forms positive ion because of the loss of two electrons. Two positive charges come
over magnesium because of loss of two electrons.

Mg Mg2+ + 2e-

Negative ion: A negative ion is formed because of the gain of an electron.

Some examples are given below:
Chlorine gains one electron in order to achieve a stable configuration. After the gain of one
electron, chlorine gets one negative charge over it forming chloride ion.

Cl + e- Cl-
Difference between Metals and Non-metals:

Metals Non-metals

1. Metals generally occur as hard solid 1. Non-metals generally occur in all the three
substances. forms of matter- solid, liquid and gases.

2. Metals are malleable and ductile. 2. Non-metals are not malleable and ductile.

3. Metals produce ringing sound on striking 3. Non-metals do not show this sonorous
which is called their sonorous property. property.

4. Metals are good conductors of heat and 4. Non-metals are poor conductors of heat and
electricity. electricity with the exception of graphite which
is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
Reactivity series: The arrangement of metals in a vertical column in the order of decreasing
reactivity is called reactivity series of metals. The most reactive metals are placed at the top and
least reactive metals are placed at the bottom of the reactivity series.

Ionic Compounds: The compounds formed by transfer of electrons from a metal to a non-metal
are known as Ionic Compounds. Sodium Chloride (NaCl), Magnesium chloride (MgCl2)

Ionic Bonds: Ionic bonds are formed because of transfer of electrons from metal to non-metal.
In this course, metals get positive charge because of transfer of electrons and non-metal gets
negative charge because of acceptance of electrons. In other words, bond formed between
positive and negative ion is called Ionic Bond.

Some examples are given below:

Formation of Sodium Chloride (NaCl): In sodium chloride, sodium is a metal (alkali metal)
and chlorine is a non-metal.
Atomic number of sodium = 11
Electronic configuration of sodium: 2, 8, 1
Number of electrons in outermost orbit = 1

Atomic number of chlorine = 17

Electronic configuration of chlorine: 2, 8, 7
Electrons in outermost orbit = 7

Na Na+ + e- Cl+ e- Cl-

2, 8, 1 2, 8 (2, 8, 7) (2, 8, 8)

Na x :Cl. Na+ Cl- NaCl

Sodium has one valence electron and chlorine has seven valence electrons. Sodium requires
losing one electron to obtain stable configuration and chlorine requires gaining one electron in
order to obtain stable electronic configuration. Since, sodium chloride is formed because of ionic
bond, thus, it is called Ionic compound. In similar way, Magnesium chloride (MgCl2) is formed.

Mg Mg2+ + 2e-

2, 8, 2 2, 8

2Cl + 2e- 2Cl-

(2, 8, 7) (2, 8, 8)

Properties of Ionic Compounds:

Properties of ionic compounds are as follows.

(i) Physical nature: Ionic compounds are solids and hard due to the strong attracting force
between the positive and negative ions. These compounds are generally brittle and break into
pieces on pressure.
(ii) Melting and boiling point: Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points because
amount of energy can break the strong inter-ionic attraction.
(iii) Solubility: Ionic compounds are soluble in water but insoluble in solvents like kerosene,
petrol, etc.
(iv) Conduction of Electricity: Conduction of electricity through a solution is possible when
there is movement of charged particles. Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct
electricity because movement of ions in the solid is not possible due to their rigid structure.
A solution of an ionic compound in water contains ions, which move to the opposite electrodes
when electricity is passed through the solution. Ionic compounds conduct electricity in the
molten state as in the molten state the electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely
charged ions overcome due to the heat. Thus, the ions move freely and conduct electricity.

Corrosion and its prevention:

Corrosion is an electrochemical process in which redox reactions occur between the metal and
water, oxygen and sulphur dioxide, etc. It is a spontaneous and irreversible process in which the
metal changes into chemical compounds such as oxide, sulphide and hydroxides, etc.
For example, due to corrosion or rusting, the iron changes into red iron oxide (rust) in the
presence of moisture and oxygen present in the air. The rusting of iron when it comes in contact
with water and oxygen which leads to the formation of a brown coat over its surface is a type of
corrosion. The chemical reaction involved in rusting is shown below;

4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3

2Fe2O3 + xH2O → Fe2O3.xH2O (rust)

Methods to prevent corrosion, some of them are described below;

(i) Electroplating:

• In this method, an electric current is used to create a thin layer of metal over another
metal. It is done to make cheaper metals more appealing as well as to protect them
from corrosion.

• This method requires two different metals, an electrolytic solution, and two
electrodes in a tank and a battery or source of current that will pass the required
current into the solution to carry out the electrolysis.

• When current is passed one electrode gets a positive charge and another gets the
negative charge. The ions of the positively charged metal shift to the surface of
the negatively charged metal to create a thin layer. For example, when we take brass
and copper for electroplating, the copper metal slowly gets deposited or covers the
brass and thus a thin coating of copper covers the surface of the brass. Here, the
electrolytic solution must contain copper sulphide.

(ii) Galvanization: In this method, iron is coated with a layer of zinc. The iron is dipped in the
molten zinc. The layer of zinc protects the iron from corrosion. This method has been in use for
more than 200 years.

(iii) Painting and Greasing: In this method, a layer is created over the metal surface by painting
or greasing. This layer of paint or grease protects the metal from corrosion. Carbon fiber coating
can be used for this purpose.
(iv) Selection of Material: Select the materials that are not affected by corrosion. For example,
stainless steel and aluminium are resistant to corrosion.

(v) Dry and clean: Keep the metal surface dry and clean.
 QUESTION BANK
A) MCQ (1 MARK EACH)
1. Aluminum is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminum
are responsible for the same?
(i) Good thermal conductivity
(ii) Good electrical conductivity
(iii) Ductility
(iv) High melting point
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)

2. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is

(a) Iron
(b) Aluminium
(c) Calcium
(d) Sodium

3. The poorest conductor of heat among metals is

(a) Lead
(b) Mercury
(c) Calcium
(d) Sodium

4. Name the property of metals is used for making bells and strings of musical instruments like
Sitar and Violin.
(a) Sonorousness
(b) Malleability
(c) Ductility
(d) Conductivity

5. Al2O3 + 2NaOH → …… + H2O

(a) Al(OH)3
(b) Na2O
(c) NaAlO2
(d) AlNaO2

6. Select the correct arrangement of the given metals in ascending order of their reactivity:
Zinc, Iron, Magnesium, Sodium
(a) Zinc > Iron > Magnesium > Sodium
(b) Sodium > Magnesium > Iron > Zinc
(c) Sodium > Zinc > Magnesium > Iron
(d) Sodium > Magnesium > Zinc > Iron

7. Select the pair which will undergo displacement reactions

(a) FeSO4 solution and Copper metal
(b) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal
(c) CuSO4 solution and Silver metal
(d) NaCl solution and Copper metal

8. Non-metals form covalent chlorides because

(a) they can give electrons to chlorine
(b) they can share electrons with chlorine
(c) they can give electrons to chlorine atoms to form chloride ions
(d) they cannot share electrons with chlorine atoms

9. Name the oxide(s) of iron obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with steam?
(a) FeO
(b) Fe2O3
(c) Fe3O4
(d) Fe2O3 and Fe2O4

10. Which of the following are not ionic compounds?

(i) KCl
(ii) HCl
(iii) CCl4
(iv) NaCl
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

11. The electronic configuration of three elements X, Y and Z are as follows:

X = 2, 4, Y = 2, 7, Z = 2,1 Which two elements will combine to form an ionic compound and write
the correct formula,
(a) X2Y
(b) YZ
(c) XZ3
(d) Y2Z

12. The highly reactive metals like Sodium, Potassium, Magnesium, etc. are extracted by the
(a) electrolysis of their molten chloride
(b) electrolysis of their molten oxides
(c) reduction by aluminium
(d) reduction by carbon

13. Identify the non-metal which is lustrous.

(a) Sulphur
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Iodine

14. Example of an amphoteric oxide is:

(a) Na2O
(b) K2O
(C) Al2O3
(d) MgO

15. Choose the acidic oxide among the following:

(a) Na2O
(b) CO
(c) CO2
(d) Al2O3

16. The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 12. Which inert gas is nearest to X?
(a) He
(b) Ar
(c) Ne
(d) Kr

17. The process in which a carbonate ore is heated strongly in the absence of air to convert it into
metal oxide is called
(a) Roasting
(b) Reduction
(c) Calcination
(d) Smelting.

18. Oxides of moderately reactive metals like Zinc, Iron, Nickel, Tin, Copper etc. are reduced by
using
(a) Aluminium as reducing agent
(b) Sodium as reducing agent
(c) Carbon as reducing agent
(d) Calcium as reducing agent

19. In thermite welding a mixture of …… and …… is ignited with a burning magnesium ribbon
which produces molten iron metal as large amount of heat is evolved.
(a) iron (III) oxide and aluminium powder
(b) iron (II) oxide and aluminium powder
(c) iron (III) chloride and aluminium powder
(d) iron (III) sulphate and aluminium powder

20. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of
(a) Galium
(b) Aluminium
(c) Zinc
(d) Silver.

21. Sodium, potassium, magnesium, and other highly reactive metals are extracted by the
following methods:
a) electrolysis of their molten chloride;
b) electrolysis of their molten oxides; and
(c) reduction by aluminium
d) Carbon dioxide reduction

22. The reaction between X and Y results in the formation of compound Z. X loses an electron,
and Y gains an electron as a result of this. Which of the following characteristics is not
demonstrated by Z?
a) The melting point is high
b) The melting point is low
c) When in a molten state, it conducts electricity
d) It manifests itself as a solid.

23. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y, and Z are as follows:

X — 2, 8; Y — 2, 8, 7 and Z — 2, 8, 2
Which of the following statements is true?
The following are true: (a) X is a metal (b) Y is a metal (c) Z is a non-metal (d) Z is a metal and Y
is a non-metal

24. Amalgam is a combination of the elements

a) copper and tin
b) mercury
c) lead and tin
d) copper and zinc

25. The most malleable metal is:

(a) Cu (b) Ag (c) Au (d) Both b and c

26. Choose the pair of metals exist in their native state in nature?
(i) Cu
(ii) Au
(iii) Zn
(iv) Ag
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

27. Identify one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot water?
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Mg
(d) Fe

28. A cable manufacturing unit teted few elements on the basis of their physical properties.
Properties W X Y Z
Malleable Yes No No Yes
Ductile Yes No No Yes
 Electrical Yes Yes Yes No
conductivity
Melting point High Low High Low
Which of the above elements were discarded for usage by the company?
(a) W, X, Y (b) X,Y, Z (c) W,X,Z (d)W,Y,Z

29. Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas

30. Identify the metal that reacts vigorously with oxygen.

(a) Zinc (b) Magnesium (c) Sodium (d) Copper

31. Food can are coated with the tin and not with zinc because:
(a) Zinc is costlier than tin
(b) Zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(c) Zinc is more reactive than tin
(d) Zinc is less reactive than tin

32. The oxide of hydrogen is:

(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric

B. ASSERTION- REASON QUESTIONS. ( one mark each)

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion (A): Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
Reason (R) : Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent.

2. Assertion (A): Highly reactive metals are obtained by electrolytic reduction.

Reason (R): In the electrolytic reduction metal is deposited at the cathode.

3. Assertion (A): Bronze is an alloy of carbon and tin.

Reason (R): Alloys are heterogeneous mixture of metals with other metals and non metals.

4. Assertion (A): Zinc oxide is amphoteric in nature.

Reason (R): Zinc oxide reacts with both acids and bases.

5. Assertion (A): Magnesium choride is an ionic compound.

Reason (R): Metals and non-metals react by mutual transfer of electrons.

6. Assertion (A): Zinc can easily displace copper on reacting with solution of copper sulphate.
Reason (R): Copper is more reactive metal as compared to zinc.

7. Assertion (A): Zinc carbonate is heated strongly in presence of air to form zinc oxide and
carbon dioxide.
Reason (R) Calcination is the process in which a carbonate ore is heated strongly in the absence
of air to convert into metal oxide.

8. Assertion (A): Zinc becomes dull in moist air.

Reason (R) : Zinc is coated by a thin film of its basic carbonate in moist air.

9. Assertion (A) : MgCl, is a covalent compound.

Reason (R) : MgCl, is a good conductor of electricity in molten state.

10. Assertion (A) : Anodising is a method to prevent metal from corrosion.

Reason (R) : Anodising is a process of coating iron with a layer of zinc.

11. Assertion (A): Metals can be given different shapes according to our needs due to their
malleability.
Reason (R): The ability of metals to form a thin sheet is called malleability.

12. Assertion (A): Metals are used for making cooking vessels.
Reason (R): Due to the malleability and ductility, metals are used in making vessels.

13. Assertion (A): Metals are good conductors of heat.

Reason (R): They have high melting points.

14. Assertion (A): The metals that produce a sound on striking hard surface are said to be
sonorous.
Reason (R): All metals are sonorous.

15. Assertion (A): Metals can be beaten into thin sheets due to their malleability.
Reason (R): Gold and silver are the last malleable metals.

16. Assertion (A): Silver and gold do not react with oxygen even at high temperatures.
Reason (R): Iron does not burn on heating but iron fillings burn vigorously when sprinkled in
the flame of the burner.

17. Assertion (A): If metal A displaces metal B from its solution, it is more reactive than B.
 Reason (R): Reactive metals can displace less reactive metals from their compounds in solution
or molten form.

18. Assertion (A): A solution of an ionic compound in water contains ions, which move to the
opposite electrodes when electricity is passed through the solution.
Reason (R): Electrovalent compounds are generally soluble in water.

19. Assertion (A) Gangue is the substance by which the ores are contaminated with impurities.
Reason (R): Removal of the gangue from the ores are based on only the differences between the
physical properties of the gangue and the ore.

20. Assertion (A): Cinnabar is on ore of mercury.

Reason (R): Metals low in the reactivity series are very reactive

C. VERYSHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS. ( 1 MARK EACH)

1. Name the property due to which metals have a shining surface in their pure state.
2. Name two most malleable metals.
3. Give an example of an elementary substance which is a good conductor of electricity but is not
a metal.
4. Name two metals which can be cut with a knife.
5. An element forms an oxide A2O3 which is acidic in nature. Identify A as a metal or non-metal.
6. Why does calcium float in water?
7. Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of reactivity Na, K, Cu, Ag.
8. Name any one metal which reacts neither with cold water nor with hot water, but reacts with
heated steam to produce hydrogen gas.
9. Mention the composition of aqua regia.
10. School bells are made up of metals. Give reason.

D. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. Write chemical equation that show aluminium oxide reacts with acid as well as base.
2. Give reason for the following:
(i) Aluminium oxide is considered a s an amphoteric oxide.
(ii) Ionic compound conduct electricity in molten state.
3. Write one example of each of the following:
(i) A metal which is so soft that it can be cut with knife and a non metal which is hardest
substance.
(ii) A metal and a non metal which exists as liquid at room temperature.
4. X +YSO4 ---------- →XSO4 +Y
Y + XSO4 ------------- → no reaction
Out of two elements X and Y which is more reactive and why?
5. The way metals like sodium, Magnesium and Iron react with air and water is an indication of
their relative position in the reactivity series. Is this statement true? Justify your answer with
example.
6. State reasons for the following:
(i) Electric wires are covered with rubber-like material.
(ii) From dilute hydrochloric acid, zinc can liberate hydrogen gas but copper cannot.
7. What happens when,
(i) ZnCO3 is heated in the absence of oxygen?
(ii) A mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S(g) is heated?
8. A solution of copper sulphate was kept in an iron pot. After few days the iron pot was found to
have a number of holes in it. Explain the reason in terms of reactivity. Also write the chemical
equation of the reaction involved.
9. (i)Name a non metal which is lustrous whereas a metal which is non-lustrous.
(ii) An alloy has a low melting point and is therefore used for electrical fuse. Name the alloy and
write its constituents.
10. During extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used to obtain pure metals, (i)Which
material will be used as anode and cathode for refining of silver metal by this process?
(ii) In this in electrolytic cell, where do we get pure silver after passing electric current?

E. SHORT ANSWER QUESTION ( 3 MARK EACH)

1. What happens when
(a) ZnCO3 is heated in the absence of oxygen?
(b) a mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S is heated?
2. Name two metals which react violently with cold water. Write any three observations you would
make when such a metal is dropped into water. How would you identify the gas evolved, if any,
during the reaction?
3. State reasons for the following:
(i) Electric wires are covered with rubber-like material.
(ii) From dilute hydrochloric acid, zinc can liberate hydrogen gas but copper cannot.
4. Compound X and aluminium are used to join railway tracks.
(a) Identify the compound X
(b) Name the reaction
(c) Write down its reaction.
5. During extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used to obtain pure metals,
(a) Which material will be used as anode and cathode for refining of silver metal by this process?
(b) Suggest a suitable electrolyte also,
(c) In this electrolytic cell, where do we get pure silver after passing electric current?
6. Give reason for the following:
(i) Iron grills are frequently painted.
(ii) Gold ornaments retain their lustre even after several years of use.
7. The following reaction takes place when aluminium powder is heated with MnO2
3MnO2(s) + 4Al(s) → 3Mn(l) + 2Al2O3(l) + Heat [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Is aluminium getting reduced?
(b) Is MnO2 getting oxidised?
8. Explain how the following metals are obtained from their compounds by reduction process:
(i) Metal X which is low in reactivity series
(ii) Metal Y which is in the middle of the series
(iii) Metal Z which is high up in the reactivity series.
9. Every ore is a mineral but not every mineral is an ore. Explain.
10. What is an alloy? How is it prepared? Name the alloy which is used for welding electrical wires
together.
11. Give reasons for the following:
(i) Ionic compounds in general have high melting and boiling points.
(ii) Highly reactive metals cannot be obtained from their their oxides by heating them with carbon.
(iii) Copper vessels get a green coat when left exposed to air in the rainy season.
12. Define the terms: (i) mineral (ii) Ore (iii) Gangue
13 Explain why calcium metal after reacting with water starts floating on its surface. Write the
chemical equation for this reaction. Name one more metal that starts floating after some time
when immersed in water.
14. An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence. What step will
be required to obtain metal from the enriched ore?
15.(i) What is 24 carat gold? How will you convert it into 18 carat gold?
(ii) Write the composition of aqua regia.
16. A, B and C are three elements which undergo chemical reaction according to the following
equations:
A2O3 +2B -→ B2O3 + 2A
3CSO4 + 2B --→ B2(SO4)3 + 3C
3CO + 2A --→ A2O3 + 3C
(i) Which element is most reactive?
(ii) Which element is least reactive?
(iii) What type of reaction is listed above?
17. (i) Define corrosion. What name is given to the corrosion of iron?
(ii) list two damages caused by corrosion and suggest how corrosion can be prevented.
18. (i) What is meant by metallurgy?
(ii) What is thermite reaction?
(iii) Name any two metals used as reducing agents by displacing metals of low reactivity from their
compounds.
19. Write balanced chemical equation for the following reactions:
(i) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(ii) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
(iii) Carbon dioxide is passed through lime water.
20. Differentiate between metals and non metals on the basis of their chemical properties.( any
three)

F. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS . ( 5 MARKS EACH)

1. Explain the following:
(a) Reactivity of Al decreases if it is dipped in HNO3.
(b) Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of Na or Mg.
(c) NaCl is not a conductor of electricity in solid state whereas it does conduct electricity in
aqueous solution as well as in molten state.
(d) Iron articles are galvanised.
(e) Metals like Na, K, Ca and Mg are never found in their free state in nature.
2. Explain reactivity series of metals? State which of the following chemical reactions will take
place giving suitable reason for each.
I. Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
II. Fe (s) + ZnSO4 (ag) → FeSO4 (aq) + Zn (s)
III. Zn (s) + FeSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Fe (s)
3. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following solution one by
one.
The results obtained have been tabulated as follows :
Metal Iron (II) sulphate Copper (II) sulphate Zinc sulphate Silver nitrate

A No reaction Displacement

B Displacement No reaction

C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement

D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction

Use the Table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.
(i) Name the most reactive metal ?
(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
4. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch.
(a) How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-metals?
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-metals.
5. Give reasons :
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of
extraction.

6. Write balanced chemicals equations to explain what happens , when

(i) Mercuric oxide is heated
(ii) Mixture of cuprous oxide and cuprous sulphide is heated
(iii) Aluminium is reacted with manganese dioxide
(iv) Ferric oxide is reduced with aluminium
(v) Zinc carbonate undergoes calcination.
7. Explain the following:
(i) Sodium chloride is an ionic compound which does not conduct electricity in solid state whereas
it conducts electricity in molten state as well as in aqueous solution.
(ii) Reactivity of aluminium decreases if it is dipped in nitric acid.
(iii) Metals like calcium and magnesium are never found in their free state in nature.
8. (i) Write the chemical name of the coating that forms on silver and copper articles when these
are exposed to moist air.
(ii) Explain what is galvanisation? What purpose is served by it?
(iii) Define an alloy. How are alloys prepared? How do the properties of iron change when:
(a) Small quantity of carbon,
b) Nickel and chromium, are mixed in it.
G. CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS.(4 MARKS EACH)
CASE STUDY :1
Ores mined from the earth are usually contaminated with large amounts of impurities such as soil,
sand, etc., called gangue. The impurities must be removed from the ore prior to the extraction of
the metal. The processes Several steps are involved in the extraction of pure metal from
ores.Metals and Non-metals used for removing the gangue from the ore are based on the
differences between the physical or chemical properties of the gangue and the ore. Different
separation techniques are accordingly employed.

1. Name the process for the extraction of metals of low reactivity series.
2. Define: roasting.
3. Give one example of extracting metals low in the activity series.
4. Write another name for HgS an ore of mercury.

CASE STUDY 2.
The metals in the middle of the activity series such as iron, zinc, lead, copper, etc., are moderately
reactive. These are usually present as sulphides or carbonates in nature. It is easier to obtain a
metal from its oxide, as compared to its sulphides and carbonates. Therefore, prior to reduction,
the metal sulphides and carbonates must be converted into metal oxides. The sulphide ores are
converted into oxides by heating strongly in the presence of excess air. This process is known as
roasting. The carbonate ores are changed into oxides by heating strongly in limited air. This
process is known as calcinations
1. Define calcination.
2. Give a suitable example for the process roasting.
3. Name the process of converting metal oxide to metal.
4. State another reducing agent which can be used to extract metal from metal oxide.

CASE STUDY 3.
„ Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air. This is because it reacts with
sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide.
„ Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air and slowly loses its shiny brown surface and
gains a green coat. This green substance is copper carbonate.
„ Iron when exposed to moist air for a long time acquires a coating of a brown flaky substance
called rust. Let us find out the conditions under which iron rusts.
1. Give the chemical reaction that occurs during the rusting of iron.
2. Mention three methods to prevent the corrosion of metals.
3. Define the term alloy. Give one example.
4. Explain galvanization?

CASE STUDY 4
The easiest way to start grouping substances is by comparing their physical properties. Metals in
their pure state, have a shining surface, which is their unique property. The non-metals are either
solids or gases except bromine. For example, iron, copper, aluminium, magnesium, sodium, lead,
zinc are metals whereas carbon, sulphur, iodine, oxygen, hydrogen are non-metals. Metals are
generally hard. However, some exceptions also found. The hardness varies from metal to metal.
Some metals can be beaten into thin sheets. They can also be drawn into thin wires. It is
surprising to know that a wire of about 2 km length can be drawn from one gram of gold. Metals
are also used for making vessels.
1. Mention the property of metals make them good conductor of heat and electricity?
2. Name two metals which are generally used for making jewellery.
3..Give two examples each of the metals that good conductors and poor conductors of heat
respectively.

CASE STUDY 5
The chemical properties of metals are different from the chemical properties of non-metals. Some
of the chemical properties of metals are:
• All metals combine with oxygen to form metal oxides.
• Metals react with water and produce a metal oxide and hydrogen gas.
• Metals react with acids to give a salt and hydrogen gas.
• Metals displaces other metal from its solution.

1. Name two metals which react with dil. HNO3 to evolve H2 gas.
2. Some metals do not react with oxygen even at high temperatures. Name any two.
3. Non- metals do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids. Why?

CASE STUDY 6
Non-metals are reactive in nature. They tend to gain electron to achieve their nearest noble gas
configuration. Therefore, they form anions:
X + e -> X
Non-metals reacts with air and form oxides, which reacts with water to form acids. Non-metals do
not react with dilute acids.
1. In context of non-metals in the given para what is the noble gas configuration?
2. ‘Non metals react with air and form oxides.’ Give one example.
3. Give the formula and electronic configuration of a non metal which catches fire when exposed
to air.

ANSWER KEY
A. MCQ (1MARK EACH)

1) d. 2) b. 3) a) 4) a. 5) c. 6) d. 7) b. 8) b. 9) c. 10) b. 11) b. 12) a. 13) d. 14) c. 15) c. 16) c. 17) c.

18) c. 19) a. 20) c. 21). a 22) c 23) c 24 ) b 25) d 26) c 27) d 28) b 29) b 30) c 31) c 32)c
B. ASSERTION- REASONING QUESTIONS.
1) a) 2) b. 3) c. 4) a. 5) a. 6) c. 7) d). 8) a) 9) d. 10) c. 11) a 12)a 13)b 14)c 15)c 16)b 17)a 18)a
19)c 20)c
C. VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION. (I 1 MARK EACH).
1. Metallic lustre.
2. Gold and silver.
3. Graphite.
4. Lithium, sodium, potassium.
5. Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature while those of metals are basic in nature. Hence, A
must be a non-metal.
6. Calcium reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen. Bubbles of hydrogen gas
stick to the surface of calcium, hence it floats.
7. K > Na > Cu > Ag.
8. Iron
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
9. It is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in
the ratio of 3:1
10. Because metals are sonorous.

D. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

Answer 1. Al2O3 +6HCl -----→2AlCl3 +3H2O 1M
Al2O3+2NaOH ---→ 2NaAlO2 + H2O 1M
Answer 2: (i) It is because it reacts with acid as well as bases to produce salt and water. Al is less
electropositive metal so it forms amphoteric oxide, which can react with acid as well as base.
1M
(ii) Ionic compounds can conduct electricity in molten state because ions
become free to move in molten state. 1M
Answer 3: (i) Sodium, carbon( diamond) 1M

(ii) Mercury is liquid metal, bromine is liquid non metal. 1M

Answer 4: X is more reactive than Y because it displaces Y from its salt
Answer 5: Yes, Sodium reacts explosively even with cold water. It is most reactive.
Magnesium reacts with hot water, it is less reactive than Na.
Iron reacts only with steam which shows it is least reactive among the three.
Answer 6: (i) It is because rubber is an insulator and does not allow current to flow through it.
(ii) Zinc is placed above hydrogen in the reactivity series of metals while copper is placed below it.
Metals placed above hydrogen can displace hydrogen from water and acids while those below it
cannot. Therefore, zinc can displace hydrogen from dilute HCl whereas copper cannot.
Answer 7: (i)A mixture of ZnO(s) and CO2(g) is formed.
ZnCO3(s) -------heat→ ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
(ii)A mixture of copper and SO2(g) is formed.
2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S-------- heat→6Cu(s)+ SO2(g)
Answer 8: Iron is more reactive than copper. When CuSO4 solution is kept in an iron pot, Fe
being more reactive than Cu, displaces Cu from CuSO4 to form Cu as metal and FeSO4 is formed.
Since Fe is taking part in the reaction, it comes out from the iron pot, forming holes in the pot.
CuSO4 + Fe------ → FeSO4+ Cu
Answer 9: i) Iodine, Lead
(ii)Solder is an alloy. It is made of lead and tin.
Answer 10: In the electrolytic refining of impure silver metal:
(i) A rod of impure silver is used as anode while that of pure silver as cathode.
(ii) On passing current, pure silver gets deposited at the cathode. It can be scrapped off later on.

E. SHORT ANSWER QUESTION ( 3 MARK EACH)

1. (a) A mixture of ZnO(s) and CO2 is formed.
(b) A mixture of copper and SO2 is formed.
2. Sodium, Potassium
When these metals are dropped in water, bubbles will be evolved due to evolution of hydrogen
gas.
The gas will catch fire and the solution will be alkaline, i.e., it will turn red litmus blue.
Test: When a burning matchstick is brought near the gas, it burns explosively with a ‘pop’ sound
and the splinter is extinguished.

3. (i) It is because rubber is an insulator and does not allow current to flow through it.
(ii) Zinc is is placed above hydrogen in the reactivity series of metals while copper is placed below
it. Metals placed above hydrogen can displace hydrogen from water and acids while those below it
cannot. Therefore, zinc can displace hydrogen from dilute HCl whereas copper cannot.

4. (a) Compound X must be iron (III) oxide, Fe2O3.

(b) The reaction is known as ‘thermite reaction’ or ‘aluminothermy’.

5. In the electrolytic refining of impure silver metal:

(a) A rod of impure silver is used as anode while that of pure silver as cathode.
(b) The electrolyte is a water soluble salt of silver, for example silver chloride or silver nitrate.
(c) On passing current, pure silver gets deposited at the cathode. It can be scrapped off later on.
6. (i) Iron metal easily gets rusted by air containing moisture and oxygen. Therefore, iron grills are
frequently painted with rust proof paints.
(ii) Gold is a noble metal and is not affected by chemicals or by air. Therefore, gold ornaments
retain their lustre even after several years.

7. (a) Aluminium is getting oxidised to Al2O3.

(b) Manganese dioxide is getting reduced to Mn.

8. (i) Metals which are low in reactivity series can be obtained by heating their compounds. For
example, mercury is obtained by heating its ore, cinnabar (HgS), in air.
HgS + O2 → Hg + SO2
(ii) Metals which are in the middle of the series are generally obtained by heating their compounds
with some reducing agent such as carbon. For example, iron is obtained from haematite (Fe 2O3)
by reduction with carbon.
2Fe2O3 + 3C → 4Fe + 3CO2
(iii) Metals which are high up in the series are obtained by electrolytic reduction. For example,
sodium is obtained by electrolysis of molten sodium chloride.

9. Every mineral is not suitable for the extraction of the metal. The mineral from which the metal is
economically and conveniently extracted is called an ore.

10. Alloy is a mixture of two or more metals or non-metals.

Alloys are made by mixing the metals in their molten state. It is prepared by first melting the
primary metal and then dissolving the other metal in definite proportion. It is then cooled to room
temperature. Solder is used for welding electrical wires together.

11. (i) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points due to strong force of attraction
between oppositely charged ions.
(ii) It is because metals themselves are strong reducing agents. Therefore, cannot be reduced by
reducing agents like carbon.
(iii) Copper vessels react with CO2 , O2 and moisture to form green coloured basic copper
carbonate [CuCo3.Cu(OH)2].

12. (i) Mineral: The naturally occurring compounds of metals which are generally mixed with other
matter such as soil, rocks and limestone are called minerals.
(ii) Ore: The minerals which contain a high percentage of the metal and the metal can be
extracted profitably, i.e., with low cost and minimum efforts, are called ores.
(iii) Gangue: The impurity of sand, rocking materials and other contaminations present in the ore
is called gangue.

13. Calcium starts floating because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of
metal.
Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) -→ Ca(OH)2 + H2(g)
Magnesium reacts with hot water and starts floating due to the bubbles of hydrogen gas sticking to
its surface.

14. Carbonate ore.

Steps:
(i) Calcination: Carbonate ore is heated in limited supply of air and oxide is obtained.
e.g., ZnCO3(s) --heat--→ ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
(ii) Reduction with carbon: Oxide ore is heated with carbon.
ZnO(s) + C(s) ------- → Zn(s) + CO(g)

15. (i) 24 carat gold is a pure gold . It is converted into 18 carat gold byadding 6 parts of Copper to
18 parts of gold. i.e. 75% Au and 25% Cu.
(ii) Mixture of Conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in the ratio 3:1.

16. It can be concluded from the given reactions that they are the example of displacement where
A displaces c from its solution while B displaces both A and C. So, order of reactivity is:
C<B<A
(i) B is the most reactive
(ii) C is least reactive
(iii) Displacement reaction.

17. (i) Corrosion is a process by which an oxide layer is formed on a metal surface due to
oxidation. The corrosion on iron is called rusting.
(ii) Damages caused by corrosion are:
(a) It reduces the strength of the metal.
(b) It eats up the metal.
Prevention: Corrosion can be prevented by painting, galvanisation, alloying or greasing.

18. (i) the extraction of metals from their ores profitably and easily and then refining them for use
is known as metallurgy.
(ii) Reduction of iron oxide to iron by aluminium is called thermite reaction.
Fe2O3 + 2Al -→ 2Fe + Al2O3
(iii) Magnesium and aluminium
19. (i) 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(dil. ) --- → Al2(SO4)3(aq) +3H2(g)
(ii) Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl (dil.) ----→ 2NaCl(aq) +H2O + CO2(g)
(iii) Ca(OH)2(aq) +CO2(g) --- → CaCO3(s) +H2O(l)
lime water white ppt
20.
Metals Non-metals

1. Oxides of metals are either basic in 1. Oxides of non-metals are either acidic or
nature or both basic and acidic in nature. neutral.
2. Metals are electropositive in nature. 2. Non-metals are electronegative in nature.
3. Metals replace hydrogen from dilute 3. Non-metals do not replace hydrogen from
acids. dilute acids.
4. Metals reacts with water and produce a 4. Non-metals do not react with water or
metal hydroxide or oxide and hydrogen gas. steam to evolve H2 gas as they cannot give
electrons to hydrogen ions of water.

F. LONG ANSWER QUESTION. ( 5 MARKS EACH)

1. (a) On dipping in HNO3, the surface of Al is oxidised to form an oxide layer of Al2O3, which is
hard and impervious. It acts as a protective layer for Al underneath. Hence, reactivity of Al
decreases.
(b) Na or Mg are highly reactive metals. They have greater affinity for oxygen than for carbon.
Hence, their oxides are stable. To reduce them with carbon, very high temperature is required. At
this temperature, these metals react with carbon to form corresponding carbides.
(c) The conduction of electricity is due to movement of ions. In the solid state, Na + and Cl– are
fixed and not free to move. Hence, it does not conduct electricity. In the aqueous solution or in the
molten state, Na+ and Cl– ions are free to move about and hence conduct electricity.
(d) Galvanisation means coating of iron articles with a layer of zinc. Zinc is more reactive than
iron. Hence, it undergoes oxidation more readily than iron. As a result, iron articles remain
protected.
(e) These metals are highly reactive and react with the gases present in the air. Hence, they are
found as compounds in the ores and not in the free state in nature.

2. Reactivity series is a list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing reactivities
(activities).
I. Reaction will take place because Zn is above Cu in the activity series and is more reactive than
Cu.
II. Reaction will not take place as Fe is below Zn in the activity series and cannot displace Zn from
its solution.
III. Reaction will take place because Zn is more reactive than Fe.

3. (i) B is the most reactive metal because it gives displacement reaction with iron (II) sulphate.
(ii) When metal B is added to copper (II) sulphate solution, a displacement reaction will take place
due to which the blue colour of copper (II) sulphate solution will fade and a red-brown deposit of
copper will be formed on metal B.
(iii) Metal B is the most reactive because it displaces iron from its salt solution. Metal A is less
reactive because it displaces copper from its salt solution. Metal C is still less reactive because it
can displace only silver from its salt solution and metal D is the least reactive because it cannot
displace any metal from its salt solution. Hence, the decreasing order of reactivity of the metals is
B > A > C > D.

4) (a) Metals can be beaten into thin sheets with a hammer without breaking. Non-metals cannot
be beaten with a hammer to form thin sheets. Non-metals break into pieces when hammered.
Metals are malleable, while non-metals are non-melleable. When metals are connected into circuit
using a battery, bulb, wires and switch, current passes through the circuit and the bulb glows.
When non-metals (like sulphur) are connected, the bulb does not light up at all. Metals are good
conductors of electricity.
(b) Because of malleability, metals can be casted into sheets. Metals are good conductors of
electricity so these can be used for electrical cables.

5. (a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery because these are malleable and
ductile. These are highly resistant to corrosion.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are very reactive and catch fire when exposed to air. This is
due to their low ignition temperature and high reactivity.
(c) Aluminium forms a non-reactive layer of aluminium oxide on its surface. This layer prevents
aluminium to react with other substances. That’s why aluminium is used to make cooking utensils.
(d) It is easier to reduce a metal oxide into free metal. Since it is easier to obtain metals from their
oxides than from their carbonates or sulphides directly, therefore, the carbonate and sulphide ores
are first converted to oxides for extracting the metals.

6. (i) Mercuric oxide decomposes to give mercury and oxygen when heated. This reaction is
utilized during extraction of mercury.
2HgO → 2Hg + O2
(ii) Copper is obtained, along with sulphur dioxide.This reaction is utilized during extraction of
copper from its ore.
2Cu2O + Cu2S →6Cu + SO2
(iii) Manganese is obtained along with aluminium oxide. This reaction is utilized during extraction
of manganese.
3MnO2 + 4AI → 3Mn + 2AI2O3
(iv) Iron is obtained. This reaction is known as thermite reaction and is used for welding of railway
tracks.
Fe2O3 + 2AI → 2Fe + AI2O3 + Heat
(v) Calcination involves heating carbonate ore in limited supply of air to obtain oxide of metal.
ZnCO3 → ZnO +CO2

7. (i) NaCI conducts electricity in the molten state and in aqueous solution because ions are free
to move whereas in solid state ions are not free to move.
(ii) When aluminium is dipped in nitric acid, a layer of aluminium oxide is formed on the metal. This
happens because nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent. The layer of aluminium oxide prevents
further reaction of aluminium. Due to this, the reactivity if aluminium decreases.
(iii) Because calcium and magnesium are highly reactive.
8. (i) Ag2S (Silver sulphide) is formed on silver and basic carbonate CuCO3. Cu(OH)2 is formed in
copper.
(ii) The process of coating zinc over iron is called galvanisation. It is used to prevent rusting of
iron.
(iii) Alloy is homogeneous mixture of two or more metals. One of them can be non-metal. Alloys
are prepared by melting two or more metals together.
(a) Iron does not rust on adding small quantity of carbon.
(b) When we form alloy of iron with nickel and chromium, we get stainless steel which is malleable
and does not get rusted.

G. CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS.(4 MARKS EACH)

CASE STUDY 1.
1. Oxides of these metals are reduced to metal by simply heating.
2. The sulphide ores are converted into oxides by heating strongly in the presence of excess air.
This is called as Roasting.

