Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I

Exam Date 03/10/2023

Exam Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 ‘A = B’ means ‘A is the father of B‘.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the mother of B‘.
‘A ? B’ means ‘A is the son of B‘.
If M ? C $ J * Z, then how is J related to M?
Ans 1. Mother's sister
2. Sister
3. Brother
4. Mother's mother

Q.2 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight row, facing north (not necessarily in the
same order). Only 1 person sits to the left of D. A is an immediate neighbour of D. Only 2 people sit
between F and D. Only 3 people sit between C and G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G. Only 2
people sit between E and A.
Who sits at the extreme right end of the row?
Ans 1. B
2. G
3. A
4. C

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘VATT’ is coded as ‘65’ and ‘STOLK’ is coded as ‘79’. How will
‘GENEROUS’ be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 116
2. 216
3. 106
4. 204

Q.4 L is the wife of Q. P is the mother of M. J is the father of L. M is the sister of H. J is the husband of
H. How is P related to L?
Ans 1. Sister’s husband
2. Mother’s mother
3. Sister’s son
4. Mother’s sister

Q.5

Ans 1. 5
2. 6
3. 3
4. 4

Q.6 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Lollipop
2.Loincloth
3.Longways
4.Logician
5.Lonely
Ans 1. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
2. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
3. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
4. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

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 Q.7 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in
it.
First row: 19, 6, 37
Second row: 21, 8, 45
Third row: 72, 14, ?
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 114
2. 134
3. 124
4. 144

Q.8 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the
face showing ‘1’.

Ans 1. 3
2. 2
3. 6
4. 4

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is coded as ‘8426’ and ‘MUST’ is coded as ‘7853’. What is the
code for ‘M’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3
2. 7
3. 2
4. 8

Q.10

Ans 1. RUQO
2. URQO
3. VRQO
4. UROQ

Q.11 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
Ans 1. PRKL
2. PSJK
3. FHAB
4. WYRS

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 Q.12

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed at line MN as
shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14 If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
137 ÷ 56 × 7 – 6 + 31 = ?
Ans 1. 154
2. 149
3. 163
4. 145

Q.15 In a certain code language, 'COURT' is coded as OCRTR and 'JUDGE' is coded as UJAEG. How will
'ORDER' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. ROBRE
2. ROARE
3. LDRRE
4. REARO

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 Q.16 Rohit drives 3 km towards north from point A. He takes a left turn and drives 4 km. Again he takes
a left turn and drives 6 km. Finally, he takes a left turn and drives 4 km to reach point B. How far
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?
Ans 1. 3 km towards east
2. 4 km towards south
3. 3 km towards north
4. 2 km towards west

Q.17 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to
each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Butterfly : Caterpillar :: Insect : ?
Ans 1. Larva
2. Nymph
3. Cygnet
4. Microbes

Q.18 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’
in the following equation?
2 B ? D 2 = 4 B 32 D 8
Ans 1. 30
2. 8
3. 12
4. 16

Q.19 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Electrical Appliance, Refrigerator, Freezer
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.20

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(264, 462), (132, 330)
Ans 1. (211, 340)
2. (188, 378)
3. (386, 584)
4. (282, 496)

Q.22 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Desire
2. Destination
3. Descend
4. Destructive
5. Desolate
6. Desperate
Ans 1. 3, 1, 6, 5, 2, 4
2. 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4
3. 3, 1, 5, 6, 4, 2
4. 3, 1, 5, 6, 2, 4

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 Q.23 If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘ ̶ ’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘−’ and ‘÷’ means ‘×’, what will be the value of the following
expression?
[{( 14 × 6 ) - ( 4 ÷ 3 )} + ( 6 - 4 )] ÷ 3
Ans 1. 3
2. 1
3. 9
4. 6

