EXAMINERS REPORT

MATHEMATICS - I
HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL
CERTIFICATE
ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2018

Compiled By
Brig ® Abdul Khalique

FEDERAL BOARD OF INTERMEDIATE &

SECONDARY EDUCATION, ISLAMABAD
(PAKISTAN)
 PART I: STATISTICAL INFORMATION

The examination comprising a paper of 100 marks was administered to the students who had
completed their one year of academic education at Higher Secondary School Certificate
(HSSC) level. Question paper was divided into three sections, each containing different
types of questions, namely: "Section A" consisting of question number one, having twenty
compulsory structured part questions - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each
with 20 percent weighting; "Section B comprising fourteen open ended questions with
limited cognitive demand - Short Response Questions (SRQs) of four marks each taken from
the prescribed book with 40 percent weighting and candidates were required to answer any
ten out of them of their own choice from this section; "Section C" consisting of seven open
ended questions with greater cognitive demand - Extended Response Questions (ERQs) of
eight marks each and out of which examinees were required to answer any five questions of
their choice with proportionate weighting of 40 percent of the paper. Time duration of the
paper was three hours.
A total of 33843 candidates appeared in this paper during the annual examination
2018 and out of them 12780 (37.76 percent) passed the examination with the grade
percentage distribution as summarized in Table 1:
Table 1: Grade-wise distribution of candidates

Grade Students Percentage of Grade

A1 34 0.1
A 948 2.8
B 1963 5.8
C 2132 6.3
D 4197 12.4
E 2944 8.7
F 20136 59.5
Absent 1489 4.4
Total 33843 100
 PART II: GENERAL COMMENTS

Most of the candidates handled "Section A" very well in terms of attainment of relatively the
best marks when compared with sections "B and C". Generally the questions in this section
comprised of mixed cognitive levels in that; 9 (45%) marks part questions were of knowledge
level which required the candidates to recall different terms and procedures, 6 (30%) marks
part questions required some understanding of the concepts involved and 5 (25%) marks part
questions were of application level which required them to apply the concepts in the given
situation. The candidates performed better in knowledge level MCQs while they faced some
difficulty in answering part questions involving understanding and application of concepts.
However, in 7 part questions, of paper version 1871 comprising four (2, 3, 12, 13) of
knowledge, two (9, 17) of understanding and one (8) of application levels, their performance
was the weakest which reflect that either majority of the candidates did not comprehend the
requirements of the questions clearly or had not prepared well for the examination. The
examinees secured on the average 8.31 (41.55%) marks in this section. The performance of
the candidates in answering the part questions of "Section B", which consisted of three part
questions 12 (21.43%) marks of knowledge, nine part questions 36 (64.29%) marks of
understanding and two part questions 8 (14.29%) marks of application levels, was lower
when compared with "Section A" but better than "Section C" of the paper. They generally
faced difficulty in fully answering the questions which involved application of concepts,
despite the fact that all questions were taken word by word from the book, which are usually
discussed in the classroom by the teacher. The students secured on the average 16.45
(41.12%) marks in this section. The part questions (vi) and (xii) of understanding level from
chapters on "Sequences and Series" and "Application of Trigonometry" respectively and (ix)
and (xiii) of application level from chapters on "Fundamentals of Trigonometry" and "Inverse
Trigonometric Functions" were the least choice questions attempted by less than 40 percent
of the candidates and their performance in these questions was the lowest. This suggests that
the candidates had generally carried out selective study for the examination. The "Section C"
comprised of seven questions of mixed cognitive levels with a bias towards higher cognitive
levels. These comprised of portions of questions of 21 (37.50%) marks of knowledge, 23
(41.07%) marks of understanding and 12 (21.43%) marks of application levels. The general
performance of examinees was the lowest in this section mainly due to higher cognitive
demands and they on the average secured 14.37 (35.92%) marks. The preference of
candidates varied in the selection of questions and out of these seven questions, the lowest
choice three questions attempted were Question 3 by 33.79%, Question 5 by 21.55% and
Question 9 by 24.79% and the three popular choice questions were Question 4 by 47.18%,
Question 7 by 41.53% and Question 8 by 65.69% whereas they were required to select five
out of the seven questions from this section. The overall question paper comprised of 30
(22.73%) knowledge, 61 (46.21%) understanding and 41 (31.06%) of application level
portions of questions (marks). The overall performance of the candidates was satisfactory,
whose performance index was 39.94 percent and had secured on the average 37.67 percent
marks and almost 39.76 % passed the examination, mainly due to questions of lower level
cognitive demands in the question paper, knowledge and understanding level questions. The
main factor which contributed towards exaggerated reflected performance is that all
questions, were given word by word from the book, which the candidates had practiced
before in the classrooms and these were mere recall (knowledge level) questions for them.
The section-wise performance of examinees is as indicated in Table 2 and Fig 1.

Table 2: Accumulative performance. Fig. 1 Accumulative performance in

all sections.

Section Performance Index %

60
50
A 0.54 54.00
40
30 %
B 0.52 52.09
20 A %

C 0.48 47.53 10
0
A B C O/A
O/A 0.40 39.94

In certain questions where understanding of concepts or their application was required for
answering, the candidates faced some difficulty in comprehending the requirements
completely, especially in case of open ended questions contained in sections B and C. In
addition, the questions from the chapters on "Sequences and Series", "Application of
Trigonometry", "Fundamentals of Trigonometry" and "Inverse Trigonometric Functions"
were the low choice questions attempted by the candidates irrespective of their cognitive
levels which reflect that these chapters were not well prepared by them and had carried out
selective study for the examination. Some of the candidates who attempted questions from
these chapters their answers were ambiguous, incomplete or irrelevant. However, in case of
recall (knowledge level) questions, they answered better due to their previous knowledge and
experience. The overall performance of the examinees varied from section to section, the best
in case of "Section A" (MCQs) followed by "Section B" (SRQs) and comparatively the
lowest in "Section C" (ERQs). The section-wise marks allocated to different question items
according to their cognitive levels are given in the Table 3 and fig 2.