3. 2Cu2O + 3O2+ heat 2Cu2O(s) + 2SO2(g)

On further heating: 2Cu2O + Cu2S + heat 6 Cu(s) + SO2(g)

4. HgS is also called as Cinnabar.

CASE STUDY 2.
1. The carbonates ores are changed into oxides by heating strongly in limmited air. This process
is known as Calcination.

2. 2Zn(s) + 3O2(g) + heat 2ZnO(s) + 2SO2(g)

3. The metal oxides are reduced to corresponding metal by simply using suitable reducing agents
such as coke(carbon).
4. Aluminium, Sodium and Calcium.

CASE STUDY 3.

1. Fe(s) + O2(g) + H2O(l) Fe2O3. XH2O.

2. Galvanization, painting & oiling, anodizing or making alloys.

3. An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non- metal.
Eg: Iron is mixed with Nickel and Chromium to give stainless steel.
4. It is a method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of zinc.

4. 1. Presence of free/valence electrons

2.Platinum, gold and silver

3. Good conductors of heat are copper and silver. Poor conductors of heat are lead and mercury.

5. 1.Manganese and magnesium

2. Silver and Gold
3. It is because non-metals do not supply electrons to change H+ ions into H2 gas.
6. 1. Noble gas configuration is 2,8
2. C + O2 ------------ → CO2
3. Phosphorus.
Formula is P. Configuration: 2,8,5
(vi)Q1.Write one example of each of

(i) a metal which is so soft that, it can be cut with knife and a non-metal which is the hardest
substance.
(ii) A metal and a non-metal which exist as liquid at room temperature.
Answer.
(i) Sodium, carbon (diamond).
(ii) Mercury is liquid metal, bromine is liquid non-metal.

Q2. Mention the names of the metals for the following:

(i) Two metals which are alloyed with iron to make stainless steel.
(ii) Two metals which are used to make jewellery.
Answer.
(i) Nickel and chromium.
(ii) Gold and platinum.

Q3. Write the electron dot structures for

(a) Potassium and chlorine.
(b) Calcium and sulphur.
(c) Calcium and chlorine.
Answer. (a) KCl (b) CaS (c) CaCl2

Q4. You are given samples of three metals. Sodium, magnesium and copper. Suggest any two
activities to arrange them in order of decreasing activity.
Answer. Activity 1: Sodium reacts with cold water vigorously to form sodium hydroxide and
hydrogen gas
Na (s) + H2O (cold) NaOH (aq) + H2 (g)
Magnesium does not react with cold water but with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and
hydrogen gas.
Mg (s) + H2O (Hot) Mg (OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Hence sodium is more reactive than magnesium.
Activity 2: Mg (s) + CuSO4 (aq) Mg SO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Cu (s) + MgSO4 (aq) No reaction

Q5. Give reason for the following:

(a) School bells are made up of metals.
(b) Electric wires are made up of copper.
Answer.
(a) It is because metals are sonorous, i.e. they produce sound when struck with a hard substance.
(b) It-is because copper is good conductor of electricity.
Q6. (a) Define activity series of metals. Arrange the metals gold, copper, iron and magnesium in
order of their increase in reactivity.
(b) What will you observe when:
(i) Some zinc pieces are put in copper sulphate solution.
(ii) Some silver pieces are put into green coloured ferrous sulphate solution.
Answer.
(a) The series of metals in which metals are arranged in decreasing order of their reactivity.
Au < Cu < Fe < Mg is increasing order of reactivity.
(b) (i) The blue solution will become colourless and reddish brown copper metal will be
deposited.
Zn (s) + CuSO 4 (aq) ----- → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)
(ii) Reaction will not take place because Ag is less reactive than iron.
Ag(s) + FeSO4 (aq) ------ → No Reaction
Q7. Name the following:
(a) A metal, which is preserved in kerosene.
(b) A lustrous coloured non-metal.
(c) A metal, which can melt while kept on palm.
(d) A metal, which is a poor conductor of heat.
Answer.
(a) Sodium is preserved in kerosene (b) Iodine is lustrous coloured non-metal
(c) Gallium (d) Lead

Q8. Give reason for the following:

(a) Aluminium oxide is considered as an amphoteric oxide.
(b) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state.
Answer.
(a) It is because it reacts with acids as well as bases to produce salts and water. Al is less
electropositive metal. So, it forms amphoteric oxide which can react with acid as well as base.
(b) Ionic compounds can conduct electricity in molten state because ions become free to move in
molten state.
Q9. State reasons for the following:
(i) Sulphur is a non-metal (ii)Magnesium is a metal
Answer: (i) Sulphur is a non-metal because it is a poor conductor of heat and electricity.
(ii)Magnesium is a metal because it is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
Q10. Write two differences between calcination and roasting.
Answer
Calcination Roasting
It is carried out by heating ore in the absence of It is carried out by heating ore in the presence
air. of air.
(ii) It converts carbonate ores into oxides. (ii) It converts sulphide ores into oxides.
 CHAPTER – 4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

CONTENT:

❖ Covalent Bonding in Carbon compounds

❖ Versatile nature of Carbon
❖ Homologous series
❖ Nomenclature of carbon compounds functional groups (halogens, alcohol,
ketone, aldehyde, alkenes and alkynes)
❖ Difference between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons
❖ Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition
and substitution)
❖ Ethanol and Ethanoic acid (only properties and uses)
❖ Soaps and detergents
Soaps and detergents
a) Soaps: - Soaps are long chain sodium or potassium salts of carboxylic acids. Eg:- Sodium
stearate – C17H35COONa
b) Structure of soap molecule: - A soap molecule has two parts. A long hydrocarbon part which is
hydrophobic (water repelling) and soluble in oil and grease and a short ionic part which is
hydrophilic (water attracting) and insoluble in oil and grease.

c) Cleansing action of soap: - When soap is dissolved in water it forms spherical structures called
micelles. In each micelle the soap molecules are arranged radially such that the HC part is
towards the centre and the ionic part is towards the outside. The HC part dissolves the dirt, oil and
grease and forms an emulsion at the centre of the micelles which can be washed away by water
d) Detergents: - Detergents are long chain sodium salts of sulphonic acids. Soaps do not wash
well with hard water because it forms insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium salts in
hard water. Detergents wash well with hard water because it does not form insoluble precipitates
of calcium and magnesium salts in hard water.
 QUESTION BANK (CARBON AND ITS COMPOUND)

MCQ (1 mark each)

Q1) The electronic configuration of an element is found to be 2, 4. How many bonds can one carb
atom form in a compound?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
Q2) The chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine to methane in the presence of sunlight.
CH4 + Cl2 → X
What is likely to be the product of the reaction represented by "X"?
(a) CH + H2SO4 (b) CH₂CI-HCI
(c) CHCI,+HCI (d) CH CI+ H2S04
Q3) A carbon compound contains two atoms of carbon. Which name should the carbon
compound bear?
(a) Butane (b) Ethane (c) Methane (d) Propane
Q4)

Which functional group is present in the compound?

(a) alcohol
(b) aldehyde
(c) carboxylic acid
(d) ketone
Q4) Which of these functional groups can combine with carbon to produce alcohol?

Q5) A student studies that vinegar, which is a diluted form of ethanoic acid, freezes during
winter. What does this suggest about the physical properties of pure ethanoic acid?
(a) it has a low boiling point
(b) it has a low melting point
(c) it has a very high boiling point
(d) it has a very high melting point
Q6) Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?
a) C4H10
b) C4H6
c) C4H8
d) C4H4
Q7) A student studies that a soap molecule has two ends, one of which is an ionic end and
the other is the carbonic chain. Which option explains the interaction of a soap molecule
with oil?
(a) ionic end of the soap interacts with the oil
(b) the closest end of the soap interacts with the oil
(c) carbonic chain end of the soap interacts with the oil
(d) ends of the soap randomly interact with the oil
Q8) Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologous series because all are-
(a) Hydrocarbons
(b) saturated compounds
(c) aliphatic compounds
(d) differ from each other by a CH2 group
Q9) Which of the following belongs to a homologous series of alkynes?
C6H6, C2H6, C2H4, C3H4
(a) C6H6
(b) C2H6
(c) C2H4
(d) C3H4

Q10) Choose the correct statement

(a) The ethene molecule is made up of 2 carbon atoms and 4 hydrogen atoms.
(b) Each carbon atom shares three electrons with three hydrogen atoms to form three carbon-
hydrogen single covalent bonds.
(c) In ethane, the two carbon atoms share one pair of electrons among themselves to form one
carbon-carbon single covalent bond.
(d) All the above.
Q11) Following is (are) the property(ies) of ionic compounds.
 (a) They have high melting and boiling points
(b) They conduct electricity in solution or in molten state
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Q12) Which of the following is not a characteristic of fullerenes?
(a) Of all the fullerene, C60 allotrope is the most stable.
(b) Its shape is similar to that of a soccer ball.
(c) It contains only fused six-membered carbon-carbon rings.
(d) Its hardness is lower than that of diamond.
Q13) How many single bonds are present in methane?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Three
Q14) A hydrocarbon should have a minimum of how many carbon atoms to show
isomerism?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Fived
(d) Six
Q15) Which of the following statements are correct for carbon compounds?
(i) Most carbon compounds are good conductors of electricity.
(ii) Most carbon compounds are poor conductors of electricity.
(iii) Force of attraction between molecules of carbon compounds is not very strong.
(iv) Force of attraction between molecules of carbon compounds is very strong.
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Q16) C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of
(a) Alkynes
(b) Alkenes
(c) Alkanes
(d) Cyclo alkanes
Q17)
 (a) 2-ethyl-2-methyl propane
(b) 2, 2-demethyl butane
(c) 1,1,1-trimethyl propane
(d) 2, 2-methyl butane
Q18).The number of isomers of pentane is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Q19) Which of the following will undergo addition reactions?
(a) CH4
(b) C3H8
(C) C2H6
(d) C2H4
Q20) When ethanoic acid is treated with NaHCO^ the gas evolved is
(a) H2
(b) CO2
(c) CH4
(d) CO

Assertion and Reason (1 mark each)

The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
• (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
• (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
• (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
• (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

1) Assertion: Ethanoic acid liberates hydrogen with Sodium metal.

Reason: More reactive sodium displaces hydrogen from ethanoic acid.
2) Assertion: Ethanoic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol in presence of conc H2SO4 to form ethyl
ethanoate.
Reason: Esters are used in ice creams and cold drinks.’
3) Assertion: Carbon forms a large number of organic compounds.
Reason : Carbon atom contains 6 valence electrons.
4) Assertion: During the reaction esterification esters are produced.
Reason: Esters are sweet smelling compounds.
5) Assertion: Vegetable oils are unsaturated, react with hydrogen in presence of nickel to form
vegetable ghee.
Reason: This reaction is saponification.
6) Assertion(A) : Carbon is the only element that can form large number of compounds.
Reason (R) : Carbon is tetravalent and shows the property of catenation.
7) Assertion(A) : If the first member of a homologous series is methanal, its third member will be
propanal.
Reason (R) : All the members of a homologous series show similar chemical properties.
8) Assertion(A) : Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon.
Reason (R) : Some elements can have several different structural forms while in the same
physical state. These forms are called allotropes.
9) Assertion(A) : Soaps are not suitable for washing purpose when water is hard.
Reason (R) : Soaps have relatively weak cleansing action.
Answer – (b)
10) Assertion(A): n-butane and iso-butane are examples of isomers.
Reason (R) : Isomerism is possible only with hydrocarbons having 4 or more carbon atoms.
Short answer - questions (one word or one sentence / 1 mark each)
Q. 1. Define catenation.
Q. 2. Name a cyclic unsaturated carbon compound.
Q. 3. Name the functional group present in propanone.
Q. 4. How are covalent bonds formed?
Q. 5. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and the 3rd member of the homologous series whose
first member is methane.
Q.6. Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having functional
group -Br.
Q.7. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series where the
first member is ethyne.
Q. 8. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds?
Q.9. Write the next homologue of each of the following:
(i) C₂H4 (ii) C4 H6
Q. 10. Name the following compounds:
(i) CH3 - CH2 -OH (ii) CH3-C=0
H
Q. 11. Which element exhibits the property of catenation to maximum extent and why?

Short answer - questions (20-30 words / 2 marks each)

Q1 Define soaps?
Q2. Give a chemical test to distinguish between Ethane and ethene.
Q3. Write a test to identify the presence of ethanoic acid?
Q4. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is used for welding. Can you justify why a mixture of ethyne
and air is not-used?
Q5. Carbon and its compounds are used as fuels in most cases? Give reason.
Q6. “CHO group cannot be present in the middle of the carbon atom chain.” Justify.
Q7. Two carbon atoms cannot be linked to each other by more than three covalent bonds. Why?
Q8. Would you be able to check if water is hard by using a detergent?
Q9. People use a variety of methods to wash clothes. Usually after adding the soap, they beat the
clothes on stone, or beat it with a paddle, scrub with a brush or the mixture is agitated in a
washing machine. Why is agitation necessary to get clean clothes?
Q10. Give a test that can be used to differentiate chemically between butter and cooking oil?
Short answer – questions (40-50 words / 3 marks each)
Q. 1. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds? Give an example and list its three
characteristics. (1+2)
Q.2. Which compounds called (a) alkanes, are (b) alkenes and (c) alkynes? C 4H10 belongs to
which of these? Draw two structural isomers of this compound. (1+1+1)
Q. 3. Draw the structures of the following compounds and identify the functional group present in
them (1+1+1)
(a) Butanoic acid
(b) Bromopropane
(c) Butyne
Q. 4. Write the molecular formula of the following compounds and draw their electron-dot
structures:
(a) Ethane (1+1+1)
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethyne
Q. 5. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say
C3H6O. Write their structures and name them. State the scientific relation between the two.
(1.5+1.5)
Q6. What happens when (write chemical equation in each case) (1+1+1)
(a) ethanol is burnt in air?
(b) ethanol is heated with excess conc. H₂SO, at 443 K?
(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
Q.7. (a) Draw the structures for (i) ethanol, (ii) ethanoic acid. (1.5+1.5)
(b) Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid considered an oxidation reaction?
Write the oxidizing agent used in the reaction involved.
Q.8. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of the chemical
equations for each. State one use of each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process. (1.5+1.5)
Q.9. With the help of a diagram, explain cleansing action of soap. (1+2)
Q.10. Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium
ethanoate Write balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and
the products other than ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case. (1+1+1)

Long answer – questions (70-80 words / 5 marks each)

Q1. What is methane? Draw its electron dot structure. Name the type of bonds formed in this
compound. Why are such compounds: (i) poor conductors of electricity and (ii) have low melting
and boiling points? What happens when this compound burns in oxygen?
(1+1+1+2)
Q.2. Describe the following chemical properties of carbon compounds briefly and give one
chemical reaction for each: (1+1+1+1+1)
(a) Combustion
 (b) Addition
(c) Substitution
(d) Esterification
(e) Oxidation
Q.3.(a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon.
(1+2+2)
(b) Name the products formed when ethane burns in air. Write the balanced chemical equation for
the reaction showing the types of energies liberated.
(c) Why is reaction between methane and chlorine in the presence of sunlight considered a
substitution reaction?
Q.4. Compare soaps and detergents on the basis of their composition and cleansing action in hard
water. (2.5+2.5)
Q.5. Soaps and detergents are two types of salts. State the difference between the two. Write the
mechanism of the cleansing action of soaps. Why do soaps not form lather (foam) with hard water
? Mention any two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps.
(1+1+1+2)

Cases based study questions (Information+ 4 Question / 4 marks each)

CASE 1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Carbon has the unique property to form bonds with other atoms of carbon.

Q.1. Name the characteristic property of carbon as depicted in the fig.

(A) Catenation (B) Polymerization
(C) Isomerisation (D) None of the above
Q. 2. Carbon forms large number of compounds due to:
(A) Catenation only (B) Tetravalency only
(C) Both catenation and tetravalency (D) None of the above
Q.3. Carbon is:
(A) Divalent (B) Monovalent
(C) Tetravalent (D) Trivalent
Q.4. Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which 6 carbon atoms are arranged
in a ring.
(A) Hexane (B) Cyclohexane
(C) Pentane (D) Cyclopentane
CASE 2. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Homologous series is a series of compounds with similar chemical properties and same
functional group differing from the successive member by CH2. Carbon chains of varying length
have been observed in organic compounds having the same general formula. Such organic
compounds that vary from one another by a repeating unit and have the same general formula
form a series of compounds. Alkanes with general formula C,H2n+2 alkenes with general formula
C,H2 and alkynes with general formula C,H2-2 form the most basic homologous series in organic
chemistry.
 All the members belonging to this series have the same functional groups. They have similar
physical properties and follow a fixed gradation with increasing mass. This series has enabled
scientists to study different organic compounds systematically. They can predict the properties of
organic compounds belonging to a particular homologous series based on the data available from
the other members of the same series. The study of organic compounds has been simplified.
Q. 1. Name the fourth member of the alkane series.
Q. 2. The difference in the molecular formula of any two consecutive members of a homologous
series of organic compounds is
Q. 3. Name the functional group present in the following compound:
(i) CH3 COOH (ii) CH3 C(O)CH3
Q. 4. Define homologous series? Which two of the following organic compounds belong to the
same homologous?
CASE 3. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Soaps and detergents are widely used as cleaning agents. Chemically soaps and detergents are
quite different from each other. The common feature of soaps and detergents is that when
dissolved in water the molecules of soap and detergent tend to concentrate at the surface of the
solution or at interface. Therefore, the surface tension of the solution is reduced, it causes foaming
of the solution. A sample of water which gives lather with soap with difficulty is known as hard
water, while a sample of water which gives lather with soap easily is known as soft water.
Hardness of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates, sulphates and chlorides of calcium and
magnesium. When hardness of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of magnesium and
calcium, it is called temporary hardness. When hardness of water is due to the presence of
sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and calcium, it is called permanent hardness.
Q. 1 How soap and detergent molecules differ chemically?
Q. 2. Micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? State reason.
Q. 3. Give reason why soaps not form lather in hard water?
Q.4 List two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps.

QUESTION BANK ANSWER KEY

MCQ (1 mark each)

Q1) The electronic configuration of an element is found to be 2, 4. How many bonds can one carb
atom form in a compound?
(c) 4
Q2) The chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine to methane in the presence of sunlight.
CH4 + Cl2 → X
What is likely to be the product of the reaction represented by "X"?
(b) CH₂CI-HCI
Q3) A carbon compound contains two atoms of carbon. Which name should the carbon
compound bear?
(b) Ethane
Q4)

Which functional group is present in the compound?

(d) ketone
Q4) Which of these functional groups can combine with carbon to produce alcohol?
C) --------- OH
Q5) A student studies that vinegar, which is a diluted form of ethanoic acid, freezes during
winter. What does this suggest about the physical properties of pure ethanoic acid?
(b) it has a low melting point

Q6) Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?

c) C4H8
Q7) A student studies that a soap molecule has two ends, one of which is an ionic end and
the other is the carbonic chain. Which option explains the interaction of a soap molecule
with oil?
(c) carbonic chain end of the soap interacts with the oil
Q8) Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologous series because all are-

(d) differ from each other by a CH2 group

Q9) Which of the following belongs to a homologous series of alkynes?
C6H6, C2H6, C2H4, C3H4

(d) C3H4
Q10) Choose the correct statement
.
(d) All the above.
Q11) Following is (are) the property(ies) of ionic compounds.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Q12) Which of the following is not a characteristic of fullerenes?
(c) It contains only fused six-membered carbon-carbon rings.
 Q13) How many single bonds are present in methane?
(a) Four
Q14) A hydrocarbon should have a minimum of how many carbon atoms to show
isomerism?
(b) Four

Q15) Which of the following statements are correct for carbon compounds?
(i) Most carbon compounds are good conductors of electricity.
(ii) Most carbon compounds are poor conductors of electricity.
(iii) Force of attraction between molecules of carbon compounds is not very strong.
(iv) Force of attraction between molecules of carbon compounds is very strong.

(b) (ii) and (iii)

Q16) C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of

(c) Alkanes

Q17)

(b) 2, 2-demethyl butane

Q18).The number of isomers of pentane is

(b) 3

Q19) Which of the following will undergo addition reactions?

(d) C2H4
Q20) When ethanoic acid is treated with NaHCO^ the gas evolved is
(b) CO2

Assertion and Reason

The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
• (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
• (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
• (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
• (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

1) Assertion: Ethanoic acid liberates hydrogen with Sodium metal.

Reason: More reactive sodium displaces hydrogen from ethanoic acid.
Answer – (a)
2) Assertion: Ethanoic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol in presence of conc H2SO4 to form ethyl
ethanoate.
Reason: Esters are used in ice creams and cold drinks.’
Answer – (b)
3) Assertion: Carbon forms a large number of organic compounds.
Reason : Carbon atom contains 6 valence electrons.
Answer – (c).
4) Assertion: During the reaction esterification esters are produced.
Reason: Esters are sweet smelling compounds.

Answer – (b)
5) Assertion: Vegetable oils are unsaturated, react with hydrogen in presence of nickel to form
vegetable ghee.
Reason: This reaction is saponification.
Answer – (c)
6) Assertion(A) : Carbon is the only element that can form large number of compounds.
Reason (R) : Carbon is tetravalent and shows the property of catenation.
Answer – (d)
7) Assertion(A) : If the first member of a homologous series is methanal, its third member will be
propanal.
Reason (R) : All the members of a homologous series show similar chemical properties.
Answer – (b)
8) Assertion(A) : Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon.
Reason (R) : Some elements can have several different structural forms while in the same
physical state. These forms are called allotropes.
Answer – (a)
9) Assertion(A) : Soaps are not suitable for washing purpose when water is hard.
Reason (R) : Soaps have relatively weak cleansing action.
Answer – (b)
10) Assertion(A): n-butane and iso-butane are examples of isomers.
Reason (R) : Isomerism is possible only with hydrocarbons having 4 or more carbon atoms.
Answer – (b) Short answer - questions (1 mark each)

A1.. The large number of organic compounds is due to the ability of carbon atom to form long chains
with other carbon atoms through the sharing of electrons. This unique property of carbon is known as
catenation. Carbon atoms can form long chains by sharing their valence electrons with other carbon
atoms.

A2. Cyclohexane / benzene

A3. Ketonic group is present as the functional group in the propanone (acetone).
A4.A covalent bond is formed by equal sharing of electrons from both the participating atoms. The
pair of electrons participating in this type of bonding is called shared pair or bonding pair.
A5 C2H5(ethane) C3H8(propane)

A6. First two members of homologous series having functional group - Br are :-
1. CH₃Br -Bromomethane
2. C₂H₅Br - Bromoethane
These series have a difference of -CH₂- unit
A.7. The second and third member have the formula Propyne C3H6 and Butyne C4H8.
A8. A homologous series may be defined as a family of organic compounds having the same
functional group, and the successive(adjacent) members of which differ by a -CH2 unit or 14 mass
units.

A9Write the next homologue of each of the following:

(i) C3H6 (ii) C5 H8
A10 the following compounds are
(i) CH3 - CH2 -OH -Ethanol (ii) CH3-C=O Ethanal
H
A 11. Carbon shows catenation to a maximum extent because of its electronic configuration
(2,4). This occurs due to its tendency to form strong covalent C-C bonds.

Short answer – questions (20-30 words / 2 marks each)

A1. Soaps are the sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids. These are represented by
RCOONa or RCOOR.
A2. Ethene decolorizes the yellow colour of bromine water while ethane does not.
A3. Dip a strip of blue litmus paper in the solution of ethanoic acid. Its colour will change to red.
A4. When ethyne is burnt in oxygen, large quantity of heat and light is produced. The heat evolved
can be used for gas welding which is used for welding broken pieces of articles. As air contains
mixture of nitrogen and oxygen and nitrogen which is more in amount does not support
combustion. Therefore, it is always better to use oxygen for the combustion of ethyne.
A5. Carbon burns in oxygen or air to form gas. This reaction is highly exothermic that is why
different form of coals are used as fuels.
A6. The CHO group is a terminal functional group since three valencies of the C-atom are already
satisfied, so this group cannot be present in the middle of the chain.
A7. When two carbon atoms are to linked by four covalent bonds their nuclei come so close to one
another that the force of repulsion between them will push these apart. As a result, a stable
molecule will not be formed.
A8. No, we would be able to check if water is hard by using a detergent.
A9. Agitation is necessary to obtain complete mecells formation and the emulsion of oil in water so
that the whole of dirt is removed on rinsing with water.
A10. Butter and cooking oil can be differentiated with the help of bromine water test. Cooking oil
will decolorize the red colour of bromine water on shaking while butter will not.

Short answer – questions (40-50 words / 3 marks each)

A1 A homologous series is a series of hydrocarbons which have similar chemical properties and
they share the same general formula. They are organic compounds having similar structure and
functional groups. The constituents of the homologous series show a gradation in physical
properties.
Characteristics are :
The members of the homologous series have same functional group.
Members have the same general formula.
Members have the almost same chemical properties due to same functional group.
Members have common general method of preparation.

Q.2Alkanes - Staurated hydrocarbon with single bond between carbon - carbon atoms (C-C).

General formula

Alkenes - Unstaurated hydrocarbon with double bond between carbon - carbon

atoms (C=C). General formula

Alkyne - Unstaurated hydrocarbon with triple bond between carbon - carbon atoms.

General formula

belongs to Alkane.

Structural isomer of
A3 the structures of the following compounds and the functional group present in
(a) Butanoic acid
(b) Bromopropane
(c) Butyne

A4. Write the molecular formula of the following compounds and draw their electron-dot
structures:

A5 These two compounds are called isomers i.e., compounds having same molecular formula but
different structural formula.

A6. What happens when (write chemical equation in each case)

(a) Ethanol is highly inflammable liquid. It catches fire easily and starts burning. Ethanol burns
readily in air with a blue flame to form
carbon dioxide and water vapour.

A B) When ehanol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K, dehydration takes
place and ethene is formed. In this reaction concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a
dehydrating agent.

A C) Sodium metal (Na) reacts with ethanol (C2H5OH) to produce sodium ethoxide (C2H5ONa)
and hydrogen (H2). It is a displacement reaction in which the more active sodium displaces
hydrogen in ethanol. The equation can be written as: 2Na+2C2H5OH→2C2H5ONa+H2.

A.7. (a) the structures for (i) ethanol, (ii) ethanoic acid.

(b) the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid considered an oxidation reaction? Write the
oxidizing agent used in the reaction involved.

The conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid is as follows:

CH3CH2OH Alkaline KMnO4−−−−−−→CH3COOH
In this reaction one oxygen is added to ethanol, hence it is an oxidation reaction.
A.8
A 9.

A 10.

Long answer – questions (70-80 words / Marks – 5)

A c1. Methane is a colourless, odourless and highly flammable gas which is the main component of
natural gas. Electron dot structure of methane is- (Image attached)
The covalent bonds are present in between four hydrogen atoms and the single carbon atom at the
centre of the molecule.
• (i) Methane is a poor conductor of electricity because in methane all bonds are covalent bonds and
therefore no free electrons are present in the molecule that can help in conducting electricity.
• (ii) Covalent compounds have low intermolecular forces of attraction between the molecules and thus
show low melting and boiling points. Since methane is also a covalent compound thus methane has
very low melting and low boiling point.
• When methane is burned in the presence of oxygen, it forms CO2 with water as the product of the
reaction.
CH4+2O2⟶CO2+2H2O

A.2. Combustion reaction is the one in which a carbon compound burns in presence of oxygen to
give carbon dioxide and water (in case of hydrocarbon).
Example: C + O2 ----- > CO2.

Unsaturated carbon compounds add hydrogen to them in the presence of catalysts such as nickel
or palladium to form saturated hydrocarbons.
Example:
C2H4 --------- [H2] ------under nickel catalyst ------ > C2H6.
In a substitution reaction , the hydrogen is replaced slowly and constantly until all the hydrogen
atoms are removed.
Example:
CH4 + Cl2------ > CH3Cl + HCl.
This CH3Cl again is reacted with Cl2 ........
CH3Cl + Cl2 ------- > CH2Cl2 + HCl.
This continues till CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) is obtained.

Esterification reaction is the reaction when an alcohol is heated with a carboxylic acid in the
presence pf an acid which acts as a dehydrating agent.
Example: C2H5OH + CH3COOH ------ >CH3COOC2H5.

In Oxidation reaction of carbon compounds an alcohol is converted its corresponding carboxylic

acid.
Example:
C2H5OH -----alkaline KmNO4-----> CH3COOH.
A.3.(a) Bromine water test is usually used to differentiate between the unsaturated compounds ( like
alkenes and alkynes) and saturated compounds (like alkanes). Unsaturated compounds decolourise
the red-brown color of bromine water whereas saturated color does not decolourise bromine water
solution.

(b) When ethane burns in presence of air it gives carbon dioxide and water along with the heat.
2C2H6+7O2→4CO2+6H2O
(c) Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight to form chloromethane and hydrogen
chloride. Here, one hydrogen atom of methane is getting substituted with a chlorine atom. This is why it
 is a substitution reaction.
CH4+Cl2→CH3Cl+HCl
A.4.(a) Q.5. Soaps are the sodium and potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids whereas

detergents are ammonium or sulphohate salts.

Cleansing action of soap : One part of soap molecules is ionic and dissolves in water. The other
part is non-ionic hydrophobic part which dissolves in oil. Thus soap molecules arrange themselves
in the form of a micelle.
On rinsing with water soap is washed off, lifting the oily dirt particles with it. Soap does not forms
lather in hard water because it forms insoluble palpitate.
Problem due to the use of detergent are :
(i) Detergent are non-biodegradable. (ii) It leads to water or soil pollution
Cases based study questions (Information+ 4 Question / Marks -1x3+ 1x2)
CASE 1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
A.1.
(A) Catenation
A 2.
(C) Both catenation and tetravalency
A.3. (C) Tetravalent
A.4. (B) Cyclohexane
CASE 2. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
A. 1. The fourth member of the alkane series is butane (C4H10)
A. 2. -CH2-
A. 3: (i) CH3 COOH= carboxylic acid group (ii) CH3 C(O)CH3 = Ketone group
A. 4. A homologous series is a series of compounds with the same functional group and similar
chemical properties in which each successive member differs by CH2.Compounds within a homologous
series typically have a fixed set of functional groups that gives them similar chemical and physical
properties.
Here, CH4O and C2H6O are of same homologous series. Both are differed by CH2.
3. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
A1
.
A. 2. Micelle formation takes place, this is because the hydrocarbon chains of soap molecules are
hydrophobic while the ionic ends are hydrophilic and hence soluble in water.
A 3. Hard water is formed due to the dissolution of the salts of calcium and magnesium ions. It
does not lather with soap because the salts of calcium and magnesium react with soap to form
insoluble salts.
Q.4 Two problems that arise because of the use of detergents instead of soap is given below:
1.Soaps are biodegradable, while detergents are non-biodegradable; hence, detergents are
toxic to the environment. Certain phosphate additives are added to detergents. 2. These
phosphate additives act as nutrients for algae which form a thick green scum over the river water
and upset the animal life in the river.
 CHAPTER – 6 LIFE PROCESSES

Life processes: Living Being Basic concept of

❖ Nutrition,
❖ Respiration
❖ Transport
❖ Excretion inplants and animals.

LIFE PROCESSES

All the vital processes which are required by an organism to survive is called life processes.
Nutrition, photosynthesis, transportation, metabolism, respiration, reproduction and excretion are
important life process. In multicellular organism life processes occur in various specialized body
parts while in unicellular organisms, all these processes are carried out by a single cell

IMPORTANT LIFE PROCESSES

NUTRITION
• The process, by which an organism takes food and utilizes it, is called nutrition.
• Nutrition is essential for growth and development of organisms. It also provides energy
todo different work.
• Nutrition obtained by material is called nutrients. Nutrients may
macronutrient(Carbohydrates, proteins and fats) and micronutrients (Minerals
and vitamins).

HOW DO LIVING THINGS GET THEIR FOOD?

a- Autotrophic nutrition
b- Heterotrophic nutrition
AUTOTROPHIC NUTRITION
The mode of nutrition in which an organism prepares its own food is called autotrophic nutrition.
Green plants and blue-green algae make their food by a process called photosynthesis.

PHOTOSYNTHESIS
The process by which plants in presence of green pigment, sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide
to form food and release oxygen is known as photosynthesis.

The overall reaction occurring in photosynthesis is as follows:

Sunlight
6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
Chlorophyll Glucose

EVENTS OCCUR DURING PHOTOSYNTHESIS

(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into
hydrogen and oxygen.
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.

Raw material required in photosynthesis Source

CO2 and O2 Atmosphere

Radiation Sunlight

H2O Soil

Some facts
➢ Photosynthesis is a photochemical reaction.
➢ Photosynthesis is an oxidation- reduction reaction in which carbon dioxide is reduced to
sugar and water is oxidized.

Chloroplast
Contain main photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll and accessory pigments xanthophyll and
carotenoids.

Stomata
Gaseous exchange and transpiration (loss of water as water vapour) takes place through minute
aperture on the surface of leaves called as stomata. Stomata has a pore (stomatal pore) guarded
by bean shaped guard cells (regulate opening and closing of stomata).
HETEROTROPHIC NUTRITION
In this type of nutrition organism obtain their nutrient from other living organism (parasite) e.g.
Animals or dead and decaying objects (saprophyte) e.g. Fungi like bread mounds, yeast and
mushrooms.

HOW DO ORGANISMS OBTAIN THEIR NUTRITION?

• Amoeba captures food with the help ofpseudopodia.
• Food vacuole is formed containing foodparticle.
• Food is digested.

NUTRITION IN HUMAN BEING

Alimentary canal Tube like structure from mouth to anus

Salivary glands 3 pair, Secrete saliva

Enzyme made of proteins (except ribozyme), break the complex foods in to

simpler form

Peristaltic Rhythmic movement of food in esophagus (food pipe) toward stomach

movement

Stomach Large sac like structure below food pipe

Gastric gland Present in the wall of stomach secrete HCl, Pepsin, Mucus

Small Intestine It is longest and coiled tube and site of complete digestion of food.

Villi Small finger like projections on small intestine, increase the surface area
for absorption

Large intestine Small intestine opens into large intestine. Its function is to absorb
water.
 HUMAN DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

i- Food is crushed and mixed with saliva with the help of teeth and tongue.
ii- Saliva contains salivary amylase that break down starch.
iii- By peristaltic movement in oesophagus the food enters stomach.
iv- In stomach food is mixed with HCl, Protein digesting enzyme pepsin and Mucus.
v- HCl kill the germs in food as well as provide acidic medium essential for pepsin.
Mucus protects the inner lining of alimentary canal by HCl.
vi- Small intestine receives secretions of liver and pancreas through a common duct. It is
site for complete digestion of food (carbohydrate, protein and fat)
vii- Unabsorbed food enters into large intestine for further absorption of water.
viii- Undigested food is removed from body via anus.

DENTAL CARIES (TOOTH DECAY): It is caused due to acid produced by bacteria. In this enamel
softens and may cause dental plaqueand cavities.

Organ Secretion Role

Liver Bile juice Make medium alkaline for pancreatic juiceBreak
the fat molecules into smaller parts
(emulsification)
Pancreas Pancreatic juice Trypsin digest protein
Lipase digest lipid
Wall of small Intestinal juices Proteins to amino acids
intestine Carbohydrates to glucose Fat to
fatty acid and glycerol
 RESPIRATION
Process of Breaking down of complex organic material into simpler form with the help of
enzymes is called respiration.

Types of respiration and site

Type Definition Site

Aerobic respiration It occur in presence of oxygen Cytoplasm and Mitochondria

Anaerobic respiration It occur in absence of oxygen. Cytoplasm

Fermentation It is a type of anaerobic respiration Cytoplasm

occur in few microorganisms

Key words

Cytoplasm Fluid part with in cell

Mitochondria Site of energy production in plants and animals (power house of cell)

Pyruvate Intermediate product of respiration

Ethanol A type of alcohol (C2H5OH)

ATP Adenosine tri phosphate, an energy rich compound

PROCESS OF RESPIRATION
❖ Glucose is broken down into pyruvate in cytoplasm of cell.
❖ In presence of oxygen pyruvate enters into mitochondria and completely oxidizedthere to produce
CO2 and energy (ATP).
❖ In absence of oxygen pyruvate partially decomposes and forms
a- Ethanol in yeast (fermentation)
b- Lactic acid in muscle cells
 HUMMAN RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
It consists of nostril, nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli,
diaphragm and ribcage.

❖ The inhale of oxygen and exhale of CO2is known as breathing.

Air is taken into body through nostrils.
❖ From nostril air passes through the pharynx, larynx, trachea,
bronchi, bronchioles and finally alveoli.
❖ At alveoli exchange of oxygen and CO2 takes place with blood
vessels by the process of diffusion.
❖ Oxygen enters into blood vessels while CO2 enters into alveolar
sac. Both oxygen and CO2 is carried by iron containing
hemoglobin.

TRANSPORTATION IN HUMAN BEING

Blood A type of connective tissue consists of RBC, WBC, Platelets and plasma.

Plasma Fluid portion of blood

Oxygenated blood Blood carrying oxygen

Deoxygenated blood Blood carrying carbon dioxide

Hemoglobin Iron containing pigment, carry both oxygen and CO2

Heart chambers Atrium and ventricle

Systole Contraction of heart chambers

Diastole Relaxation of heart chambers

Double circulation Blood goes through the heart twice

Arteries Thick walled. elastic , Carry blood away from heart to various organs

Veins Thin walled, carry blood from different organs to the heart

Platelets Helps in blood clotting during injury

Lymph / Tissue fluid Fluid in intercellular space in the tissues. They carry digested and
absorbed fat.
Sphygmomanometer Measures blood pressure
 HUMAN HEART

❖ Human heart is four chambered – two atria and two ventricles.

Amphibians – three chambered heart, Fish – two chambered heart
❖ These chambers are well separated to avoid mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenatedblood.
❖ Right atrium and right ventricle contain deoxygenated blood while left atrium andleft ventricle contains
oxygenated blood.
❖ Atrium and ventricle are separated by valves. a-Tricuspid valve, b-Dicuspid valve
❖ Oxygenated blood from lungs enters in left atrium via pulmonary veins. When leftatrium contracts
(systole) blood enters to left ventricle. The blood goes outside to different parts of body via aorta when
left ventricle contracts.
❖ From different part of body deoxygenated blood is carried out by superior andinferior vena cava to the
right atrium.
❖ When right atrium contracts the blood enters into right ventricle. The deoxygenatedblood goes to the
lungs through pulmonary arteries when right ventricle contracts.

Arteries Veins

(i) Carry blood from heart to various organs (i) Carry blood from various organs of body
of the body. to the heart.