Q.24 Six friends are sitting in a circle. All of them are facing the centre. Kanak sits third to the right of
Sona. Kapil is an immediate neighbour of Mani. Goldy sits second to the right of Mani. Sona is an
immediate neighbour of Kapil and Suresh.
Who sits to the immediate right of Goldy?
Ans 1. Kanak
2. Sona
3. Suresh
4. Kapil

Q.25 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following expression?
39 D 13 B 2 C 6 A 8
Ans 1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
4. 12

Q.26

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.27

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.28 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All plants are vegetables.
Some plants are poisonous.
Conclusions:
I. All vegetables are poisonous.
II. Some vegetables are plants.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. Both conclusions I and II follow
4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.29 A person starts from point Z and moves 7 km towards the South. He turns right and moves 5 km,
turns right, and moves 3 km, then turns right and moves 1 km. He takes a left turn and moves 4
km to reach a point X. How much and in which direction does he need to move now to reach point
Z?
Ans 1. 4 km West
2. 4 km South
3. 6 km East
4. 4 km East

Q.30 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-
cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-
cluster.
TEMPLE : SCJLGY :: CHURCH : BFRNXB :: MOSQUE :?
Ans 1. LMPYMP
2. LPYMPM
3. LMPMPY
4. LMPYPM

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 Q.31 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All flowers are trees.
All leaves are flowers.
Conclusion:
I)All trees are flowers.
II)All leaves are trees.
Ans 1. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
2. Both Conclusions I and II follow.
3. Only Conclusion I follows
4. Only Conclusion II follows.

Q.32 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
MKPN, LMOP, ?, JQMT, ISLV
Ans 1. KONR
2. KNMR
3. KNNQ
4. KOLT

Q.33 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.34 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Pencil, Eraser, Sharpener
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.35 If '+' means '×', '×' means '–', '–' means '÷' and '÷' means '+', then what will come in place of the (?)
in the following equation?
250 – 10 + 10 × 5 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 234
2. 247
3. 167
4. 320

Q.36

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.37 In a certain code language, ‘FRIEND’ is written as ‘IIFDME’ and 'DEMAND' is written as 'MVDDMA'.
How will ‘GROUND’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. OFTSBU
2. PXKRYS
3. OIGDMU
4. DOTENC

Q.38 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
−1/729, −1/81, −1/9, ?
Ans 1. -1/3
2. 1/3
3. 1
4. -1

Q.39 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
35, ?, 40, 47, 45, 53
Ans 1. 43
2. 42
3. 37
4. 41

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 Q.40 Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
ELSV, FJVR, GHYN, ?, IDEF
Ans 1. HFBJ
2. GHFJ
3. HBJF
4. HFJB

Q.41 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the
face showing ‘4’.

Ans 1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 6

Q.42 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting/
multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(6, 2, 96)
(5, 6, 240)
Ans 1. (12,3,45)
2. (4,1,6)
3. (1,2,16)
4. (8,3,28)

Q.43 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following equation?
96 D 3 B 8 C 25 A 14 = ?
Ans 1. 217
2. 254
3. 245
4. 234

Q.44

Ans 1. Only 1, 2 and 4

2. Only 1 and 2
3. Only 3
4. Only 2 and 3

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 Q.45 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’
in the following equation?
7 A 3 B 24 D 2 = 20 B ? A 3
Ans 1. 14
2. 2
3. 7
4. 20

Q.46 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(7, 35, 42), (4, 20, 24)
Ans 1. (9, 45, 54)
2. (12, 60, 48)
3. (8, 56, 72)
4. (6, 36, 48)

Q.47 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the
odd one out.
Ans 1. WVTD
2. SRPH
3. JIGQ
4. KLNP

Q.48 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
115, 130, 122, 137, 129, ?
Ans 1. 150
2. 144
3. 142
4. 148

Q.49 In a certain code language, ‘FLORA’ is written as ‘WQOLC’ and 'MONEY' is written as 'PNPYE'. How
will ‘GOING’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. VBUDP
2. RMWEH
3. VNUPW
4. RHKSR