Table 3: Marks % - Cognitive Level Fig.2 Marks % allocated in all

sections.
Knowledge Understanding Application
Section (K) (U) (A)
70
A 45 30 25 60
50
K
B 21.42 64.29 14.29 40
30 U
A
20 A
C 37.50 41.07 21.43 10
0
A B C O/A
O/A 22.73 46.21 31.06

Areas Noted for Improvement of Various Stakeholders

Analysis of question paper, answer scripts, performance and observation/comments of Head

and Sub-examiners led to the identification of following deficiencies in the examination
system:
Question Paper
i) Question paper setter used appropriate command words while writing the question
items for different sections of this paper. The question items were biased towards higher
cognitive levels due to which candidates faced difficulty in answering. The performance of
the candidates is just satisfactory presumably due to time constraints and selective study by
the candidates for the examination.
ii) Inability of paper setter to construct questions where students were required to be
tested for understanding of concepts and their application in a novel situation to discriminate
those who understand the concepts and can apply them in a given situations from those who
can reproduce solutions through memory only. The questions given in the paper were
reproduced verbatim from the book, due to which the candidates were tested for the
preparation for the examination only. The candidates, where teachers had thoroughly covered
the questions given in the book, performed better when compared with those where it was
partially covered or left to the students to practice at their own time.
Student Learning Objectives and Examination Grid
iii) The question paper was prepared from the contents of the text book only and the
Student Learning Objectives (SLOs) of the course were ignored; even the MCQs were
reproduced. To facilitate the paper setters and the teachers in the institutions, the board had
issued the SLOs of the subject and a model question paper which was to be followed in its
true letter and spirit including the implied examination grid. The question paper was
prepared, following the pattern of the model question paper only, without ensuring the
required percentage of question items of different difficulty levels (examination grid). There
is a requirement to issue the Examination Grid for this paper to all stakeholders to ensure
standardization and compliance by all concerned.
Marking Key
iv) Marking Key which was issued to the sub-examiners to ensure uniformity in marking
of answer scripts by them was appropriately worded and prepared with minor details of
award of marks. It is felt that marking of this paper was by and large quite reliable. The
Marking Key is the backbone of the entire evaluation system and needed to be elaborate
explaining the requirements along with award of marks for each completely or partially
answered portions of a question. The preparation of Marking Key is the responsibility of the
Question Paper Setter to ensure the uniformity of marking of answer scripts keeping in view
the requirements of questions given by the paper setter at all marking centres but here in the
instant case it was prepared by the Head Examiner of the marking team at Islamabad centre
as per the requirements ascertained by him.
Markers
v) The inability of markers to evaluate accurately the answer books is evident from the
non-uniformity in award of marks in that, similar answers of different questions were
awarded differently, certain incorrect steps were ignored and some incomplete answers were
given full credit. This suggests incompetence of markers to comprehend fully the
requirements of question items and they also ignored the details given in the marking key and
largely depended upon their own experience and understanding in awarding marks. In
addition, the disconnect between the question paper setter and the heads of marking teams
who prepared the marking keys also contributed towards the non-uniformity in award of
marks at different marking centres.
vi) The purpose of examination is twofold; one is to determine the students who have
successfully acquired the needed knowledge and skills required at their level and can apply
certain concepts in a novel situation and the second one is to place the successful candidates
in different grades according to their attainment levels. The question paper, requiring to recall
solutions of the questions as given in the text book, ignoring the time constraints and a
disconnect between the question paper setter and the head examiner in preparation of
marking key besides unreliable marking of answer books by inexperienced markers negate
the very purpose of examination and it appears mere an exercise. The examination in its
present form will promote rote learning by the students only without testing their
comprehension and application skills.
Recommendations
vii) There is a requirement to change existing system of paper setting and marking
procedure of answer books at the board level to ensure validity and reliability of the
examination. Parameters (question paper pattern and examination grid) be laid down as per
international standards of each subject and must be followed for at least five years to
ascertain and compare accurately the progress made by the students in teaching and learning
in the institutions, against a uniform assessment standard. In the present situation, in the
absence of a reliable examination system progress shown through the marks and grades
attained by the students remains questionable.
viii) There is a growing trend among the students to carry out selective study for the
examination and in that they leave certain important chapters on choice which weakens their
base for higher studies. Although their results at HSSC level improve by selective study but it
is adversely affecting their professional competence in the practical life. Further, this weaker
base is transferred from generation to generation. Therefore, the choice given to the
candidates in "Section B" containing (SRQs to ensure proper coverage of syllabi) where they
are required to attempt any ten questions out of the given fourteen should be withdrawn, as
being done at international level where all such questions are compulsory. This concession is
encouraging the students to leave certain chapters on choice without losing marks.
ix) Efforts should be made at the board level to improve quality of question papers in
terms of their face, contents, construct and criterion validity through capacity building of test
item writers and paper setters.
x) Workshops may be arranged and refresher courses be run for the sub-examiners
besides inducting more competent markers available into the system using IT technology.
xi) Efforts of FBISE towards establishment and strengthening of question bank, prepared
by the professionals besides continuous additions into it may help to reduce issues of
composition and construct of quality question papers. As a start point question papers set by
internationally known credible boards during their previous years examinations at
HSSC/equivalent levels may be reviewed by a committee of experts of each subject to lay
down the guiding principles for preparing the test items.