(ii) Carry oxygenated blood from the heart (ii) Carry de-oxygenated blood from various
except the pulmonary artery. organs except the pulmonary vein.

(iii) Have thick and elastic walls. (iii) Have thin non-elastic walls.

(iv) Valves are absent. (iv) Valves are present.

(v) Blood flows under high pressure. (v) Blood flows under low pressure.
TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS

Stomata Gaseous exchange, Transportation (loss of water in form of vapor)

Xylem Water conduction channels composed of xylem tissue, vessels and tracheid.
Xylem transports water and mineral from root to aerial part (unidirectional)

Phloem Transport food from the leaves to other part (multidirectional).

EXCRETION

Excretion Removal of harmful metabolic wastes fromthe body

Kidney Excretory organ of human
Nephron Structural and functional unit of kidney
Urinary bladder Store urine
Ureter Connect urinary bladder with kidney
Hemodialysis Artificial kidney, a device to remove nitrogenous waste products (urea, uric
acid)from the blood.

Unicellular organisms: Many unicellular organisms remove metabolic wastes from the body
surface into the surrounding water by simple diffusion.

EXCRETION IN HUMAN BEING: Excretory system of human beings includes:

(i) A pair of Kidneys
(ii) A Urinary Bladder
(iii) A pair of Ureters
(iv) A Urethra The purpose of making urine is to filter out
waste product from the blood i.e., urea which is
produced in the liver. Each kidney has large numbers of
filtration units called nephrons. The urine formation
involves three steps.
(i) Glomerular filtration: Nitrogenous wastes, glucose
water, amino acid filter from the blood in blood capillaries
into Bowman Capsule of the nephrons.
(ii) Selective reabsorption: Some substances in the initial
filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major
amount of water are selectively reabsorbed back by
capillaries surrounding the nephrons.
(iii) Tubular secretion: Some ions like K+, H+, etc. are
secreted into the tubule which opens up into the collecting
duct.

❖ Haemodialysis is the process of removal

of the excess waste material from blood. It
the artificial process of filtering blood, which
is done to remove the nitrogenous waste
products that can result in toxicity inside the
system.
EXCRETION IN PLANTS: Excess oxygen and carbon dioxide removed through stomata. Excess
water removed by transpiration through stomata.
Plant waste products are also removed by:
• Storage in cellular vacuoles
• Storage in leaves that fall off
• Storing as resins and gums in old xylem excreting into the soil around them.
• Stomata play an important role as it is the site for gaseous exchange and transpiration.
• Falling of leaves also helps in removal of waste products.
QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. The correct order of steps occurring in animals is:
(a) Ingestion, Absorption, Digestion, Assimilation, Egestion
(b) Ingestion, Digestion, Assimilation, Absorption, Egestion
(c) Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Assimilation, Egestion
(d) Ingestion, Assimilation, Digestion, Absorption, Egestion
2. In which of the following groups of organisms, food materials are broken down outside the body
and absorbed?
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba
(b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
(d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
3. What are the products obtained by anaerobic respiration in microorganisms?
(a) Lactic acid + Energy
(b) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
(c) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
(d) Pyruvate
4. The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depends upon
(a) Oxygen
(b) Temperature
(c) water in the guard cells
(d) concentration of CO2
5. A plant gets rid of excess water through transpiration. Which is a method used by plants to get
rid of solid waste products?
(a) shortening of stem
(b) dropping down of fruits
(c) shedding of yellow leaves
(d) expansion of roots into the soil
6. Which of the equations show correct conversion of CO2 and H2O into carbohydrates in plants?
7. Which option correctly shows the transport of oxygen to the cell?
(a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
(b) Lungs →pulmonary vein →right atrium →right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(c) Lungs →pulmonary artery →left atrium → left ventricle → vena cava → body
cells
(d) Lungs →pulmonary artery →right atrium → right ventricle→ vena cava → body
cells
8. How is food transported from phloem to the tissues according to plants’ needs?
(a) food is transported along with the water in the plant’s body.
(b) food is transported in only one direction like water in the plant body through
xylem.
(c) food is transported from a region with low concentration to higher concentration.
(d) food is transported from a region where it is produced to other parts of the plants.
9. In which mode of nutrition an organism derives its food from the body of another
living organism without killing it?
(a) Saprotrophic nutrition
(b) Parasitic nutrition
(c) Holozoic nutrition
(d) Autotrophic nutrition
10. Which of the following events in the mouth cavity will be affected if salivary
amylase is lacking in the saliva?
(a) Starch breaking down into sugars.
(b) Proteins breaking down into amino acids.
(c) Absorption of vitamins.
(d) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol.
11. Glycolysis process occurs in which part of the cell?
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Nucleus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Chloroplast
12. Name the substances whose build up in the muscles during vigorous physical
exercise may cause cramps?
(a) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
(b) Lactic acid + Energy
(c) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
(d) Pyruvate
13. Name a circulatory fluid in the human body other than blood.
(a) Platelets (b) RBC
(c) Lymph (d) Plasma
14. Name the pores in a leaf through which respiratory exchange of gases takes place.
(a) Lenticels
(b) Vacuoles
(c) Xylem
(d) Stomata
15. Which part of nephron allows the selective reabsorption of useful substances like
glucose, amino acids, salts and water into the blood capillaries?
(a) Tubule
(b) Glomerulus
(c) Bowman’s capsule
(d) Ureter
16. Identify the correct path of urine in the human body.
(a) Kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureter
(b) Urinary bladder → ureter → kidney → urethra
(c) Kidney → ureter → urethra → urinary bladder
(d) Kidney → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra
17. Which of the following statements are true about respiration?
(i) during inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised.
(ii) the gaseous exchange takes place in the alveoli
(iii) haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen
(iv) alveoli increase surface area for the exchange of gases
(a) i and iv
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iii
(d) ii and iv
18. Water absorption in plants can be increased by keeping the potted plants:
(a) in the shade
(b) in dim light
(c) under the fan
(d) covered with a polythene bag
19. What prevents the backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
(a) thick muscular walls of ventricles
(b) valves
(c) thin walls of atria
(d) septum
20. Coagulation of blood in a cut or wound is brought about by:
(a) plasma (b) platelets (c) WBC (d) RBC

ANSWERS:
Question No Answer Question No Answer
1 c 11 a
2 b 12 b
3 c 13 c
4 c 14 d
5 c 15 a
6 c 16 d
7 a 17 d
8 d 18 c
9 b 19 b
10 a 20 b

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q1- What is the normal systolic and diastolic pressure in human? By which apparatus we can
measure it?
Ans: 120/ 80 mm of Hg, Sphygmomanometer
Q2- How is water and minerals transported in plants?
Ans: Water conducting tissue xylem transported mineral in dissolved form with water.
Q3- Mention the
mode of nutrition of the followings- Cuscuta, Fungus Ans:
Cuscuta- Parasite, Fungus- Saprophyte
Q.4 What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?
Answer: Xylem helps in the transport of water and minerals to the various parts of the plant. If
xylem is removed it would ultimately lead to the death of the plant.
Q.5 What is osmoregulation?
Answer: The maintenance of optimum concentration of water and salts (electrolytes) in the body
fluids is called as osmoregulation.
Q6. Why is carbon dioxide mostly transported in dissolved form?
Answer: Carbon dioxide is mostly transported in the dissolved form as it is more soluble in water.
Q7. When we breathe out, why does the air passage not collapse?
Answer: Rings of cartilage present on trachea prevent it from collapsing during the passage of air.
Q.8 What are the major constituents of urine?
Answer:
Urine is an aqueous solution of water, urea, chloride, sodium, potassium, creatinine and other
dissolved ions, inorganic and organic compounds (proteins, hormones, and metabolites).
Q.9 Why are valves present in heart and the veins?
Answer:
Valves present in the heart does not allow the blood to flow backwards when the atria or ventricles
contracts. Valves are present in the veins to prevent the back flow of blood in the veins as it
travels at very slow rate in the veins.
Q.10 Which acid is formed in our muscles after vigorous exercise?
Ans: Lactic acid
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1 How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?
Answer: The entry of water into the guard cells of the stomata causes an increase in turgor
pressure in the guard cells which leads to opening of the stomata. The loss of water from the
guard cells results in their shrinking and closes the stomata. Q.2 Mention the
two main components of the transport system in plants. State one function of each one of these
components.
Answer: The two main components of the transport system in the plants are xylem and phloem.
Xylem helps to transport water and minerals to various parts of the plant. Phloem helps to carry
food from leaves to the various parts of the plant. Q.3How
does the plant get rid of excretory products?
Answer: Excess oxygen and carbon dioxide removed through stomata.
Plant waste products are also removed by:

• Storage in cellular vacuoles

• Storage in leaves that fall off
• Storing as resins and gums in old xylem
• By excreting into the soil around them.

Q.4 Give Reasons:

(a) Rings of cartilage are present in the trachea.
(b) Lungs always contain a residual volume of air.
Answer:
(a) The walls of trachea have rings of cartilage on them which prevent it from collapsing.
(b) The volume of air left behind in the lungs even after forceful breathing out of air is called as
residual volume. This helps to provide sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and for the carbon
dioxide to be released.
Q5- Give one reason why multicellular organisms require special organs for exchange of gases
between their body and their environment.
Answer: Simple diffusion is not sufficient for the exchange of gases in multicellular organisms as
all their cells are not in direct contact with the environment. So, they require special organs for
exchange of gases between their body and their environment.
Q 6- Why do photosynthesis considered as photochemical reaction?
Ans: plants convert the energy of sunlight into stored chemical energy by forming carbohydrates
from atmospheric carbon dioxide and water and releasing molecular oxygen as a by-product.
Q7- What is role of followings in photosynthesis-
i- Chloroplast

ii- Water

iii- Carbon dioxide

Ans: Chloroplast trap the sunlight (radiation)
Water undergo photolysis to evolver oxygen
Carbon dioxide reduces to form carbohydrate.
Q 8- Write importance of –
i- Double circulation

ii- Dicuspid and tricuspid valves in heart

Ans: Double circulation importance: helps keep oxygenated (blood rich in oxygen) separate from
deoxygenated (blood rich in carbon dioxide). This results in more efficient circulation of blood.
Importance of Dicuspid and tricuspid valves in heart: prevents the reverse flow of blood from the
right ventricle to the right atrium while bicuspid valve prevents the reverse flow of blood from the
left ventricle to the left atrium

Q 9- Specify the role of phloem and xylem. Why it is considered that phloem shows multi-
directional transportation and xylem unidirectional transportation?
Ans: phloem is food conducting tissue and xylem is water conducting tissue.
Phloem transport food in many directions as from leaves to other part of plants like other leaf,
flower, stem, root, storage part.
Xylem conducts water only in one direction from root to the aerial parts of plant.
Q 10- What is saliva? State its role in the digestion of food.
Ans: Saliva contains salivary amylase enzymes that help digest the starches in our food.
An enzyme called amylase breaks down starches (complex carbohydrates) into sugars, which
your body can more easily absorb.
It helps in moistens the food for easy swallowing.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q 1- Differentiate the followings-
I. Vena cava and Aorta

II. Pulmonary artery and Pulmonary vein

III. Anaerobic respiration and fermentation

IV. Bronchi and bronchiole

• Vena cava: carries deoxygenated blood from body parts to the heart
• Aorta: carries oxygenated blood from heart to the body parts
• Pulmonary artery: carries deoxygenated blood from heart to the lungs
• Pulmonary vein: carries oxygenated blood from lungs to the heart
• Anaerobic respiration: respiration without oxygen
• Fermentation: respiration without oxygen in microorganisms
• Bronchi: extends from trachea, have incomplete cartilage ring
• Bronchioles: extended from bronchi
Q 2- Draw cross section of leaf and label stomata. Also mention any two roles of stomata in
plants.
Ans: Fig 6.1, page 96, NCERT
Q 2- Draw labelled diagram of structural and functional unit of kidney. Also mention its role.
Ans: Fig: 6.14, page 111, NCERT
Answer:

Filtration of blood, reabsorption, secretion and excretion of useful and harmful substances present
in the blood.
Q 3 Give reasons:
i- Ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria.
ii- Transport system in plants is slow.
iii- Blood circulation differs in aquatic vertebrates from that in terrestrial vertebrates.
iv- During the daytime, water and minerals travel faster through xylem as compared to the night.
v-Veins have valves whereas arteries do not.
Ans:
(i) Ventricles pump blood into various organs with high pressure so they have thicker walls.
(ii) Plants are non-motile, less active and require less energy so their cells do not need to be
supplied with materials so quickly.
(iii) The aquatic vertebrates like fish have gills to oxygenate blood. Fishes have single circulation.
The terrestrial vertebrates like birds and humans have four chambered heart and shows double
circulation.
(iv) it is due to high transpiration rate id day time.
(v) The lumen of veins has valves, which allow the blood in them to flow in only one direction.
Thus, prevent back flow of blood.
Q 4- Describe double circulation of blood in human beings. Why is it necessary? Ans : In the
human heart, blood passes through the heart twice in one cardiac cycle. This type of circulation is
called double circulation. Double circulation ensures complete segregation of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood.
It includes - Pulmonary circulation and Systemic circulation.
In Pulmonary circulation: The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the lungs where it is
oxygenated. The oxygenated blood is brought back to the left atrium, from there it is pumped into
the left ventricle and finally blood goes into the aorta for systemic circulation.
In Systemic circulation: The oxygenated blood is pumped to various parts of the body from the left
ventricle. The deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body passes through vena cava to
reach right atrium. The right atrium transfers the blood into right ventricle.

Q 5- Mention the location of four major glands associated with digestive system of humans and
explain function of each?
Ans:
i- Salivary Glands- There is three pairs of salivary glands (Parotid, sub maxillary and sublingual)
which secrete saliva. Saliva moistens the food, disinfects food by lysozyme and digests starch by
salivary amylase.
ii-Gastric Glands- these are present inside stomach. Gastric glands secrete
HCI- disinfect food, provide acidic medium for digestive juices.
Pepsin - for partial digestion of proteins to form peptones and proteases
iii-Liver- secretes bile, which neutralizes the acidity of chyme and emulsifies fat.
iv-Pancreas- Lies in the loop of duodenum below the stomach.
It secretes trypsin (digest protein), lipase (break down of fat)
Q 6- Explain autotrophic nutrition in plants.
Ans:
Synthesis of food by photosynthesis- ‗photo ‘means light and synthesis ‘means production. It isthe
production of food with the help of sunlight.
Photosynthesis equation-
6CO2+ 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6 H2O
Events of photosynthesis are as follows:
Absorption of light energy green pigment (chlorophyll).

Light energy provides energy for activation of reaction.

Photolysis of water (splitting of water) into Oxygen, H+ and e-

Reduction of CO2 into glucose and Synthesis of ATP.

Q.7 Draw a well labelled diagram of stomata. List two functions of stomata. How the products of
photosynthesis and other substances are translocated in plants?
Answer: The function of stomata are:
(a) Help in the exchange of gases like carbon dioxide and oxygen from the leaves of the plants.
(b) Help in the transport of water, minerals and food materials in plants transpiration.
(c) Transpiration occurring through stomata on leaves helps in cooling of leaf surface.
Translocation is the transport of soluble products of photosynthesis through phloem. Sucrose is
transferred into sieve tubes of phloem via the companion cells using energy from ATP. This
increases the osmotic pressure inside the sieve tubes which causes movement of water into the
sieve tubes from the adjacent xylem. This pressure helps in translocation of material in the phloem
to tissues which have less pressure.

Q.8 Explain an activity with diagram to show that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
Answer: Apparatus: A destarched potted plant of Croton, Pothos (Money Plant) or Coleus having
variegated leaves (with green and non-green parts), Rice paper, Soft pencil, Beakers, Petridishes,
Tripod stand, Wire gauze, Water bath, Blotting paper, Dropper, Box of matches, Burner or spirit
lamp, spirit (or 70% alcohol), iodine solution, water, forceps.

Procedure: Destarch a potted plant of Croton or Pothos (Money Plant) having variegated leaves
by keeping it in complete darkness for 2-3 days. Expose the destarched potted plant to sunlight for
2-6 hours. Pluck a variegated leaf. Place a rice paper over it. Draw the outline of green and non-
green areas. The green areas contain chlorophyll. The non-green areas are pale in colour and
devoid of chlorophyll. Place the leaf in boiling water for 5-10 minutes. Boiling kills the leaf. Dip the
leaf in spirit or alcohol kept at 50°-60° C with the help of a water bath. After 30-45 minutes, the leaf
will be decolourised completely. Take out the decolourised leaf, dip in hot water for softening the
same. Spread the leaf in a petri dish. Pour dilute iodine solution over the leaf. After 4-5 minutes,
rinse off excess iodine and observe.
Q.9
(a) Draw the cross section of the leaf and label the following parts :

1. Upper epidermis 2.Chloroplast 3Vascular bundle

4.Xylem 5.Phloem.

(b) Define photosynthesis.

(c) List three events which occur during this process
(d) Write the chemical equation involved in photosynthesis.
(e) How is unused energy stored in plants ?
(f) What is the site for photosynthesis ?
Answer:
(a)
(b) Photosynthesis: It is synthesis of organic food from inorganic raw materials with the help of
light energy inside chlorophyll containing cells.
(c) Events: Information is transmitted from one plant cell to another through plasmodesmata and

hormones.
(e) Starch, organic substances.
(f) Chloroplasts. Q.10 (a)
Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label

1. Part where air is filtered by fine hair and mucus

2. Part which terminates in balloon-like structures
3. Balloon-like structures where exchange of gases takes place
4. Part which separates chest cavity from abdominal cavity.

(b) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following
1.Part in which urine is produced
2. Part which stores the Purpose. To collect excretory products for expulsion from body.
Answer:(a)
 1. Nasal chamber
2. Trachea
3. Alveoli
4. Diaphragm.

(b)

label

1. Kidney
2. Urinary bladder
3. Ureter
4. Urethra.

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Following questions consists of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Assertion is false and reason is true.
1) Assertion: Kidneys perform a dual function in our body.
Reason: Selective reabsorption occurs in the glomerulus.
2) Assertion: Mammals has double circulation.
Reason: Higher energy need due to endothermy (warm blooded).
3) Assertion: Veins have valves.
Reason: The pressure for the flow is far lesser compared to arteries.
4) Assertion: Arteries always carry oxygenated blood.
Reason: Arteries transport blood from the heart to different parts of the body.
5) Assertion: In plants gaseous exchange takes place by the opening and closing of guard cells.
Reason: The exchange of gases occurs across the surface of stem, roots and leaves.
6) Assertion: The Alveoli provide a surface where exchange of gases takes place.
Reason: The Alveolar blood vessels transport oxygenated blood to all the cells of the
body.
7) Assertion: Bread tastes sweet on chewing.
Reason: Salivary amylase converts starch into sugar.
8) Assertion: During transpiration the evaporating water carries away heat energy.
Reason: Due to water loss the osmotic pressure inside leaves increases.
9) Assertion: Lipase helps in the digestion of proteins.
Reason: Digestion of proteins in small intestine needs basic medium
10) Assertion: Respiration is opposite of Photosynthesis.
Reason: In Photosynthesis food is made from energy and in Respiration food is converted to
energy.
11) Assertion: A plant closes its stomata when it does not need carbon dioxide for
photosynthesis
Reason: Large amount of water can be lost as vapour through the stomata.
ANSWERS:
1. C 2 A. 3.A 4. A 5.B 6.A 7.A 8.C 9. D 10. A 11. B

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (5 MARK= 1*5 EACH)

CASE STUDY: 1

Carbon and energy requirements of the autotrophic organism are fulfilled by photosynthesis. It is
the process by which autotrophs take in substances from the outside and convert them into stored
forms of energy. This material is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water which is converted
into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll. Carbohydrates are utilised for
providing energy to the plant.
i) Write a chemical reaction which occur during photosynthesis?

Ans: 6CO2 +12H2O + Chlorophyll & sunlight C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O

ii) In which form of carbohydrates does the plant stored in them?

Ans: The carbohydrates are stored in the form of starch as the internal energy.

iii) What is stomata?

Ans: The process presents in the surface of a leaf or the stem of a plant to allow the exchange of
gases.

iv) What are the functions of stomata?

Ans: i) Exchange of gases i.e. oxygen and CO2

ii) Transpiration

v) What is Chloroplast?

Ans: Chloroplast is a cell organelle which contains photosynthetic pigment called as chlorophyll
which help in the absorption of sunlight.

CASE STUDY: 2
The alimentary canal is basically a long tube extending from the mouth to the anus. In Fig. 6.6, we
can see that the tube has different parts. Various regions are specialised to perform different
functions.

We eat various types of food which has to pass through the same digestive tract. Naturally the
food has to be processed to generate particles which are small and of the same texture. This is
achieved by crushing the food with our teeth

i) Which enzyme is present in our mouth to digest starch?

Ans: Salivary amylase from salivary glands.

ii) What are the types of enzymes released by our stomach?

Ans: Hydrochloric acid, pepsin and a mucus.

iii) Which is the longest part of our alimentary canal in our body?
Ans: Small intestine

iv) What are villi?

Ans: Villi are finger like projection present inside the inner lining of the small intestine which
increases the surface area for absorption.

v) What are the enzymes that are released by pancreas?

Ans: Enzyme released by pancreas – • trypsin- Digestion of protein

lipase – breakdown of emulsified fats

CASE STUDY: 3
The food material taken in during the process of nutrition is used in cells to provide energy for
various life processes. Diverse organisms do this in different ways – some use oxygen to break-
down glucose completely into carbon dioxide and water, some use other pathways that do not
involve oxygen (Fig. 6.8). In all cases, the first step is the break-down of glucose, a six-carbon
molecule, into a three-carbon molecule called pyruvate. This process takes place in the
cytoplasm.

i) What is anaerobic respiration?

Ans: The conversion of pyruvate into ethanol, CO2 & energy take place in the absence of
air(oxygen), it is called anaerobic respiration.

ii) Explain the process which happen in our muscle cells?

Ans- The conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid (3 carbon molecule) and energy due to the lack of
oxygen.

iii) In which form our body used the energy?

Ans: It is in the form of ATP molecule i.e. Adenosine Triphosphate.

iv) Why there is a faster breathing rate of aquatic animals then the terrestrial animals?

Ans- The amount of O2 dissolved in water is low as compared to amount of O2 present in air.
Therefore, aquatic animals have faster breathing rate.
v) Write the name of organ used for respiration by different organism- fish, frog?

Ans- i) fish- gills

ii) frog- skin, lungs

CASE STUDY: 4
The excretory system of human beings includes a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary
bladder and a urethra. Kidneys are located in the abdomen, one on either side of the backbone.
Urine produced in the kidneys passes through the ureters into the urinary bladder where it is
stored until it is released through the urethra.

i) What is the purpose of making urine?

Ans: Urine is to filter out the blood i e to remove waste product from the blood such as urea.

ii) What is Bowman’s capsule?

Ans: A cup shaped end of a coiled tube which is associated with capillaries to collect filterate.

iii) What is dialysis?

Ans: To remove nitrogenous waste from your blood by using machine when kidney does not its
function i.e. in case of kidney failure.

iv) What is the function of urinary bladder?

Ans: It is used to stored urine until the pressure comes from the brain to pass it out.

v) What are the different parts of nephrons?

Ans: Renal artery, Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus, tubular part of nephron and a collecting duct.

CASE STUDY: 5
The heart is a muscular organ which is as big as our fist. Because both oxygen and carbon
dioxide have to be transported by the blood, the heart has different chambers to prevent the
oxygen-rich blood from mixing with the blood containing carbon dioxide. The carbon dioxide-rich
blood has to reach the lungs for the carbon dioxide to be removed, and the oxygenated blood from
the lungs has to be brought back to the heart. This oxygen-rich blood is then pumped to the rest of
the body.

i) How many chambers are present in the heart of mammals and reptiles?

Ans: Mammals- 4 chamber heart and reptiles- 3 chambered heart

ii) Who carry deoxygenated blood from body to heart?

Ans: Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from body to heart.

iii) What do you mean by the term double circulation?

Ans: The blood goes through the heart twice during each cycle known as double circulation.

iv) What is hypertension?

Ans: The force that blood experts against the wall of a vessels is called hypertension or high blood
pressure.
V) Which device measured blood pressure?
Ans: Sphygmomanometer
 CHAPTER- 7 CONTROL AND CO-ORDINATION

CONTENTS

➢ Tropic movements in plants

➢ Introduction of plant hormones
➢ Control and co-ordination in animals
➢ Nervous system; Voluntary
➢ Involuntary and reflex action
➢ Chemical co-ordination: animal hormones

Mindmap

ACTION CAUSED BY
NERVOUS TISSUE
TROPIC MOVEMENTS IN PLANTS

Tropic movement is the movement of the plant in response to stimulus present in the
surroundings. Tropic movements can be either toward the stimulus or away from it. The
important tropic movements are listed below-

Phototropism Movement is response to light.

Ex- shoot bending toward the light, root bending away from light, movementof
sunflower

Chemotropism Movement in response to certain chemicals

Ex- Growth of pollen tubes toward ovary

Geotropism The movement of plants in response to the gravity.

Ex- Roots of plant grow downwards, shoots usually grow upward

Hydrotropism Movement of plants in response to water.

Ex- Root grows towards water.

Thigmotropism The reflex of plants response of touch.

Ex- touch-me-not (Mimosa) plant leaves.

Thigmotropism
INTRODUCTION OF PLANT HORMONES

Growth and differentiation in plants depend on few hormones calls as plant growth regulators/
plant growth hormones/ Phytohormones. These are organic substances which are synthesized in
minute quantity in one part of plant body and transported to other part where they show specific
physiological processes.

Phytohormones Growth promoter/ growthinhibitor Explanation

Auxin Growth promoter Stem elongation
Gibberellins Growth of stem
Cytokinin Cell division
Ethylene Growth inhibitor Wilting of leaves
Abscisic acid Fruit ripening

CONTROL AND CO-ORDINATION IN ANIMALS

In animals control and coordination is carried out with the help of -
➢ Nervous system
➢ Muscular tissue
➢ Endocrine system: Hormones
➢ Nervous system
The nervous system is composed of –
i- CNS (Central nervous system)- Brain + Spinal cord
ii- PNS (Peripheral Nervous System)- all the nerves associated with the CNS

NEURONS: Neurons are composed of cell body, dendrite, axon and nerve ending.

• Dendritic tips receive stimulus and an electrical impulse is generated in neurons.

• This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its end.
• At axon ending some chemicals are released that cross the synapse and start a similar
electrical impulse in next neuron.
REFLEX ACTION

➢ Reflex action is a sudden and

involuntary response to any stimuli.
➢ It originates in spinal cord.
➢ Ex- Drawing hand away from hot
plate, watering of mouth in response
to food etc.
➢ The neural pathway that controls the
reflex action is called as reflex arch.
In these sensory neurons, spinalcord,
relay neuron, motor neuron and
effector muscles are involved.
➢ Stimulus is received by sensory
neuron. The sensory neurons transfer sensory impulse to the spinal cord (CNS). Spinal cord
process the stimulus. The motor nerve fibre relay the motor impulses from the nervous
system to the effector organs like muscles.
HORMONES IN ANIMALS-
Hormones are the chemical messengers which are secreted by the ductless endocrine gland into
the blood. Hormones control the activity of certain cells and organs. Hormones can be peptide
and steroid hormones. Some of the main endocrine glands are pituitary gland, adrenal gland,
thyroid gland, pancreas, testes, ovary etc.
Endocrine gland Hormone Role

Pituitary gland Growth hormone Regulate growth and development

Adrenal gland Adrenaline Stress hormone (enable the body ready to dealwith stressed
condition), Increase heartbeat, Increase breathing rate

Thyroid gland Thyroxine Regulate carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism

Pancreas Insulin Regulate blood sugar level

Testes Testosterone Changes associated with puberty in male

Ovary Estrogen Changes associated with puberty in female

➢ GOITER- Iodine is necessary for formation of thyroxin hormone. If Iodine is in low

concentration the thyroid gland swells and causes goiter.
➢ GIGANTISM and DWARFISM- Excess secretion of growth hormone from
pituitarygland causes excess growth of body (gigantism) and less secretion result in
dwarfism
 QUESTION BANK
MCQ
Q.1. Which plant hormone promotes dormancy in seeds and buds?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid
Q.2. Roots of plants are:
(a) positively geotropic
(b) negatively geotropic
(c) positively phototropic
(d) None of these
Q.3. Response of plant roots towards water is called:
(a) Chemotropism
b) Phototropism
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) Geotropism
Q.4. Movement of sunflower in accordance with the path of Sun is due to
(a) Chemotropism
(b) Geotropism
(c) Phototropism
(d) Hydrotropism
Q.5. Which plant hormone promotes cell division?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid
Q.6. The main function of abscisic acid in plants is
(a) to promote cell division.
(b) to inhibit growth.
(c) to promote growth of stem.
(d) to increase the length of cells.
Q.7. Fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants is triggered by which of the following
substance?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Abscisic acid
Q.8. Any change in the environment to which an organism responds is called
(a) stimulus
(b) coordination
(c) response
(d) hormone
Q.9. A part of the body which responds to the instructions sent from nervous system is called
(a) receptor
(b) effector
(c) nerves
(d) muscles
Q.10. The longest fiber on the cell body of a neuron is called
(a) sheath
(b) cytoplasm
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
Q.11. Which nerves transmit impulses from the central nervous system towards muscle cells?
(a) Sensory nerves
(b) Motor nerves
(c) Relay nerves
(d) Cranial nerves
Q.12. A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass is
called
(a) neurotransmitter
(b) dendrites
(c) axon
(d) synapse
Q.13. The highest coordinating center in the human body is
(a) spinal cord
(b) heart
(c) brain
(d) kidney
Q.14. Main function of cerebrum is
(a) thinking
(b) hearing
(c) memory
(d) balancing
Q.15. Posture and balance of the body is controlled by
(a) Pons
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebrum
Q.16. Breathing is controlled by which part of the brain?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Medulla oblongata
Q.17. Which part of nervous system controls the reflex activities of the body?
(a) Brain
(b) Spinal cord
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Cerebellum
Q.18. Which of the following acts as both endocrine and exocrine gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Liver
Q.19. Which gland secretes the growth hormone?
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Thyroid
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Adrenal
Q.20. A diabetic patient suffers from deficiency of which hormone?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Testosterone
(c) Estrogen
(d) Insulin
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false
Q.1. Assertion: Suppression of growth of auxiliary buds is called apical dominance.
Reason: It is due to effect of downward movement of Auxin from apical region towards the
lower side.
Q.2. Assertion : Phototropism is a directional growth movement.
Reason : It occurs in the direction of light.
Q.3.. Assertion : Plants lack the nervous system, but they do coordinate.
Reason: It is so because of hormones.
Q.4. Assertion : Reflex actions are automatic and rapid responses to stimuli.
Reason : These actions are controlled by brain.
Q.5. Assertion : Olfactory receptors detect taste.
Reason : Olfactory receptors are present in cerebellum.
Q.6. Assertion: Cytokinin are present in highest concentration in fruits and seeds.
Reason: cytokinin are responsible for promoting cell division.
Q.7. Assertion : Abscisic acid is responsible for wilting of leaves.
Reason : It is a growth inhibitor.
Q.8. Assertion : Medulla oblongata causes reflex actions like vomiting, coughing and sneezing.
Reason : It has many nerve cells which control autonomic reflexes.
Q.9. Assertion : Transmission of the nerve impulse across a synapse is accomplished by
neurotransmitters.
Reason : Transmission of the nerve impulse across a synapse is
accomplished by neurotransmitters.
Q.10. Assertion : Males have more stature than females during puberty.
Reason : This is because of presence of thyroxin in the blood of
females.
Q11. Assertion: insulin regulates blood sugar level.
reason: insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes.
Q12. Assertion: a nerve impulse is an electrochemical event.
reason: a nerve impulse is generated as a result of differential electrical charges.

ANSWERS
MCQ
1-(d), 2-(a), 3-(c),4-(c), 5-(c), 6-(b), 7-(d),8-(a), 9-(b), 10-(c),11-(b), 12-(d), 13-(c),14-(a), 15-(c),
16-(d),17-(b), 18-(a), 19-(a),20-(d)
ASSERTION- REASON
1-(a), 2-(a), 3-(a),4-(c), 5-(e), 6-(b), 7-(a),8-(a), 9-(a), 10-(c), 11-(a), 12- (a)
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 1 MARK)
Q.1. Name two specialized tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular
organisms.
Ans: Nervous and muscular tissues.
Q.2.. List two body functions that will be affected if cerebellum gets damaged.
Ans : a. Walking in a straight line. b. Picking up a thing from the ground.
Q.3. Write the role of motor areas in brain.
Ans : Motor areas of the brain control the movement of voluntary muscles.
Q.4. Give the scientific names of the following regions of the human brain: a. Region for sight. b.
Region which controls salivation.
Ans : a. Temporal lobe (of the forebrain) b. Medulla (of the hindbrain)
Q.5. All information for our environment is detected by specialized tips of some nerve cells. Write
the name given to such tips and also mention where are they located?
Ans : Receptors. They are located in sense organs
Q.6. State the function of: a. gustatory receptors b. olfactory receptors
Ans : a. To detect taste. b. To detect smell.
Q.7. Which part of the nervous system controls reflex arcs?
Ans : Spinal cord
Q.8. Which tropic movement is responsible for the growth of pollen tubes towards ovules?
Ans : Chemotropism.?
Q.9. What type of movement is shown by mimosa plant leaves when touched with a finger?
Ans : Nastic movement.
Q.10. Why endocrine glands release their secretions into the blood?
Ans : It is because endocrine glands are ductless.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q.1. Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function of
each: (a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas
Ans : a. Thyroid: Secretes Thyroxine. It regulates metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins. b. Pituitary: Secretes growth hormone. Growth hormone regulates growth and
development of body. c. Pancreas: Secretes insulin. Insulin lowers blood sugar level
Q.2. State how concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of shoot
which is away from light?
Ans : Auxin form in the shoot tip but diffuse toward the part which is in shade/away from the
light. The concentration on shady part increase stimulation cells in this part to elongate. The side
of shoot on this side grows longer than the part in light hence bend towards light.
Q.3. Name the hormone which is secreted by the adrenal gland. How does this hormone help to
deal with the scary situations?
Ans : Adrenaline. It increases the heart rate, breathing rate so that more blood can be pumped
and oxygen can be supplied to the muscles. Blood supply is cut off from skin and sent to
muscles. The action of this hormone prepares the person to face the situation so that either
he/she may run away or fight.
Q.4. How does chemical coordination occur in plants? Explain with the help of three examples.
Ans : In plants, chemical coordination occurs through various phytohormones.
a. Auxins secreted by growing tissues. They provide growth of plants.
b. Gibberelins cause stem elongation, seed germination and flowering.
c. Cytokinins present in areas of actively dividing cells like fruits, seeds. Promote cell division.
d. Abscisic acid inhibits growth and respond to environmental stress.
Q.5. Illustrate with the help of a diagram, the effect of auxins in different parts of a plant.

Ans

Q.6. a) An old man is advised by his doctor to take less sugar in his diet. Name the disease from
which the man is suffering. Mention the hormone due to imbalance of which he is suffering from
this disease. Which endocrine gland secretes this hormone?
b) Name the endocrine gland which secretes growth hormone. What will be its effect on a
person if there is: (i) Deficiency of growth hormones?
Ans : a) The man is suffering with the disease Diabetes. Insulin is the hormone which is
responsible for this disease. Pancreas secretes this hormone.
b) Pituitary gland. (1) Deficiency of growth hormone causes dwarfism.
(2) Excess secretion of growth hormone cause gigantism in a person.
Q.7. a. Give the functions of cerebellum (any two). b. Name the components of central nervous
system.
Ans : a. (i) Cerebellum is responsible for precision of voluntary action. (ii) It maintains the
posture and balance of the body. b. The components of central nervous system are: (i) Brain (ii)
Spinal cord.
Q.8. a. Identify the phytohormone used by plants while performing the following functions: 1. Cell
division in shoot tip. 2. Inhibiting growth on approach of unfavorable conditions. b. List in tabular
form two differences between the movement in ‘touch me not’ plant and movement of shoot
towards light.
Ans : a. (1) Auxin, (2) Abscisic acid. b. Movement of shoot. Movement of shoot towards light
(Phototropism) Movement in “Touch me not’ plant (Nastic movement)
1. It is slow response towards any stimulus. It is an immediate response towards a stimulus.
2. It is directional. It is non-directional.
3. It is growth dependent. It is growth independent
Q.9. Answer the following:
a. Name the endocrine gland associated with brain. b. Which gland secretes digestive enzymes
as well as hormone? c. Name the endocrine gland associated with kidneys. d. Which endocrine
gland is present in males but not in females? e. Which hormone is responsible for changes in
females during puberty? f. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?
Ans : a. Pituitary gland, b. Pancreas, c. Adrenal gland, d. Testes, e. Estrogen, f. Thyroxine
Q.10. Give reasons: a. Pituitary is often termed as master endocrine gland. b. Pancreas helps in
digestion and also regulates blood sugar level. c. Adrenals are known as glands of emergency.
Ans : a. Pituitary is often called as master endocrine gland because it controls and coordinates
the secretion of all the other endocrine glands. b. Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice as well as
a hormone called as insulin. Pancreatic juice helps in digestion whereas insulin regulates blood
sugar level. c. Adrenalin is secreted directly into the blood and is carried to different parts of the
body. It acts on heart. As a result, the heart beats faster in order to supply more oxygen to our
muscles. The blood to the digestive system and skin is reduced due to contraction of muscles
around small arteries in these organs. This diverts the blood to our skeletal muscles. The
breathing rate also increases because of the contractions of the diaphragm and the rib muscles.
All these responses together enable the animal body to get ready to deal with the situation.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS)
Q.1. Draw and describe the role of various parts of human brain.
Ans Human brain has three major parts: a. Fore-Brain contains mainly cerebrum. b. Mid-brain. c.
Hind-brain.
Functions a. Cerebellum which controls posture, balance of body and accurate voluntary
movements. b. Pons regulates respiration c. Medulla oblongata which controls involuntary
actions like blood pressure, salivation, vomiting etc.
Q.2. Give the function(s) of the following plant hormones: a. Auxins b. Gibberellins c. cytokinin d.
Abscisic acid e. Ethylene
Ans : a. Auxins promote cell elongation, root formation, cell division, etc. It also promotes fruit
growth. b. Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation, seed germination and flowering. c. cytokinin
help in breaking the dormancy of seeds and buds. They delay ageing in leaves. They also
promote the opening of stomata. d. Abscisic acid promotes falling of leaves and fruits. e.
Ethylene promotes ripening of fruits.
Q.3. (a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label the following on it: Nucleus, Dendrite, Cell body
and Axon. (b) Name the part of neuron (i) Where information is acquired. (ii) Through which
information travels as an electrical impulse.

b. (i) Dendrite (ii) Axon

Q.4. Describe an activity to illustrate the phenomenon of phototropism and explain why does this
occur.
Ans : a. Take a plant and make such an arrangement that it receives the light coming from a
window as shown in the figure and observe it for few days.

b. Now, turn the flask so that the shoots are away from light and the roots towards light. Leave it
undisturbed in this condition for a few days. c. Again, observe carefully to find the difference in
the movement. d. When growing plants detect light, auxin, synthesized at the shoot tip, helps the
cells to grow longer. Auxin always diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This
concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away
from light. Thus, the plant appears to bend towards light.
Q.5. (a) What is phototropism and geotropism? With labelled diagrams describe an activity to
show that light and gravity change the direction that plant part grows in. (b) Mention the role of
each of the following plant hormones: (i) Auxin (ii) Abscisic acid.
Ans : a. Phototropism It is tropic movements in the direction of light or away from it e.g. shoots
bends towards light while roots grow away from it. Hence shoot is positively phototropic and root
is negatively phototropic. Geotropism: Growth of roots downward towards the earth hence
positively geotropic whereas stem grows upward, away from earth, hence it is negatively
geographic. b. Auxins: Synthesized at the shoot tip, helps the cells to grow longer. Abscisic acid:
Inhibits growth, causes wilting and falling of leaves.