Q.50 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(7, 91, 98)
(4, 52, 56)
Ans 1. (12, 156, 168)
2. (8, 80, 96)
3. (3, 36, 42)
4. (5, 25, 60)

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.1 Methyl ethyl ketone is also known as:
Ans 1. 2-butanone
2. methyl pentanone
3. propanone
4. 2-butanol

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 Q.2 In India all loans that are below __________ are considered as micro loans.
Ans 1. four lakh rupees
2. three lakh rupees
3. two lakh rupees
4. one lakh rupees

Q.3 With which neighbouring country did India sign the Farakka Treaty in 1996 for sharing of the
Ganga Waters and on augmenting its flows?
Ans 1. Afghanistan
2. Bhutan
3. Nepal

4. Bangladesh

Q.4 In how many phases did the Indian Economy experience the success of the Green Revolution?
Ans 1. Five
2. Two
3. Four
4. Three

Q.5 Who among the following founded the Kalakshetra Foundation in Chennai that is an important
centre for the study and performance of fine arts?
Ans 1. Alarmel Valli
2. Yamini Krishnamurthy
3. Mrinalini Sarabhai
4. Rukmini Devi Arundale

Q.6 Bhutia dance is performed in which of the following states?

Ans 1. West Bengal
2. Nagaland
3. Odisha
4. Sikkim

Q.7 Which of the following was established by Jyotirao Govindrao Phule in 1873 to fight against
idolatry and caste system?
Ans 1. Arya Samaj
2. Shree Narayan Guru Dharma Paripalana (SNDP) Movement
3. Satyashodhak Samaj
4. Young Bengal Movement

Q.8 How many controls are there globally that influence the climate of a particular zone?
Ans 1. 8
2. 5
3. 6
4. 3

Q.9 Which German chemist was the first to show a graphical representation of the periodicity of an
atomic volume plotted against atomic weight?
Ans 1. Glenn T Seaborg
2. Lothar Meyer
3. William Ramsay
4. John Newlands

Q.10 Vallabhbhai Patel and ________ helped Gandhi in Kheda by organising his tour of the villages and
urging the peasants to stand firm against the government.
Ans 1. Motilal Nehru
2. Indulal Yajnik
3. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
4. Jamunalal Bajaj

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 Q.11 Which of the following is considered as a good indicator of economic growth?
Ans 1. Steady increase in the GDP
2. Steady increase in international trade
3. Steady increase in population
4. Steady increase in loan

Q.12 Which ruler of the Chahamana dynasty made Ajmer his capital?
Ans 1. Arnoraj
2. Prithviraj II
3. Prithviraj III
4. Ajayaraja

Q.13 Identify whether the given statements about p-block elements are correct or incorrect.
Statement A: In p-block elements, the last electron enters the outermost p orbital.
Statement B: The non-metals and metalloids exist only in the p-block of the periodic table.
Ans 1. Both Statements A and B are incorrect
2. Both Statements A and B are correct
3. Only Statement B is correct
4. Only Statement A is correct

Q.14 Moatsu festival of Nagaland is celebrated by which of the following tribes?

Ans 1. Munda tribe
2. Bhil tribe
3. Bodo tribe
4. Ao tribe

Q.15 Priorities of the government in the fiscal area and its related policies and deviations are
mentioned in which part of the budget document?
Ans 1. Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement
2. Appropriation Bill
3. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
4. Macroeconomic Framework Statement

Q.16 How many Members of Parliament were elected from Punjab to the 17th Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. 13
2. 17
3. 14
4. 15

Q.17 Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with fundamental rights?
Ans 1. Part IV
2. Part III
3. Part II
4. Part V

Q.18 In India, which of the following regulatory mechanisms was NOT in existence to enforce
regulation of the industrial sector?
Ans 1. Some goods could be produced only in small-scale industries.
2. Private sector was allowed in all industries.
3. Industrial licensing under which every entrepreneur had to get permission from government
officials to start a firm, close a firm or decide the amount of goods that could be produced.
4. Controls on price fixation and distribution of selected industrial products.