PART III: QUESTION SPECIFIC COMMENTS

SECTION - A

Question Number One, an exclusive question in this section consisting of 20 compulsory

Multiple Choice Questions "(MCQs)" as part or sub-questions was attempted by all (99.80%)
examinees present in the examination halls and their overall achievement in this section is
summarized in Table 4 below:

Table 4: Distribution of candidates against different levels of achievement

Marks 1–4 5–8 9 – 12 13 – 16 17 – 20 Mean (Percentage)

Percentage 5.68 27.29 42.97 16.68 7.38 8.31 (48.89)

Mean marks obtained in this section by the examinees are 8.31 (48.89%) with an overall
achievement of around 54.00 percent which is approximately 2 and 7.5 percent higher than
their overall performance in the succeeding sections "B and C". Overall achievement of 54.00
percent has been spread with a bulk around 87 percent of the candidates in the middle three
quintiles. Around 5.68 percent of examinees are positioned in the lowest quintile of marks
(less than 20%) while 7.38 percent are in highest quintile of marks (above 80%) and around
70.26 percent are positioned in the second and third quintiles of marks i.e. between 20 and 60
percent in this section.

Decomposition analysis of part questions revealed that there were nine part questions of
knowledge, five part questions of understanding and six part questions of application levels.
Since all questions were compulsory, without negative marking for incorrect answers, so
everyone attempted all part questions. Question and response analysis of this section is
summarized in Table 5 below:

Table 5: Question and response analysis with option chosen against each
question (Version Number 1871)

Comments {cognitive level (CL),

Question % A %B %C %D discrimination index (DI), poor distracter (PD),
strong distracter (SD), facility index (FI)
CL DI (0.27) FI PD SD
1 13.96 73.85 5.19 7.00 U 0.45 0.74 C,D --

2 21.69 31.59 31.95 13.22 K 0.28 0.32 -- A,C

3 26.04 17.93 23.30 30.60 K 0.25 0.31 -- A,C

4 25.90 46.33 16.06 9.81 K 0.43 0.46 B A

5 10.26 21.07 46.59 21.68 A 0.65 0.47 -- B,D

6 18.70 26.72 17.04 35.14 K 0.56 0.35 -- B

7 6.12 14.75 33.96 43.20 K 0.49 0.43 A C

8 23.09 24.92 31.31 17.14 A 0.22 0.25 -- A,C

9 19.93 38.26 22.96 14.65 U 0.14 0.20 -- B,C

10 11.85 14.79 53.45 17.22 K 0.54 0.53 -- --

11 19.82 42.58 26.10 9.70 U 0.47 0.42 D A,C

12 46.86 19.71 20.21 9.08 K 0.02 0.20 D A,C

13 26.81 25.76 33.19 10.20 K 0.36 0.33 -- A,B

14 39.17 14.38 20.50 23.13 A 0.40 0.39 D C,D

15 19.77 42.46 20.68 11.66 A 0.45 0.42 -- A,C

16 13.70 7.07 6.81 70.36 U 0.50 0.70 B,C --

17 23.90 22.09 22.09 27.24 U 0.21 0.22 -- A,B,D

 18 17.26 53.90 15.29 10.04 K 0.55 0.54 -- --

19 14.77 23.03 42.03 15.19 A 0.44 0.42 -- B

20 15.46 45.63 18.56 17.46 U 0.54 0.46 -- --

*The correct answer is indicated by shading
Cognitive level: Knowledge (K), Understanding (U), Application (A)

Facility Index (FI): It ranged between 20 and 74 percent in all part questions. The facility
indices in four (20 %) part questions is between 20 and 30 percent, five (25 %) part questions
is between 31 and 40 %, nine (45 %) part questions is between 41 and 60 % and in only two
(10 %) part questions 16 and 1, it is 70 and 74 percent respectively.

Discrimination Index (DI): In order to correlate the performance of the candidates in a part
question with their overall score (combined 20 part questions) discrimination index is
calculated by taking 27 percent examinees each from upper and bottom sub-groups of this
cohort, keeping in view the sample constraints, four different versions of question papers, in
that version 1871 has been taken for analysis as it was attempted by maximum number of
students 12623 (37.30 %) of the candidates. The positive value of DI, for all questions,
indicates that the requirements of the questions were well understood by the examinees. On
the basis of DI values, thirteen items are found very good test items for having values equal
or more than 0.4, one item is reasonably good with DI value ranged from 0.30 to 0.39, four
are marginal items with DI value ranged from 0.2 to 0.29 and two items are the weakest (Part
questions 9 and 12 with facility index of 20 % each) with DI value 0.14 and 0.02
respectively, (Ebel and Frisbie, 1986). Amongst these, fifteen MCQs are found ideal
questions having difficulty (facility) index range between 0.3 and 0.70 with DI value greater
than 0.24.

Discrimination coefficient measuring effectiveness of each distracter has also been

determined using similar formula as suggested by Nitko and Hsu (1984). Accordingly, seven
part questions (2, 3, 12 and 13, of knowledge, 9 and 17 of understanding and 8 of application
levels) 35 percent of MCQs were found having 2-3 effective distracters due to which both
their FI is less than 0.32 and DI less than 0.24 whereas in case of four (8, 9, 12 and 17) out of
them both their FI and DI are less than o.25 despite that all of them were expressed with
appropriate command words stating very clearly the requirements of the questions and the
distracters which suggests that either the candidates had carried out selective study or they
were not well prepared for the examination.