CASE STUDY BASE QUESTIONS

1. DO PLANTS MOVE?
While playing with her little brother in the garden, Pooja observed a very strange behavior of
plants. She saw that the leaves of a creeper are getting closed with the touch. She is amused by
this and tried to find out the reason behind this. Next day at the school she asked her science
teacher that do plants have nervous system like us? Can they respond to the stimuli? Her
teacher explained that:
In the case of plants, they are completely devoid of the nervous system and other special
organs. However, plants learn to respond to different stimuli by certain movements. This
response may be rapid movements like semi-monastic movement or slow process like tropism.
Sensitive plants show semi-monastic movement in response to touch. Thus, we can classify the
plant into two types based on their movements: Tropic movements and nastic movements.
When a plant shows some growth movement in response to a stimulus, it is known as tropism.
Tropism is a direction, which is specific and depends on the direction of the stimulus. Plants may
either show a positive or negative movement as a response to a stimulus. If the movement is
towards the direction of stimuli, it is known as positive tropism, if the movement is away from the
stimuli, it is known as negative tropism. Tropism can be of different types like phototropism,
geotropism, thigmotropism etc.
Pooja’s teacher has given few questions to solve. Let’s help her to solve the questions.
Observe the diagram and answer the questions following it.

Q1.1. In the figure we can see that the plant’s growth is affected by a specific stimulus. Both
stem and leaves are affected by the stimulus. What can be the possible reasons of it.
Ans. 1.Accumulation of auxin in parts of the stem that is away
 from light
2.Leaves are rearranged to capture more sunlight

Q1.2. Pooja has observed the behavior of ‘touch me not’ plant while playing in the gardens
shown in figure1. How the behavior of ‘touch me not’ plant is different from the behavior of the
plant shown in question no 1.1? Explain.

ANS. leaves of 'Touch me not' plant shows nastic movement i.e. it responds to the touch and
shows only a movement in its organs while in question no 1. the plant is showing a directional
growth due to the influence of light and action of auxin.
Q.2. PLANT GROWTH IS COLOURFUL
The chemical substances synthesized by plants that regulate growth and metabolism in plants
known as phytohormones. It is of two types: Growth promoter (Auxins, Gibberellins and
Cytokinin) and growth inhibitors (Abscisic acid-ABA And ethylene). Phytohormone secretion is
mainly under the control of light-its colour and intensity.
According to the research, plants grow best under red and blue light. Why? Because chlorophyll
best absorbs red and blue light and these wavelengths are most effective at encouraging plant
growth. Chlorophyll a is the primary photosynthetic pigment and beta is the accessory pigment
that collects the energy to pass on to chlorophyll alpha. (the ratio of chlorophyll a to be in the
chloroplast is 3:1) The reason why there are 2 type of chlorophyll is because the light that is not
absorbed by chlorophyll a will instead be captured by chlorophyll b. So, these two chlorophylls
complement each other when absorbing sunlight. However, there is a large region between 500-
600nm (wavelength of the light) where little light is absorbed that colour is green.
The most important molecules for plant function are the pigments. All pigments select certain
wavelengths of light and absorb while reflecting others. The light that is absorbed may be used
by the plant for chemical reactions, while the reflected light will determine the colour the pigment
will appear to the eye. Chlorophyll is the primary pigment in plants; it absorbs red and blue
wavelengths of light and reflects green. It is the presence and relative abundance of chlorophyll
that gives plants their green colour.
 Carotenoids (organic pigment found in the chloroplasts and chromoplasts) function as
accessory pigments in plants, helping to fuel photosynthesis by gathering wavelengths of light
that are not absorbed by chlorophyll. Hence, different colours of light will affect the development
of plants in certain way.
Plants grown under normal light has higher number of fresh flowers compared with plants grown
under different colored lights. Normal light appears to have 70% of its flowers being healthy
whereas the average health of the plants under different light colours were roughly 34%
From the above information answer the following.
Q 2.1 In which light colour exposure, percentage of dead flower is maximum?
Ans.Green
Q 2.2 Why leaves appear green in colours?
ANS: Plant absorbs other wavelengths of light but reflects green.
Q 2.3 What percentage of healthy flowers were produced by the plants when exposed to blue
light?
Ans. 40%
Q 2.4 The plant produces maximum fresh flowers when exposed to normal light. Justify.
ANS: For the development of flower all the light colours are contributing differently but not a
single colour)/any other relevant answer.
Q.3. DECODING HUMAN BRAIN
Q 3.1. Animals such as elephants, dolphins, and whales actually have larger brains, but humans
have the most developed cerebrum. It's packed to capacity inside our skulls and is highly folded.
Why our brain is highly folded?
ANS. To increase the surface area of the brain to receive sensory impulses from various
receptors, interpret the sensory information with the information that is stored in the brain and
respond accordingly
Q 3.3 Ram was studying in his room. Suddenly he smells something burning and sees smoke in
the room. He rushes out of the room immediately. Was Ram’s action voluntary or involuntary?
Why?
ANSWER: Ram’s action was voluntary because rushing out of the room was under conscious
control. The smoke and smell were perceived by the receptor and sensor and signals are sent to
the brain. The brain then sent the signals to effector organs.
Q.4. REFLEX ACTION

Q4.1.Give one example of cerebral reflex?

ANS. Salivation at sight or smell a food
Q4.2. On the basis of above given diagram, answer the below paragraph with yes/no in the table
given below:
(i) Reflex action is only under the control of spinal cord. Yes/No
(ii)Earthworm cannot show reflex action. Yes/No
(iii) Reflex actions are spontaneous and voluntary. Yes/No
(iv) Main component of reflex arc are peripheral neuron and effectors organ. Yes/No
ANSWER: (i)No, (ii)Yes, (iii)No, (iv)Yes
Q4.3. Draw a flow chart of reflex action.
Ans. Figure 7.2 page 17 ncert text book
Q5. Adrenaline is secreted directly into the blood and carried to different parts of the body. The
target organs or the specific tissues on which it acts include the heart. As a result, the heart
beats faster, resulting in a supply of more oxygen to our muscles. The blood to the digestive
system and skin is reduced due to contraction of muscles around small arteries in these organs.
This diverts the blood to our skeletal muscles. The breathing rate also increases because of the
contractions of the diaphragm and the rib muscles. All these responses together enable the
animal body to be ready to deal with the situation. Such animal hormones are part of the
endocrine system which constitutes a second way of control and coordination in our body.
5.1. Name the animal hormone directly secreted into the blood.
ANS. Adrenaline
5.2. Which is the target organ or specific tissue on which it acts?
ANS. Heart
5.3. What happens due to contraction of muscles around small arteries and contraction of the
diaphragm and rib muscles?
ANS. The blood to the digestive system and skin is reduced due to contraction of muscles
around small arteries in these organs. This diverts the blood to our skeletal muscles. The
breathing rate also increases because of the contractions of the diaphragm and the rib muscles.
Q6. A hormone called auxin, synthesized at the shoot tip, helps the cells to grow longer. When
light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot.This
concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer. When light is coming from one side of
the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This concentration of auxin
stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light. Thus, the
plant appears to bend towards light.
Another example of plant hormones are gibberellins which like auxins help in
the growth of the stem. Cytokinins promote cell division, and it is natural then that they are
present in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell division. Such as fruits and seeds. These
are examples of plant hormones that help in promoting growth. But plants also need signals to
stop growing. Abscisic acid is one example of a hormone which inhibits growth. Its effects
include wilting of leaves.
6.1 Where is plant hormone auxin synthesized?
Ans. Auxin, synthesized at the shoot and root tips .
6.2 Which plant hormone promotes cell division and where it is present?
Ans. Cytokinins promote cell division, and it is natural then that they are present in greater
concentration in areas of rapid cell division
6.3 Name the plant hormone which inhibits growth and what are its effects?
Ans. Abscisic acid.
 CHAPTER – 8
HOW DO ORGANISM REPRODUCE

CONTENTS

❖ Reproduction in animals and plants (asexual and sexual)

❖ reproductive health
❖ need
❖ and methods of family planning.
❖ Safe sex vs HIV/AIDS.
❖ Child bearing and women’s health.

BUDDING

REGENERATION

GLANDS GLANDS SPORE

VEGETATIVE

PLANTS
MALE
OVARIES REPROD TESTES
REPRODUCT UCTIV
IVE SYSTEM SYSTEM
VAS
OVARY- FRUIT OVIDUCTS
DEFERENS

UTERUS URETHRA

VAGINA PENIS
• VASECTOMY
• TUBECTOMY

CONDOMS
GAMETES grafting
FEMIDOMS

SYPHILIS ON
CREAMS
SPERMICIDES

GONORROHEA
ABSTINENCE

AIDS
GAMETES
LOOP
 Reproduction- The production of new organism from the existing organism of the same
species is known as reproduction. It involves copying of DNA, these copies will be similar to
original but not identical.

• Variations- The differences of new organism from the original ones give rise to variations
in a population. These variations help the individuals of a population to tolerate drastic
environmental conditions and thus promote their survival.

Significance of reproduction-
(a) Important for continuation of life.
(b)It helps in transferring genetic material from first generation to the next one.
(c) introduces new variations in population of different Species.

• Importance of Variation
(a)Variation helps the individual species to tolerate drastic environmental conditions.
(b)Variation is very useful for the survival of species for a longer a period of time.
(c) also helps in evolution, adaptation and improve varities in populations.

• Types of reproduction
• Asexual reproduction-In this mode of reproduction the offspring arises from a single
parent
• The production of a new organism from a single parent without the involvement of gametes.
In this method certain body cells of the parent organism, undergo repeated cell division to
form two or more new organisms

Modes of Asexual Reproduction-

• Binary fission- Single celled organisms
like Bacteria, amoeba, paramecium,
leishmania split into two identical halves
and form new individuals

• When amoeba cell reaches its

maximum size of growth, then first the
nucleus divides into two parts and
afterwards cytoplasm divides into two
equal parts. Two daughter amoebae
(daughter cells) produced grow to their
full size and then divide again to
produce four daughter cells.
• Multiple fission-In this process of fission one parent cell divides and splits internally to
form a number of daughter cells

• Budding-It is an asexual mode of reproduction. In this a small part of the body of the
parent organism grows out as a bud which then detach and becomes new organism. It is
observed in Hydra and yeast.

• In Hydra, first a small outgrowth called bud is formed on the side of its body due to
repeated division of cells, this bud then grow gradually to form a small Hydra and finally the
small Hydra detaches itself from the body of the parent organism and lives as a separate
organism.
• In yeast cell, fist the bud appears on the outside of the cell wall. Nucleus of the parent cell
then divides into two parts and one part of the nucleus moves into the bud. Finally the bud
separates from the parent cell and forms a new cell.
• In yeast cell budding takes place so fast that the first buds start forming their own buds and
therefore form a chain of yeast cells.

• Spore formation- Spore formation takes place in plants. The parent plant produces
hundreds of microscopic reproductive unit called spores. When the Spore case of the plant
bursts, then the spores spread into air. When these spore land on soil, they germinate and
form new plants in wet and warm conditions. Fungus like Rhizopus (bread mold), Bacteria
and non-flowering plants like ferns and mosses reproduce by this method.

• Regeneration-In some organism, small parts of the body can grow to form whole new
organism complete in all respects. The process of getting like a full organism from its body
part is called regeneration. Hydra and planaria show generation
• Planaria gets cut into a member of pieces in each body can regenerate into a complete
planaria by growing all the missing parts.
 • Fragmentation-Some of the multi cellular organism can break up easily into smaller pieces
and maturing. These pieces are fragments can grow and form new organisms complete in
all respects. Fragmentation in spirogyra takes place when it simply breaks into two or
more fragments and into maturation, each fragment then grows into a new spirogyra.

• Vegetative propagation-It is an asexual mode production which occurs in plants. New

plants are obtained from the parts of old plant like stem, roots, leaves without the help of
any reproductive organ.

• Using stems-If we cut a piece of stem of a money plant in such a way, it contains at least
one leaf. dip 1 end of the stem in water. After a few days we will find that new route
appears at the point. This piece of stem will finally grow into a new money plant. (activity
8.6) of NCERT

• Using leaves-Buds are present on the stems as well as the leaves of Bryophyllum plant
which can develop into new plants when they come in contact with moist soil.

Importance of Vegetative Propagation

• Plants can bear flowers and fruits earlier.

• Plants which have lost the ability to produce viable seeds can also reproduce by vegetative
propagation.
• All plants are genetically almost similar to the parent plant.
• Seedless varieties can be obtained.
• The property of vegetative propagation is used by horticulturists in developing methods like
layering, grafting to grow many plants like sugarcane, roses, or grapes.

Tissue Culture: The technique of developing new plants from a cell or tissue in a nutrient
medium under aseptic conditions. The cell or tissue is placed in a nutrient medium where it
 forms a mass of cells called callus. This callus is then transferred to another nutrient medium
where it differentiates and forms a new plant.

Sexual Reproduction: Sexual reproduction in plants, Sexual reproduction in human beings. The
mode of reproduction that takes place with the involvement of two individuals of two different
sexes i.e. male and female.
During sexual reproduction, male organism having male sex organs produces male gametes i.e.
sperms which are small and motile and the female organism having female sex organs produces
ova which are generally large and store food. Male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote that
grows into a new organism.

Significance of Sexual Reproduction:

❖ Sexual reproduction involves DNA of two different organisms which promotes diversity of
characters in the offspring.
❖ Since gametes are derived from two different organisms, it results in a new combination of
genes which increases the chances of genetic variations.
❖ Sexual reproduction results in the origin of new species.

Sexual reproduction in flowering plants

o The reproductive parts are present in the flower.
o The parts of the flower are sepals, petals, stamens and carpels.
a. Sepals are green structures that protect the inner parts when the flower is in bud stage.
b. Petals are colorful and attract the insects for pollination.
c. Stamens are male reproductive parts and produce pollen grains that contain male
gametes. Each stamen has two parts-Filament i.e. stalk and Anther i.e. swollen top part
which has large number of pollen grains.
d. carpel is the female reproductive part and produces ovules that contain female gametes.
It has three parts—Stigma which is top sticky part and receives pollen grains during
pollination. Style which is the middle long part and ovary which is the swollen part and
contains ovules. Each ovule has an egg cell i.e. female gamete

• The flowers are two types on basis of gametes formation

1. Bisexual i.e. having both stamens and carpels for example; Mustard China Rose
(Hibiscus).
2. Unisexual i.e. paving either stamens or carpels for example; Papaya, Watermelon.
 • Pollination: The process of transfer of pollen grains from an anther to the stigma of the
flower is pollination. Two types of pollination are:
(i) Self-pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same
flower or another flower of the same plant.
(ii) Cross-pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of
another flower or another flower of a different plant of the same species. It generally takes
place with the help of some agents like insects, birds, wind and
water.

• Fertilization: Fertilization is the process of fusion of male and

female gamete to form a zygote during sexual reproduction.
Pollination is followed by fertilization in plants. The events are-
(a)Pollen grains land on the stigma of the ovary.
(b) Pollen tubes grow out of the pollen grains, travel through the
style and reach the ovary.
(c) Pollen tube has male germ cells. Ovule has female gametes.

• Pollen tube releases male germ cells inside the ovule, one of them fuses with female germ
cell and forms a zygote which grows into the baby plant i.e. embryo.

Post-fertilization changes: After fertilization the following changes takes place in the flower.
Zygote divides several times and forms an embryo inside the ovule.
• The ovule develops a tough coat and changes into the seed.
• The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.
• Petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma shrivel and fall off.
❖ Seed and its parts: The advantage of seed is that it protects the future plant i.e. embryo.
❖ Seed has two parts: Cotyledons and Embryo Cotyledons store food for the future plant.
❖ Embryo has two parts: plumule and radicle. Plumule develops into shoot and radicle
develops into root.
❖ The process of development of a seedling from the embryo under appropriate conditions is
known as germination.

Reproduction in Human Being: Human beings become reproductively active from the onset of
puberty. Puberty is the period during adolescence when the rate of general body growth begins to
slow down and reproductive tissues begin to mature. Onset of puberty in human males is between
11 to 13 yrs of age, while in human females is between 10 to 12 yrs. of age. Puberty is associated
with many physical, mental, emotional and psychological changes in boys and girls which occur
slowly over a period of time. These are called secondary sexual characters. For instance thick
dark hair starts growing in new parts of the body such as arm pits and genital area between the
thighs. Thinner hair appear on legs, arms and face. Skin becomes oily and pimples may appear on
the face. Individuals become more conscious of their bodies become more independent, more
aggressive etc.
 • In case of boy’s beard and mustache start appearing, voice begins to crack, reproductive
organs develop and start producing releasing sperms.
• In case of girls, breast size begins to increase, skin of the nipples darkens, menstruation
starts.
❖ Male Reproductive System: Male reproductive system consists of the following components one
pair of testes, sperm ducts or vas deferens, epididymis, urethra, a system of glands-Seminal
vesicles and prostate gland.
(a) Testes: A pair of testes is situated in scrotum which
lie outside the abdominal cavity and behind the penis.
Testes produce sperms and hormone, Testosterone
hormone. Testosterone brings about changes in
appearance of boys at the time of puberty.
(b) Vas deferens: From each testis, a duct arises
which is known as vas deferens which unites with a
tube coming from urinary bladder. It brings sperms
from testis.
(c) Accessory Glands: Glands like prostate and
seminal vesicles add their secretions which make transport of sperms easier and this fluid
also provides nutrition.
(d) Urethra: Vas deferens tube opens into a common tube called urethra. It runs through a
muscular organ called Penis. Penis is male copulatory(mating)organ.

❖ Female Reproductive System: It consists of the

following organs:
(a) Ovaries: Paired ovaries are located in the
abdominal cavity near the kidney. Ovaries produce
female gamete (ovum or egg) and secrete female
hormones (estrogen and progesterone). One egg
is produced every month alternately by one of the
ovaries.
(b) Fallopian Tube: The egg is carried from the
ovary to womb/uterus through a thin oviduct or
fallopian tube.
(c) Uterus: The two oviducts unite into an elastic bag like structure known as the uterus.
(d) Vagina: Uterus opens into the vagina. It is a female copulatory organ.

Menstrual Cycle in female: After puberty, only one egg is produced alternately from one ovary
after a period of 28 days. Eggs in fallopian tube encounter sperms which enter through the vaginal
passage during sexual intercourse. This fertilized egg (zygote) gets implanted in the lining of
uterus which later forms embryo. Embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of
special tissue called placenta.
If the egg is not fertilized, if lives for about one day since the ovary releases one egg every month,
the uterus prepares itself every month to receive the fertilized egg. Thus, its lining becomes thick
and spongy. If it does not get zygote, the developed lining slowly breaks down and comes out
through the vagina as blood and mucus. This cycle takes place roughly every month and is known
as menstruation. It usually lasts for about 2-5 days.
 • Fertilization-Sperms formed in testes are introduced into the vagina of the woman during
mating. Sperms move up through cervix into the uterus and from uterus they enter into the
oviducts.
• One of the oviducts contain an ovum or egg cell released by the ovary during ovulation.
Only one sperm cell fuses with the egg cell to form a zygote. Zygote divides repeatedly to
from embryo which gets embedded in the uterine wall, this is called implantation.
• After implantation, a disc like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and embryo,
called placenta. All the requirements of the developing foetus like nutrition, respiration and
excretion etc. are met from placenta only.
• Time period from the fertilization till the birth of the child is called gestation.

Birth Control methods- Birth control methods are used to prevent unwanted pregnancies in
females and to control size of our population. Prevention of pregnancy in women is called
Contraception.
All the birth control methods are broadly divided into three categories.

1. Barrier methods- In this method, physical devices such as condoms and diaphragm are
used. Condoms are used by males and diaphragms are used by females. They prevent
meeting of sperm and egg by acting as a barrier. Such methods also protect risk of STDs
(sexually transmitted diseases).

2. Chemical methods- In chemical method, females use two types of pills:

a. Oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing egg in oviduct. This
method is effective as long as pills are taken at right time. These pills lead to side effects
due to hormonal imbalance.
b. Vaginal pills-The vaginal pills contain chemicals called spermicides which kill the sperms.
Intra-uterine contraceptive methods- Copper-T is used to prevent pregnancy, it is
inserted inside the uterus by a doctor. This device will prevent the implantation of fertilized
egg in uterus.
3. Surgical methods- In males, a small portion of the sperm duct is removed by surgical
operation and both cut ends or free ends are tied properly. This prevents transportation of
sperm.
a. This surgical procedure in males is called ‘Vasectomy’.
b. In females, a small portion of the oviducts or fallopian tubes is removed and free ends are
tied together to prevent transportation of egg into oviducts. This surgical procedure in
females is called ‘Tubectomy’.
 Question Bank-
Multiple Choice Questions-
1) Reproduction involves
(a) Multiplication (b)formation of new individual
(c) creation of DNA copy (d)all of the above
2) The terminal sticky part of the carpel is
(a) stigma (b)style (c)stamen (d)pollen tube
3) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in flowers?
(a) pollination, fertilization, seed, embryo
(b) seed, embryo, fertilization, pollination
(c)pollination, fertilization, embryo, seed
(d) embryo, seed, pollination, fertilization
4) Which of the following helps in motility and nutrition of sperms?
(a) mucus (b)blood (c)urine (d) glandular secretions
5) In human females, an event that indicates the onset of reproductive phase is
(a) growth of the body (b)change in hair pattern
(c) change in voice (d) menstruation
6) Vasectomy is a method of birth control in
(a) males (b)females (c)males and females both (d)none of these
7) The part of a seed which grows and develops into root on germination is
(a)cotyledon (b)plumule (c)follicle (d)radicle
8) In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction takes place by
(a) breaking up of filaments into smaller bits (b)division of a cell into two cells
(c)division of cell into many cells (d)formation of young cells from older cells
9) A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Spirogyra and Yeast is that
(a) they reproduce asexually (b)they are all unicellular
(c)they reproduce only sexually (d)they are all multicellular
10) Vegetative propagation refers to the formation of new plants from
(a)stem, roots and flowers (b)stem, roots and leaves
(c)stem, flowers and fruits (d)stem, leaves and flowers
11) In the figure, the parts A, B, C, D are sequentially

(a) A-cotyledon, B-plumule, C-radicle, D-seed coat

(b) A- plumule, B-radicle, C-seed coat, D-cotyledon
(c) A-plumule, B-cotyledon, C-radicle, D-seed coat
(d) A-radicle, B-cotyledon, C-seed coat, D-plumule
12) In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum because it helps in the
(a)process of mating (c)easy transfer of gametes
(b) formation of sperm (d)all of these
13) Which of the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a)Syphilis (b)Hepatitis (c)HIV-AIDS (d)Gonorrhea
14) Bryophyllum can be propagated vegetatively by the
(a) stem (b) leaf (c) root (d) flower
15) The period of pregnancy is called
(a) gestation period (b) incubation period (c) ovulation (d) menstruation period
16) The correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for the transport of sperms is
(a)testis→vas deferens→urethra (c)testis→urethra→ureter
(b)testis→ureter→urethra (d)testis→vas deferens→ureter
17) Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Ribosome (c) Golgi bodies (d) Genes
18) In living organisms, reproduction helps to
(a) keep the individual organisms alive (c) fulfil their energy requirement
(b) maintain growth (d) continue the species generation after generation
19) Choose the right option
(a) Fallopian tube, Oviduct, Uterus, Cervix, Vagina (b)
Oviduct, Vas deferens, Ovary, Vagina, Cervix (c)
Ovary, Oviduct, Uterus, Cervix, Vagina (d)
Ovary, Fallopian tube, Uterus, Vagina, Cervix

20) Identify the organism

(a) Rhizobium (b) Rhizopus (c) Rhizoid (d) Mushroom

Answer Key-

1)d 2)a 3)c 4)d 5)d 6)a 7)d 8)a 9)a 10)b 11)b 12)d 13)b 14)b 15)a 16)a 17)d
18)d 19)c 20)b

Assertion Reason-

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason

(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1) Assertion(A) : Multicellular organisms cannot simply divide cell by cell.

Reason(R) : Multicellular organisms are not simply a random collection of cells.

2) Assertion(A) : Clones are offspring of an organism formed by asexual reproduction.

Reason (R) : Clones have exact copies of DNA as their parent.

3) Assertion(A) : The offspring produced by sexual reproduction is likely to adjust better in

environmental fluctuation.
Reason (R) : During the fusion of gametes there is mixing of genetic material from two
parents.
 4) Assertion(A): Female produces two types of gametes.
Reason(R): Female has two X chromosomes.

5) Assertion (A) : Papaya, watermelon, etc. bear unisexual flowers.

Reason (R) : the flowers of papaya, watermelon etc. contain either stamen or carpel.
6) Assertion(A) : A basic event in the reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy.
Reason (R): Cells use chemical reactions to build copies of their DNA.

7) Assertion (A) : In regeneration, an organism simply splits into two equal halves and
each half grows into a new individual.
Reason (R) : Regeneration is carried out by specific body part.

8) Assertion (A): Urethra forms the common passage for both sperms and urine.
Reason (R): It never carries both of them at the same time.

9) Assertion(A) : Vagina is called the birth canal.

Reason (R) : During birth, the baby passes through the vagina.

10) Assertion (A) : The uterus prepares itself every month to receive a fertilized egg.
Reason (R) : One ovary releases one egg every month.

Answer key-
1)a 2) a 3) b 4) a 5) d 6) a 7) d 8) b 9) a 10) b

One-mark questions-

1) Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favorable conditions. Is this
method sexual or asexual?

2) Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation.

3) Write one point of difference between binary fission and multiple fission.

4) What is vegetative propagation?

5) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?

6) State one genetically different feature between sperms and eggs of humans.

7) Explain the term-Implantation of zygote.

8) Which hormone is responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in boys at
the time of puberty?
 9) (a) List two sexually transmitted diseases in each of the following cases:
(i) Bacterial infections
(ii) Viral infections

10) What is puberty?

Answers (Explanation)-

1) Fragmentation.

2) Bryophyllum propagates vegetative by the buds produced at the margins of leaves.

3) Binary fission- Parent divides into two identical daughter cells.

Multiple fission- Parents divide into many daughter cells.

4) Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in which the plant parts other than
seeds are used to form a new plant.

5) Chemical method

6) The main genetical difference between sperms and eggs of humans is that a sperm has X or
Y chromosome whereas egg has X chromosome. This helps in determination of the sex of a
person and maintaining the genetic continuity in the organisms.

7) Implantation of zygote refers to the process of attachment of the fertilized egg on the inner
wall of the uterus, it occurs on 7th day after fertilization and is controlled by estrogen and
progesterone hormones.

8) Testosterone

9) Bacterial infection causes gonorrhea, syphilis.

Viral infection causes AIDS, genital herpes.

10) The age at which the sex hormones begin to be produced and the boy and girl becomes
sexually mature, i.e. able to reproduce is called puberty.

Two marks questions-

1) How will an organism benefit if it reproduced by spores?

2) List any two reasons for vegetative propagation being practiced in the growth of some
types of plants.

3) Define the term pollination. What is the significance of pollination?

4) Mention the functions of

(a) Placenta (b)Uterus

 5) What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?

6) Give two differences between Sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction.

7) Why do multi-cellular organisms use complex ways of reproduction?

8) Write functions of ovary and testis in humans.

9) What are the two changes observed in girls at the time of puberty?

10) What happens when planaria gets cut into many pieces accidently

Answers (Explanation)-

1) As spores are composed of thick walls, hence can easily sustain harsh conditions and
prevent dehydration of cells. Reproduction via spore formation is quick, and many
organisms germinate at once, hence this leads to a substantial increase and survival of
species population.

2) (a) It is a more rapid and an easier method of propagation.

(b) Used for producing those plants which do not bear seeds.

3) Pollination- It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a flower to the stigma of the
same flower or to the stigma of another flower of the same or another plant.

Significance -Helps in fertilization, seed formation and formation of new offspring.

4) (a) Placenta- It serves as a nutritive, respiratory and excretory organ of the foetus.
(b)Uterus- It is the part of the female reproductive organ where attachment of fertilized egg
takes place for further development.

5) (a) DNA copying maintains the body designs and features in different generations of the
species.
(b) Variations may be introduced during the DNA copying which leads to evolution.
6)

7) Because complex multi-cellular organisms do not have the special type of tissues that can
gross into new organisms. In multi-cellular organisms, cells are organized as tissue and tissues
are again organized into the organs and therefore cell by cell discussion is not possible.

8) Functions of testis: (a) Formation of sperms

 (b) Secretion of testosterone hormone.
Functions of ovary: (a) Release of egg from one of the ovaries every month.
(b) Secretion of female hormones like estrogens and progesterone.
9) (a) Growth of breasts and external genitals.
(b) Menstruation and ovulation start.

10) When Planaria accidentally gets cut into many pieces, each piece
grows the missing part and forms the complete organism. This form of
asexual reproduction is known as regeneration.

Three marks questions-

1) What are the different methods of contraception?

2) (i) Draw a diagram to show spore formation in Rhizopus.

(ii) With the help of an example differentiate between the process of Budding and Fragmentation.
3) What is binary fission in organisms? With the help of suitable diagrams, describe the mode of
reproduction in Amoeba.

4) Label A, B and C and write their one function.

5) (a) Draw a diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower and label on it sepal, petal, ovary
and stigma.

(b) Write the names of male and female reproductive parts of a flower.’

6) Explain budding in Hydra with the help of diagrams only.

7) How are the modes for reproduction different in unicellular and multi-cellular organisms?

8) What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?

9) (a)State the significance of human testes being located in the scrotum.

(b) What will happen to ovary and ovule after fertilization in angiosperm plants?
10)(a) Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers.
(b)Which of the following plants produce unisexual flowers: Watermelon, Hibiscus,
Mustard, Papaya.

Answer key-

1) a) Barrier method – In this method, a device used to prevent the entry of sperms in the
female genital tract example – Condom, Diaphragm, Cervical caps.
b) Chemical method – In this method certain drugs (containing hormones) are used by the
females. These drugs are available in the form of pills. There are two kinds of pills
commonly used for preventing pregnancies – oral pills and vaginal pills or creams.
c) Intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCD’S) – IUCD like copper – T is placed in the
uterus – IUCD prevent implantation of the fertilized ovum inside the uterus.

2) (a)

It is an asexual mode of reproduction. The parent plant (Rhizopus) produces hundreds of

microscopic reproductive units called ‘spore. When the spore case bursts, then spores spread into
air. When these air-borne spores land on soil, they germinate and produce new organisms.

(b)
 3) Amoeba reproduces by binary fission by
dividing its body into two parts. When the
Amoeba cell has reached its maximum size of
growth, then first the nucleus of Amoeba
lengthens and divides into two parts. After that
the cytoplasm of Amoeba divides to form two
smaller Amoeba (called daughter cells).
Diagrammatic representation of binary fission in
Amoeba is as diagram showing.

4) A → Anther. It produces pollen grains which are the male gametes.

B → Style. It provides the path through which the pollen tube grows and reaches the ovary.
C → Ovary. It contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell/female gamete. It develops into
fruit after fertilization.

5) (a)

(b) Male reproductive part- Stamen.

Female reproductive part- Carpel.

6) Budding in Hydra. Hydra reproduces by budding which is an asexual type of reproduction.

During this type of reproduction, a bulb like projection arises from the parent body which is known
as bud. This bud then grows gradually to form a small hydra. And finally, the tiny new hydra
detaches itself from the body of the parent hydra and lives as a separate organism. Thus, the
parent hydra produces a new hydra.

7) Unicellular its single cell division and in multicellular it is more complex and depends on
coordination.

8) The reasons for adopting contraceptive devices are as follow:

1. To control the birth rate and prevent the increase in population.

2. To reduce the adverse effects on mother’s body due to frequent pregnancy.
3. To provide safety from sexually transmitted diseases.

9) (a)Scrotum not only protects the testes but also acts as a thermo-regulator by changing position
of the testes. It keeps the temperature of testes 1 -3° C lower than that of the body temperature. A
lower temperature is essential for development of sperms.(b) Ovary — fruit, Ovule — seed

10)(a) Unisexual flowers are those flowers which possess only one type of reproductive organs,
either stamens or carpels. Bisexual flowers are those flowers which have both the types of
reproductive organs, i.e., stamens and carpels.
(b) Watermelon, Papaya.

Five marks questions-

1) (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual
reproduction.’
(b) (i) Name the part marked ‘A’ in the diagram.
(ii) How does ‘A’ reach part ‘B”
(iii) State the importance of part ‘C’.
(iv) What happens to the part marked ‘D’ after fertilization is over?
 2) Draw a diagram of the human female reproductive system and label the part
(i) that produces eggs.
(ii) where the fusion of egg and sperm takes place.
(iii) where zygote is implanted.
What happens to a human egg when it is not fertilized?
3) Draw a Sectional view of the Human male Reproductive System and write about its part:
Testes, scrotum, epididymis, prostate gland, penis and vas deferens.
4) Define the terms pollination and fertilization. Draw a diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube
growth into the ovule and label the following:
pollen grain, male gamete, female gamete, ovary.
5) (a) A woman is using a copper-T. Will it help in protecting her from sexually transmitted
diseases?
(b) State the mode of reproduction in Earthworm, Frog, Rhizopus and Plasmodium.
6) (a) What is fertilization? Distinguish between external fertilization and internal fertilization.
(b) What is the site of fertilization in human beings?
(c) Illustrate the Leaf of Bryophyllum with buds with the help of suitable diagram.
7) In the diagram of the human male reproductive system

(a) Label A and B

(b) Name the hormone produced by X. What is the role of this hormone in human male?
(c) Mention the name of substances that are transported by tubes C and D.
(d) Differentiate between Plumule and radicle.

(8) (a) Mention one function of cotyledon.

(b) How does the uterus prepare itself and nurture the growing embryo? What happens when
the egg is not fertilized?

(9) (a) Draw diagram of a germinating seed and label

(i)Part that gives rise to shoot system,
(ii)Part that gives rise to root system,
(iii)Part that contains stored food.
(b) Mention any one method that should be adopted both by male and female for safe sex.

10) (a)Write two glands found in male reproductive pathway and specify their roles.
(b)Mention changes that take place in males during puberty.
Answer key-
1) (a) The appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction is due
to the following reasons:
(i) Sexual reproduction takes place by the combination of two germ cells produced by two
different individuals by fusion of male and female gametes.

(b) (i) A ⇒ Pollen grains

(ii) B- stigma of the carpel by the process of pollination. Pollination is carried out by insects,
birds, wind, water, etc.
(iii) ‘C’ ⇒ Pollen tube, pollen tube grows downward through the style towards the female
gamete in the ovary.
Pollen tube helps the male gamete reach the female gamete.
(iii) ‘D’ ⇒ Fertilised egg or Zygote
The fertilized egg (or zygote) divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.
(iv)
2)

(i) the part that produces eggs – Ovary

(ii) where the fusion of egg and sperm takes place – Fallopian tube
(iii) where the zygote is implanted – Uterus
When a human egg is not fertilized then the thick and soft inner lining of the uterus is no
longer needed and hence it breaks down in the form of vaginal bleeding known as menstruation.
Unfertilized egg also passes out along with menstrual bleeding.

3)

It consists of Testis, scrotum, epididymis, Vas deferens or sperm duct, seminal vesicles,
prostate gland, penis.
 1. Testes: They are oval-shaped organs, lie in the abdominal cavity. There are 2 testes in
males, make male sex cells called sperm and male sex hormone called testosterone.

2. Scrotum: Testes lie in a small muscular pouch outside the abdominal cavity because sperm
formation requires a lower temperature than the temperature inside the body.

3. Epididymis: The sperms formed in testes come out and go into a coiled tube called the
epididymis.

4. Vas Deferens: From epididymis sperms are carried by a long tube that joins another tube
called the urethra coming from the bladder.

5. The glands seminal vesicles and prostate gland add their secretion to sperms so that sperms
become liquid. Semen contains liquid and sperm.

6. Penis: It passes the sperm from the man’s body into the vagina of the female’s body during
mating.

4) Pollination: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma
of a carpel. Pollination occurs only in plants. Pollination can occur in two ways:

1. Self-pollination
2. Cross pollination.
It is a physical process.

Fertilization: The fusion of a male gamete with a female gamete to form zygote is called
fertilization. Fertilization occurs in plants as well as in animals. Fertilization is also of two types:
(a) external fertilization and
(b) internal fertilization. It is a biochemical process.

5)(a) Copper-T is a contraceptive method which prevents implantation of the zygote inside the
uterus. It cannot prevent a woman from sexually transmitted diseases. These diseases are
transmitted by contact which cannot be prevented by copper-T.
(b) Earthworm—sexual, also asexual.
Frog — sexual.
Rhizopus —spore formation, also sexual.
Plasmodium — multiple fission, also sexual.
Diagram:

6)(a)
External Fertilization Internal Fertilization

1) Fertilization occurs outside the body

1) Fertilization occurs inside the body of the female.
of the female.

2) Only the male discharges the gametes and that also

2) Both the sexes discharge
in the reproductive tract of the female. The female
their gametes outside their body.
retains its gametes. Examples. Reptiles, Birds,
Examples. Fishes, Amphibians.
Mammals, Insects, Spiders.