Q.19 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about fundamental duties in the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. They are made to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. They are made to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for
freedom.
3. They are made justiciable in nature.
4. They are made to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

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 Q.20 Which of the following does NOT belong to the family of organic compounds?
Ans 1. Furan
2. Decane
3. Ammonia
4. Nonane

Q.21 Which of the following books is an autobiography of the former American president Bill Clinton?
Ans 1. My Country My Life
2. My Life
3. Becoming
4. Long Walk to Freedom

Q.22 For Kharif crops, the temperature required for farming is above 25 degrees Celsius with high
humidity and annual rainfall above ________ cm.
Ans 1. 50
2. 35
3. 16
4. 100

Q.23 Which of the following algae is also called kelp and found in the deep sea?
Ans 1. Laminaria
2. Chlamydomona
3. Fucus
4. Nostoc

Q.24 According to the Global Hunger Index 2022, which neighbouring country is only behind India with a
rank of 109 out of 121 countries?
Ans 1. Afghanistan
2. Nepal
3. Bangladesh
4. Pakistan

Q.25 At normal temperature and atmospheric pressure, ______ has a density of 1.87 kg/m3, which is
1.5 times heavier than air and exists as a liquid below the critical temperature of 31°C.
Ans 1. carbon dioxide
2. nitrogen
3. lithium
4. hydrogen

Q.26 Which of the following statement is correct regarding climate of Indian subcontinent?
A. The climate of North India remains similar throughout the year
B. The Himalayas protect the subcontinent from extremely cold winds from central Asia.

Ans 1. Both Statements A and B incorrect

2. Both Statements A and B correct
3. Only Statement A is correct
4. Only Statement B is correct

Q.27 Dhruvasena II is related to which of the following ruling dynasties?

Ans 1. Maukhari
2. Pushyabhuti
3. Vakataka
4. Maitraka

Q.28 The structure that produces and holds sperm cells in bryophytes (non-vascular plants) and ferns
is called:
Ans 1. megasporangia
2. protonema
3. antheridium
4. archegonium

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 Q.29 Which is the most widely accepted model to explain the formation and evaluation of the solar
system?
Ans 1. Solar hypothesis
2. Cloud hypothesis
3. Nebular hypothesis
4. Gas hypothesis

Q.30 What is Kalbaisakhi?

Ans 1. Cold waves and rains
2. Heatwaves and loo
3. Snowfall and hail
4. Pre monsoon showers and thunderstorms

Q.31 Which of the following is NOT an Equestrian discipline?

Ans 1. Vaulting
2. Dressage
3. Sprint
4. Show jumping

Q.32 The deliberations of the representatives at the Third Round Table Conference was held during the
later months of which year?
Ans 1. 1932
2. 1930
3. 1929
4. 1931

Q.33 Prithviraj Raso, an epic poem about the life of the 12th century Indian king, Prithviraj Chauhan, was
written by:
Ans 1. Bharavi
2. Ashvaghosa
3. Banabhatta
4. Chand Bardai

Q.34 Tansen, the famous musician, often sang in the court of which ruler?
Ans 1. Feroz Shah Tughlaq
2. Allaudin Khilji
3. Sher Shah Suri
4. Akbar

Q.35 Continental Shelf which is the shallowest part of the ocean has an average gradient of:
Ans 1. 2° or even less
2. 8° or even less
3. 1° or even less
4. 5° or even less

Q.36 Under which of the following Acts was the National Commission for Women established?
Ans 1. The National Commission for Women Act, 1987
2. The National Commission for Women Act, 1988
3. The National Commission for Women Act, 1989
4. The National Commission for Women Act, 1990

Q.37 Atal Tunnel connects which two places?