SECTION – B

Question number two was the single question in this section consisting of 14 "Short Response
Questions (SRQs)" as sub-questions with equal (4) marks each and the candidates were
required to answer any 10 out of them. Most of the candidates, around 90-95 percent,
attempted questions (iii), (v) and (xi) from the chapters on "Matrices and Determinants",
"Partial Fractions" and "Trigonometric Functions and their Graphs" while among the five low
choice questions, (iv), (viii), (xii), (xiii) and (xiv), were attempted by less than 50 percent of
the candidates especially the last three questions from the chapters on "Application of
Trigonometry", "Inverse Trigonometric Functions" and "Solutions of Trigonometric
Equations". The facility index (FI) of question 2 is 0.55 and its discrimination index (DI) is
0.97. The overall performance of the candidates in this section was good where they on the
average secured 16.11 (76.72 %) marks and 1.78 % out of them secured 100 % marks

Overall achievement of examinees in this section is summarized in Table 6 below:

Table 6 : Distribution of candidates against different levels of achievement

Marks 1–8 9 – 16 17 – 24 25 – 32 33 – 40 Mean (Percentage)

Percentage 3.23 5.66 14.75 20.74 55.62 16.11 (76.72)

Decomposition analysis of sub-questions revealed that 21.42 percent of the questions were of
knowledge, 64.29 percent of understanding and 14.29 percent of application levels. Those
candidates who were good in conceptual understanding of the subject performed relatively
better. Since candidates had to choose any ten sub-questions out of fourteen so there was a
general trend to select questions requiring lower cognitive demand. Question and response
analysis of this section is summarized (generally the most popular were "K", followed by "U"
and comparatively the lowest attempted "A") in Table 7 below:
Table 7 : Question and response analysis against each sub-question

Part question (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) (xiii) (xiv)

Cognitive
U K U A U U U A K U K U U U
Level (CL)
Attempted 75-80 80-85 90-95 45-50 90-95 80-85 70-75 45-50 50-55 85-90 90-95 30-35 45-50 45-50

(%)

Specific Responses to parts of the Question 2:

Question Part (i)

If =2+i, = 3 + 2i, =1 + 3i, then find the value of in form of a + bi

Question required the candidates to substituted the values of, , and in the equation
and multiply the complex numbers in the numerator,
= ⇒ =
Candidates were required to multiplied both numerator and denominator by the conjugate of
the denominator to have the real number in the denominator,
=
They were asked to express the result in the form a + bi by multiplying the complex numbers
in the numerator and denominator of the equation to get the result as,
= i

Question asked was of understanding level requiring the candidates to convert the complex
number in the denominator into real number by multiplying both the numerator and
denominator by the conjugate of the complex number in the denominator. Some candidates
applied alternate methods available for the solution of this question. Almost 75-80 percent of
the candidates attempted this question and majority of the answered it successfully to get the
maximum marks. However, some 10–15 percent of them got confused and faced difficulty in
getting the real number in the denominator. On the average they performed extremely well in
this question and secured around 3.5-4 marks.

Question Part (ii)

By using truth table prove that

p ( p q) (p q) = p ( p q)
Question asked required the candidates to construct the truth table and to prove that,
L.H.S = R.H.S

P Q p q p q p R.H.S L.H.S
T T F F F T T T
T F F T F F T T
F T T F F F F F
F F T T T F T T

Question asked was of knowledge level requiring the candidates to construct the truth table
to prove that L.H.S = R.H.S. This was one of the most popular choice questions attempted by
around 80-85 percent of the candidates and majority of them successfully proved the
required relation except for some 15-20 percent of them who got confused. On the average
students secured good marks ranging 2.5–3 marks in this question.

Question Part (iii)

Show that

This question asked required the candidates to use rules and procedures as under;
Added into on the L.H.S
x3 1 1 1
x3 x 1 1
L.H .S 
x3 1 x 1
x3 1 1 x
Took (x+3) common from
1 1 1 1
1 x 1 1
L.H .S   x  3
1 1 x 1
1 1 1 x
Subtracted from other columns as;
; ;
1 0 0 0
1 x 1 0 0
L.H .S   x  3
1 0 x 1 0
1 0 0 x 1
Opened the determinate and proved
3
L.H .S   x  3 .1.  x  1 .  x  1 .  x  1   x  3 x  1
Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level requiring the candidates to use
rules and procedures to prove the required relation. This question was one of the most
popular choice questions attempted by almost 90 - 95 percent of the candidates and majority
of them successfully answered this question except for a few (10–15%) candidates who faced
difficulty in correctly applying the rules for determinants. Some candidates adopted alternate
procedures available for the solution of this question. The candidates performed extremely
well in this question who on the average secured 3.5-4 marks.

Question Part (iv)

Solve the equation 4. 9. +1=0

This question required the candidates to simplify and reduce the equation into a quadratic
equation as under,
4. 9. + 1 = 0 ⇒ 8. 9. + 1 = 0
Let y = ⇒ =
8
The candidates were also required to find the solution of this quadratic equation by any of the
methods and the most commonly used is by factorization as under,
  y  1 8 y  1  0

 y  1, 1
y
8
Candidates were asked to calculate the solution set for x as under,
y  1  2 x  20 x0
1
y  2 x  23  x  3
8
Question asked was of understanding-cum-application level in which the candidates were
required to simplify and rearrange the given equation in the form of a quadratic equation to
find the solution set of y = and hence the solution set of "x". Almost 45-50 percent of the
candidates attempted this questions and majority (80-85%) of them successfully answered it
correctly. However, some (25-25%) of the candidates faced difficulty in finding the solution
set of "x" from the solution set of y = . On the average the candidates secured 3–3.5 marks
in this question.