(b) Site of Fertilization-Oviduct or fallopian tube.

(c) Leaf of Bryophyllum with Buds.

Buds occur in notches (or margin) of Bryophyllum leaf.

They do not sprout in the intact leaf. However, when
these buds fall down and come in contact with the soil,
the buds sprout and produce new plants.
7) (a) A —seminal vesicle, B — prostate gland.
(b) X— testosterone. Testosterone controls sperm
formation, expression of secondary characters and
functioning of accessory glands.
 (c) C— sperms, D — semen (including sperms) and urine.
(d) Plumule is the future shoot while radicle is the future root.
8)(a) Cotyledon: It stores food and supplies the same to embryo axis for its growth.
(b) For implantation purpose uterus undergoes
several changes like inner lining of uterus becomes
thick and richly supplied with blood vessels giving
rise to structure called as placenta, which supplies
nutrients from mother to the developing embryo in
uterus.
If the egg is not fertilized it lives for about one day.
Since the ovary releases one egg every month the
uterus also prepares itself every month to receive a
fertilized egg. Thus, its lining becomes thick and
spongy. This would be required for nourishing the embryo if fertilization has taken place. Now
however the lining is not needed any longer. So, the lining slowly breaks and comes out through
the vagina as blood and mucous. This cycle take place roughly every month and is known as
menstruation. It usually lasts for about 2-8 days.
9)
(a) 1) Plumule 2) Radicle 3) Cotyledon.
(b) Wearing of condoms (males) or contraceptive diaphragms (females) protect both males and
females from getting sexually transmitted diseases.

10)(a) Two Glands: A pair of seminal vesicles and prostate gland.

Seminal Vesicles: They secrete 60-70% of semen plasma that is alkaline and viscous having
fructose (for nourishing the sperms), fibrinogen, proteins etc. Sperms are also activated by
secretion of seminal vesicles.
Prostate Gland: It produces 20-30% of semen plasma. The secretion is alkaline and viscous. It
has clotting enzyme and chemical essential for sperm activity.
(b) (i)Hair will start to grow in the genital area. Boys will also have hair growth on their face,
under their arms, and on their legs.
(ii) As the puberty hormones increase, teens may have an increase in oily skin and sweating.
(iii) Broadening of chest and shoulders.
Case study-based questions-

Question 1: The male reproductive system consists of portions which produce the germ-cells and
other portions that deliver the germ-cells to the site of fertilization. Testes are located outside the
abdominal cavity in scrotum because sperm formation requires a lower temperature than normal
body temperature. It also has a role of secretion of male sex hormone which brings changes in
appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty. Vas deferens unites with a tube coming from
urinary bladder. Urethra is a common passage for sperms and urine. Prostate gland and seminal
vesicles add their secretions so that sperms are now in fluid.

(i) Name the sex hormone associated with males.

(a) Testosterone (b) Progesterone (c) Estrogen (d) None of these
(ii) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Sperms are present in a fluid
(b) Fluid provides nutrition to sperms
(c) Fluid makes easier transportation of sperms
(d) Fluid helps to bind the sperms together
(iii) Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because
(a) sperm formation requires higher temperature than body temperature
(b) sperm formation requires lower temperature than body temperature
(c) it is easier to transport sperms from the scrotum
(d) None of these
(iv) Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Sperms and urine has a common passage from urethra.
(b) Sperms have long tail that helps them to move forward.
(c) Sperms contain genetic material.
(d) Sperms formation requires 1–3°C higher temperature than normal body temperature.
(v) What is the nature of semen?
(a) slightly acidic (b) Neutral (c) Slightly basic (d) Strongly basic

Question-2) Chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell contain information for inheritance of features
from parents to next generation in the form of DNA (Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid) molecules. The
DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins. If the information is
changed, different proteins will be made. Different proteins will eventually lead to altered body
designs. Therefore, a basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy. Cells use
chemical reactions to build copies of their DNA.
1) What is the importance of variation?
Ans: Variation is important for the survival of species over time. Variation make the species
resistant to the changing environment and hence, it makes easy for their survival.
ii) Which mode of reproduction does not show much variation?
Ans: Generally, asexual reproduction show less variation which includes budding, fragmentation,
fission etc.
iii) What are the different modes of reproduction of single celled organism?
Ans: Fission, fragmentation, Budding and regeneration.
iv) What are the features of sexual reproduction?
Ans: It includes both the parents to produce offspring’s and DNA copy is a crucial part of it.
v) Which mode of reproduction is better and why?
Ans: Sexual reproduction is better than asexual reproduction as the chances of survival of the
species is higher in sexual reproduction.
 CHAPTER - 9
HEREDITY & EVOLUTION
 HEREDITY
Transmission of character/Traits from one generation to
another.

CONCEPT MAP/ MIND MAP

VARIATION TRAITS
Difference in the character/traits shown Trait and characteristics that are
by individuals of a species during reliably inherited to next generation.
reproduction.

INHERETED
ENVIRONMENTAL GENETIC AQUIRED TRAITS TRAITS
VARIATION VARIATION (Characters) Characteristics of the
organisms that are
inherited (caused due to

Genetic variation in population give Inheritance of traits (Mendalism)

rise to meiosis (Reproduction Studied by G J Mendel on pea plant. Sex
division for gamete formation) and Factors(genes) are the carriers of trait. Determination
sexual reproduction (fusion of 1.Monohybrid cross A mechanism by
gametes leading to variation in 2. Dihybrid cross which sex of new
offspring). born is
determined.
MONOHYBRID CROSS

DIHYBRID CROSS
VARIATION-
Several characteristics may differ between individuals belonging to the same species. These
differences are termed variation.
HEREDITY-
The mechanism of transmission of characters, resemblances as well as differences, from the
parental generation to the offspring, is called heredity.
MENDEL’S PRINCIPLES-
Gregor Johann Mandel, known as father of genetics, discovered that individual traits are inherited
as discrete factors which retain their physical identity in a hybrid. Later, these factors came to be
known as genes.
A gene is defined as a unit of heredity that may influence the outcome of an organism’s traits.
MENDEL’S EXPERIMENT
Mendel choose the Garden Pea, Pisum sativum, for his experiment since it had the following
advantages.
1. Well defined discrete characters
2. Bisexual flower
3. Easy hybridization
4. Easy to cultivate and relatively short life cycle
5. Predominant self-fertilization.
ALLELE –
Each gene may exist in alternative forms known as alleles.
Each parent(diploid) has two alleles for a trait- they may be :
1. HOMOZYGOUS – indicating they possess two identical alleles for a trait.
a) Homozygous dominant – genotype possess two dominant alleles for a trait (TT).
b) Homozygous recessive- genotypes possess two recessive alleles for a trait (tt).
2.HETEROZYGOUS- genotype possess one of each allele for a particular trait (Tt).
GENOTYPE & PHENOTYPE –
To distinguish physical appearance from the genetic constitution, two different terms are used in
genetics i.e genotype and phenotype.
Genotype – is defined as the genetic constitution of an individual for any particular character or
trait. The genotype of an individual is usually expressed by a symbol, exp- tt, TT, Tt etc.
Phenotype – is defined as physical appearance of an individual for any particular Trait. The
phenotype of an individual is dependent on its genetic constitution.
MENDEL’S LAW OF INHERETANCE –
On the basis of Hybridization experiment on Pisum sativum, Mendel proposed the principles of
inheritance known as Mendel’s Law.
1. Law of Dominance-
This law states that in a heterozygous condition, the allele whose characters are expressed over
the other allele is called the dominant allele and the characters of this dominant allele are called
dominant characters.
The characters that appear in the F1 generation are called as dominant characters. The recessive
characters appear in the F2 generation.
2. Law of Segregation –
On the basis of monohybrid cross Mendel formulated the Law of segregation.
This law states that each individual possesses two factors (later called genes) for a particular
character.
At the time of formation of gametes each member of the pair of genes separates from each other
so that each gamete carries one factor (gene) i.e. gametes are always pure (Law of purity of
gametes). Applicable only for diploid organisms that forms haploid gamete to reproduce sexually.
3. Law of Independent Assortment –
The law of independent assortment was deduced from Mendel’s experiment with dihybrid cross.
A cross involves the analysis of two independent traits is termed as dihybrid cross. That is each
pair of contrasting character behaves independently and bears no association with a particular
character. Because of such an independent assortment of characters, new combinations of
characters are produced in the offspring.
SEX DETERMINATION –
1. The mechanism of determining the sex of an individual is known as sex determination.
2. In some organisms, environmental factors such as temperature determine the sex of the organism in
the egg.

3.Each human cell contains 23 pairs (46 numbers) of chromosomes, out of which 22 pairs are called
autosomes, which are similar in both males and females and are responsible for the various
characteristics of an individual. The last pair is that of the sex chromosomes that determine the sex of the
individual. Sex chromosomes in humans are of two types X and Y.

4.Females have two X chromosomes in their cells while males have one X and one Y in their cells.
5.When the sperm containing the X chromosome fertilises the egg, then the zygote develops into a
female. When the sperm containing the Y chromosome fertilises the egg, then the zygote develops into a
male.
All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother, despite whether they are a boy or girl.
Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by the type of chromosome inherited from
their father. A child who inherits Y chromosome will be a boy and who inherits X chromosome will
be a girl.
 QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
1. Independent inheritance of two separate traits, shape and colour of seeds in Mendel’s cross on
pea plants resulted in a observable ratio of:
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 9 : 4 : 2 : 1
2. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. The
nature of the cross will be
(a) double fertilisation (b) self-pollination (c) cross fertilisation (d) no fertilisation
3. If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant (rr
YY), the seeds produced in F1 generation are
(a) round and yellow (b) round and green (c) wrinkled and green (d) wrinkled and yellow
4. In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired
chromosome is/are
(i) large chromosome
(ii) small chromosome
(iii) Y-chromosome
(iv) X-chromosome
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) only (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
5. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
(a) boy (b) girl (c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child (d) either boy or girl
6. Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY)
seeds produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the
F2 progeny will have new combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the
following:
(i) Round, yellow
(ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow
(iv) Wrinkled, green
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
7. A trait in an organism is influenced by
(a) paternal DNA only (b) maternal DNA only
(c) both maternal and paternal DNA (d) neither by paternal nor by maternal DNA
8. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to
short plants in F2 is
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
9.A cross between a tall pea-plant (TT) and a short pea-plant (tt) resulted in progenies that were
all tall plants because
(a) tallness is the recessive trait. (b) shortness is the dominant trait.
(c) height of pea-plant is not governed by gene T or t. (d) tallness is the dominant trait.

10. The number of pairs of sex chromosomes in the zygote of a human being is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4

11. What does the progeny of a tall plant with round seeds and a short plant with wrinkled seeds
look like?
(a) All are tall with round seeds. (b) All are short with round seeds.
(c) All are tall with wrinkled seeds. (d) All are short with wrinkled seeds.

12. Which of the following decides the sex of the child?

(a) male gamete, i.e., sperm (b) female gamete, i.e., ovum
(c) both sperm and ovum (d) mother
13. Pure-bred pea plant A is crossed with purebred pea plant B. It is found that the plants which
look like A do not appear in F1 generations but re-emerge in F2 generation. Which of the plants A
and B are tall and dwarf?
(a) A are tall and B are dwarf.
(b) A are tall and B are also tall.
(c) A are dwarf and B are also dwarf
(d) A are dwarf and B are tall

14. A cross between two individuals results in a ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 :1 for four possible phenotypes of
progeny. This is an example of a
(a) Monohybrid cross (b) Dihybrid cross (c) Test cross (d) F1 generation
15. Which of the following is a totally impossible outcome of Mendel’s Experiment (cross breeding
pure bred tall and short pea plants)
(a) 3 tall 1 short plant (b)24 tall and 8 short plants
(c) 8 tall and 0 short plants (d) 4 tall plants and 1 medium-height plant.

16. Which of the following is controlled by genes? (i) Weight of a person (ii) Height of a person
(a)only 1 (i) (b)only (ii) (c)both (i) and (ii) (d)Sometimes (i) and sometimes (ii)
17. Amongst which of the following animals, sex of the off springs not genetically determined?
(a)Humans (b) Snails (c) Birds (d) Dogs
18. What is the probability that a human progeny will be a boy?
(a) 50% (b) 56% (c) 47.34% (d) It varies
19. Which of the following can be called a characteristic?
(a)Plants can photosynthesise (b) We have 2 eyes (c) Mango tree is multicellular
(d) All of these
20. A breeder crossed a pure-bred tall plant having white flowers to a pure bred short plant having
blue flowers. He obtained 202 F1 progeny and found that they are all tall having white flowers.
Upon selfing these F1 plants, he obtained a progeny of 2160 plants. Approximately, how many of
these are likely to be short and having blue flowers?
(a) 1215 (b) 405 (c) 540 (d) 135

ASSERATION- REASON
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion(A): A geneticist crossed two pea plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf in the
progeny.
Reason (R) : One plant was heterozygous tall and the other was dwarf.

2. Assertion(A): Mendel selected the pea plant for his experiments.

Reason (R) : Pea plant is cross-pollinating and has unisexual flowers.

3. Assertion(A): The sex of a child is determined by the mother.

Reason (R) : Humans have two types of sex chromosomes: XX and XY.

4. Assertion : Traits like tallness and dwarfness in pea plant are inherited independently.
Reason: When a homozygous tall pea plant is crossed with dwarf pea plant, medium sized pea
plant is obtained in F, generation.

5. Assertion : Pea plant is considered ideal for hybridisation experiments.

Reason: Pea is self pollinating plant with short life cycle and bears visible contrasting traits.

6. Assertion : Monohybrid cross deals with inheritance of one pair of contrasting characters.
Reason: Dihybrid cross deals with inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters.

7. Assertion : When pea plants (pure line) having round yellow seeds are crossed with pure line
plants having wrinkled green seeds, then all pea plants obtained in F, generation bear wrinkled
green seeds.
Reason: Round and yellow seeds are dominant to wrinkled and green seeds.

8. Assertion : In humans, male (or father) is responsible for sex of the baby which is born.
Reason: Y chromosomes are present in only male gametes or sperms.
9. Assertion : In human males all the chromosomes are perfectly paired except X and Y
chromosomes.
Reason: X and Y are sex chromosomes.
10. Assertion : Genes present in every cell of an organism control the traits of the organisms.
Reason: Gene is specific segment of DNA occupying specific position on a chromosome.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Name the plant on which Mendel performed his experiments.
2. What is a sex chromosome?
3. All the variations in a species do not have equal chances of survival. Why?
4. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants
bearing white flowers. What will be the result in F1 progeny?
5. Name the information source for making proteins in the cells.
6.write phenotypic and genotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross.
7. Write plant trait combination appear in ratio 9:3:3:1 in cross of Round/Green & Wrinkled/Yellow.
8. What is F2 phenotypic & genotypic ratio mean?
9.What is Dihybrid?
10. Write the sex of the baby that inherits Y-chromosome from the father.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is F1 and F2 generation in genetics?
2. The father is responsible for the sex of a child, not the mother.” Justify this statement.
3. Define genetics. What is the contribution of Mandel in this branch of biology?
4.Where are the genes located? What is the chemical nature of genes?
5. What parents genetically to their progeny?
6. By carrying out experiments with two different traits in a pea plants, what will Mendel conclude
regarding the inheritance?
7. The genotype of green stemmed tomato plants is denoting as GG and that of purple-stemmed
tomato plant as gg. When these two are crossed: (i) What colour of stem would you expect in their
F1 progeny. (ii) Give the percentage of purple stemmed plant if F₁ plant are self-pollinated. (iii) In
what ratio would you find the genotype GG and Gg in the F₂ progeny?

8.A cross was carried out between a pure breed tall pea plant and a pure breed dwarf pea plant
and F1 progeny was obtained. Later the F1 progeny was served to obtained F2 Progeny. Answer
the followings questions: (a) What is the phenotype of the F₁ progeny and why? (b) Give the
phenotypic ratio of the F₂ progeny. (c) Why is the F₂ progeny different from the F₁ progeny?

9. Differentiate between Dominant and Recessive Traits.

10. (i) State the observation of Mendel on self-pollination of first generation plants.
(ii) Which is a small section of DNA that is the genetic code for a characteristic?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Explain dihybrid cross using punette square.
2. Why Mendel choose Pea plant for his experiments on genetics? write 4 different pair of
contrasting character found in pea plant.
3. Explain sex- determination in human beings. Differentiate between sex-chromosomes and
Autosomes found in cell.
4. (i) Differentiate between Homozygous and Heterozygous allele.
(ii) Why dwarf character not expressed in F1 generation of Monohybrid cross?
(iii) What does genotypic and phenotypic ratio signify in a cross?
5. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant eye colour in child (hint: black eye ball colour
is dominant over brown eye ball colour).
6. (i) Will all organisms from a cross between two homozygous dominant organisms would have
the same phenotype?
(ii) What proportion of offspring from BB v Bb would be BB?
(iii) What proportion of offspring from Cc v Cc would be cc?
(iv) What proportion of offspring from tt v Tt would be tt?
(v) What proportion of offspring from two homozygous recessive organisms would be homozygous
recessive?
7.A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is cross-bred with that of white colour flower plant
denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are
self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype’s BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.
8. Give the basic features of the mechanism of inheritance.
9.(i) In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the F1 had all
purple flowers. When F1 generation was self-bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100 individuals,
75 of which had purple flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(a) What are the genotypes of F2 individual?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?
(ii) Do genetic combination of mother’s play a significant role in determining the sex of a new
born?
10. (a) In human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or female child is 50: 50.
Give a suitable explanation.
(b) State Mandel’s (a) Law of segregation (b) Law of independent assortment.

CASE-STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. Ashima saw a female being blamed by the family members for producing a girl child. She
approached them and told that the genetic basis of sex determination of human beings clearly
indicates that only the female should not be blamed for producing a girl child. The family members
agreed to her argument and felt sorry for their act.

Based on the above answer the following questions:

(а) What is the basis of sex determination in human beings?

(b) What are the chances of the birth of a boy or a girl during sexual reproduction in human
beings?
(c) What values were shown by Ashima in dealing with the situation?
(d) Who determines the basically sex of child?
(i) Mother (ii) Father (iii) Both (iv) No one
(e) Write the pair of sex chromosome present in girl and boy child.
2. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions from Inheritance is the
acquiring of genetic characteristics or traits from parents by their offspring. In humans, both
parents equally contribute to the inheritance of traits. In 1860, Gregor Mendel studied the rules of
inheritance of traits. He conducted an experiment on pea plants for the same. He cultivated pea
plants and observed their pattern of inheritance from one generation to the next generation. This
observation resulted in the discovery of three laws of inheritance, famously known as Mendel’s
laws of Inheritance.
1. is transmission of character from one generation to next generation.
(a) Evolution
(b) Speciation
(c) Heredity
(d) Natural selection

2. VV, Vv and vv are , while violet and white are .

(a) genotypes, phenotypes
(b) phenotypes, genotypes
(c) genotypes, genotypes
(d) phenotypes, phenotypes

3. Which one of the following traits is most likely to pass from one generation to other?
(a) Artificial hair coloured by a mother during pregnancy.
(b) Acquired skills by a father.
(c) Brown eye colour.
(d) Six fingers in right hand of a person.

4. Mendel choose pea plant for study-

(a) having contrasting trait
(b) short life span
(c) easy to cultivate
(d) All of the above

5. is the observable set of characteristics of an organism.

(a) Phenotype (b) Genes (c) DNA (d) All of these

3. A monohybrid cross is a breeding experiment involving two organisms in the parent generation
with homozygous genotypes. The parents have entirely dominant or completely recessive alleles
of a gene, forming opposite phenotypes for a particular genetic trait. Traits are characteristics
determined by discrete DNA segments called genes. Each individual inherits two alleles of a
particular gene. A monohybrid cross also signifies a genetic mix between the two individuals
having heterozygous genotypes. It is represented using a Punnett square.
Answer the following questions using above para –
1. How many Traits are involved in Monohybrid cross?
2. What is Punnett Square?
(a) It is a square shaped box used for mathematical calculation
(b) The square represents parents’ generation in monohybrid cross
(c) Punnett Square used to calculate no. of offspring’s in F1 generation.
(d) A Punnett square is a matrix where all possible gametes produced by one parent are
listed along one axis

3. Phenotypic ratio signifies –

 (i) total no. of plants obtained in F1 generation
(ii) Total no. of plants in F2 generation
(iii) Genetic makeup of individual parent plant
(iv) Phenotype refers to an individual’s observable traits in both F1 & F2 generation.

4. The tendency of an offspring to resemble its parent is known as

(a) Variation
(b) Heredity
(c) Resemblance
(d) Inheritance
5. The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is
(a) 1:2:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 2:1:1
(d) 9:3:3:1
4.

1. Which section of DNA provides information for one protein?

(a) Nucleus (b) Chromosome (c)Trait (d) Gene
2. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
(a) One person has a scar but his friend doesn’t
(b) One person is older than the other
(c) Reeta eats meat but her sister Geeta is a vegetarian
(d) Two children have different eye color
3. Humans have two different sex chromosomes, X and Y. Based on Mendel’s laws, a male
offspring will inherit which combination of chromosomes?
(a) both the X chromosomes from one of its parents
(b) both the Y chromosomes from one of its parents
(c) combination of X chromosomes from either of its parents
(d) combination of X and Y chromosome from either of its parents
4. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a:
(a) boy (b) girl
(c) X-Chromosome does not determine the sex of achild (d) either boy or girl

5. Mendel conducted his famous breeding experiments by working on:-

(a) Drosophila
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Pisum Sativum
(d) All of these

5. Answer the following question with reference to above image-

1. From the above image which pair of allele shows dominant nature-

(a) AA

(b) aa

(c) Aa

(d) AA and Aa

2. The character that is expressed in F1 is called –

(a) Recessive character

(b) Dominant character
(c) Co-dominance
(d) None of these
3. identify heterozygous allele from above image –
(a) AA

(b) aa

(c) Aa

(d) AA and Aa

4. The allele that is masked by the dominant allele (the one that is not expressed) is recessive-
(a) A (b) a (c) AA (d) Aa
5. What do you understand by law of dominance of inheritance.
 CHAPTER -10
LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

CONTENTS
❖ Reflection of light by curved surfaces; Images formed by spherical mirrors,
centre of curvature, principal axis, principal focus, focal length, mirror
formula (Derivation not required), magnification.
❖ Refraction; Laws of refraction, refractive index.
❖ Refraction of light by spherical lens; Image formed by spherical lenses; Lens
formula (Derivation not required); Magnification. Power of a lens.

Reflection
1. Reflection of Light: The phenomenon of bouncing back of light into the same
medium by the smooth surface is called reflection.
a. Incident light: Light which falls on the surface is called incident light.
b. Reflected light: Light which goes back after reflection is called reflected
light.
c. The angle of incidence: The angle between the incident ray and the
normal.
d. An angle of reflection: The angle between the reflected ray and the
normal.

2. Laws of reflection: There are two laws of reflection:

a. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence,
all lie in the same plane.
b. Angle of incidence is always equal to the angle if reflection i.e. ∠i = ∠r
3. Image: If light rays coming from a point after reflection meet at another point or
appear to meet at another point, then second point is called image of the first point.
There are two types of image, i.e.-
a. Real image: When the rays of light, after reflection from a mirror, actually
meet at a point, then the image formed by these rays is said to be real. Real
images can be obtained on a screen.
b. Virtual image: When the rays of light, after reflection from a mirror, appear
to meet at a point, then the image formed by these rays is said to be virtual.
Virtual images can’t be obtained on a screen.
 4. Mirror: The surface which can reflect the light is a mirror.
5. Plane Mirror: If the reflecting surface is a plane then the mirror is plane.
6. Spherical Mirror: If the reflecting surface is part of the hollow sphere then the
mirror is a spherical mirror. The spherical mirror is of two types:

a. Convex mirror: In this mirror reflecting surface is convex. It diverges the light so it is also
called a diverging mirror.
b. Concave mirror: In this mirror reflecting surface is concave. It converges the light so it is
also called converging mirror.

Some definitions related to Spherical Mirror:

i. Pole (Vertex): The central point of a mirror is called its pole.
ii. Centre of curvature: The centre of the sphere of which the mirror is a part is called the
centre of curvature. It is denoted by C.
iii. Radius of curvature: The radius of the sphere of which the mirror is a part is called the
radius of curvature. It is denoted by R.
iv. Principal axis: The straight line passing through the pole and the centre of curvature of the
mirror is called the principal axis.
v. Principal focus: It is a point on the principal axis at which the rays parallel to the principal
axis meet after reflection or seem to come from. For a concave mirror, the focus lies in front
of the mirror and for a convex mirror, it lies behind the mirror. In short, a concave mirror has
a real focus while a convex mirror has a virtual focus.
vi. Focal plane: A plane, drawn perpendicular to the principal axis and passing through the
principal focus.
 vii. Focal length: The distance between the pole and the focus is
called the focal length. It is represented by f. The focal length is half
the radius of curvature. F = R/2

viii. Reflection by Spherical mirror: A ray of light which is parallel to

the principal axis of a spherical mirror, after reflection converges or
diverges from focus.
• A ray of light passing through or appearing from the centre of curvature of spherical mirror is
reflected back along the same path.
• A ray of light passing through or appearing from the focus of spherical mirror becomes parallel to
the principal axis.
• A ray of light which is incident at the pole of a spherical mirror is reflected back making same angle
with principal axis.
Sign Conventions of Spherical Mirror

• All the distances are measured from the pole of the mirror as the origin. ∙
Distances measured in the direction of incident rays are taken as positive.
• Distances measured opposite to the direction of incident rays are taken as
negative.
• Distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis are taken
as positive.
• Distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis are
taken as negative.

❖ Mirror formula: 1/f=1/v+1/u

Where f, v and u are focal length, image distance, and object distance

❖ Magnification by Spherical Mirror:

This is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
Magnification,
❖ m=hi/ho
Where m = magnification, hi = height of image, ho = height of object

REFRACTION:
Refraction of Light: The bending of light at the interface of two different mediums is called
refraction of light.
• If the velocity of light in medium is more, then medium is called optical rarer. Example, air
or vacuum is more optical rarer.
• If the velocity of light in medium is less, then medium is called optical denser. Example,
glass is denser than air.
 Laws of refraction: Snell’s Law of refraction

The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in
the same plane.

The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is a
constant. Sin i/sin r = n (constant)
This constant is called the index of refraction or refractive index.
Refractive Index: If c is the speed of light in air and v is the speed of light in medium, then the
refractive index of the medium is-

Refractive index of medium with respect to air or vacuum is called Absolute Refractive Index.

Refraction through a Rectangular Glass Slab:

When light ray enters into a glass slab, then the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray. This
perpendicular distance between the emergent ray and incident ray when the light passes out of a
glass slab is called lateral displacement.

i = angle of incidence, r = angle of refraction and e = angle of emergence

Angle of incidence = Angle of emergence, i.e. ∠i = ∠e

Lens: The transparent refracting medium bounded by two surfaces in which at least one
surface is curved is called lens. Lenses are mainly two types: Convex lens and Concave
lens.

SPHERICAL LENS
A spherical lens is a transparent material bounded by two surfaces one or both of which
are spherical. Spherical lenses are of two main types. They are convex and concave
lenses.

1. Convex lens: - It is thicker in the middle and thinner at the edges. Rays of
light parallel to the principal axis after refraction through a convex lens meet at
a point (converge) on the principal axis.
2. Concave lens: - It is thinner in the middle and thicker at the edges. Rays of
light parallel to the principal axis after refraction get diverged and appear to
diverge from a point on the principal axis on the same side of the lens.
Important Terms Related to Spherical Lenses
1. Optical Centre: The midpoint or the symmetric centre of a spherical lens
is known as its Optical Centre. It is represented by the letter O
2. Aperture: The diameter of a circular lens is called its aperture of the lens.
3. Principal Axis: The line passing through the optical centre and the centre
of curvature.
4. Centre of curvature (C): The centres of the spheres that the spherical
lens was a part of. A spherical lens has two centres of curvatures.
5. Focus (F): It is the point on the axis of a lens to which parallel rays of light
converge or from which they appear to diverge after refraction.
6. Focal length: Distance between optical centre and focus.

Rules to Draw Ray Diagram

1. A ray of light parallel to principal axis passes/appears to pass through the
focus.
2. A light ray passing through the focus after refraction passes parallel to the
principal axis.
3. A ray passing through the optical centre undergoes zero deviation.
4.
Image Formation in Convex Lens
Nature of Image Formed by a Convex Lens
 Image Formed by a Concave Lens

Sign Conversion of Lens

Lens Formula
The lens formula is given below. The Lens formula can be used to calculate the distance between
the image and the lens. The image and the lens.

V = distance of the image from the lens.

U=distance of an object from the lens.
F=focal length.
The lens formula applies to all situations. If the equation results in negative image distance,
then the image is virtual. If the equation shows a negative focal length then the lens is a
diverging lens.
 Question Bank

Multiple Choice Questions – (1 Mark each)

1. Identify the mirror used by a dentist to examine a small cavity in a patient’s teeth?
a) Convex mirror
b) Plane Mirror
c) Concave Mirror
d) Any spherical mirror
2. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on the
other side B as shown in the figure below:

Which of the following could be inside the box?

a) Concave lens
b) Rectangular glass slab
c) Prism
d) Convex lens
3. When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed
behind the mirror. This image is:
a) Real
b) Inverted
c) virtual and inverted
d) virtual and erect
4. Rays from sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an
object be placed so that size of its image is equal to that of the object?
a) 30 cm in front of a mirror
 b) 15 cm in front of a mirror
c) Between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of a mirror
d) More than 30 cm in front of a mirror
5. Magnification produced by a rear-view mirror fitted in vehicles:
a) is less than one
b) is more than one
c) is equal to one
d) can be more than one or less than one depending upon the position of the object in
front of it.
6. You are provided four convex lens of focal length 10 cm, 20 cm.30 cm and 40 cm. which
out of these four lenses will converge light the most and the least? Select the row
containing the correct answer and reason:
Convex lens that will Convex lens that will Reason
converge the light most converge the light least
a) f = 10 cm f = 40 cm A convex lens of shorter focal length
bends the light rays through large
angles
b) f = 40 cm f = 20 cm A convex lens of larger focal length
bends the light rays through large
angles
c) f = 40 cm f = 30 cm Converging power is same for all
convex lens
d) f = 10 cm f = 20 cm A convex lens of shorter focal length
bends the light rays through smaller
angles

7. A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He
noted down the position of the candle, screen and the lens as under:
Position of candle- 26 cm
Position of convex lens- 50 cm
Position of screen- 90 cm
Select the row containing the correct values as per sign convention:
Object distance(u) cm Image Distance (v) cm Focal length(f)
a) - 26 cm - 50 cm + 30 cm
b) - 26 cm - 40 cm - 15 cm
c) - 24 cm - 40 cm + 15 cm
d) - 24 cm + 40 cm + 15 cm

8. The distance between the optical center and point of convergence is called focal
length in which of the following cases?

9. Select the correct statement from given below regarding refraction of light when light is
incident from a medium A having refractive index 1.85 on a glass slab having refractive
index 1.50.
I. Light will bend towards the normal in the glass slab.
II. Emergent ray will be parallel to the refracted ray.
III. Speed of light will be more in glass slab as compared to the medium A.
IV. Angle of refraction will be more than angle of incidence.
a) Both I and II
b) Both II and III
c) Both II and IV
d) Both III and IV
10. If the real image of a candle flame formed by a lens is three times the size of the flame and
the distance between lens and image is 80 cm, at what distance should the candle be
placed from the lens?
a) – 80 cm
 b) – 40 cm
c) – 40/3 cm
d) – 80/3 cm
11. A converging lens forms a three times magnified image of an object, which can be taken
on a screen. If the focal length of the lens is 30 cm, then distance of the object from the
lens is:
a) – 55 cm
b) -50 cm
c) – 45 cm
d) -40 cm
12. While looking at the diagram Nalini concluded the following:
i. The image of the object will be a virtual one.
ii. The reflected ray will travel along the same path as the incident ray but in opposite
direction.
iii. The image of the object will be inverted.
iv. This is a concave mirror and hence the focal length will be negative.
Which one of the above statements are correct?

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (i) and (iii)
c) (ii),(iii) and (iv)
d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
13. The refractive index of flint glass is 1.65 and that for alcohol is 1.36 with respect to air.
What is the refractive index of the flint glass with respect to alcohol?
a) 0.82
b) 1.21
c) 1.11
d) 1.01
14. The lens has focal length of 10 cm. The object of 2 mm is placed at a distance of 5 cm from
the pole.

Find the height of the image.

a) 4 cm
b) 6.67 cm
c) 4 mm
d) 3.33 mm
15. Below figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. Refractive
index of the medium B relative to medium A is :

a) √3/√2
b) √2/√3
 c) 1/√2
d) √2
16. The refractive index of medium A is 1.5 and that of medium B is 1.33. If the speed of light
in air is 3 X 108 m/s, what is speed of light in medium A and B respectively?
a) 2 X 108 m/s and 1.33 X 108 m/s
b) 1.33 X 108 m/s and 2 X 108 m/s
c) 2.25 X 108 m/s and 2 X 108 m/s
d) 2 X 108 m/s and 2.25 X 108 m/s
17. A negative sign in the magnification value indicates that the image is
a) Real and inverted
b) Real and erect
c) Virtual and erect
d) Virtual and inverted
18. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab
traced by four students are shown as A, B, C and D in figure. Which one of them is
correct?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
19. Parag along with his friends were experimenting with a concave mirror. They tried to
focus the sun’s rays at a piece of paper and observed that paper started to burn after
some time.
 Rays from the sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an
object be placed so that the size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
a) 15 cm in front of the mirror
b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
c) Between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror
d) More than 30 cm in front of the mirror
20. Magnifying power of a concave lens is

a) always < 1

b) always > 1

c) always = 1

d) can have any value

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion(A) is followed by a statement of
Reason(R). Mark the correct choice as:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion( A) : The word AMBULANCE on the hospital vans is written in the form of its mirror
image in inverted form.
Reason(R): The image formed in a plane mirror is same size of the object.
2. Assertion(A): Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason( R ) : Glass is denser than air.
3. Assertion(A): A convex lens has real focus.
Reason( R ) : All light rays pass through the focus of a convex lens after refraction.
4. Assertion(A): A ray of light passing through the center of curvature of a concave mirror is
reflected back along the same path.
Reason( R ) : The incident ray, reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence lie on the
same plane.
5. Assertion(A): Power of a concave lens is negative.
Reason( R ) : A concave lens has a virtual focus.
6. Assertion(A): If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens, the lens must be concave.
Reason( R ) : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
7. Assertion(A): Refractive index of glass with respect to air is different for red light and violet
light.
Reason( R ) : Refractive index of a pair of media depends on the wave length of the light
used.
8. Assertion(A): Refractive index has no units.
Reason( R ) : The refractive index is a ration of two similar quantities.
9. Assertion(A): The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly real if the object is virtual.
Reason( R ) : The image formed by a concave mirror may be real or virtual depending on the
position of the object.
10. Assertion(A): when a concave mirror is held under water, its focal length will increase.
Reason( R ) : The focal length of a concave mirror is independent of the medium in which it is
placed.

SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS ( 2 MARKS EACH)

1. Draw and explain the ray diagram formed by a convex mirror when:
a) object is at infinity.
b) object is at finite distance from the mirror.
2. Differentiate between concave lens and convex lens.
a) Name two mirrors used in the beauty shop.
b) Name the mirror in which the size of image is small.
3. Name two types of spherical mirror.
4. Give uses of concave mirror.
5. Give uses of convex mirror.
6. Write the two types of refractive index?
7. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
8. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.
a) Headlights of a car.
b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle.
c) Solar furnace.
9. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this mean?
10. Find the focal length of a lens of power –2.0 D. What type of lens is this?

SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS ( 3 MARKS EACH)

1. Define power of lens. What is the S. I. unit of power of a lens? If power of lens is
+2D,what is the nature and focal length of the lens?
2. If the speed of light in water is 2.25 × 108 m/s and the speed in vacuum is 3×108m/s.
Calculate the refractive index of water.
3. The refractive index of water is 1.33 and kerosene is 1.44. Calculate the
refractive index of kerosene with respect to water.
4. Draw ray diagrams to show the image formed by a concave lens for the object placed at
(i) infinity (ii) Between f and 2f of the lens.

5. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of light when it travels through glass slab.
6. With the help of suitable ray diagram differentiate between a converging lens and a
diverging lens.
7. An object of 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 64 cm from a white screen on placing
a convex lens at a distance of 32 cm from the object it is found that a distant image of
the object is formed on the screen. What is the focal length of the convex lens and size
of the image formed on the screen? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the
image in this position of the object with respect to the lens.
8. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. At what distance from the lens should the
object be placed so that it gives a real and inverted image 20 cm away from the lens?
What would be the size of the image formed if the object is 2 cm high? With the help
of a ray diagram show the formation of the image by the lens in this case.
 9. List four precautions which a student should observe while determining the focal
length of a given convex lens by obtaining image of a distant object on a screen.

10. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term “Absolute refractive index. of a medium”.
Write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.

LONG ANSWERS QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS EACH)

1. A convex lens has a focal length of 12 cm. At what distance from the lens should an object
of height 6 cm be placed so that on the other side of the lens its real and inverted image is
formed 24 cm away from the lens? What would be the size of the image formed? Draw a
ray diagram to show the image formed in this case.
2. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image distance (v) with object
distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing
any calculations:
S. No Object distance(u) Image distance(v)
1 -100 +25
2 -60 +30
3 -40 +40
4 -30 +60
5 -25 +100
6 -15 +120
a) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason to justify you answer.
b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you
arrived at this conclusion.
c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No 2. Also find
the approximate value of magnification.
3. (a) Two lens have power of +2 D and - 4 D. What is the nature and focal length of each lens?
(b) An object is kept at a distance of 100 cm for a lens of power – 4 D. Calculate image
distance.
4. a) Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object.
b) Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
c ) Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm
in front of it. Where is the image located?
5 . An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
(a) Use lens formula to find the distance of the image from the lens.
(b) List four characteristics of the image (nature, position, size. erect/inverted) formed by the lens
in this case.
(c) Draw ray diagram to justify your answer of part (ii)
CASE BASED / DATA BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Following figure illustrates the ray diagram for the formation of image by a concave mirror.
The position of the object is beyond the center of curvature of the concave mirror.