Ans 1. Manali and Nainital
2. Manali and Lahaul-Spiti valley
3. Shimla and Nainital
4. Shimla and Mansoori

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 Q.38 Shore temple of Mamallapuram was built by:
Ans 1. Nagas
2. Chalukayas
3. Pallavas
4. Cholas

Q.39 The First Commonwealth Games were organised in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 1922
2. 1926
3. 1930
4. 1920

Q.40 Identify the position of stomata in plants.

Ans 1. Tip of stem
2. Inside the flower
3. Inside the roots
4. Surface of leaves

Q.41 What is the full form of PPLO with respect to bacteria?

Ans 1. Pneumonia Platelet Like Organisms
2. Pleuro Platelet Like Organisms
3. Platelet Prone Like Organisms
4. Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms

Q.42 Sao Joao festival is celebrated primarily by the Catholic Christians in which of the following Indian
states?
Ans 1. Manipur
2. Assam
3. Goa
4. Nagaland

Q.43 Who among the following Indian authors has written the autobiography titled ‘My Story’?
Ans 1. Shobha Dey
2. Kiran Desai
3. Kamala Das
4. Arundhati Roy

Q.44 Who is the first Indian to participate in a Super Heavyweight Boxing event in the 2020 Olympic
Games?
Ans 1. Manish Harshit
2. Sakshi Chaudhary
3. Amit Panghal
4. Satish Kumar

Q.45 Who among the following has given extraordinary powers during an emergency?
Ans 1. The President
2. The Governor
3. Prime Minister
4. The Chief Justice

Q.46 In a volleyball game, each team comprise of how many players?

Ans 1. 5
2. 8
3. 7
4. 6

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 Q.47 Who was the first chairman of Finance Commission of India?
Ans 1. KC Neogy
2. PV Rajamannar
3. K Santhanam
4. Ashok Kumar Chanda

Q.48 The Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra Yuva Pratibha Samman 2021 was presented to Arushi Mudgal
for _________ dance.
Ans 1. Kuchipudi
2. Kathak
3. Odissi
4. Mohiniyattam

Q.49 In November 2020, ___________ has set a record of becoming the world’s fastest piano player
ever.
Ans 1. Gauri Mishra
2. Anisrinivasan
3. Lydian Nadhaswaram
4. Shikha Chaurasia

Q.50 Dr.Teejan Bai, a Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan awardee is globally
recognised for her contribution to which of the following art forms?
Ans 1. Pandavani
2. Gendi
3. Jhirliti
4. Raut Nacha.

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 If a + b = 10 and ab = 6, then the value of a3 + b3 is:
Ans 1. 860
2. 840
3. 820
4. 800

Q.2

Ans 1. 6000
2. 9000
3. 8000
4. 7000

Q.3 Find the LCM of 15, 24, 35 and 54.

Ans 1. 7560
2. 7650
3. 5670
4. 6570

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 Q.4

Ans 1. 1.85
2. 1.25
3. 1.70
4. 1.41

Q.5 If 42, 36 and 35 are the first three terms of a proportion, then the fourth term is:
Ans 1. 32
2. 28
3. 30
4. 27

Q.6 If a truck moves at a constant speed of 30 km/h for 1 kilometre and 45 km/h for the next 1
kilometre. What is the average speed of the truck?
Ans 1. 36 km/h
2. 32 km/h
3. 38 km/h
4. 34 km/h

Q.7 Study the given graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

In which year was there maximum percentage increase in the export of apples to that of the
previous years?
Ans 1. 2003
2. 2006
3. 2005
4. 2008

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 Q.8

Ans 1. 2,01,000
2. 2,01,100
3. 2,01,300
4. 2,01,200

Q.9 An item with a marked price of ₹3,800 was sold for ₹3,496, after a discount of y%was offered.
What was the value of y?
Ans 1. 7%
2. 8%
3. 7.5%
4. 8.5%

Q.10 A person crosses a 900-metre long street in 6 minutes. The speed of the person, in km/h, is:
Ans 1. 5
2. 9
3. 10
4. 8

Q.11

Ans 1. 20°
2. 60°
3. 15°
4. 30°

Q.12

Ans 1. 3
2. 5
3. 0.3
4. 0.03

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 Q.13 The given pie-chart shows the distribution of the marks scored by Ram in five different subjects
(in percentage).