Question Part (v)

Resolve into partial fraction

This question required the candidates to express the given equation into partial fractions as
under,
= + + +
They were expected to multiply with the denominator of the expression on both sides of the
equation as under,
=A +B +
C +D
Candidates were required to calculate the values of A, B and D by putting values of,
x = -3, 1, -2
5
put x  3 giving A 
4
1
put x  1 giving B 
12
put x  2 giving D  1
They were also required to calculate the value of C by equating the coefficients of on both
sides of equation as under,
4
A  B  C  0  C  
3
Candidates were asked to express the resolved partial fractions of the expression as under,
= + - +

Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level which required the candidates to

recall and use the procedure to resolve the given expression into its partial fractions. This
was one of the most popular choice questions attempted by almost 90-95 percent of the
candidates and majority of them answered it successfully securing the maximum marks. They
on the average secured 3.5–4 marks.

Question Part (vi)

Find the sum to term of series

r+ + + ⋯⋯ n

The question asked required the candidates to suppose that,

=r+ + + ⋯ to n terms
They were expected to multiply both sides of the equation by to convert the series
into G.P. series as under,
= r+ +
+ ⋯ to n terms
= + + + ⋯ to n terms
= + + + ⋯ to n terms
= –
Candidates were required to apply the formula for addition of G.P. series
=
The candidates were also expected to express the sum up nth term of the given series by
simplifying the equation as asked in the question as under,
=
They had the option to apply any of the available alternate methods to find the sum of the
series.
Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level aimed to test the ability of
candidates to convert the given series into G.P. series by multiplying it with (1-k). They were
required to recall the formula for addition of G.P. series to get the addition of the given
series up to the nth term as asked by the question. This question was one of the least choice
questions attempted by around 80-85 percent of the candidates who secured on the average
3–3.5 marks.

Question Part (vii)

Find the number greater than 23000 that can be formed from the digits 1,2, 3, 5, 6 without
repeating any digit

Question asked required the candidates to first calculate the total numbers which can be
formed by using all the five digits without repeating from the given digits as under,
Given digits : 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
Total numbers (using all digits) = = 120
Stated that in view of condition that numbers 23000 are to be counted
 when digit 1 is fixed on extreme left Numbers less than 23000 are  4
P4  24
Argued that numbers are when digits 21 are on the extreme left
 when digits 21 are fixed on extreme left
3
Numbers less than 23000 are  P3  6
Calculated total numbers > 23000 =

Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level aimed to test ability of the

candidates to find the total numbers which can be formed using the given six digits without
repeating and then subtracting from it the numbers not meeting the given condition. This
question was attempted by around 70-75 percent of the candidates and majority of them
found the total numbers which can be formed. However, some (20-25) percent out of them
faced difficulty in finding the numbers not meeting the given condition. The overall
performance of the candidates was good who on the average secured 2.5-3 marks.

Question Part (viii)

If x is so small that its square and higher powers may be neglected then show that

=4

Question asked required the candidates to prove that when x is so small that its squares and
higher powers can be neglected in the given relation so,

4
They were required to simplify the L.H.S of the equation by applying the Binomial Theorem
retaining the terms in x only as under,

L.H.S = 4

L.H.S 4
They were required to multiply the resultant terms, retaining terms having x only to get the
required relation as under,
L.H.S 4

L.H.S 4 = R.H.S

Question asked was of understanding-cum-application level in which candidates were

required to apply the Binomial Theorem to prove the required relation when x is so small that
its squares and higher powers can be neglected. This question was one of the low choice
questions attempted by almost 45–50 percent of the candidates who on average secured 2-2.5
marks.

Question Part (ix)

Find correct to nearest centimeter distance at which a coin of diameter 1 cm should be held so
as to conceal the full moon whose diameter subtends an angle of at the eye of observer
on earth.

Question required the candidates to draw the diagram of the moon as ABCD and that of the
coin PQRS as observed by eye of the observer where diameters of both moon and coin make
the same angles. They took O as the observer’s eye so APO and CSO are straight line
segments.

Candidates were required to argue that from the diagram since both the angles
subtended by the moon and coin are the same so these are equal to the angle subtended
by the moon on the eye which is given as so,
m ∠AOC = m ∠AOC =
They were required to suppose that the distance of the coin from the eye = r and
diameter of coin so, = 1cm, = = rad

∵ = r=
Candidates were also required to substitute the value of the diameter of the coin as
given to calculate the required distance of the coin from the eye, = =1 cm and
= = rad

r= = 110.89 cm
Distance from the eye = 110.89 cm

Question asked was of mixed cognitive levels (knowledge, understanding and application)
aimed to test ability of the candidates to recall the definition of angle in radian and to apply
the concept in finding the distance between the eye and the coin when both moon and the coin
overlap each other. Almost 50-55 percent of the candidates attempted this question and some
(20-25%) of them tried to solve this question by adopting the alternate methods but majority
(80-85%) of them were irrelevant, ambiguous and left the question incomplete. They, on the
average secured 2.5-3 marks in this question.
Question Part (x)

Prove that =
This question required the candidates to apply trigonometric identities to transform the
trigonometric functions on the L.H.S of the given equation in terms of half angles to
complete squares as under,

L.H.S=

They were required to simplify the terms on the L.H.S to prove the relation as asked in the
question as under,

= R.H.S

Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level aimed to test the ability of the
candidates to recall and use the trigonometric identities to transform the trigonometric ratios
in terms of their half angles and by simplifying the equation prove the given relation. This
question was one of the most popular questions attempted by almost 85–90 percent of the
candidates who answered it very well except for some (20-25%) who faced difficulties in
using the trigonometric identities properly to prove the relation. However, some used one of
the alternate methods but majority of them were unsuccessful in proving the given relation.
The candidates who attempted this question on the average secured 2.5-3 marks.