(a) If the focal length of the concave mirror is 10 cm, the image formed will be .
(b) An image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, when the object is at .
(c) A negative sign in the magnification value indicates that the image is .
(d) If the size of the object in the given figure is 5 cm and the magnification produced is – 0.5,
the size of the image is cm.
2. A girl was playing with a thin beam of light from a laser torch by directing it from different
directions on a convex lens held vertically. She was surprised to see that in a particular
direction, the beam of light continues to move along the same direction after passing through
the lens.
(a) State the reason for her observation.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.
(c) What is concave and convex mirror?
OR
Explain the term focus and focal length of a spherical mirror?

3. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of the school laboratory by
using a mirror.
(a) Which type of mirror should he use and why?
(b) At what distance, in terms of focal length f of the mirror, should he place the candle to get
the magnified image on the wall?
 (c) To get the diminished image of the candle flame, where the object must be placed?
(d) If the image formed by this mirror is inverted and real ,then what will be its magnification?
4. One of the most common uses of convex mirror is the passenger side mirror on your car.
Convex mirrors are also often found in the hallway of various buildings, hospitals,etc.

(a) As the object is moved away from the focus of the convex mirror, what will be the effect on
the size of the image?
(b) What magnification is produced by convex mirror?
(c) Consider an object 7.0 cm in length which is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a
convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. What is the size and position of the image
formed?
5. Observe the picture give below and answer the questions:

(a) The apparent depth of fish in water is due to .

(b) Which of the following is/are not examples of the phenomena of refraction of light?
(i) Spectacles worn by people to correct their defect of vision
 (ii) Formation of rainbow
(iii) Solar furnaces
(iv) Satellite dishes
(c) Draw well labeled ray diagram to show refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab.

SOLUTIONS
MCQs
1. c
2. d
3. d
4. a
5. a
6. a
7. a
8. c
9. d
10. d
11. d
12. c
13. b
14. c
15. a
16. d
17. a
18. b
19. b
20. a
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. b
 2. d
3. c
4. b
5. a
6. d
7. a
8. a
9. b
10. d
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS(2marks)
1. Refer diagram from NCERT book
2. A concave and plane
3. Convex and concave
4. Beauty parlours, Shaving mirrors, Head lights
5. Rear view mirror
6. Absolute and relative refractive index
7. Gives smaller , virtual image and wider view of the object
8. a. Concave mirror
b. Convex mirror
c. Concave mirror
9. Size of image is equal to the size of the object
10. 50 cm, Concave lens

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS(3marks)

1. The reciprocal of focal length, 1 Dioptre is power of the lens having f of 1m, Convex
lens, 0.5
2 1.23
3. 0.92
4. Refer ray diagram table below
5. Refer diagram from NCERT book
6. Refer diagram from NCERT book
7. Since, object-screen distance is double of object-lens separation, the object is at a distance
of 2f from the lens and the image should be of the same size of the object.

So 2f=32⇒f=16 cm
 Height of image = Height of object =2 cm

8. Formula used:
1f=1v−1u1f=1v−1u

Complete answer:
From the given information we have the data as follows.
The focal length of the convex lens is,
f=+10cmf=+10cm

The image distance is,

v=+20cmv=+20cm

The height of the object,

O=2cmO=2cm
As the image distance is positive, thus, the image formed will be real and inverted.
Consider the formula that relates the focal length of the lens, image distance and object distance.
9. While placing the distant object, the object should be clearly visible.
The image on the screen should be sharp and well defined.
While measuring all the distances the scale should be kept parallel to the ground.
The meter should be properly placed between screen and centre of convex lens.
10. Laws of Refraction:
(1) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two media at the point
of incidence all lie in the same plane.
(2) For the light of a given color and for given pair of media, the ratio of the sine of the angle of
incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant. This is also known as Snell's Law.
Mathematically, it can be given as follows:
sin isin r=constant=AμB
Here, AμB is the relative refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A.
 LONG ANSWERS(5 Marks)

1. From the given information we have the data as follows.

The focal length of the convex lens is,
f=+10cmf=+10cm

The image distance is,

v=+20cmv=+20cm

The height of the object,

O=2cmO=2cm

As the image distance is positive, thus, the image formed will be real and inverted.
Consider the formula that relates the focal length of the lens, image distance and object distance.
1f=1v−1u1f=1v−1u

Where f is the focal length, v is the image distance and u is the object distance.
Substitute the values in the above equation.
110=120−1u⇒1u=120−110∴1u=120110=120−1u⇒1u=120−110∴1u=120

Therefore, the object distance is 20 cm.

The value of the object distance is twice that of the focal length of the convex lens. So, the object
is placed at 2F and the image also forms at 2F on the other side of the lens, as the image distance
equals the object distance. Thus, the height of the image will be 2 cm.
The formation of the image by drawing a ray diagram is given as follows.

∴∴
The distance from the lens at which the object is placed so that forms a real and inverted image
20 cm away from the lens is 20 cm. The size of the image formed if the object is 2 cm high is the
same as that of the size of the object.
3. f=P1

P1=+2D⟹f1=0.5m=50cm
 since f is positive, it is convex lens.

P2=−4D⟹f2=−0.25m=−25cm

since f is negative, it is concave lens.

b) (i) Since the object is placed at a distance greater than the focal length of the lens , so the
image formed is real and inverted.

(ii) u=100cm,f=40cm

Lens formula : v1−u1=f1

v1−−1001=401

v1=401−1001

v1=2005−2=2003

v=66.6cm

Image is formed 66.6cm behind the convex lens .

5. u = -60 cm

f = -30 cm

(i)

So, distance of image from lens = 20 cm

(ii) Nature Virtual

Erect / Inverted Erect

Position Image will be formed b/w and

Now,

Size Diminished

(iii)

1. CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1. a More than 10 cm
B . Between pole and focus
C Real and inverted
D. 2.5
2. A. Light ray pass through the center of curvature after reflection
B. Refer Book
C. Correct definition
.4. A. Image will be smaller
B. Smaller
C. 20 cm
 Chapter- 11
HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD

CONTENTS
❖ Functioning of a lens in human eye, defects of vision and their corrections,
applications of spherical mirrors and lenses.
❖ Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of light, scattering of light,
applications in daily life. (excluding colour of the sun at sunrise and sunset).

The Human Eye: It is a natural optical instrument which is used to see the objects by human
beings. It is like a camera which has a lens and screen system.

Structure of the Human Eye

The various parts of eye and their functions:

• Retina: It is a light sensitive screen inside the eye on which image is formed. It contains
rods and cones. Functions: Captures the light rays focused by the lensand sends
• Cornea: It is a thin membrane which covers the eye trail. It acts like a lens whichrefracts the
light entering the eye.
• Aqueous humour: It is fluid which fills the space between cornea and eye lens.
• Eye lens: It is a convex lens made of transparent and flexible jelly like material. Itscurvature
can be adjusted with the help of ciliary muscles.
• Pupil: It is a hole in the middle of iris through which light enters the eye. It appearsblack
because light falling on it goes into the eye and does not come back. Functions: Opens and
closes in order to regulate and control the amount of light.
• Ciliary muscles: These are the muscles which are attached to eye lens and canmodify the
shape of eye lens which leads to the variation in focal length.
• Iris: It controls the amount of light entering the eye by changing the size of thepupil.
Functions: Controls light level similar to the aperture of a camera.
• Optical nerve: These are the nerves which take the image to the brain in the form ofelectrical
signals.
How Pupil Works?
For Example, you would have observed that when you come out of the cinema hall after
watching the movie in the bright sunlight, your eyes get closed. And when you enter the hall
from the bright light, you won ‘t be able to see and after some time you would be able to see.
Here, the pupil of an eye provides a variable aperture, whose size is controlled by iris.
(a) When the light is bright: Iris contracts the pupil, so that less light enters the eye.
(b) When the light is dim: Iris expands the pupil, so that more light enters the eye.
Pupil opens completely when iris is relaxed.
Colour Blindness: A person having defective cone cells is not able to distinguish between the
different colours. This defect is known as Colour Blindness.

Defects of Vision:
Myopia (Short-sightedness): It is a kind of defect in the human eye due to which a person can
see nearby objects clearly but he cannot see the distant objects clearly. Myopia is due to
(i) excessive curvature of the cornea.
(ii) Elongation of eyeball.
Hypermetropia (Long-sightedness): It is a kind of defect in the human eye due to which, a
person can see distant objects properly but cannot see the nearby objects clearly. It happens due
to (i) decrease in the power of eye lens i.e., increase in focal length of eye lens.
(ii) Shortening of eyeball.
Presbyopia: It is a kind of defect in human eye which occurs due to ageing. It happens due to
the following reasons
(i) decrease in flexibility of eye lens.
(ii) Gradual weakening of ciliary muscles.
In this, a person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia.

Astigmatism: It is a kind of defect in human eye due to which a person cannot see (focus)
simultaneously horizontal and vertical lines both.

Cataract: Due to the membrane growth over eye lens, the eye lens becomes hazy or even
opaque. This leads to a decrease or loss of vision. This problem is called a cataract. It can be
corrected only by surgery.

2. Refraction of light through a prism: When a ray of light is incident on a rectangular glass
slab, after refracting through the slab, it gets displaced laterally. As a result, the emergent ray
comes out parallel to the incident ray. Unlike a rectangular slab, the side of a glass prism are
inclined at an angle called the angle of prism.

Prism: A prism is a transparent refracting medium bounded by two plane surfaces, inclined to
each other at a certain angle. It has one triangular base and three rectangular lateral surfaces.

Angle of Prism: Angle between two lateral faces is called angle of prism.

Angle of Deviation: The angle between the incident ray and emergent ray.
Reflection if light through a triangular glass prism

3. Dispersion of white light by a glass prism: The phenomenon of splitting of white light into
its seven constituent colours when it passes through a glass prism is called dispersion of white
light. The various colours seen are Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. The
sequence of colours is remembered as VIBGYOR. The band of seven colours is called the
spectrum.The different component colours of light bends at a different angle with respect to the
incident angle. The violet light bends the least while the red bends the most.

Dispersion of white light by a prism

For violet colour, wavelength is minimum and for red colour wavelength is maximum, i.e.
frequency for violet colour is maximum and for red colour frequency is minimum.

Composition of white light: White light consists of seven colours i.e., violet, indigo, blue,
green, yellow, orange and red.

Monochromatic light: Light consisting of single colour or wavelength is called monochromatic

light, example; sodium light.

Polychromatic light: Light consisting of more than two colours or wavelengths is called
polychromatic light, example; white light.
Recombination of white light: Newton found that when an inverted prism is placed in the path
of dispersed light then after passing through the prism, they recombine to form white light.

Rainbow: It is the spectrum of sunlight in nature. It is formed due to the dispersion of sunlight
by the tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere.

Formation of the rainbow: The water droplets act like small prism. They refract and disperse
the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of
the raindrop. Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colors reach the
observer‘s eye.

Conditions for the formation of rainbow are:

(i) The formation of rainbow involves a series of physical phenomena refraction,

dispersion and internal reflection
(ii) Rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the sun, i.e. sun is always
behind the observer.

Red color appears on top and violet at the bottom of rainbow.

A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of Sun.
At ‗A‘ – Refraction and dispersion take place.
At ‗B‘ – Internal reflection takes place.
At ‗C‘ – Refraction and dispersion take place.
Rainbow formation
4. Atmospheric Refraction: The refraction of light caused by the Earth‘s atmosphere (having
air layers of varying optical densities) is called Atmospheric Refraction.
Appearance of Star Position: It is due to atmospheric refraction of star light.
The temperature and density of different layer of atmosphere keeps varying. Hence, we have
different medium. Distant star act as point source of light. When the starlight enters the Earth‘s
atmosphere, it undergoes refraction continuously, due to changing refractive index i.e., from
Rarer to denser. It bends towards the normal.
Due to this, the apparent position of the star is different from actual position. The star appears
higher than its actual position.

Twinkling of Star: It is also due to the atmospheric refraction. Distant star act like a point
source oflight. As the beam of starlight keeps deviating from its path, the apparent position of
star keeps on changing because physical condition of earth‘s atmosphere is not stationary.
Hence, the amount of light enters our eyes fluctuate sometimes bright and sometime dim. This is
the ―Twinkling effect of star‖.

5. Scattering of light:According to Rayleigh‘ Law of Scattering, the amount of scattered light

𝖺 1/λ4 (λ = wavelength). Scattering of light decreases with increase in wavelength.

Colour of the sky: The sunlight that reaches the earth‘s atmosphere is scattered in all directions
by the gases and dust particles present in the atmosphere.
Sky appears blue; this is because the size of the particles in the atmosphere is smaller than the
wavelength of visible light, so they scatter the light of shorter wavelength (blue end of
spectrum). The blue colour is scattered more and hence the sky appears blue.

The danger signal or sign is made of red colour because red colour scatters the most when strikes
the small particle of fog and smoke because it has the maximum wavelength (visible spectrum).
Hence, from large distance also, we can see the red colour clearly.
At noon sun appears white: At noon, the sun is overhead and sunlight would
travel shorter distance relatively through the atmosphere. Hence, at noon, the sun
appears white as only little ofthe blue and violet colours are scattered.
 QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil is
(a) cornea
(b) ciliary muscles
(c) iris
(d) retina
Answer: c
Explanation:(c) Iris control the size of pupil

2. Having two eyes facilitates in

A : Increasing the field of view
B : Bringing three-dimensional view
C : Developing the concept of distance/ size
Then the correct option is/are
(a) A only
(b) A and B only
(c) B only
(d) A, B and C
Answer: d

3. The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens is called
(a) retina
(b) iris
(c) cornea
(d) pupil
Answer: d
Explanation:(d) The black opening between the aqueous humour and the eye lens
is called pupil.

4. Near and far points of a young person normal eye respectively are
(a) 0 and infinity
(b) 0 and 25 cm
(c) 25 cm and infinity
(d) 25 cm and 150 cm.
Answer: c
Explanation:(c) Near point = 25 cm while far point = infinity.

5. The defect of vision in which the person is able to see distant object distinctly
but cannot see nearby objects clearly is called
(a) Long-sightedness
(b) Far-sightedness
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) All above
Answer: d
Explanation:(d) Hypermetropia is also called long-sightedness or far-sightedness.

6. The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the
object at varying distances on the retina is called
(a) Power of observation of the eye
(b) Power of adjustment of the eye
(c) Power of accommodation of the eye
(d) Power of enabling of the eye
Answer: c
Explanation:(c) It is called power of accommodation of the eye.

7. Myopia and Hypermetropia can be corrected by

(a) Concave and Plano-convex lens
(b) Concave and convex lens
(c) Convex and concave lens
(d) Plano-concave lens for both defects.
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) Myopia is corrected by using of suitable power of concave lens
while Hypermetropia is corrected by convex lens.

8. Bi-focal lens are required to correct

(a) astigmatism
(b) coma
(c) myopia
(d) presbyopia
Answer: d
Explanation:(d) Bifocal lens are required to correct the presbyopia. Upper point of
bifocal lens consists of concave lens used for distant vision while lower point
consists of convex lens facilitate near vision

9. The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m and far point 3 m. The
power far corrective lens required for
(i) reading purpose and
(ii) seeing distant objects, respectively are:
(a) 0.5 D and +3D
(b) +2D and – 13 D
(c) – 2D and + 13D
(d) 0.5 D and-3.0 D
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) For reading purpose
10. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) real and inverted
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and erect
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) Eye lens is convex in nature. So, image formed by it on the retina
is real and inverted.

11. When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colors. This is
due to
(a) different refractive index for different wavelength of each color
(b) each color has same velocity in the prism.
(c) prism material have high density.
(d) Scattering of light
Answer: a
Explanation:(a) Dispersion takes place because refractive index of the material of
prism is different for different wavelength.

12. The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less than the hot layer
behaves as optically
(a) denser medium
(b) rarer medium
(c) inactive medium
(d) either denser or rarer medium
Answer: a
Explanation:(a) The cold air layer of the atmosphere acts as a optically denser
medium than hot air because the molecules are closely packed together.
13. Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation in air density is
called
(a) atmospheric reflection
(b) atmospheric dispersion
(c) atmospheric scattering
(d) atmospheric refraction
Answer: d
Explanation:(d) This phenomenon is called atmospheric refraction.

14. The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in
all direction is called of light.
(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) interference
(d) tyndall effect
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) The said phenomenon is called scattering of light.

15. One cannot see through the fog, because

(a) refractive index of the fog is very high
(b) light suffers total reflection at droplets
(c) fog absorbs light
(d) light is scattered by the droplets
Answer: d
Explanation:(d) Objects are not visible through the fog because droplets scatter
the light rays.

16.A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be
corrected by using a lens of power [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D
(d) – 0.2 D
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) Person cannot see distant objects clearly. So, he is suffering from
myopia. The defect is corrected by using concave lens of power
P = 1f=1−2m =-0.5

17.A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow

beam of white light is incident on the prism as shown in figure. In which of the
following cases, after dispersion, the third color from the top corresponds to the
color of the sky?
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) In figure (a) base BC of the prism is at the bottom, then violet
colour lies at the bottom but in figure (b), the base BC is at the top, then violet
would be at the top after dispersion, and third colour would be blue.

18. At noon the sun appears white as

(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most
(d) red colour is scattered the most
Answer: a
Explanation:(a) At noon, the sun is at top and the light rays coming from the sun
have to travel lens distance hence, all colours get scattered very less even blue
and violet.

19. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds.
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) Twinkling of star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight
caused by the gradual change in refractive index of different air layers at different
height, the apparent position of star keeps on changing.
20. The clear sky appears blue because
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere.
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the
atmosphere.
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights
by the atmosphere
Answer: c
Explanation:(c) Violet and blue colour have shorter wavelength. So, they scattered
more than lights of other colour by the molecules present in the atmosphere.

21. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These
can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(b) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(c) moves fastest in
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) Red colour has longer wavelength so least scattered by smoke or
fog

ASSERTION – REASON BASED QUESTIONS

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is true but R is false.
A is false but R is true.

21. Assertion: Blind spot is a small area of the retina which is insensitive to light
where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
Reason: There are no rods or cones present at the junction of optic nerve and
retina in the eye.
Answer: a
Explanation:(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.

22. Assertion: The near-point of a hypermetropic eye is more than 25 cm away.

Reason: Hypermetropia is corrected using spectacles containing concave lenses.
Answer: c
Explanation:(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
23. Assertion: Myopia is the defect of vision in which a person cannot see the
distant objects clearly.
Reason: This due to eye-ball being too short.
Answer: c
Explanation:(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

24. Assertion: Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in torches, vehicle head-
lights and in search lights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave
mirror, the image formed is real and inverted.
Answer: b
Explanation:(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion

25. Assertion: The light emerges from a parallel-sided glass slab in a direction
perpendicular with that in which enters the glass slab.
Reason: The perpendicular distance between the original path of incident ray and
emergent ray coming out of glass slab is called lateral displacement of the
emergent ray of light.
Answer: d
Explanation:(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

26. Assertion: When a pencil is partly immersed in water and held obliquely to the
surface, the pencil appears to bend at the water surface.
Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to the refraction of light when it
passes from water to air.
Answer: a
Explanation:(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.

27. Assertion: White light is dispersed into its seven-colour components by a

prism.
Reason: Different colours of light bend through different angles with respect to the
incident ray as they pass through a prism.
Answer(a)

28. Assertion: The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles

gives rise to Tyndall effect.
Reason: The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering
particles.
Answer(b)

28. Assertion: A normal human eye can clearly see all the objects beyond certain
minimum distance.
Reason: The human eye has capacity of adjusting the focal length of eye lens.
Answer(a)

29. Assertion: A rainbow is sometimes seen in the sky in rainy season only when
observer’s back is towards the Sun.
Reason: Internal reflection in the water droplets cause dispersion and the final
rays are in backward direction.
Answer(a)

30. Assertion: Myopia is the defect of the eye in which only nearer objects are
seen by the eye.
Reason: The eye ball is elongated.
Answer(a)

31. Assertion: Hypermetropia is the defect of the eye in which only farther objects
are seen.
Reason: Hypermetropia is corrected by using converging lens.
Answer(b)

32. Assertion: Danger signals are made of red colour.

Reason: Velocity of red light in air is maximum, so signals are visible even in dark.
Answer(c)

33. Assertion: The sky looks dark and black instead of blue in outer space.
Reason: No atmosphere containing air in the outer space to scatter sunlight.
Answer(a)

34. Assertion: The stars twinkle, while the planets do not.

Reason: The stars are much bigger in size than the planets.
Answer(b)

35. Assertion: The Sun appears flattened at sunrise and sunset.

Reason: The apparent flattering of the Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is due to
atmospheric refraction.
Answer(a)

36. Assertion: Blue colour of sky appears due to scattering of blue colour.
Reason: Blue light has longer wavelength.
Answer(c)
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
37.A person having a myopic eye used the concave lens of focal length
50cm. What is the power of the lens?
 Solution:
The formula for the power of lens is Power (P) = 1/f.
P = 1/50 = 0.02 dioptre.

38. Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Crystalline lens (iv) Ciliary muscles
Answer:
(i) Cornea : Entry and Refraction of light
(ii) Iris : Controlling the entry of light.
(iii) Crystalline lens : Refraction, focusing light and image formation on retina.
(iv) Ciliary muscles: Ciliary muscles hold the eye lens and helps in the adjustment
of its focal length.

39. Why do stars appear to twinkle?

Answer:
Stars appears to twinkle due to atmospheric refraction.

40. Define farthest point of an eye.

Answer:
Farthest point of an eye: The farthest point upto which the eye can see objects
clearly is called far point of the eye. It is infinity for normal eye.

41. Define power of accommodation.

Answer:
Power of accommodation: The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is
called accommodation.

42. Define Tyndall effect.

Answer:
Tyndall effect: The phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal particles gives
rise to Tyndall effect.
Tyndall effect can be observed when sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense
forest. Here tiny droplets in mist scatter light.

43. Define atmospheric refraction.

Answer:
Atmospheric refraction: If physical conditions of the refracting medium (air) are not
stationary, the apparent position of the object fluctuates.

44. Why do we see a rainbow in the sky only after rainfall?

Answer:
The rainbow in the sky appears only after rainfall because the suspended water
drops behave like prism, and refract, disperse and reflect the light rays internally.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
45. Write about power of accommodation of human eye. Explain why the image
distance in the eye does not change when we change the distance of an object
from the eye?
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called power of
accommodation.
The ciliary muscles modifies the curvature to some extent. The change in the
curvature of the eye lens can thus change its focal length. Thus, the focal length of
the human lens increases or decreases depending on the distance of the object
value to this distance of the image does not change. For example, when the ciliary
muscles are relaxed, the lens becomes thin and its focal length increases, thus
enables us to see distant object clearly.

46. Draw a labelled diagram to explain the formation of a rainbow in the sky.
Answer:
A rainbow is a natural spectrum caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water
droplets, present in the atmosphere. Point A denotes dispersion and point B
denotes internal reflection.

47.A narrow PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in
the diagram. Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent
beam as observed on the screen DE.

Here, in the figure, ∠D is the angle of deviation of the given monochromatic light
by the glass prism.
If AO were a ray of white light, then on screen BC, a spectrum will be observed,
consisting of seven colours arranged from bottom to top as follows. Violet, Indigo,
Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red (VIBGYOR)
48.a) List two causes of hypermetropia.
(b) Draw ray diagrams showing (i) a hypermetropic eye and (ii) its correction using
suitable optical device.
Answer:
(a) Hypermetropia is caused due to following reasons:
(i) Shortening of the eyeball
(ii) Focal length of crystalline lens is too long.

49.A person needs a lens of power +3 D for correcting his near vision and -3 D for
correcting his distant vision. Calculate the focal lengths of the lenses required to
correct these defects.
Answer:
The power for correcting his near vision,
PN = +3 D.
As P = 1f(m)
∴ Focal length of convex lens needed,
fN = 1PN = 0.33 m = +33.33 cm
Power required to correct distant vision, PD = -3D

50.A person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia defects.
(a) What is this condition called?
(b) When does it happen?
(c) Name the type of lens often required by the persons suffering from this defect.
Draw labelled diagram of such lenses.
Answer:
(a) This condition is called presbyopia.
(b) It happens due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing
flexibility of eye lens due to ageing.
(c) It can be corrected by using bifocal lenses.
51. Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on
your eyes.
Answer:
When a bright light enters the eye then most of the refraction for the light rays
entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea. Then, the crystalline
lens merely provides the finer adjustment of focal length required to focus object at
different distances on the retina. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of
light entering the eye. At retina, the light-sensitive cells get activated upon
illumination and generate electric signals. These signals are sent to the brain via
the optic nerves. The brain interprets these signals and finally, processes the
information so that we perceive objects as they are.

52. Is the position of a star as seen by us in its exact position? Justify your
answer.
Answer:
No, the starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction
continuously before it reaches the earth. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a
medium of gradually changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends
starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different
from its actual position.

53. A person needs a lens of power – 4.5 D for correction of his/her vision.
(a) What kind of defect in vision is he/she suffering from?
(b) What is the focal length of the corrective lens?
(c) What is the nature of the corrective lens?
Answer:
(a) Myopia
(b) f = 1P = 1004.5 = 22.2 cm
(c) Concave lens

54. On which factor does colour of scattered light depends?

Answer:
The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.
Very fine particles scatter mainly blue light while particle of larger size scatters
light of longer wavelengths

55.
Pinky sees that the far point of a myopic person is 60 cm in front of the eye. Few
questions came to her mind. Give answers to the below questions:
(i)What is the nature of the lens needed to correct the problem?
(ii)What is the power of the lens required to correct the problem?
(iii)Where is the image formed in myopia?

56.

Pinky has seen the above diagram in her classroom and she had few doubts inher mind. Study the
diagram given above and answer the questions that follow it:
(i)Which defect of vision is represented in this case?
(ii)What could be the causes of this defect?
What is the correct diagram to show how this defect can be corrected?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

57. Explain the refraction of light through a triangular glass prism using a labelled
ray diagram. Hence define the angle of deviation.
Answer:
Refraction of light through prism

PE – Incident ray
EF – Refracted ray
FS – Emergent ray
∠A – Angle of the prism
∠i – Angle of incidence
∠r – Angle of refraction
∠e – Angle of emergence
∠D – Angle of deviation
Refraction of light through a triangular glass prism
The refraction of light takes place at two surfaces firstly when light enters from air
to prism and secondly when light emerges from prism.
Angle of prism: The angle between the two lateral faces of the prism is called
angle of prism.
Angle of deviation: The angle between incident ray (produced forward) and
emergent ray (produced backward).

58. Explain twinkling of stars.

Answer:
Twinkling of stars:
The twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight.
When starlight enters the earth’s atmosphere, it suffers refraction continuously.
Since the physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not stationary the
stars appear twinkling.

59. Explain the structure and functioning of the human eye. How are we able to
see nearby as well as distant objects?
Answer:

Cornea: A thin membrane through which light enters the eye, maximum refraction
occurs at the outer surface of cornea.
Iris: A dark muscular membrane which controls size of pupil.
Pupil: Regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.
Eye lens: Composed of fibrous, jelly like material, with adjustable curvature, forms
an inverted and real image of object at retina.
Retina: It is a light sensitive screen on which image is formed.
The power of accommodation that is, the ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal
length, help us to see near and far objects clearly.

60. How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light
incident on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw the
diagram.
Answer:
When an inverted prism is kept a little distance away from the prism causing
dispersion or basically in the path of splitted beam, the spectrum recombines to
form white light.

Recombination of the spectrum of white light

61. Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words
written on the blackboard. When the teacher noticed it, he asked if any student
sitting in the front row would volunteer to exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman
immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. Akshay could now see the
words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send message
to Akshay’s parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:
(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to
correct this defect?
(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.

Answer:
(a) Myopia, concave lens
(b) Teacher is very caring and knowledgeable. Salman has great concern for his
friend, Akshay, and is very helpful.

62. On the rainy day, Ram reached his grandfather’s place in village. On the way to
the house he saw a beautiful rainbow in the sky. In the night, he saw lots of
twinkling stars in the clear sky. He was very excited to see these beautiful natural
phenomenon, which he was not able to see in the city, where he lived with his
father. Explain the phenomenon on the basis of science. Do you think that
pollution in the atmosphere affects the formation of rainbow and twinkling of stars.
Do you agree with the fact that pollution free environment will strengthen such
natural phenomenon in the cities as well. Elaborate.

Answer:
The twinkling of star is due to atmospheric refraction.
The formation of rainbow is due to dispersion, refraction and internal reflection.
Yes, pollution in atmosphere affects the formation of rainbow and twinkling of
stars.

63. Vinay’s father cannot read a book placed 25 cm from his eye. But he feels a
little comfortable when the book is placed 50 cm away. Vinay adviced his father for
checkup of the eyes.
(a) From which defect of vision Vinay’s father may be suffering from? Give the
proper correction.
(b) State the values of Vinay.

Answer:
(a) Hypermetropia, correction can be done by using suitable convex lens.
(b) Vinay is caring and intelligent.

64. Ankit’s grandma is facing a problem of clouded, blurred and dim vision. Ankit
took her to the doctor.
(a) From which defect of vision Ankit’s grandma may be suffering from? Give
proper correction.
(b) State the values of Ankit.

Answer:
(a) Cataract. It is possible to restore vision through cataract surgery.
(b) Ankit is caring and intelligent.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

65. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing through
earth’s atmosphere. As we move above the surface of earth, density of air goes on
decreasing. Local conditions like temperature etc. also affect the optical density of
earth’s atmosphere. On account of atmospheric refraction, stars seen appear
higher than they actual are; advanced sunrise; delayed sunset, oval appearance
of the sun at sunrise and sunset; stars twinkle, planets do not.
(i) Due to atmospheric refraction, apparent length of the day
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) all of these

(ii) Apparent position of the star appears raised due to

(a) atmospheric refraction
(b) scattering of light
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

(iii) The sun appears oval shaped or flattened due to

(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) atmospheric refraction
(d) cannot say

(iv) Twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets is accounted for by

(a) scattering of light
(b) dispersion of light
(c) atmospheric refraction
(d) none of these

(v) In absence of atmosphere, the color of sky appears

(a) blue
(b) black
(c) red
 (d) yellow
66. A prism is a transparent refracting medium bounded by two plane surfaces
inclined to each other at a certain angle. The refraction of light through a prism
follows the laws of refraction. In the prism, refraction takes place on its refracting
surface it means when the light enters the prism and when the light leaves the prism.
The refraction through a prism is shown. Here, A is the angle of prism, ∠∠i is the
angle of incidence of the face AB and ∠∠e is the angle of emergence at other face
AC.

The incident ray suffers a deviation or bending through an angle δδ due to the
refraction through prism. This angle is called angle of deviation as shown in figure.
∠∠i + ∠∠e = ∠∠δδ + ∠∠A
(i) The angle between the two refracting surfaces of a prism is called
(b) angle of
(a) angle of prism
incidence
(c) angle of (d) angle of
deviation emergence

(ii) The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is called
(a) angle of (b) angle of
emergence deviation
(c) angle of
(d) none of these
incidence
(iii) The angle of deviation depends on
(a) refractive index of (b) angle of
prism incidence
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
(iv) The rectangular surfaces of a prism are known as
(a) reflecting (b) dispersing
surfaces surfaces
(c) refracting
(d) none of these.
surfaces
67. When white light is incident on one refracting surface of the prism, the light splits
up into constituent colours violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. The
process of splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours is called
dispersion. When the dispersed white light is made to fall on a screen, we get the
band of seven colours is called the spectrum of white light. Red colour bends the
least on passing through the prism and violet colour bends through maximum angle
on passing through the prism.

(i) The splitting of white light can be done by

(a) lens (b) prism
(c) mirror (d) none of these
(ii) Which property of light is used by prism to form a spectrum?
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction
(c) Dispersion (d) Scattering
(iii) Which of the following dispersion is correct?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
 (iv) When a red light passes through a prism, it
(a) will not split
(b) will split into seven colors
(c) will split into white color
(d) will split into many different colors.

(v) The spectrum produced by the white light by a prism is called

(b) impure
(a) pure spectrum
spectrum
(c) monochromatic (d) none of
spectrum these.

68.

Pinky needs a lens of power 5.5 D for correcting her distant vision. For correcting
her near vision she needs a lens of power +1.5 D. Few questions came to her
mind. Give answers to the below questions:

(i)What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting distant vision?
(ii)What is the unit for measuring the focal length of the lens?
(iii)What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting near vision?
(iv)What is the formula for finding the focal length of the lens?(v)What is the unit
for measuring the power of the lens?

69. 69.

The near point of a hypermetropia eye is 1 m. Assume that the near point of the
normal eye is 75 cm. Pinky has seen the above image in her classroom with the
given details. Few questions came to her mind. Give answers to the below
question
(i) Is above diagram showing the correction of hypermetropia eye?
(ii)What is the power of the lens required to correct this defect?
(iii)What is the power of the lens required to correct this defect?
(iv) What is the object distance in the above data?
70. Shalu observes that a 14-year old student is not able to see clearly the
questions written on the blackboard placed at a distance of 5 m from him. Few
questions came to her mind. Give answers to the below questions:
(i) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from.
(ii) Name the type of lens used to correct this defect.
(iii) What is the other name of myopia?
(iv) What is the correct labelled ray diagram of his defect which can be corrected?
 Chapter-12
ELECTRICITY

CONTENTS
❖ Electric current, potential difference and electric current. Ohm’s
law; Resistance, Resistivity,
❖ Factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends. Series
combination of resistors, parallel combination of resistors and its
applications in daily life.
❖ Heating effect of electric current and its applications in daily life.
Electric power, Interrelation between P, V, I and R.
Important Definitions-
• Electric Current: The rate of flow of charge is called electric current.
• Potential: The work done require to bring a unit positive charge from infinity to
a particular point is called potential of that point
• Potential Difference: The work done require to bring a unit positive charge
from one point to another is called potential between those points.
• Battery: The device which offer potential difference.
• Resistance: The hindrance or obstacle offered by a conductor in the path of
electric current is called resistance.
• Resistor: It is a device that provide resistance in a circuit is resistor.
• Resistivity: The ability of material to offer resistance (resist the path of electric
current) is called resistivity.
• Electric power: The rate of doing work or consuming electrical energy is
called electric power.
• Voltmeter: The device that is used to measure potential difference between
two points.
• Ammeters: the device used to measure electric current in a circuit.
• Circuit: The path taken by electric current. It is always a closed loop
• Circuit diagram: The symbolic representation of a circuit.
• Heating effect of electric current: When electric current is supplied to a purely
resistive conductor, the energy of electric current is dissipated entirely in the
form of heat and as a result, resistor gets heated. The heating of resistor
because of dissipation of electrical energy is commonly known as Heating
Effect of Electric Current.
• Galvanometer: It is a device to detect current in an electric circuit.
Conductors and Insulators
A substance which offers comparatively less opposition to the flow of current is
known as conductors. Substances which offer larger opposition to the flow of electric
current are insulators.
Electric Potential and Potential Difference

The electric potential at a point is defined as work done in bringing a unit

positive charge from infinity to that point

The potential difference between two points is defined as the difference in electric
potentials between the two given points. It is denoted by the symbol ‘V’

V=W/Q
SI unit of charge is Volt(V)
• 1 Volt is the potential difference between two point when 1J of work done is
required to move a charge of +1C across them.
• A Voltmeter is used to measure potential difference.

Conductors and Insulators

• A cell is a source of potential difference, which is created inside it due to
internal chemical reactions.
• A combination of cells is called a battery.

Electric Current
• The rate of flow of electric charge is called electric
current,
• Electric current is denoted by ’I’
• I=Q/t
• The direction of flow of electric current is from positive terminal to negative
terminal, i.e., opposite to the direction of flow of electrons.
• SI Unit of electric current is Ampere(A).
• 1 Ampere is the current constituted by the flow of 1C charge in 1s.
• An Ammeter is used to measure electric current.

Electric circuit and circuit diagram

• A closed-loop path which a current take is called an electric circuit.
• Representation of an electric circuit through symbols is called a circuit
diagram.
Ohm’s law
If the physical condition remains same, the current flowing through a conductor is
directly proportional to the applied potential difference between the two ends of the
conductor and vice a versa. For the current I flowing through a conductor having
potential difference V across its ends, we have:
V𝖺I
V = IR
• Here R is the constant of proportionality and known as the resistance of the
conductor.
• Value of resistance do not change on changing electric current or potential
difference.

Resistance

Resistance is a measure of the opposition offered to the current flow in an

electric circuit. SI unit of resistance is ohm (Ω)

Factors affecting Resistance

Resistance is: directly proportional to the length of the conductor.

R𝖺l
Inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the conductor.
R 𝖺 1/A
Combining the two we have
R 𝖺 l/A
R = ρ l/A
Here ρ is the constant of proportionality and known as resistivity.
Since resistivity depends on temperature and material of the conductor so resistance
also depends on
• Temperature
• Material of the conductor

Resistivity-The electrical resistance offered by a substance of unit length and unit

cross-sectional area is called resistivity.
SI unit of resistivity is ohm meter(Ωm)

Resistivity depends on
• Temperature
• Material of the conductor

Combination of Resistors-

Resistors in series
Two resistors are said to be combined in series if they carry the same current. In this circuit
the following applies.

• I1 = I2 = I3 = I
• Vs = V1 + V2 + V3
• Using ohm’s law V=IR
• IRs=IR1+IR2+IR3
• IRs=I (R1+R2+R3)
• So, Rs = R1 + R2 + R3

So, the resultant resistance of the combination of the resistors in the series is the sum of
all resistance
Resistors in parallel

Two resistors are said to be combined in parallel if the same potential difference is
applied to them. In this circuit,
• I =I1+I2+I3
• Using OHM’s law V=IR => I=V/R
• V/Rp=V/R1+V/R2+V/R3
• V/Rp=V(1/R1+1/R2+1/R3)
• 1/Rp=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3

Heating Effect of Electric Current

When current passes through a conductor, it produces heat. This phenomenon is called
heating effect of electric current. The amount of heat produced can be given by Joules
law. By definition

• Power P = work done W/time t

• P=W/t
• P=H/t (work done = energy and heat is a form of energy)
• H=PX t
• H=VIt (P=W/t = VQ/t =VI)
• H=I2Rt (V=IR)

Joule’s Law:
• Heat (H) 𝖺 square of the current (I).
• H 𝖺 Resistance of the given circuit.
• H 𝖺 Time (t) for which current flows through the conductor.
• So, H=I2Rt
 When a potential difference is established, it causes electrons to move, i.e.,
flow of current.