What is the ratio of the central angle of Maths to the central angle of Science?

Ans 1. 4 : 3
2. 3 : 5
3. 5 : 2
4. 2 : 3

Q.14 If the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 29 cm and the sum of the other two sides is 41 cm,
then the difference between the other two sides is:
Ans 1. 2 cm
2. 1 cm
3. 5 cm
4. 10 cm

Q.15 A number is first increased by 10%and then increased by 20%. The number, so obtained, is now
decreased by 12%. What is the net increase or decrease per cent in the original number?
Ans 1. 11.11% decrease
2. 16.16% increase
3. 14.14% decrease
4. 12.12% increase

Q.16 If the height of a cone is 7 cm and the diameter of the circular base is 12 cm, then its volume is
(nearest to integer):
Ans 1. 264 cm3
2. 274 cm3
3. 284 cm3
4. 254 cm3

Q.17 The first shirt is sold at twice the selling price of the second shirt. The first shirt is sold at 8%
profit and the second shirt is sold at a 3%loss. What is the overall percentage profit on the shirts
(Rounded off to two decimal place)?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

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 Q.18

Ans 1. 4620
2. 4640
3. 4580
4. 4610

Q.19 If θ is an acute angle and sin θ + cosec θ = 2,then the value of sin5θ + cosec5θ is:
Ans 1. 4
2. 5
3. 10
4. 2

Q.20 Let the speed of the boat in still water be 17 km/h and let the speed of the stream be 5 km/h. What
is the time taken by the boat to go 110 km downstream?
Ans 1. 4.5 hours
2. 5.5 hours
3. 5 hours
4. 6 hours

Q.21 Two circles of radius 13 cm and 15 cm intersect each other at points A and B. If the length of the
common chord is 12 cm, then what is the distance between their centres?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 12 : 13 and its perimeter is 90 cm. Find its area (in cm2).
Ans 1. 30
2. 60
3. 270
4. 150

Q.23 The population of a city is 3,52,314. It increases annually at the rate of 15%per annum. What was
its population 2 years ago?
Ans 1. 2,66,400
2. 2,56,400
3. 3,06,360
4. 3,02,400

Q.24 The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio of 4 : 5 and their heights are in the ratio of 5 : 2. The ratio
of their volume is:
Ans 1. 8 : 5
2. 2 : 1
3. 9 : 7
4. 9 : 4

Q.25 The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 5 and 175, respectively. If the ratio of the two numbers
is 5:7, the larger of the two numbers is _______.
Ans 1. 35
2. 75
3. 45
4. 25

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 Q.26

Ans 1. 2.8%
2. 2.5%
3. 2.0%
4. 3.2%

Q.27

Ans 1. 30%
2. 32%
3. 25%
4. 28%

Q.28 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20 days, 30 days and 60 days respectively. If A works daily
and on every third day B and C also work with A, then in how many days, will the work be
completed?
Ans 1. 18
2. 12
3. 21
4. 15

Q.29 A tourist van travels the distance of 35 km from Dehradun to Mussoorie at an average speed of 36
km/h and returns at 60 km/h. What is the approximate average speed (in km/h) of the tourist van
for the entire journey?
Ans 1. 50
2. 45
3. 42
4. 48

Q.30 If 3 goats or 5 sheep can graze a field in 54 days, then in how many days can 6 goats and 8 sheep
graze the same field?
Ans 1. 15
2. 12
3. 8
4. 10

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 Q.31 The largest number of four digits that is exactly divisible by 17 and 36 is:
Ans 1. 7956
2. 9792
3. 8568
4. 9180

Q.32 What is the area of a triangle whose sides are of lengths 12 cm, 13 cm and 5 cm?
Ans 1. 30 cm2
2. 40 cm2
3. 15 cm2
4. 70 cm2

Q.33

Ans 1.