Question Part (xi)

Draw the graph y = from 0 to 2
The question asked required the candidates to construct the table for for different values
of x and then plot the graph between y = cos x and x as under,

X 0 π2

y= cos x 1 0.87 0.5 0 - 0.5 - 0.87 -1

X 3π2

y=cosx - 0.87 - 0.5 0 0.5 0.87 1

Question asked was of knowledge level which required the candidates to construct yhe table
for y = cos x for different values of x and then to draw graph by plotting the points as given
in the table for different values of x as given in the table. This was the most popular choice
question attempted by almost 90-95 percent of the candidates and majority of them drew the
graph correctly. Their performance was extremely well and on the average they secured 3.5–
4 marks.

Question Part (xii)

By using usual notation prove that =

This question required the candidates to construct an

escribed circle, having centre O opposite to the vertex A of
triangle ABC with;
= c, = a and =b

They were required to draw and join O to A,B,C;

┴
┴ produced
┴ produced.
They were also required to argue that since the radius of
the circle remains constant so;
= = =
Candidates were expected to state that the area of,
ABC = Area of OAB Area of OAC Area of OBC
= c + b - a
They were required to simplify the terms to get the required equation as under,
= (c + b a) = (2s 2 a)

= (s a) =
Question asked was of understanding level in which candidates were required to construct
an escribed circle, having centre O opposite to the vertex A of triangle ABC. Candidates
were also required to prove the given relation by equating the areas of triangles formed to
prove the relation as given. This was one of the low choice questions attempted by around
30–35 percent of the candidates and majority (70-75%) of them successfully proved the
required relation except a few (10-15%) who were ambiguous, clueless and irrelevant in
answering this question. Overall their performance was quite good who on the average
secured 3–3.5 marks.

Question Part (xiii)

Show that =

This question required the candidates to suppose = iff x = , and used the
trigonometric identity as under,
=
=
They were required to find the angle as under,
=
=
=
Some candidates also applied the alternate methods to prove the given equation.

Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level in which candidates were

required to recall and use the trigonometric identities and to prove the equation as asked.
This was one of the low choice questions attempted by around 45–50 percent of the
candidates and almost 30-35 percent out of them faced difficulties in finding the angle. The
overall performance of the candidates was good who on the average secured 2–2.5 marks.

Question Part (xiv)

Find the solution set of + + =0

This question required the candidates to rearrange the equation and apply trigonometric
identities as under,
+ =0
 =2
+ =0
+2 =0
They were expected to take common from both terms
=0
Candidates were required to find the solution sets of the equation by taking,
Either, sin 2x = 0, or =0
Calculated the values of x when, sin 2x = 0
2x = 0, 2x = 0, 2x = 0+n , +n x=n , +n
They were required to calculate the values of x when =0
= = which lies either in Quad II,

Where, x = = or in Quad III, where, x = =

x= +2n ,
Candidates were required to give the general solution as,
G.S =

Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level in which candidates were

required to recall the trigonometric identities and procedure for finding the solution set of the
two equations constructed as a result of factorization. Candidates were expected to calculate
the solution sets of each equation separately and then combine them together to get the
general solution as required. This was one of the low choice questions attempted by around
45–50 percent of the candidates who on the average secured 2–2.5 marks.

SECTION – C

This section was comprised of seven "Extended Response Questions (ERQs)" with equal (8)
marks each and the candidates were required to attempt any five out of the given seven
questions. Each question consisted of mixed cognitive levels, in that Overall questions
portions of 21 (37.50 %) marks were of knowledge, 23 (41.07 %) marks of understanding and
12 (21.43 %) marks of application levels. The overall achievement of the candidates in this
section has been the lowest and they on the average secured 14.37 (35.92 %) marks, which is
mainly due to bias of questions towards higher cognitive levels (understanding and
application levels). Though all the questions were taken verbatim from the text book, which
are usually covered in classroom teaching, yet the performance of students varied from
question to question according to their cognitive levels. Approximately, a total of 21.25
percent examinees succeeded in attempting the five required questions from this section. Out
of them around 8.43 percent attempted the highest five choice questions excluding the two
lowest choice questions 3&5 from chapters on "Matrices and Determinants" and "Sequences
and Series" and around 0.35 percent attempted the lowest five choice questions excluding the
two highest choice questions 4&8 from chapters on "Quadratic Equations" and "Application
of Trigonometry" whereas approximately around 1.15 percent of the candidates secured 100
percent marks in this section. Overall achievement of examinees in this section is
summarized in Table 4 below:

Table 8: Distribution of candidates against different levels of achievement

Marks 1–8 9 – 16 17 – 24 25 – 32 32 – 40 Mean (Percentage)

Percentage 32.22 26.91 20.32 12.12 8.43 14.37 (35.92)