Electric Power
The rate of doing work or rate of consumption of electrical energy is called
Electric Power.
• If W is work done in time t, then P=W/t.
• P= VQ/t (V=W/Q => W=VQ)
• P =VI (Q/t= I)
• P= I2R (V=IR)
• P= V2/R (I=V/R)
• S.I unit of power is Watt(W).
One watt of power is consumed when 1 A of current flows at a potential difference of 1 V.

Electrical Energy
• SI unit of energy is Joule(J)
• The commercial unit of electrical energy is a kilowatt-hour (kWh).
• 1kWh = 3,600,000J = 3.6×106 J
• One kilowatt-hour is defined as the amount of energy consumed when 1kW of
power is used for 1 hour.
 Question bank

MCQs.

i. The temperature of a conductor is increased. The graph best showing the

variation of its resistance is

ii. Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The
physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is

(a) current. (b) voltage.

(c) resistance. (d) None of these

iii. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is
advised to use a fuse wire of

(a) more length (b) less radius

(c) less length. (d) more radius

iv. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors
each of 1/5 W?

(a) 1/5 Ω. (b) 10 Ω. (c) 5 Ω. (d) 1 Ω

v. student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples
of nichrome wire with resistances R1 R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the
following is true?
(a) R1 = R2 = R3. (b) R1 > R2 > R3

(c) R3 > R2 > R1. (d) R2 > R3 > R1

vi. The resistivity does not change if -

(a) the material is changed

(b) the temperature is changed

(c) the shape of the resistor is changed

(d) both material and temperature are changed

vii. Electric potential is a:

(a) scalar quantity

(b) vector quantity

(c) neither scalar nor vector

(d) sometimes scalar and sometimes vector

viii. 1 mV is equal to:

(a) 10 volt. (b) 1000 volt.

(c) 10-3 volt. (d) 10-6 volt

ix. Coulomb is the SI unit of:

(a) charge. (b) current.

(c) potential difference. (d) resistance

x. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a). A b) b c) b and c d) d

xi. What is being measured using the voltmeter?

(a) current in the circuit

(b) voltage in the circuit

(c) voltage across the resistor

(d) resistance offered by the resistor

xii.A circuit has a charge of 2C moving through it in 3 s. Which electrical

component in the circuit, if present, will show the current?

(a) Voltmeter will show a current of 6 A.

(b) Ammeter will show a current of 0.7 A.

(c) Rheostat will show a current of 0.7 A.

(d) Resistor will show a current of 0.35 A.

xiii. Two devices are connected between two points, say A and B in parallel.
The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is

(a) current (b) voltage

(c) resistance (d) None of these

xiv. What is the relationship between resistance and current?

(a) They are directly related to each other.

(b) They are inversely related to each other.

(c) The resistance has a greater magnitude than current.

(d) The current has a greater magnitude than resistance.

xv. How much more heat is produced, if the current is doubled?

(a) twice the original amount

(b) thrice the original amount

(c) four times the original amount

(d) five times the original amount

xvi. Which of the following represents voltage?

(a) Work done / Current × Time

(b) Work done × Charge

(c) Work done ×Time / Current

(d) Work done × Charge × Time

xvii. In order to reduce electricity consumption at home, what kind of

appliance should one purchase?

(a) one which draws low power

(b) one which produces less heat

(c) one which operates at a higher voltage

(d) one which draws a high amount of current

xviii. Which one among a bar of an alloy of mass 2 kg and a 3 kg iron bar of
same dimension has greater resistivity?

(a) Iron bar because it has higher mass.

(b) Alloy bar because it has lower mass.

(c) Iron bar because it has the same types of atoms.

(d) Alloy bar because it has different types of atoms.

xix. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20

Ω. The work done in 10 seconds is

(a) 2 × 103 joule (b) 2 × 105 joule

(c) 2 × 104 joule (d) 2 × 102 joule

xx. Two bulbs are rated 40W, 220W and 60W, 220W. The ratio of their
resistances will be:

(a) 4:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:2

ANSWERS OF SECTION A.

1. MCQs.

.i. a

(a) Resistance is directly proportional to temperature of the conductor.

ii.b

(b) In parallel combination, voltage remains same across two points.

iii.d

(d) In order to get the working of heater properly, fused wire of higher rating
must be used.

iv. d

(d) Series combination provide the maximum resistance.

v. c

(c) Current is inversely proportional to the resistance for the same potential.
So higher resistance would allow less current to pass through its which is

shown by R3 as I3 < I2 < I1, ∴ R3 >R2 > R1

vi. c

(c) The resistivity does not change if the shape of resistor is changed because
nature of material will remain same.

vii. a . viii. c ix.a x. d xi.c xii.b xiii. b. xiv. b. Xv. c. xvi. a. xvii. a. xviii. d. xix.
b. xx.d

==================

ANSWERS OF SECTION B

2. Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is

followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).

(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

i. Assertion (A) : The resistivity of a substance does not depend on the nature
of the substance and temperature.

Reason (R) : The resistivity of a substance is a characteristic property of the

material.

ii. Assertion(A) : Tungsten metal is used for making filaments of incandescent

lamps.

Reason (R): The melting point of tungsten is very low.

iii. Assertion (A) : The fuse is placed in series with the device.

Reason (R) : Fuse consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of

appropriate melting point.

iv. Assertion (A) : The coil of a heater is cut into two equal halves and only one
of them is used into heater. The heater will now require half the time to
produce the same amount of heat.

Reason (R) : The heat produced is directly proportional to square of current.

v. Assertion (A) : A current carrying wire should be charged.

Reason (R) : The current in a wire is due to flow of free electrons in a definite
direction.

vi. Assertion (A) : Electron has a negative charge.

Reason (R) : Electrons move always from a region of higher potential to a

region of lower potential.

vii. Assertion (A) : Heater wire must have high resistance and high melting
point.

Reason (R) : If resistance is high, the electric conductivity will be less.

viii. Assertion (A) : In a chain of bulbs, 50 bulbs are joined in series. One
bulb is removed now and circuit is completed again. If the remaining 49 bulbs
are again connected in series across the same supply, then light gets
decreased in the room.

Reason (R) : Net resistance of 49 bulbs will be less than 50 bulbs.

ix. Assertion (A) : Fuse wire must have high resistance and low melting point.

Reason (R) : Fuse is used for small current flow only.

x. Assertion (A) : The connecting wires are made of copper.

Reason (R) : The electrical conductivity of copper is high.

Marking scheme of section B.

2.i(d) ii.(c) iii.(b) iv.(b) v.(d) vi.(c) vii.(b) viii(d) ix.(c) x.(a)

=======================

SECTION C

3. Very short answer type question. [10x1]

i. Define one ampere?

ii. Write the SI unit of resistivity?

iii. Name any two electric devices based on heating effect of electric current.

iv. Write the relation between resistance (R) of filament of a bulb, its power (P)
and a constant voltage V applied across it.

v. Power of a lamp is 60 W. Find the energy in joules consumed by it in 1 s.?

vi. Find the energy in joules Is An electric bulb is connected to a 220 V

generator. The current is 2.5 A. Calculate the power of the bulb?

vii. State the difference between kilowatt and kilowatt hour.

viii. Express 1 kWh in joules.

ix. How two resistors, with resistances R1 Ω and R1 Ω respectively are to be

connected to a battery of emf V volts so that the electrical power consumed is
minimum?

x. State Ohms law.

ANSWERS OF SECTION C

i. One ampere is constituted by the flow of one coulomb of charge per second.

1 A = 1 C s-1

ii. SI unit of resistivity is Ω m.

iii. Electric laundry iron and electric heater are based on heating effect of
electric current.

iv. P = V2/R

v . Here, power of lamp, P = 60 W time,

t=1s

So, energy consumed = Power × time = (60 × 1)J = 60 J

vi. Here, V= 220 V,I = 2.5 A

Power of the bulb P = VI = 220 × 2.5 W = 550 W

vii. Kilowatt is unit of power and kilowatt hour is a unit of energy.

viii. 1 kWh = 1000 W × 1 h

= 1000 W × 3600 s = 3600000 J = 3.6 × 106 J

ix. Power consumed is minimum when current through the circuit is minimum,
so

the two resistors are connected in series.

x. It states that the potential difference V, across the ends of a given metallic
wire in an electric circuit is directly proportional to the current flowing
through it, provided its temperature remains the same. Mathematically,
V𝖺I
V = RI

where R is resistance of the conductor.

================

SECTION D

4. Short answer type question. [10x3]

i. List three factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends

ii. Two identical resistors are first connected in series and then in parallel. Find
the ratio of equivalent resistance in two cases.

iii. Write the mathematical expression for Joules law of heating.

iv. Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices ? Give reason.

v. List the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with an

electrical source instead of connecting them is series.

Vi. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same
material, when connected to the same source? Why?

Vii. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather
than a pure metal?

Viii. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element
does?

Ix. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6 Ω so
that the combination has resistance of (i) 9Ω (ii) 4Ω.

X. In the given figure what is ratio of ammeter reading when J is connected to

A and then to B

ANSWERS OF SECTION D.

4.i. Resistance of a conductor depends upon the following factors:

(a) Length of the conductor : (increases the length (I) of the conductor more
will be the resistance (R).
R𝖺I

[b] Area of cross section of the conductor: (increases the cross-sectional area
of the conductor, less will be the resistance.

R 𝖺 1/A.

[c] Nature of conductor.

ii. Let resistance of each resistor be R.

For series combination,

Rs = R1 + R2

So, Rs = R + R = 2R

For parallel combination,

iii. The Joule’s law of heating implies that heat produced in a resistor is

(a) directly proportional to the square of current lor a given resistance,

(b) directly proportional to resistance for a given current, and

(c) directly proportional to the time for which the current flows through the
resistor.

i.e., H = I² Rt

iv. Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices due to the following
reasons

(a) Alloys have higher resistivity than metals

(b) Alloys do not get oxidised or burn readily.

v. (a) When a number of electrical devices are connected in parallel, each

device gets the same potential difference as provided by the battery and it
keeps on working even if other devices fail. This is not so in case the devices
are connected in series because when one device fails, the circuit is broken
and all devices stop working.

(b) Parallel circuit is helpful when each device has different resistance and
requires different current for its operation as in this case the current divides
itself through different devices. This is not so in series circuit where same
current flows through all the devices, irrespective of their resistances.
vi. The current flows more easily through a thick wire as compared to thin
wire of the same material, when connected to the same source. It is due to the
reason that resistance increases with decrease in thickness.

vii. Coils of electric toasters and electric irons are made of an alloy due to the
following reasons:

A. Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of pure metal.

B. At high temperature, an alloy does not oxidize readily. Hence, coil of an

alloy has longer life.

viii. Cord of heater and electric heater are joined in series and carry same
current when joined to voltage source. As resistance of cord is extremely
small as compared to that of heater element. hence, heat produced is
extremely small in cord but much larger in heater element. So, the heating
element begins to glow but cord does not glow.

Ix. It is given here that .

(a) To get net resistance of 9 Ω we should join three resistors as below:

(b) To get 4Ω net resistance we should join three resistors as below:

x. when J is connected to A

I=V/R=3/5A=O.6A

When J is connected to B

V=1+2+3+4=1OV

I=1O/5=2A
 SECTION E

5. Long answer type question. [5x5]

i How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows
through every part of a circuit containing three resistors in series connected to
a battery?

ii Consider the given circuit and find the current flowing in the circuit and
potential difference across the 15 Ω resistor when the circuit is closed.

iii. Name a device that you can use to maintain a potential difference between
the ends of a conductor. Explain the process by which this device does so.

iv. Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 2m and area of cross
section 1.55 × 106 m², if the resistivity of the metal be 2.8 × 10-8 Ωm.

v. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity 1.6 × 10-8 Ω m. Calculate
the length of this wire to make it resistance 100 Ω. How much does the
resistance change if the diameter is doubled without changing its length?

ANSWERS OF SECTION E.

5. (i) Let three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series which are also
connected with a battery, an ammeter and a key as shown in figure.

When key is closed, the current starts flowing through the circuit. Take the
reading of ammeter. Now change the position of ammeter to anywhere in
between the resistors and take its reading. We will observe that in both the
cases reading of ammeter will be same showing same current flows through
every part of the circuit above.

(ii). Given,

R1 = 5 Ω, R2 = 10 Ω, R3 = 15 Ω, V = 30 V

Total resistance, R = R1 + R2 + R3 [∵ 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in

series]

= 5 + 10 + 15

= 30 Ω

Potential difference, V = 30 V

Current in the circuit, I = ?

From Ohm’s law.

I = VR = 3030 = 1 A

Current flowing in the circuit = 1 A

Potential difference across 15 Ω resistors = IR3 = 1 × 15 = 15 V

iii. A cell or a battery can be used to maintain a potential difference between

the ends of a conductor. The chemical reaction within a cell generates the
potential difference across the terminals of the cell, even when no current is
drawn from it. When it is connected to a conductor, it produces electric current
and, maintain the potential difference across the ends of the conductor.

iv. For the given metal wire,

length, l = 2 m

area of cross-section, A = 1.55 × 10-6 m²

resistivity of the metal, p = 2.8 × 10-8 Ω m

Since, resistance, R = ρl/A

So R = (2.8×10-8×21.55×10-6)Ω

= 5.61.55 × 10-2 Ω = 3.6 × 10-2Ω or R = 0.036Ω

v. Given; resistivity of copper = 1.6 × 10-8 Ω m, diameter of wire, d = 0.5 mm

and resistance of wire, R = 100 Ω
Radius of wire, r = d2 = 0.52 mm

= 0.25 mm = 2.5 × 10-4 m

Area of cross-section of wire, A = nr²

∴ A = 3.14 × (2.5 × 10-4)²

= 1.9625 × 10-7 m²

= 1.9 × 10-7 m²

As, R = ρl/A

∴ 100 Ω = 1.6×10-8Ωm×l1.9×10−7 m2

l = 1200 m

If diameter is doubled (d’ = 2d), then the area of cross-section of wire will
become

A’ = πr² = π(d′2)² = π(2d2)² = 4A

Now R 𝖺 1A, so the resistance will decrease by four times or new resistance
will be R’ = R4 = 1004 = 25Ω.

SECTION F

6. Case base study questions [5x2]

1. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions from In a
circuit, several resistors may be combined to form a network. The combination
must have two endpoints to connect it with a battery or other elements of the
circuit. When the resistors are connected in series then the current flowing in
each remains the same but potential differences across each resistor will vary.
When the resistances are connected in parallel, the potential difference across
each resistor will be the same though a different amount of current will flow in
each resistor.

i. Two resistances 10 Ω and 3 Ω are connected in parallel across a battery. If

there is a current of 0.2 A in 10 resistors, the voltage supplied by the battery is:

(a) 2 V (b) 1 V (c) 4 V (d) 8 V

ii. Two wires each having a resistance value equal to R are first connected in
series and then connected in parallel. The plot shows the graphical
representation of resistances in both cases.

(a) A denotes parallel combination

(b) B denotes series combination

(c) A denotes series combination and B denotes parallel combination

(d) None of the above

iii. The household circuits are connected in:

(a) series (b) parallel

(c) both series and parallel (d) neither series nor parallel

iv. The equivalent resistance of two resistors x and y is Z when connected in

series and M when connected in parallel. Z:M is:

(a) xy (b) x + y × y (c) (x + y)2/xy (d) xy (2x + 2y)

2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from The
heating effect of current is obtained by transformation of electrical energy in
heat energy. Just as mechanical energy used to overcome friction is converted
into heat, in the same way, electrical energy is converted into heat energy
when an electric current flows through a resistance wire. The heat produced in
a conductor, when a current flows through it is found to depend directly on (a)
strength of current (b) resistance of the conductor (c) time for which the
current flows. The mathematical expression is given by H = I2Rt.

The electrical fuse, electrical heater, electric iron, electric geyser etc. all are
based on the heating effect of current.

i A fuse wire melts at 5 A. It is is desired that the fuse wire of same material
melt at 10 A. The new radius of the wire is
(a) 4 times (b) 2 times (c) 1/2 times (d) 1/4 times

ii. What are the properties of heating element?

(a) High resistance, high melting point

(b) Low resistance, high melting point

(c) High resistance, low melting point

(d) Low resistance, low melting point.

iii) What are the properties of electric fuse?

(a) Low resistance, low melting point

(b) High resistance, high melting point.

(c) High resistance, low melting point

(d) Low resistance, high melting point

iv) When the current is doubled in a heating device and time is halved, the heat
energy produced is

(a) doubled

(b) halved

(c) four times

(d) one fourth times

ANSWERS OF SECTION F

6.(1). i. A. ii.C iii. B iv.C , (2).i.B. ii. A. iii.C. iv)A.

 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, MUMBAI REGION
STUDY MATERIAL – 2022-23
CLASS – 10TH
SUBJECT – SCIENCE
CHAPTER – 11 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

CONTENT:
❖ Magnetic effects of current: Magnetic field, field lines
❖ field due to a current carrying conductor,
❖ field due to current carrying coil or solenoid;
❖ Force on current carrying conductor, Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule,
❖ Direct current. Alternating current: frequency of AC.
❖ Advantage of AC over DC. Domestic electric circuits.

MIND MAP
MAGIC CARDS
 FLOW CHART
(Not Required – Add if any process, derivation or mechanism involved)
 Chapter- 13
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
• Magnet: Magnet is an object that attracts objects made of iron, cobalt and
nickel. Magnet comes to rest in – South direction, when suspended freely.

• Use of Magnets: Magnets are used

In refrigerators.
In radio and stereo speakers.
In audio and video cassette players.
In children‘s toys.

• Properties of Magnet

i. A free suspended magnet always points towards the north and

south direction.
ii. The pole of a magnet which points toward north direction is called
north pole or north-seeking.
iii. The pole of a magnet which points toward south direction is
called south pole or south seeking.
iv. Like poles of magnets repel each other while unlike poles of
magnets attract each other.

• Magnetic field: The area around a magnet where a magnetic force is

experienced is called the magnetic field. It is a quantity that has both
direction and magnitude, (i.e., Vector quantity).

• Magnetic field and field lines: The influence of force surrounding a magnet
is called magnetic field. In the magnetic field, the force exerted by a
magnet can be detected using a compass or any other magnet.
• The magnetic field is represented by magnetic field lines.
• The imaginary lines of magnetic field around a magnet are called field line
or field line of magnet. When iron fillings are allowed to settle around a bar
magnet, they get arranged in a pattern which mimics the magnetic field
lines. Field line of a magnet can also be detected using a compass.
Magnetic field is a vector quantity, i.e. it has both direction and magnitude.
• Direction of field line: Outside the magnet, the direction of magnetic field
line is taken from North Pole to South Pole. Inside the magnet, the
direction of magnetic field line is taken from South Pole to North pole.

• Strength of magnetic field: The closeness of field lines shows the

relative strength of magnetic field, i.e. closer lines show stronger magnetic
field and vice – versa. Crowded field lines near the poles of magnet show
more strength.
• Properties of magnetic field lines
i. They do not intersect each other.
ii. It is taken by convention that magnetic field lines emerge from
North pole and merge at the South pole. Inside the magnet, their
direction is from South pole to North pole. Therefore, magnetic
field lines are closed curves.

• Magnetic field lines due to current a current carrying straight

conductor
A. A current carrying straight conductor has magnetic field in the form of
concentric circles, around it. Magnetic field of current carrying straight
conductor can be shown by magnetic field lines.
B. The direction of magnetic field through a current carrying conductor
depends upon the direction of flow electric current.

C. Let a current carrying conductor be suspended vertically and the

electric current is flowing from south to north. In this case, the direction
of magnetic field will be anticlockwise. If the current is flowing from
north to south, the direction of magnetic field will be clockwise.
• The direction of magnetic field - In relation to direction of electric current
through a straight conductor can be depicted by using the Right-Hand
Thumb Rule. It is also known as Maxwell‘s Corkscrew Rule.
• Maxwell’s Corkscrew rule: As per Maxwell‘s Corkscrew Rule, if the
direction of forward movement of screw shows the direction of the current,
 then the direction of rotation of screw shows the direction of magnetic
field.

• Right-Hand Thumb Rule: If a current carrying conductor is held by right

hand, keeping the thumb straight and if the direction of electric current is
in the direction of thumb, then the direction of wrapping of other fingers
will show the direction of magnetic field.

• Properties of magnetic field

1. The magnitude of magnetic field increases with increase in electric current
and decreases with decrease in electric current.
2. The magnitude of magnetic field produced by electric current decreases
with increase in distance and vice – versa. The size of concentric circles
of magnetic field lines increases with distance from the conductor, which
shows that magnetic field decreases with distance.
3. Magnetic field lines are always parallel to each other.
4. No two field lines cross each other.
• In case of a circular current carrying conductor, the magnetic field is
produced in the same manner as it is in case of a straight current carrying
conductor.

• In case of a circular current carrying conductor, the magnetic field lines

would be in the form of iron concentric circles around every part of the
periphery of the conductor. Since, magnetic field lines tend to remain
closer when near to the conductor, so the magnetic field would bestronger
near the periphery of the loop. On the other hand, the magnetic field lines
would be distant from each other when we move towards the centre of the
current carrying loop. Finally, at the centre, the arcs of big circles would
appear as a straight line.

• The direction of the magnetic field can be identified using Right

Hand Thumb‘s Rule. Let us assume that the current is moving in anti-
clockwise direction in the loop. In that case, the magnetic field would be
 in clockwise direction, at the top of the loop. Moreover, it would be in an
anti-clockwise direction at the bottom of the loop.

• Clock Face Rule: A current carrying loop works like a disc magnet. The
polarity of this magnet can be easily understood with the help of Clock
Face Rule. If the current is flowing in anti – clockwise direction, then the
face of the loop shows north pole. On the other hand, if the current is
flowing in clockwise direction, then the face of the loop shows south pole.

• Magnetic field and number of turns of coil: Magnitude of magnetic field

gets summed up with increase in the number of turns of coil. If there are
‘n‘ turns of coil, magnitude of magnetic field will be ‘n‘ times of magnetic
field in case of a single turn of coil.
• The strength of the magnetic field at the centre of the loop(coil) depends
on -
1. The radius of the coil: The strength of the magnetic field is inversely
proportional to the radius of the coil. If the radius increases, the magnetic
strength at the centre decreases
2. The number of turns in the coil: As the number of turns in the coil increase,
the magnetic strength at the centre increases, because the current in each
circular turn is having the same direction, thus, the field due to eachturn
adds up.
3. The strength of the current flowing in the coil: As the strength of the current
increases, the strength of three magnetic fields also increases.
4. Magnetic field due to a current in a Solenoid: Solenoid is the coil with many
circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely in the shapeof a
cylinder. A current carrying solenoid produces similar pattern of magnetic
field as a bar magnet. One end of solenoid behaves as the northpole and
another end behaves as the south pole.
• Magnetic field lines are parallel inside the solenoid, similar to a bar
magnet, which shows that magnetic field is same at all points inside the
solenoid. Magnetic field produced by a solenoid is similar to a bar magnet.
The strength of magnetic field is proportional to the number of turns and
magnitude of current. By producing a strong magnetic field inside the

solenoid, magnetic materials can be magnetized. Magnet formed by

producing magnetic field inside a solenoid is called electromagnet.
• Electromagnet: An electromagnet consists of a long coil of insulated
copper wire wrapped on a soft iron.
• Magnet formed by producing magnetic field inside a solenoid is called
electromagnet.

• Force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field: A current

carrying conductor exerts a force when a magnet is placed in its vicinity.
Similarly, a magnet also exerts equal and opposite force on the current
carrying conductor. This was suggested by Marie Ampere, a French
Physicist and considered as founder of science of electromagnetism.

• The direction of force over the conductor gets reversed with the change in
direction of flow of electric current. It is observed that the magnitude of
force is highest when the direction of current is at right angles to the
magnetic field.

• Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule: If the direction of electric current is

perpendicular to the magnetic field, the direction of force is also
perpendicular to both of them.
• The Fleming‘s Left Hand Rule states that if the left
hand is stretched in a way that the index finger, the
middle finger and the thumb are in mutually
perpendicular directions, then the index finger and
middle finger of a stretched left hand show the direction of magnetic field
and direction of electric current respectively and the thumb shows the
direction of motion or force acting on the conductor.
• Many devices, such as electric motor, electric generator, loudspeaker,
etc. work on Fleming‘s Left Hand Rule.
• A.C Current – Alternate Current: Current in which direction is changed
periodically is called Alternate Current. In India, most of the power stations
generate alternate current. The direction of current changes after every
1/100 second in India, i.e., the frequency of A.C in India is 50 Hz.
• D.C – Direct Current: Current that flows in one direction only is called
Direct current. Electrochemical cells produce direct current.
• Advantages of A.C. over D.C.
1. A.C is transmitted up to a long distance without much loss of energy is
advantage of A.C. over D.C.
2. Cost of generator of A.C is much less than that of D.C.
3. A.C can be easily converted to D.C.
4. A.C can be controlled by the use of choke which involves less loss of
power whereas, D.C can be controlled using resistances which involves
high energy loss.
5. AC can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.
6. AC machines are stout and durable and do not need much maintenance.
• Disadvantages of AC
1. AC cannot be used for the electrolysis process or showing
electromagnetism as it reverses its polarity.
2. AC is more dangerous than DC.

• Domestic Electric Circuits: We receive electric supply through mains

supported through the poles or cables. In our houses, we receive AC
electric power of 220 V with a frequency of 50 Hz.
• The 3 wires are as follows
1. Live wire – (Red insulated, Positive)
2. Neutral wire – (Black insulated, Negative)
3. Earth wire – (Green insulated) for safety measure to ensure that any
leakage of current to a metallic body does not give any serious shock to
a user.
• Short Circuit: Short-circuiting is caused by the touching of live wires and
neutral wire and sudden a large current flow. It happens due to
1. Damage of insulation in power lines.
2. A fault in an electrical appliance.
3. Overloading of an Electric Circuit: The overheating of electrical wire in any
circuit due to the flow of a large current through it is called overloading of
the electrical circuit.
4. A sudden large number of current flows through the wire, which causes
overheating of wire and may cause fire also.

• Electric Fuse: It is a protective device used for protecting the circuit from
short-circuiting and overloading. It is a piece of thin wire of material having
a low melting point and high resistance.
1. Fuse is always connected to live wire.
2. Fuse is always connected in series to the electric circuit.
3. Fuse is always connected to the beginning of an electric circuit.
4. Fuse works on the heating effect.
 Question Bank
MCQs

1. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by –

a) Oersted b) Faraday
c) Bohr d) Ampere
2. Inside the magnet, the field lines move—
a) from north to south b) from south to north
c) away from south pole d) away from north pole
3.By which instrument, the presence of magnetic field be determined?
a) Magnetic needle b) Ammeter
c) Galvanometer d) Voltmeter
4. The pattern of magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting
wire is –
a) in the direction opposite to the current
b) in the direction parallel to the wire
c) circular around the wire
d) in the same direction of current
5. The strength of the magnetic field around the current carrying conductor is—
a) inversely proportional to the current but directly proportional to the square of the
distance from the wire.
b) directly proportional to the current but inversely proportional to the distance from
the wire.
c) inversely proportional to the current but directly proportional to the distance from
the wire.
d) directly proportional to current and inversely proportional to square of the distance
from wire.
6. The nature of magnetic field line passing through the center of current carrying
circular loop is –
a) circular b) ellipse
c) parabolic d) straight line
7. The factors on which one magnetic field strength produced by current carrying
solenoids depends are—
a) Magnetic of current b) Number of turns
c) Nature of core material d) All of the above
8. A soft iron bar is introduced inside the current carrying solenoid, the magnetic field
inside the solenoid –
a) will decrease b) will remain same
c) will increase d) will become zero
9. Earth wire carries –

a) current b) voltage
c) no current d) heat
10. Among of these, the main characteristics of fuse element are
a) High conductivity b) low melting point
c) do not burn due to oxidation d) all of the above
11. Right-hand thumb rule was given by
a) Oersted b) Fleming
c) Einstein d) Maxwell
12. The core of an electromagnet is made up of
a) soft iron b) hard iron
c) rusted iron d) none of the above
13. Name that instrument that can detect the presence of electric current in a circuit.
a) Galvanometer b) Motor
c) Generator d) None of the above
14. The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is-
a) more at the ends than at the center
b) minimum in the middle
c) same at all points.
d) found to increase from one end to other.
15. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from
short circuiting or overloading is –
a) earthing b) use of fuse
c) use of stabilizers d) use of electric meter
16.Overloading is due to ---
a) Insulation of wire is damaged
b) fault in the appliances
c) accidental hike in supply voltage
d) All of the above
17. If the current varies periodically from zero to a maximum value, back to zero and
then reverses its direction. the current is –
a) direct b) alternative
c) pulsating d) none of the above
18. Relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the
magnet is shown by the—
a) length of magnet b) thickness of magnet
c) degree of closeness of the field d) resistance offered by the surroundings
19. The type current used for electroplating is
a) Alternating current b) Direct current
c) Both d) none of the above
20. Name the unit used to measure magnetic field.
a) Tesla b) Ampere
c) Ohm d) None
21. The strength of force experience by a current carrying conductor in a uniform
magnetic field affected by
a) magnetic field strength
b) magnitude of current in a conductor
c) length of the conductor within magnetic field
d) All of the above.
22. If the key in the arrangement taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic
field lines are drawn over the
horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are

(a) concentric circles

(b) elliptical in shape
(c) straight lines parallel to each other
(d) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it
23. Choose the incorrect statement about the magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic field lines form a continuous closed curve.
(b) Magnetic field line does not interest each other.
(c) Direction of tangent at any point on the magnetic field line curve gives the
direction of magnetic field at that point.
(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from South to North pole of the
magnet.
24. The strength of force experience by a current carrying conductor in a uniform
magnetic field is affected by
(a) magnetic field strength
(b) magnitude of current in a conductor
(c) length of the conductor within magnetic field
(d) All of above.
25.A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as
shown in Figure. In the field an electron and a proton move as shown. The and the
proton experience

(a) forces both pointing into the plane of paper

(b) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper
(c) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper, respectively.
(d) force pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field
respectively.

26. Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic lines of
field
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the
north pole of a magnetic compass needle points.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field
strength.
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the
field lines.
27. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a
current when the key is ON. The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of
paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti-clockwise and clockwise respectively. The
magnetic field lines point from B to A. The N -pole of the resultant magnet is on the
face close to

(a) A
(b) B
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large.

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Answer the following questions according to given options-
a) Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion: When the direction of velocity of moving charge is perpendicular to the
magnetic field, it experiences a maximum force.
Reason: Force on the moving charge does not depends on the direction magnetic
field in which it moves.
2. Assertion: Fuse is a safety device which is installed to prevent electrical circuits
and fires.
Reason: Fuse consists of tin-plated copper wire having low melting point which melts
and breaks the circuit if the current exceeds a safe value.
3. Assertion: Steel core is used as an electromagnet.
Reason: Steel gets permanently magnetized when the current flows through the coil
wound around.
4. Assertion: It is fatal to touch a live electric wire as the person gets a severe electric
shock. In some cases, electric shock can even kill a person.
Reason: The electric current passes through the body to the earth forming a circuit
and burns the blood.
5. Assertion: Strength of an electromagnet depends on the magnitude of current
flowing through them.
Reason: Electromagnets are majority used for lifting heavy weights.
6. Assertion: It is easier to bring North pole of a magnet to South pole of another
magnet.
Reason: There is a force of attraction between unlike poles of magnet.
7.Assertion: The magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform.
Reason: The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are parallel.
8. Assertion: When electric current is passed through a copper wire, magnetic
needle kept near to wire shows deflection.
Reason: The electric current through copper wire has produced magnetic field.
9. Assertion: On changing the direction of flow of current through a straight
conductor, the direction of a magnetic field around the conductor is reversed.
Reason: The direction of a magnetic field around the conductor can be given in
accordance with left hand thumb rule.
10. Assertion: The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current
carrying circular coil increases on increasing the radius of the circular coil.
Reason: Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular
coil.
.

VERY SHORT ANSWERS (1 mark each)

1. Give the direction of magnetic field lines inside and outside the bar magnet.
2. State one difference between the wires used in the element of an electric heater
and in a fuse.
3. State the colour of wire conventionally used for 1) Live 2) Earth 3) Neutral?
4. State the frequency of A.C. in India?
5. What does the closeness of field lines in a magnetic field signify?
6. Name the effect of electric current used in the working of an electric fuse.
7.Name the alloy which is mainly used for making permanent magnets.
8.How is the fuse connected in an electric circuit?
9. Define the term solenoid?
10. How can it be proved that a magnetic field exists around a current carrying
metallic wire?
11. Identify the poles of a magnet in the figure.

A B

12. Give two uses of a magnetic compass

SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (2 MARK EACH)

1) Give the significance of the following in a domestic circuit: (2M)
(i) electric meter,
(ii) earthing
2) Expand the MCB and state one function of it. (2M)
3) We must not use many electrical appliances simultaneously give reason. (2M)
4) State how the magnetic field produced by a straight current carrying conductor at
a point depends on
(a) current through the conductor
(b) distance of point from conductor. (2M)
5) Draw the magnetic field lines around the “Solenoid”. (2M)
6) List two precautions that should be taken to avoid overloading. (2M)
7) state the reason does a compass needle get deflected when brought near
a bar magnet(2M)
8) Explain the laws of magnetic field(2M)
9) Draw the magnetic field lines produced by current carrying circular loop. (2M)
10) Give examples of sources produce alternating current? (2M)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 mark each)

1. What are magnetic field lines? Justify the following statements- (1+1+1)
a) Two magnetic lines never intersect each other.
b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
2. How will the magnetic field produced at a point due to a current carrying circular
coil change if we— (1+1+1)
a) increase the current flowing through the coil?
b) reverse the direction of current through the coil?
c) increase the number of turns in the coil?
3. Differentiate between permanent magnets and electromagnets. (3)
4.Give scientific reasons- (1+1+1)
a) Wires carrying electricity should not be touched when bare footed.
b) We must not use many electrical appliances simultaneously.
c) Earth fire is used for safety purposes.
5. How does the strength of the magnetic field produced by a current carrying
solenoid increased? (3)
6. a) Name the material which can be used to make – (1+2)
i) Permanent magnet ii) Temporary magnet
b) State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased.
7. State one main difference between AC and DC. Why AC is preferred over DC foe
long range transmission of electric power? Name one source each of DC and AC.
(1+1+1)
8. What is overloading? State the causes of overloading. (1+2)
9. How does the strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of wire
depends on – (1+1+1)
i) the radius of the coil
ii) the number of turns of wire in the coil
iii) the strength of the current flowing in the coil
10. State the properties of the magnetic field lines. (3)
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 mark each)

1. (a) State three factors on which the strength of magnetic field produced by a
current carrying solenoid depends.
(b) Draw circuit diagram of a solenoid to prepare an electromagnet.
2.State the various advantages and disadvantages of AC over DC. (5)
3. Define magnetic field lines. Give any 4 properties of these. Draw the magnetic
lines of force through and around – (1+2+2)
i) single loop of wire carrying electric current
ii) a solenoid carrying electric current
4.a) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses. (2+2+1)
b) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
c) State the purpose of soft iron core used in making an electromagnet.
5.a) Distinguish between a bar magnet and a solenoid. (3+2)
b) What changes in the deflection of the compass needle placed at a point near
current carrying straight conductor shall be observed if the a) current through the
conductor is increased? b) direction of current in the conductor is reversed?
c)compass is moved away from the conductor?
CCT BASED QUESTIONS ( 4 mark each)
1. Michael Faraday was a physicist. He introduces the concept of magnetic lines of
force to represent magnetic field. According to his experiments, when bar magnet is
surrounded by little bits of iron fillings, each a little magnet of its own. By tapping iron
fillings arranged themselves in a pattern.
a) A piece of material that has both attractive and directive properties is called -----
i)magnet ii) Iron fillings iii) Resistor iv) Coil (1)
b) A bar magnet is cut into two pieces along its length. Which of the following
statement is true— (1)
i) Two new bar magnets are created with half of pole strength.
ii) Two new bar magnets are created with double pole strength
iii) Bar magnet is demagnetized.
iv) One part creates magnetic field and other creates electric field.
c) In uniform magnetic field, the lines are – (1)
i) perpendicular ii) parallel iii) slanting iv) zig zag
d) The direction of magnetic field lines outside bar magnet is --- (1)
i) south to north
ii) north to south
iii) towards east from both pole
iv) towards west from both poles
2. The current shows heating effect, magnetic effect and chemical effect. Chemical
effect causes reactions to occur. All magnets whether permanent or temporary have
magnetic field around them. Permanent magnets are weaker than temporary
magnets.
a) List the observation if a current carrying conductor is placed in the magnetic field.
b) State effect of electric current being utilised in the working of an electric fuse.
c) List the preventive measures to be taken when a person comes in contact with a
live wire.
d) A fuse usually made of tin or tin-copper alloy. Give the reason.
3. In India AC is used for domestic supply. Two separate wires are used for this
purpose. Live wire is maintained at 220 volts while neutral is at 0 volt. As a result
potential difference is maintained across these two wires. A third wire called Earth
wire is also used in domestic circuits.
a) Mention the colour of live wire---
i)black ii) red iii) blue iv) green
b) wires of fuse have ------- melting points.
i)high ii) low iii) average iv) none of them
c)wire transfers the extra current from circuit to below the earth.
i)live wire ii) earth wire iii) neutral wire iv) all of these
d)Choose the safety device from the following
i)MCB ii) Fuse iii) Earth wire iv) all of these
 ANSWER KEY
MCQ
1. a
2. b
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. d
7. d
8. c
9. c
10. d
11. d
12. a
13. a
14. c
15. b
16. d
17. b
18. c
19. b
20. a
21. b
22. a
23. d
24. d
25. a
26. c
27. b
ASSERTION REASON QUESTION-
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. D

VERY SHORT ANSWERS-

1. Inside the bar magnet—South to North (1)
Outside the bar magnet—North to South
2. Wires used in elements have high resistance and high melting point whereas
wires used in fuses have low resistance and low melting point. (1)
3. Live wire—Red (1)
Neutral wire—Black
Earth wire—Green
4. 50 Hz. (1)
5. Strength of magnetic field (1)
6. Heating effect of electric current. (1)
7. Alnico alloys made of aluminium, nickel and cobalt. (1)
8. Fuse is connected in series in electric circuit. (1)
9. A long tightly wound helical coil of insulated metallic wire is called a solenoid.
(1)
10. If a magnetic needle is brought near to a current carrying conductor it will
show deflection which will prove that a magnetic field exist around the current
carrying conductor. (1)
11. A- north pole, B- south pole (1)
12. 1. To know the direction and to observe magnetic field (1)
 SHORT ANSWERS (2 MARKS EACH)

Answer1. a) (i) Electric meter: It is used to record the consumption of electrical

energy in kWh in the circuit
(ii) An earthing wire is used to save us from the risk of electric shock in case the live
wire touches the metal case of the electric appliance.
Answer 2) Miniature Circuit Breaker
Functions-The primary function of a miniature circuit-breaker is to protect an
installation or appliance against sustained overloading and short-circuit faults, but it
will also give protection against earth faults provided that the earth fault loop
impedance is low enough.
Answer3- When many appliances are switched on simultaneously, a lot of current
flows through the main circuit and the current may exceed the permissible amount.
This causes overloading and may cause a fire. Thus, many electrical appliances
should not be used simultaneously.
Answer:4
Strength of magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying wire at a given
point is
(a) directly proportional to the current passing through it.
(b) inversely proportional to the distance of that point from the wire.
Answer-5

Answer6 - The precautions that should be taken to avoid overloading of household

electric circuits are as follows:

1. An excess number of devices should not be connected to the same socket.

2. The appliances that are malfunctioning should not be connected to the socket.
3. Multiple high-power consumption devices should not be connected at the same
time.