2.

3.
4.

Q.34 The value of 11 × 11 + 11 ÷ 11 - 11 × 11 + 11 + 11 × 11 - 11 - 11 × 11 is:

Ans 1. 121
2. 1
3. 11
4. 0

Q.35 If the price item is increased by 70%and then allows a scheme discount of 5%and 20%on this
marked price. If price is paid in cash and additional discount of 20%is allowed then what is his
gain percentage?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.36 Find the value of (tan2 θ + tan4 θ).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.37 A man runs for 40 km. The time taken by him in the first 10 km is twice the time taken by him in
the second 10 km. The time taken in the third 10 km is half of the time taken in the fourth 10 km,
and the time taken in the fourth 10 km is equal to the time taken in the first 10 km. If his speed in
the first 10 km is 40 km/h, then what is the average speed for 40 km?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.38 Rajesh invested ₹10,000 by dividing it into two different investment schemes, A and B, at simple
interest rates of 8%and 10%, respectively. If the total interest earned in 2 years is ₹1,680, the
amount invested in scheme A is:

Ans 1. ₹8,000
2. ₹6,000
3. ₹4,000
4. ₹2,000

Q.39 The areas of the two triangles are in the ratio 4 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 6 : 5. Find the
ratio of their bases.
Ans 1. 9 : 10
2. 6 : 5
3. 5 : 6
4. 10 : 9

Q.40 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. The product of their HCF and LCM is 2700. The sum of the
numbers is:
Ans 1. 105
2. 60
3. 15
4. 45

Q.41 Two numbers are in the ratio 5:3 and the difference between these two numbers is 34. Find the
smaller of the two numbers.
Ans 1. 34
2. 51
3. 85
4. 68

Q.42

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.43

Ans 1. 3∶7
2. 7∶10
3. 4∶7
4. 9∶10

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 Q.44 The product of two numbers is 726 and their HCF is 11, then their LCM is:
Ans 1. 66
2. 68
3. 76
4. 58

Q.45

Ans 1.
2.

3.
4.

Q.46 A man spends 72%of his salary and saves ₹5,740 per month. What is 10%of his annual salary (in
₹)?
Ans 1. ₹21600
2. ₹28400
3. ₹24600
4. ₹20500

Q.47 P, Q and R, when working individually, can complete a job in, respectively, 36 days, 48 days and
144 days. P, Q and R start working together. P leaves the job 12 days before completion and Q
leaves the job 8 days before completion. R works from the beginning till the end of the job.
Determine the total number of days taken to complete the job.
Ans 1. 25
2. 30
3. 24
4. 27

Q.48 A dishonest dealer announces selling his articles with 22%loss, but uses 35%lighter weights.
What is the percentage of his profit or loss?
Ans 1. 13% loss
2. 20% loss
3. 13% profit
4. 20% profit

Q.49 Jonathan had borrowed a sum of money 3 years ago at 10%interest per annum compounded
annually for a 5-year period, with the amount to be paid at the end of the period being ₹1,61,051.
However, there is no pre-payment penalty and Jonathan has received some bonus payment now,
with which he has decided to clear his debt. How much does Jonathan have to pay now to clear
his debt?
Ans 1. ₹1,32,900
2. ₹1,33,100
3. ₹1,33,000
4. ₹1,33,200

Q.50

Ans 1. 0
2. 2
3. 1
4. 3

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 Section : English Comprehension
Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
I hate to get off on the wrong foot.
Ans 1. To start something with an injury on the wrong foot
2. To start a relationship or activity badly
3. To start something with positive factors
4. To start something with neutral factors

Q.2 Select the option that can substitute the bracketed word segment correctly and complete the
following sentence meaningfully.
Lots of kids (was visualised) crossing the road when the bus arrived.
Ans 1. are seen
2. have been seen
3. were seen
4. was seen

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘moving’ in the given sentence and choose the
correct option.