Decomposition analysis of the portions of the questions revealed that out of a total of 56
marks questions there were 21 (37.50%) marks portions of knowledge, 23 (41.07%) marks
of understanding and 12 (21.43%) marks of application levels. Those students who were
good in conceptual understanding of the subject performed relatively better. Since the
candidates had to choose any five out of the given seven questions so there was a general
trend to select questions requiring lower cognitive demand. Question and response analysis of
this section is summarized in the table below:
Table 9: Question-wise Marks & % - Section C

Question Cognition Average Marks Facility Index Discrimination Attempted

Level (%) (FI) Index (DI) (%)
K = 25 %
3 U = 25 % 4.02 (50.31 %) 0.69 0.42 33.79
A = 50 %
K = 25 %
4 3.64 (45.51 %) 0.64 0.44 47.18
U = 75 %
K = 37.5 %
5 U = 25 % 5.56 (69.48 %) 0.79 0.47 21.55
A = 37.50 %
K = 25 %
6 6.28 (78.48 %) 0.87 0.49 38.28
U = 75 %
 K = 50 %
7 U = 25 % 4.86 (60.71 %) 0.70 0.53 41.53
A = 25%
K = 25 %5
8 U = 37.5 % 4.85 (60.67 %) 0.74 0.63 65.69
A = 37.5 %
K = 75 %
9 4.57 (57.07 %) 0.74 0.57 24.79
U = 25 %

Facility Index (FI): It ranged from 0.64 to 0.87 in all questions. Facility index of question
number 3, involving the solution of system of equations using matrices was the lowest 0.64.
FI above 0.60 suggests that the candidates performed extremely well in all the questions of
this section.

Discrimination Index (DI): In order to correlate the performance of the candidates in

questions (3-9) of "Section C" with their overall score (in questions 2-9) discrimination index
is calculated by taking 27 percent examinees each from upper and bottom sub-groups of this
cohort, keeping in view the sample constraints, results of question 1 ("Section A") and
questions (2-9) received from two different sources and overall higher FI. The positive value
of DI, for all questions, indicates that the requirements of the questions were well understood
by the examinees. On the basis of DI values all questions are found very good test items for
having values equal or more than 0.4. The DI value of combined "Section C" is 0.97, due to
three reasons; first one is that the score of Question 1, was excluded from the overall score as
it was received from a different source other than that from whom score of other questions
was received, the second one is that the overall almost equal facility and discrimination
indices of "Sections B & C" which are (0.55 & 0.47) and their discrimination indices (0.97 &
0.97) and third one was that the combined contribution of the scores of "Sections B&C" were
50 percent each of the overall score used for calculations.
Specific Responses to Questions – Section C.

Question 3

Use the matrices to solve the system of equations

2 3 = 3
2 = 0
2 =
Question asked required the candidates to express the system of equations into matrix form as
under,

X=B X=
They were required to state that = adj A

Candidates were expected to calculate by calculating the determinate = 10 and adj A

and substituting their values as under,

adj A =

= adj A =

Candidates were required to expressed X = and calculate the values of X as

under,

= =

They were required to give the solution = , =

Question asked was of mixed cognitive levels (knowledge, understanding and application)
which required the candidates to recall the procedure for expressing the system of equations
in the form of matrices and then by finding inverse of the matrix, comprising the coefficients
of , and , to calculate their values. This question was attempted by around 33.79
percent of the candidate and out of them some (25-30%) candidates faced difficulty in
calculating the inverse of the matrix. They on average secured 4.02 (50.31%) marks and
around 15.17 percent out of them secured full (100%) marks in this question.

Question 4
Solve the system of equations
= 5
4 3xy = 18
This question required the candidates to multiply the first equation by 18 and second by 5 and
then subtracting first equation from the second as under,
= 90
15xy = 90
15xy =0
Candidates were expected to factorize the equation to calculate x in terms of y as under,
 =0
either x 6y =0 2x 3 y =0
either x = 6y or x =
They were required to calculate the solution sets by substituting the value of x in equation as
under,
= 5

SYSTEM I, x = 6y

SYSTEM II , x=

Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level which required the candidates to

combine the given two equations by eliminating the constant terms. They were expected to
factorize the resultant equation and by equating each factor equal to zero separately to
calculate the required values of ‘x’ and ‘y’. Almost 47.18 percent of the candidates who
attempted this question answered it correctly while 30-35 percent out of them gave vague,
incorrect and incomplete answers. Some (10-15%) out of these candidates tried to solve this
question by applying an alternate method but majority of them faced difficulty in correctly
finding the solution set as required. They on the average secured 3.64 (45.51%) marks and
around 6.21 percent out of them secured full (100%) marks in this question.

Question 5
If the numbers , and are subtracted from three consecutive terms of G.P. the resulting
numbers are in H.P. Find the numbers if their product is

This question required the candidate to suppose that , a, ar, are the numbers of GP
They were expected to use the given data for product of numbers as under,
= = a=
Candidates were expected to subtract the given numbers to obtain H.P. as under,
, a ,

, ,
They were required to take the reciprocal of the terms to get A.P. as under,
A.P: , ,
Candidates were expected to use the property of A.P. where common difference occurs
between consecutive terms as under,
=
They were required to substitute value of a = to calculate the value of ‘r’ as under,
 =7 144 123r 5 =0

r= ,

The candidates were expected to construct the G.P. as under;

When a = ,r= or when a = ,r=

Ist Number = = Ist Number = =1

2nd Number = a = 2nd Number = a =

3rd Number = ar = 3rd Number = ar =

Candidates were asked to give the first three numbers of possible G.P. series as;
, , or 1, ,

Question asked was of mixed cognitive levels (knowledge, understanding and application)
which required the candidates to recall the properties of different types of series and by using
them and the information contained in the question to find the required G.P. series. This
question was attempted by around 21.55 percent of the candidates. However, around 25-30
percent out of them faced difficulty in finding the value of "r". Candidates on average secured
5.56 (69.48%) marks and around 46.60 percent out of them secured full (100%) marks in this
question.