Answer 7- The needle of the compass deflects when the magnetic field of the bar
magnet intercepts the magnetic field of the needle in the compass as it experiences
a different magnetic field which results in the movement of the needle that is either
attraction or repulsion.

Answer 8- The law of magnetism is that like poles repel one another and unlike poles
attract each other; this can easily be seen by attempting to place like poles of two
magnets together.
Answer 9.

Answer 10
1) The sources are hydroelectric power plants, thermal power generators, nuclear
power generators, AC generators produce alternating current.

SHORT ANSWERS (3 MARK)

1. Magnetic field lines are the imaginary lines used to represent the magnetic
field. (1+1+1)
a) Two magnetic lines never meet each other because if a magnetic compass is
placed at the point of intersection it will orient itself only in one direction and not in
two directions.
b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves as they are directed from north pole to
south pole outside magnet and from south pole to north pole inside the magnet.
2.a) magnetic field will increase. (1+1+1)
b) with the change in direction of current, the direction of magnetic field will also
change.
c)with the increase in the number of turns of coil, the magnetic field will also
increase.

3. Any 3 points (3)

ELECTROMAGNET PERMANENT
1.Behaves like magnet when current is 1.It is not dependent on current for its
passed through and loses its magnetism.
magnetism when current is switched
off.
2.Its strength can be changed by 2.Its strength cannot be changed.
changing the magnitude of current.
3.Very powerful magnetic field can be 3. Magnetic field of permanent
produced with the help of an magnet is weak.
electromagnet.

4. a) When we are bare-footed, our body is directly in contact with the

earth. When we touch wires carrying electricity, we may come in touch with a live
wire. The current passes through our body to the earth & we get a
shock. (1+1+1)
b) When many appliances are switched on simultaneously, a lot of current flows
through the main circuit and the current may exceed the permissible amount.
This causes overloading and may cause a fire. So many electrical appliances
should not be used simultaneously.
c) earth wire directs the extra current into earth directly, thus preventing from
electric shock.
5. The magnetic field strength of a current carrying solenoid can be increased by (3)
(i) increasing the number of turns in the solenoid.
(ii) increasing the current flowing through the solenoid.
(iii) Using soft iron as core in the solenoid.
6.a.i) Permanent magnets are made from special alloys such as iron, nickel and
cobalt, several alloys of rare-earth metals and minerals such as lodestone. (1)
a. ii) Soft iron and cobalt can be used to make a temporary magnet. These
materials can be used in solenoids.
 6 b) The strength of the electromagnet can be increased: (2)
-By increasing the current in the coil.
-By increasing the total number of turns of the coil.
7) The main difference between AC and DC lies in the direction in which the
electrons flow. In DC, the electrons flow steadily in a single direction, while
electrons keep switching directions, going forward and then backwards in AC.
(1+1+1)
AC is much easier to step up and down in voltage (using a transformer) than DC,
and can be done more efficiently than the much more expensive and complex DC
step-up/step-down systems. That is why AC is used for power transmission.
Source of AC is AC generators.
Source of DC is Battery.
8.If more electrical appliances of high-power rating like electric iron box, electric
cooker, electric heater, air conditioner etc., are switched on at the same time,
they draw an extremely large current from the circuit is called overloading. (1+2)
Causes of overloading:
• When the active and neutral wires come into direct touch with each other,
overloading and short-circuiting occur.
• Whenever a single plug is utilized to interface a number of equipment.

9.a) More the radius weaker the field. (1+1+1)

(b) Field strength is directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil.
c) more the strength of current, more will be the strength magnetic field.

10.Properties of magnetic field line--- (3)

a) They are imaginary lines.
b) They are closed continuous curves.
c)The tangent at any point on the magnetic field line gives the direction of magnetic field at
that point.
d) Magnetic field lines are closer together in the region where magnetic field is stronger.
e) Magnetic field lines never intersect each other.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. a) Strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid depends upon the
following factors: (3)
number of turns in the coil
amount of current flowing through it
radius of coil
Material of core of the solenoid.
(b) A strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of
magnetic material, like soft iron, when placed inside the coil. The magnet so formed is
called an electromagnet. (1+1)

2. Advantages of AC – (2.5+2.5)
-AC is less expensive and easy to generate than DC.
-AC can be transmitted across long distances without much energy loss, unlike
DC.
-The power loss during transmission in AC is less when compared to DC.
Disadvantages of AC—
-It cannot be used for electroplating.
-The average value of alternative current over a half cycle is less than its rms
value.
-Hence for a given value of current, wires carrying AC require better insulation.
(iii) AC meters have a non-linear scale
3. Magnetic field lines are the imaginary lines used to represent the magnetic field
a) They are imaginary lines.
b) They are closed continuous curves.
c)The tangent at any point on the magnetic field line gives the direction of magnetic field at
that point (1+2+2)

4a) A long tightly wound helical coil of metallic wire containing soft iron in its core is
called an electromagnet. (2)
Uses—1) for electrical devices such as electric trains
2) for moving big objects of iron from one place to another
 3) for removing small iron splinter from an eye of a patient.
4 b) (2)

4c) The soft iron is used to make the electromagnets because the soft iron has
good or high magnetic properties. It can provide a strong magnet. (1)
5) Difference between bar magnet and solenoid (2+3)
--The bar magnet is a permanent magnet whereas a solenoid is an electromagnet ie,
it acts as a magnet only when an electric current is passed through.

When a bar magnet is cut into two halves, both the pieces act as a magnet with the
same magnetic properties whereas when a solenoid is cut into two halves, they will
have weaker fields.

The poles of the bar magnet are fixed whereas for a solenoid the pole can be
altered.

The strength of the magnetic field of a bar magnet is fixed ie, unaltered whereas the
strength of the magnetic field of a solenoid depends on the electric current that is
passed through it

5.b.a) deflection will increase.

5.b.b) deflection will be in reverse direction

5.b.c) no deflection

CCT BASED QUESTIONS

1---

a) (i)
b) (i)
c) (ii)
d) (ii)

2---

a) It will experience a force

b) heating effect

c) must be separated from electricity source using any insulator material

d) the alloy has low melting point and low resistance

3—

a) (ii)

b) (ii)

c) (ii)

d) (iv)
 CHAPTER- 15
OUR ENVRONMENT
Content- Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone depletion, wastes production and their
solutions, Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
ECOSYSTEM
An ecosystem is a system consisting of biotic and abiotic components that function together as a
unit.
• Biotic components- all the living things
• Abiotic components - non-living things like water, light, wind, soil etc.
Ecosystem maintains a balance in the nature.
• Natural ecosystem – forest, pond, lake
• Man-made (artificial ecosystem)- crop fields, garden

Producer: autotrophic, perform photosynthesis e.g. green plants, blue green algae
Consumer: consume the food produced
either directly from producer or indirectly
by feeding on other consumers types of
consumers: -
i- Herbivores – deer
ii- Carnivores – lion
iii- Omnivores – cat
iv- Parasites – bacteria
Decomposers: feed on dead and
decomposed products. E.g. fungi, bacteria
Importance of Decomposers –
• Break down dead remains and waste products of organisms.
• Break down the complex organic substance into simple inorganic substances.
• Release minerals into the soil. Thus, helps in maintaining the fertility of soil.
• Clean the environment
• Help in recycling the materials in the biosphere.

FOOD CHAIN
The sequence of living organisms in an ecosystem in which one organism consumes
another organism to transfer food energy, is called a food chain.
For example
i- Grass Goat Tiger
ii- Grass insects frog snake eagle
iii- Planktons insects fish crane
TROPHIC LEVELS:
The various steps in the food chain at which the transfer
of food (or energy) takes place is called trophic levels.
The different trophic levels are – Producers (T1), Primary
consumers (herbivores-T2), Secondary consumers
(primary carnivores -T2), Tertiary consumers (Sec
carnivores -T3), Decomposers

Significance of Food Chains

• The food chain transfer energy from one trophic
level to another.
• Autotrophs Heterotrophs decomposers
• Only 10 % of energy is transferred from one trophic
level to another. Rest of energy is lost as heat, into
doing work, in digestion, growth, reproduction. It is
called 10 % law.
• Help in study of food relationships and interactions
among the various organisms in an ecosystem.

FOOD WEB
It is inter-connected food chains in an ecosystem.
It forms a network of relationship between various species.
In a food web, one organism may occupy a position in more than one food chain.
More stable food chain / food web means more stable ecosystem.
FOOD PYRAMID-
It is graphic representation of food chain.
It may be formed as, depicted as a pyramid having a broad base formed by producers and
tapering to a point formed by end consumers.

BIOMAGNIFICATION

Accumulation of toxic pollutants at successive higher trophic level is called as bio magnification.

OZONE LAYER

• Ozone (O3) is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen.

• Ozone shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun.
• UV radiation is highly damaging to organisms. It may cause even skin cancer in human
beings.
 • Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on
oxygen (O2) molecule.
• The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into free
oxygen (O) atoms. These atoms then combine with the molecular oxygen to form ozone
as shown—
• The ozone layer depletion takes place at higher rate. The major cause is
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.

BIODEGRADABLE AND NON-BIODEGRADABLE WATSES

i- Biodegradable Wastes: These can be broken down by the biological processes.

E.g. Food waste, plant parts, animal wastes, agricultural residue, paper etc.
Decomposers can decompose these without harming ecosystem. Food waste, trees
leaves, urine and fecal matter, sewage agricultural residue, paper, wood, cloth, cow-
dung etc.
ii- Non-biodegradable waste- these can ‘t be broken down by biological processes.
E.g. - Chemical pesticides, DDT, mercury, lead, plastics, polythene bags etc.
These wastes are major pollutants of the environment.

MAINTAININMG THE GARBAGE WE PRODUE

• Change in attitudes toward using only biodegradable items.

• Proper disposal of wastes
• Follow Sewage treatment norms
• 3 ‗R ‘principle- reduce , recycle, reuse

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Question
Q1-The flow of energy in the food chain is unidirectional. Why?
Ans . Energy lost as heat from the living organism of a food chain cannot be reused by the plants in
photosynthesis
Q 2- In a food chain, 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer. How much energy
will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer?
Ans: 10 J
Q 3- Producers always occupy the first trophic level in any food chain. Why?
Ans: Only producers have the ability to trap solar energy and manufacture organic food through
the process of photosynthesis.
Q 4 - Name any two abiotic components of an environment.
Answer:
(a) Climatic factors (light, temperature, rainfall)
(b) Edaphic factor (Soil)
Q 5- Give any two ways in which biodegradable substance would affect the environment.
Ans: They keep the environment clean as they are easily decomposed.
They can easily go through the geochemical cycle with the help of decomposers.

Short Answer Type Question

Q6-What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Ans: i- The organisms in specific trophic level will not be able to get the food
ii-It will cause a disturbance in food chain and therefore ecological imbalance will take place.
Q7- Why is a lake considered to be a natural ecosystem?
Ans: In Lake living organisms grow, reproduce and interact with other biotic and abiotic
components. In lake different components carry out all activities in nature by themselves without
any human interference; therefore it is referred to as a natural ecosystem.
Q 8 - How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? List two ways.
Ans: i-Separation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes
ii-Preparation of compost / vermicomposting from biodegradable waste
iii-Recycling of waste
Q 9- Which gas shield the surface of earth from harmful radiation of the sun. why these
radiations are supposed to be harmful for us?
Answer- Ozone gas
Harmful radiation of the sun like UV radiation may causes skin cancer, cataract, fall in immunity
in infants, decline in photosynthesis rate etc
Q 10- In a certain study conducted on the occurrence of DDT along food chains in an
ecosystem, the concentration of DDT in grass was found to be 0-5 ppm. In sheep, it was 2
ppm and in man it was 10 ppm. Name the phenomenon and define?
Ans: Bio-magnification
Bio-magnification is the increase in the level of a toxic substance with each successive rise in the
trophic level of a food chain.
Long Answer Type Questions

Q11- Why bacteria and fungi are called decomposers? List any two advantages of
decomposers to the environment.

Answer: Decomposers degrade breakdown the complex organic substances into simple inorganic
substances that go into the soil and are used up once more by the plants.
Advantages:
i- Clean environment by decomposing dead bodies of plants/ animals
ii- Replenish nutrients (Inorganic substance) into soil
iii- Helps in Nutrient recycling

Q12- Answer the followings-

i- What is ozone? How is it formed in the atmosphere?

ii- How ozone layer is useful
iii- Name the substances responsible for the depletion of ozone layer.
 Ans:
i- Ozone is triatomic form of oxygen, O3. Ozone is formed in the
upper atmosphereby the action of ultraviolet (UV) radiations over
oxygen (O2)
ii- It protects us from harmful UV radiation of sun.
iii- The important ozone depleting substances chlorofluorocarbons
(CFC), methane,N2O, chlorine.

Q13- (a) Write two harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment.
Suggestalternatives to the usage of plastic bags.
(b) List any two practices that can be followed to dispose of the waste
produced in ourhomes.
Ans: (a) Harmful effects of using plastic bags:
(i) These are non-biodegradable substances. They cannot be decomposed and
therefore remainsas pollutants in nature for many years.
(ii) The plastic bags choke drains and causes waterlogging.
(iii) The plastic release harmful chemicals in soil, water
slowly over to years.Jute bags and cloth bags are the
alternatives to the polyethene bags.
(b) Practices to dispose of the waste produced in our homes:
(i) Separation of biodegradable and non-
biodegradable wastes.(ii)The biodegradable
waste can be converted to manure.
(iii) Non-biodegradable waste should be disposed of at suitable places from
where municipalauthorities can pick them up and dispose properly and
scientifically.
(iv) Reuse the waste
Q14- Draw a line diagram to show flow of solar energy in ecosystem
Ans:

Q 15- In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How
much energywas available to the producer?
Ans : simple food chain
Plants ———> Deer ———> Lion.
As per 10 % law only 10 % of energy is transferred to
next trophic level-Energy available to deer = 100J x 10 =
1000 J
Energy available to plants = 1000 x 10 = 10,000 J
 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [1 Mark]
Q 1.How the environment will be effected if we kill all the organisms in one trophic
level?
2. United Nations act to control the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used in
refrigerators. Give reason
3. Name the compounds responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
4. Define ‘trophic level’.
5. Draw various steps in a food chain ?
6. Give the important function of presence of ozone in earth’s atmosphere?
7. Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides may result-in the
degradation of the environment.

8. It is necessary to conserve our environment. Justify.

9. Define biodegradable waste?
10. How decomposers help in the ecosystem?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [2 Marks]

11. Write meaning of the term ‘Biomass.

12. Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers. Explain.
13 .In a food chain, if 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer, how much
energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary
consumer?

14. Consider the following food chain which occurs in a forest:

Grass → Deer → Lion
If 10000 J of solar energy is available to the grass, how much energy would be
available to the deer to transfer it to the lion? (Foreign 2012)

15. Define biological magnification?

16. Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides may result in
the degradation of the environment.

17 .List two important roles decomposers play in the environment.

18 .List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an

ecosystem.
.19.State with reason any two possible consequences of elimination of decomposers
from the earth.

20. State the position of autotrophs and herbivores in a food chain.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [3 Marks]

21. (a) Describe ‘environmental pollution’? (b) Distinguish between biodegradable

and non-biodegradable pollutants. (c) Choose the biodegradable pollutants from the
list given below: Sewage, DDT, radioactive waste, agricultural waste.
 22. Bacteria and fungi called decomposers.Give reason. List any two advantages of
decomposers to the environment.
23. Explain the phenomenon of “biological magnification” How does it affect
organisms belonging to different trophic levels particularly the tertiary consumers?
24. How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? Why is the damage of ozone
layer a cause of concern to us? State a cause of this damage.
25. . Explain ‘biological magnification’ with the help of an example.
26. Describe how decomposers facilitate recycling of matter in order to maintain
balance in the ecosystem.
27. Define biodiversity? If biodiversity of an area is not preserved .Mention its effect.
28. Energy flow in the biosphere is unidirectional.Explain.
29. How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give any two
methods.
30. Damage to the ozone layer is a cause for concern.” Justify this statement.
Suggest any two steps to limit this damage.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]

31. A non-biodegradable toxic chemical has entered into the food chain. Which type
of food habit will you suggest to a man, vegetarian or non-vegetarian? Explain with
the help of a food chain. The food chain which you would suggest, is advantageous
in an another aspect. How?
32. Explain producers, consumers and decomposers of the biotic environment with
examples of each.
33. List down the Functions of an Ecosystem .
34. Define food chain. Write Significance of Food Chain.
35. Explain 10 percent law with the help of an example.
Case Study Type questions
Case Study – 1
1.) Waste management is essential in today’s society. Due to an increase in
population, the generation of waste is getting doubled day by day. Moreover, the
increase in waste is affecting the lives of many people. Waste management is the
managing of waste by disposal and recycling of it. Moreover, waste management
needs proper techniques keeping in mind the environmental situations. For instance,
there are various methods and techniques by which the waste is disposed of. You
must have come across 5 R’s to save the environment: refuse, reduce, reuse,
repurpose and recycle.
1) Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as
food packaging because
a) recycled papers take lots of space
b) recycled papers can’t cover food properly
c) recycled papers can cause infection
d) recycled papers are costly
2) Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Select
the appropriate statements giving the importance of waste segregation.
● i) less waste goes to the landfills
● ii) better for public health and the environment
● iii) help in reducing the waste
● iv) resulting in deterioration of a waste picker’s health
 a) both i) and ii)
b) both i) and iii)
c) both ii) and iii)
d) both i) and iv)
Case Study – 2
1.) Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one
element is removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in
some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers. Primary
producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy to create
complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so
must consume producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the
sun’s light is necessary for photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun
disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there are some forms of
life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy from
chemosynthesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life may not
require solar energy to thrive.

1) If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what

percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?
● a) 10,000 J
● b) 100 J
● c) 1000 J
● d) It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.

2) Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. Movement of

● a) Energy is bidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.
● b) Energy is repeatedly circulation and matter is unidirectional.
● c) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.
● d) Energy is multidirectional and matter is bidirectional.

3) Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain he should be
considered as occupying
● a) First trophic level
● b) Second trophic level
● c) Third trophic level
● d) Fourth trophic level
4. The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited because of:
● a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
● b) Less availability of food
● c) Polluted air
● d) Water
5) The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the
same is because decomposers:
● a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
● b) Do not breakdown organic compounds
● c) Convert organic material to inorganic forms
● d) Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic
forms

Case study – 3
 In Kunjpura village, located in Karnal district, Haryana, Aditya Aggarwal and his older
brother Amit Aggarwal run Tee Cee Industries, a steel plant set up by their ancestors
in 1984. Along with this, they also run a gaushala that houses 1,200 cows that can
no longer produce milk. The cow shelter was manageable but running the steel plant
was turning out to be expensive because they spent a whopping Rs 5 lakh every
month on electricity. The brothers struck upon an idea. Why not run the factory with
the biogas produced from cow dung from the shelter and other gaushalas, along with
bio and agri
led Aditya and Amit to start Amrit Fertilizers, a biogas project, in 2014, without any
government support.
1) Raw material used in bio gas plant is
● (a) Animal dung
● (b) crop residue
● (c) Food waste
● (d) All of the above
2) Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because
● (i) Biogas has lower calorific value.
● (ii) Animal dung cake has higher calorific value.
● (iii) Biogas has high heating capacity.
● (iv) Biogas burns without smoke.
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)
3) Biogas is formed in the
(a) presence of air only.
(b) presence of water only.
(c) absence of air only.
(d) presence of water and absence of air.
4) Biogas is a mixture of the following gases.
(a) Ethane,Carbon monoxide, Nitrogen and Butane
(b) Methane,Hydrogen,Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen
(c) Butane,Carbon monoxide,Propane and Hydrogen
(d) Carbon monoxide,Sulphur dioxide and Hydrogen
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
Q.1. Assertion: Polythene bags and plastic containers are non-biodegradable substances.
Reason: They can be broken down by microorganisms in natural simple harmless substances.
Q.2. Assertion: The concentration of harmful chemicals is least in human beings.
Reason: Man is at the apex of the food chain.
Q.3. Assertion: Ozone is formed in upper atmosphere by O2 in presence of UV radiations.
Reason: Ozone depletion will lead to UV rays reaching earth which may cause skin cancer.
Q.4. Assertion: Aquarium needs regular cleaning
Reason: There are no microbes to clean water in aquarium, therefore, it needs to be regularly
cleaned.
Q 5 ) Assertion: Accumulation of harmful chemicals is higher in case of organisms at
higher trophic level.
Reason: Food chain normally can’t reduce beyond 3 or 4 trophic level.
Q 6 ) Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial to organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level to next.
Q 7 ) Assertion: Autotrophs can produce food on its own.
Reason: Green plants can absorb 1% energy of sunlight that fall on the leaves.
Q 8 ) Assertion: Ozone layer is getting depleted at upper atmosphere and it is a
serious cause of concern.
Reason: CFC reacts with ozone and breaks it.
Q 9 ) Assertion : The crown fires are most destructive as they burn the tree top.
Reason : Due to crown fire the temperature of that area may rise upto 700 degree celcius .
Q 10) ). Assertion : Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries
such as India.
Reason : No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in
biodiversity.
MCQ ( 1 MARK EACH )
1. Sulphur dioxide affects

(a) haemoglobin of blood (b) Arteries (c) Alveoli of lungs (d) Nerves
2. Identify the non- functional component of an ecosystem.
(a) Communities (b) Decomposers (c) Sunlight (d) Energy flow
3. Free services provided to humans by ecosystems include
(a) control of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration (b) prevention of soil erosion (c)
filtering of pollutants from water and air (d) all of the above
4. Scientists think that human-induced global warming will be more harmful to plants and
animals than were past, natural climate fluctuations.Choose the correct reason
(a) because temperatures will change faster (b) because the temperature changes will be
larger (c) because species now are less adaptable than species in the past (d) because
ecosystems are now more complicated than they used to be
5. As energy is passed from one trophic level to another, the amount of usable energy
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains the same (d) energy is not passed from one trophic
level to another
6. Each step in a food chain is called a
(a) trophic level (b) consumer level (c) food web (d) producer
7. CO2 absorbs some of the .......... that radiates from the surface of earth to space
(a) ozone (b) heat (c) food web (d) producer
8. The biological process by which carbon is returned to its reservoir is
(a) photosynthesis (b) de-nitrification (c) carbon fixation (d) cellular respiration
9. For corrosion of metals, there should be
(a) Exposed surface of metal (b) Moisture (c) Air (d) All of the above
10. The last chain of food is
(a) producers (b) decomposers (c) parasites (d) none of the above
11. Every food chain in the ecosystem begins with ............. which are the original
source of food.
(a) Saprophytes
(b) Parasites
(c) Producers
(d) Herbivores
12. We should reduce the use of the plastic bags, bottles etc. because:
(a) They are not durable
(b) They are non-biodegradable
(c) They are made of toxic materials
(d) They react with the atmospheric gases
13. Among the following choose the correct option which contains only
biodegradable items?
i. Wood, paper, PVC
ii. Paper, seeds, detergent,
iii. Paper, animal excreta, wood
iv. Wool, leaves, paper
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
14. Identify the in incorrect statement in view of the plants.
(a) They convert the solar energy into mechanical energy
(b) They prepare their food from organic compounds
(c) They are also called producers
(d) They are the initial source of energy in a food chain
15. In a food chain the second trophic level is occupied by:
(a) Carnivores
(b) Autotrophs
(c) Herbivores
(d) Producers
16. Green plants utilize ……… percent of sun’s energy to prepare their food by the
process of photosynthesis?
(a) 1 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 20 percent
(d) 99 percent
17. The process of accumulation of harmful chemical substances like pesticides, in
the body of living organisms at each trophic level of a food chain is known as:
(a) Biological magnification
(b) Biological accumulation
(c) Chemical magnification
(d) Chemical accumulation
18. Choose the correct conclusion of the excessive exposure of humans to sun’s
ultraviolet rays?
i. Peptic ulcers
ii. Eye disease like cataract
iii. Damage to lungs
iv. Skin cancer
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)
19. Identify the correct full form for DDT.
(a) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
(b) Dichlorodiphenyltetrachloroethane
(c) Dichlorodecaphenyltrichloroethane
(d) Dichlorodiethyltrichloroethane
20. If 100 J energy is available at the producer level in a food chain then the energy
available to the secondary consumer will be:
(a) 10 J
(b) 0.1 J
(c) 1 J
(d) 0.01 J

ANSWERS
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [1 Mark]

1. If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the following effects will take place:
∙ The population of organisms in previous trophi’c level will increase. ∙ The organisms
in next trophic level will not be able to get the food, so they will migrate to some
other ecosystem or die. ∙ It will cause an ecological imbalance in the food chain.

2. CFCs deplete the ozone layer around the earth, hence their production is
controlled by United Nations.

3. The compounds responsible for the depletion of ozone layer are

chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
4. Trophic level is the position that an organism occupies in a food chain, where
transfer of food or energy takes place.
5. The various steps in a food chain are called trophic levels.
6. The important function of presence of ozone in earth’s atmosphere is that it
shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiations of the sun.
7. The pesticides used in crop field are washed down into the water bodies. From
water bodies, these are absorbed by aquatic plants and animals of a food chain and
thereby degrades the environment.
8. It is necessary to conserve our environment to prevent depletion of natural
resources and environmental damage, thereby sustaining life.
9. Biodegradable wastes are those substances which are broken down into simpler,
harmless substances in nature in due course of time by the biological processes
such as action of micro organisms like certain bacteria. Examples: Urine and faecal
matter, sewage, agricultural residue, paper, wood, cloth and cattle dung.
10. Role of decomposers in the environment: ∙ They return the nutrients to the
nutrient pool. ∙ They help in completing the different bio-geochemical cycles, thus
they maintain the balance in the ecosystem.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [2 Marks]

11..Answer:Biomass is the total amount of living or organic matter in an ecosystem
at any time.
12. Answer:Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers because these
microorganisms break down the complex organic matter present in dead plants and
animals into simpler substances.
13 Answer:
According to ten percent law, 10% of the energy of producer will be available to
primary consumer, and 10% of this energy will be available to secondary consumer
and so on.

Hence, 100 J of energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to

tertiary consumer.
14. Answer: The energy available to the deer is 1000 J to transfer it to the lion. This
can be depicted as follows:

15. Answer: Biological magnification or biomagnification refers to the process of

accumulation of non- biodegradable chemicals (pesticides, etc.) into the body of
organisms through the food chain which go on increasing in its concentration at each
trophic level.
16. Answer: Pesticides are the chemicals used to kill plant and animal pests. They
are non-biodegradable and toxicants. For example, excessive use of DDT resulted in
reduced population of fish eating birds. DDT accumulated in such birds through the
food chain. It interfered with the egg shell formation. The shell being thin broke due
to weight of the bird during incubation. Hence, their population declined.
.
17 .Answer: Decomposers are microorganisms including bacteria and fungi which
decompose or break-down the complex organic compound present in dead plants
and animals into simpler substances. Role of decomposers in environment are-
• They help in decomposing dead bodies of plants and animals and hence act as
cleansing agents of environmcnl.
• ‘They help in recycling of materials in the ecosystem lo maintain its stability.
.
18 .Answer: The existence of decomposers in an ecosystem is essential because:
(i) If there were no decomposers, then the dead bodies of plants and animals would
keep lying as such and the elements constituting plant and animal bodies would
never be returned to their original pools like soil, air and water. In such case the
organic waste go on accumulating and the cyclic process of life and death would be
disrupted.
(ii) Decomposers make the soil fertile by providing/replenishing nutrients to it, thus
forming the integral part of ecosystem.

19 .Answer: Consequences of elimination of decomposers are:

(i) There would be no recycling of nutrients and therefore, raw materials to produce
food will not be available to producers. Hence, the food chains will get affected.
(ii) The dead bodies of plants and animals will go on accumulating in the absence of
decomposition thereby polluting the environment.
20. Answer:. The position of producers (or autotrophs) in a food chain constitute the
first trophic level. They fix up sun’s energy and make it available for consumers. The
herbivores or primary consumers (which feed upon plants) constitute the second
trophic level in a food chain.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [3 Marks]

21 (a) Environmental pollution is an undesirable change in the physical, chemical or

biological characteristics of the natural environment, brought about by man’s
activities. This pollution may affect the soil, rivers, seas or the atmosphere. (b)
Biodegradable pollutants Non-biodegradable pollutants (i) These pollutants can be
broken-down into non poisonous substances in nature by the action of
microorganisms. (i) These pollutants cannot be brokendown into non-poisonous
substances by microorganisms. (ii) They get recycled thus, do not need any dumping
sites. (ii) They cannot be recycled thus, require dumping sites. (iii) These are
obtained from living things. (iii) These are obtained from non-living things. (iv) They
cause minimum environmental pollution. (iv) They cause environmental pollution. (c)
Biodegradable pollutants are sewage and agricultural waste.

22 .Answer. Bacteria and fungi breakdown the dead remains and waste products of
organisms. These micro organisms are called the decomposers as they breakdown
the complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances that go into the
soil and are used up once more by the plants. Two advantages of decomposers to
the environment are as follows: Decomposers feed, on the dead bodies of plants
and animals. They return the simple components to soil and help in making the
steady state of ecosystem by recycling of nutrients. They, therefore, create a
balance in the environment. They also act as scavengers or cleansing agents of the
atmosphere.

23 Answer. The process in which harmful chemicals enter a food chain and get
accumulated progressively at each trophic level is called biological magnification.
Harmful and toxic chemicals enter our bodies when they are added to soil and water.
Use of pesticides to protect the food crops from diseases and pests and chemical
wastes of factories are dumped in open or disposed off into rivers. These chemicals
are washed down into the soil and ultimately to water table or get absorbed or taken
up from the soil by the plants along with water and minerals and in this way harmful
chemicals enter the food chain. The quantity of these harmful chemicals increase
with increase in trophic level of the food chain because these substances are not
degradable. Man is at the top of the food chain, so concentration is maximum in
human beings. Thus, accumulation of DDT has been maximum in man as DDT is
used to destroy pests. DDT is accumulated in the following way in this food chain..
This is the reason why our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables and fruits
and even meat contain varying amounts of pesticides residues. So, the highest
trophic level at the extreme right of food chain has the maximum concentration of
harmful chemicals in a food chain.
24. Ozone is formed in upper atmosphere by the reaction of ultraviolet (UV)
radiations on oxygen (02) molecule. The damage to ozone layer is a cause of
concern to us as due to its damage, more ultraviolet rays reach the earth’s surface
causing various health hazards. A cause of this damage is the presence of large
amount of chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere.

25.. Pesticides used in crops are washed down .into the soil. From soil these are
absorbed by plants along with water and minerals and thus, they enter the food
chain. While consuming the crops, human beings also consume these pesticides
which get accumulated in our bodies. This phenomenon is known as biological
magnification.

26. Decomposers are micro organisms that obtain energy from the chemical
breakdown of dead organisms of animals or plants. These micro organisms
breakdown the complex organic substances of dead organisms into simple inorganic
substances that go into the soil and are used up once more by the plants.
Decomposers thus, help in recycling of matter.

27. Biodiversity is the existence of a wide variety of species of plants, animals and
microorganisms in a natural habitat within a particular environment or existence of
genetic variation within a species. Biodiversity of an area is the number of species or
range of different life forms found there. Forests are ‘biodiversity hotspots’. Every
living being is dependent on another living being. It is a chain. If biodiversity is not
maintained, the links of the chain go missing. If one organism goes missing, this will
affect all the living beings who are dependent on it.

28. The energy flow through different steps in the food chain is unidirectional. This
means that energy captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input
and it passes to the herbivores, i.e. it moves progressively through various trophic
levels. Thus, energy flow from the sun through producers to consumers is in single
direction only.

29. Problem of waste disposal can be solved by following methods: (i) by disposing
biodegradable and non-biodegradable waster separately. (ii) by reusing materials as
much as possible.

30. Ozone layer prevents the harmful ultraviolet radiation to enter the atmosphere
and reach the earth’s surface. Depletion of ozone layer has become a cause for
concern because it can cause serious effects on human body and other organisms
of the environment like fatal diseases such as skin cancer, changes in genetic
material DNA, eye damage, etc. Two steps to limit this damage are as follows -
Judicious use of aerosol spray propellants such as fluorocarbon and
chlorofluorocarbons which cause depletion or hole in ozone layer. Control over large
scale nuclear explosions and limited use of supersonic planes.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]

31. Vegetarian food chain will be suggested in case of entry of non-biodegradable

toxic chemical into the food chain. Non-biodegradable chemical gets concentrated at
every trophic level by the process of biological magnification. As the concentration
increases with the number of trophic level in a food chain, man will get high
concentration of the chemical in a non-vegetarian food chain than in a vegetarian
food chain, e.g. Vegetarian food chain: Non-vegetarian food chain: Vegetarian food
chain is advantageous in terms of energy available to man because it has less
number of trophic levels. As 90% of energy is lost to the enviornment, at every
trophic level, lesser number of trophic levels will result in lesser energy loss.

32..Producers: Those organisms which produce food by photosynthesis, i.e.

organisms which can make organic compounds like sugar and starch from inorganic
substances using the radiant energy of the sun in the presence of chlorophyll.
Producers, therefore are considered as a source of energy for those above it in a
food chain. Examples: All green plants also called autotrophs and certain blue-green
algae. Consumers: Those organisms which depend upon the producers for food,
either directly or indirectly by feeding on other consumers for their sustenance.
Consumers, therefore, feed upon those below it in a food chain and are called
heterotrophs. These can be classified into primary consumers or herbivores,
secondary consumers or small carnivores, omnivores and parasites, e.g. cows,
humans. Examples of consumers: Herbivores are the animals that consume or eat
vegetation or plants, e.g. cows, horses. Carnivores are the animals that eat flesh of
other animals, e.g. tigers, wolves.
Omnivores are the animals that eat both plants and animals, e.g. humans,
cockroaches.
33 .Functions of an Ecosystem
● Ecosystem indicates available solar energy and the efficiency of an ecosystem
to trap the same.
● It gives information about the available essential minerals and their recycling
periods.
● It provides knowledge about the web of interactions and inter-relationship
among the various population as well as between the population and the
abiotic environment.
● It helps human beings to know about conservation of resources, protection
from pollution and inputs required for maximizing productivity.
● In the ecosystem, two processes of energy flow and biogeochemical cycles
(nutrients movement) proceed side by side. The energy flow is unidirectional
while the movement of nutrients is cyclic.
34.. The sequence of living organisms in a community in which one organism
consumes another organism to transfer food energy, is called a food chain.

Significance of Food Chains

● The study of food chains helps in understanding food relationships and
interactions among the various organisms in an ecosystem. The food chains,
transfer energy and materials between various living components of an
ecosystem.
● The food chains transfer energy and materials between various living
components in an ecosystem or biosphere.
● The food chains give dynamicity to an ecosystem or biosphere.
● The movement of toxic substances like pesticides, weedicides, etc., through
food chains, can prove very harmful.
35.. Ten percent law: Ten percent law states that only 10 percent of the energy
entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next
higher trophic level.

For example, Suppose 1000 J of solar energy is received by green plants, then only
1% of solar energy available on earth is utilized by plants. So only 10 J (1% of 1000
J) is trapped by plants and the rest 990 J of energy is lost to the environment. So,
plants utilizes only 10 J of energy. Next, only 10% of the 10 J energy of plant, that is,
1 J, is available to the herbivore animal while 9 J is lost to the environment. Again,
just 10% of the 1 J of energy of herbivore animals is utilized by carnivore animals.
Thus, carnivore animals have only 0.1 J of energy while 0.9 J is lost to the
environment.

Answer case Study Type questions

Case Study – 1
1 Answer – c) recycled papers can cause infection

2) Answer – a) both i) and ii)

Case Study – 2
1 Answer – b) 100 J

2 Answer – c) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating

3) Answer – c) Third Trophic level

4 .Answer – a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic level

5) Answer – a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain

Case study – 3
1 Answer – (d) All of the above
2) Answer – (c) (iii) and (iv)
3) Answer – (d) presence of water and absence of air.
4) Answer – (b) Methane, Hydrogen, Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen

Answer: ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

.
1 Answer: (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
Q.2. Answer: (d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
Q.3 Answer: (b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not correct explanation of the
assertion.
Q.4. Answer : (a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is correct explanation of the
assertion.
Q 5 )Ans. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
Q 6 ) Ans. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
 Q 7 ) Ans. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
Q 8 Ans. (a) both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
Q 9 ) Ans : (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the
correct explanation of assertion (A
Q 10) Ans : (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Answer: MCQ

1 .Ans : (c) Alveoli of lungs

2. Ans : (d) Energy flow The flow of energy is not a functional component of an
ecosystem.
3. Ans : (d) all of the above
4. Ans : (a) because temperatures will change faster
5. Ans : (b) decreases
6. Ans : (a) trophic level
7 Ans : (b) heat
8. Ans : (d) cellular respiration
9. Ans : (d) All of the above
10. Ans : (b) decomposers
11. Answer: (c) Producers
12. Answer: (b) They are non-biodegradable
13. Answer: (d) (iii) and (iv)
14 Answer: (b) They prepare their food from organic compounds
15. Answer: (c) Herbivores
16. Answer: (a) 1 percent
17. Answer: (a) Biological magnification
18. Answer: (c) (ii) and (iv)
19. Answer: (a) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
20. Answer: (c) 1 J

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