Question 6
Identify the following series and find its sum
1

This question required the candidates to suppose that the given series (A) is identical to one
of the general series (B) as under,

S=1

They were expected to determine the values of ‘n’ and ‘x’ by comparing the terms of x on the
R.H.S. of A & B and as under,
nx= ; n =

n= , x=
They were required to compare the L.H.S. of equations A & B and by substituting the values
of n and x to calculate the required sum of the series as under,
 S= S=

S=

Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level which required the candidates to

recall the standard series in the form of and by comparing the coefficients of x in
the two series (given and standard) to calculate the values of ‘x’ and ‘n’. Candidates were
also required to give the series by substituting the values of ‘x’ and ‘n’ in supposed standard
series. This was one of the low choice questions from this section which was attempted by
almost 38.28 percent of the candidates who on average secured 6.28 (78.48%) marks and
around 58.47 percent out of them secured full (100%) marks in this question.

Question 7

Find the values of and if = and = , neither nor

th
lie in the 4 quadrant.

This question required the candidates to argue that since do not lie in 4th quadrant but
= and = so these angles must lie in the 2nd and 3rd quadrants respectively.
They were required to state and use the trigonometric identities to find the value of cos ,
and as under,
=1+ = =

cos = ∵ Quad II

=1 = =

= Quad II

=1 = =

= Quad III
Candidates were required to state the trigonometric identities for and
and to calculate their values by substituting the values of cos , , and
as under,
= +
= + =
= + sin
= + =
Candidates were expected to summarize the results as under;
= , =
Question asked was of mixed cognitive levels (knowledge, understanding and application)
which required the candidates to infer from the given data that the angles lie in the
second and third quadrants respectively and by using the given data and trigonometric
identities calculated the values of cos , and . By using the calculated values
found the values of and as required. This was one of the low choice
questions attempted by around 41.53 percent of the candidates. They secured on the average
4.86 (60.71%) marks and around 35.26 percent out of them secured full (100%) marks in this
question.

Question 8

Prove that =
This question required the candidates to apply trigonometric identity on the L.H.S. of
equation and simplify it as under,

=
They were required to suppose = iff = where
The candidates were required to to find the value of sin by using trigonometric identity and
substituting the value of cos as under,

sin = = =

They were also required to suppose = iff = where

They were expected to find the value of cos and sin by using trigonometric identities and by
substituting the value of as under,

=1+ = 1+ =

= cos =

=1 = 1 = sin =
Candidates were required to use trigonometric identity to find value of sin as under,
= +

= + =
They were required to prove by simplifying L.H.S. of equation equal to the R.H.S. of the given
equation as under,
= + =

+ = ∵ =
Question asked was of mixed cognitive levels (knowledge, understanding and application)
which required the candidates to apply trigonometric identities to find the value of
sin and by using it to prove the required relation. This was the most popular choice
question attempted by around 65.69 percent of the candidates who on average secured 4.85
(60.67%) marks and around 33.28 percent out of them secured full (100%) marks in this
question.

Question 9
Show that the set consisting of elements of form
is an abelian group w.r.t addition

This question required the candidates to state the following properties by supposing,
G=
Closure Property
If, G
Then, , G
Associative Property
If, , G
then

Identity Element
Candidates were required to state that for any element there exists an element
0+ 0, such that
+ 0+ 0 = G
where 0+ 0 is called an Additive Identity in G
Inverse Element
They were also required to state that for any element there exists an element a
b, such that
+ =0+ 0
Both and are additive inverse of each other
Commutative Property
Candidates were expected to state that if G then
= +
=
They were required to state that the G is an abelian group under addition

Question asked was of knowledge-cum-understanding level in which candidates were

required to recall the properties of abelian group under addition and apply them to prove
that the elements of the given form are abelian group under addition. This was one of the low
choice questions attempted by around 50 percent of the candidates who on the average
secured 4.57 (57.07%) marks and around 20.68 percent out of them secured full (100%)
marks in this question.

Summary

The higher facility and positive discrimination indices suggest that the paper was reasonably
good and candidates performed quite well in answering the questions. The positive higher
value of discrimination index reflects that those students who were overall in the upper
bracket performed better in all questions as compared to those who were in the lower
bracket. Since all the questions were given from the prescribed book, which are normally
covered in classroom teaching as a routine, so the students had to mere recall their solutions
(knowledge level). Those students who had spent more time in preparation performed better
in all the questions. The question-wise examinees falling in different quintiles are given in
the figure 3 and percentage of those securing 100 percent marks in each question are given
in figure 4 below:

Fig. 3a Section-wise Quartile Distribution of Examinees

40
35
30 Quintile 1
25
Quintile 2
20
Quintile 3
15
Quintile 4
10
Quintile 5
5
0
A B C O/A

Sections
 Fig. 3b Question-wise Quartile Distribution of Examinees

70
60
50 Quintile 1
40 Quintile 2
30 Quintile 3

20 Quintile 4
Quintile 5
10
0
Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9

Questions

Figure 4 Question-wise percentage of candidates securing full (100%) marks.

60

50

40
MCQs
30
SRQs
20 ERQs
10

0
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9

Questions