The old grandfather clock chimed loudly, marking the passage of time with its steady tick-tock.
Ans 1. Steady
2. Marking
3. Chimed
4. Passage

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Abandon
Ans 1. Retain
2. Desert
3. Perish
4. Prolong

Q.5 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Assasinate
2. Interrogate
3. Alienate
4. Deserve

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the highlighted word.
The negligent attitude of the cops was criticised.
Ans 1. bored
2. reluctant
3. attentive
4. amplify

Q.7 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
The use of chemicals, insecticides and pesticides began after the Green Revolution.
Ans 1. A practice of chemicals, insecticides and pesticides
2. The custom of chemicals, insecticides and pesticides
3. The usage of chemicals, insecticides and pesticides
4. Consumption of chemicals, insecticides and pesticides

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Dreadful
Ans 1. Propitious
2. Auspicious
3. Terrible
4. Feeble

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 Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Bend over backwards
Ans 1. Using wrongful means
2. Working slowly and lazily
3. Going backward
4. Working hard to try to impress

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Comparsion
2. Triumph
3. Serene
4. Unveil

Q.11 Select the most appropriate idiomatic expression that can substitute the underlined segment in
the given sentence.
Both Nitin and Uday are of the same interests.
Ans 1. under the weather
2. birds of the same feather
3. different kettles of fish
4. blowing smoke without fire

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A leopard can't change his spots
Ans 1. You cannot change who you are
2. A visual presentation is far more descriptive than words
3. Someone who is cherished above all others
4. Something good that isn't recognised at first

Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
She will have participate / in the dance competition / by the time her father / returns from the tour.
Ans 1. by the time her father
2. in the dance competition
3. She will have participate
4. returns from the tour

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

We dodged a bullet when we didn’t fall for the agents’ words.
Ans 1. To be out of your comfort zone
2. To narrowly avoid situation
3. To give something a try
4. To start performing better

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

An arm and a leg
Ans 1. Everything is ready
2. To ask for too much
3. To be lost and bewildered
4. A large amount of money

Q.16 Select the word which means the same as the group of words underlined in the given sentence.
The pandemic deeply affected small business owners, as they have no means of livelihood left.
Ans 1. Unemployed
2. Mason
3. Pauper
4. Worker

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 Q.17 Select the most appropriate one-word substitution of the given group of words.
A notice of the death of a person, often with a biographical sketch, as in a newspaper.

Ans 1. Advertisement
2. Oblivion
3. Elegy
4. Obituary

Q.18 Select the most appropriate phrasal verb to fill in the blank.
Arunima _______________ a lot during her vacation time.
Ans 1. gets on
2. gets after
3. gets along
4. gets about

Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

More people in Turkey are on the breadline now than thirty years ago.
Ans 1. Be very expensive

2. Are well educated

3. Be very poor
4. Earn a lot of money

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Working or operating quickly and effectively in an organised way
Ans 1. Effusive
2. Excellent
3. Extensive
4. Efficient

Q.21 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Accomplish
2. Agregate
3. Adjacent
4. Allure

Q.22 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.
How did you become interested in learning the art of producing beautiful handwriting?
Ans 1. Graphology
2. Calligraphy
3. Demography
4. Lexicography

Q.23 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Justifiable
Ans 1. Indefensible
2. Maintainable
3. Neutral
4. Reasonable

Q.24 Select the most appropriate one-word substitution of the given group of words.
A person engaged in or trained for spaceflight.
Ans 1. Astronomer
2. Atrocious
3. Astronaut
4. Astute

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 Q.25 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an
error.
The dancers swayed dainty on the stage last night.
Ans 1. on the stage
2. The dancers
3. swayed dainty
4. last night

Q.26 You are preparing a speech for the upcoming function. Select a synonym for the highlighted word
to make it better.
Despite the advancement in technology many rural areas in developing countries still lack access
to basic necessities.
Ans 1. Desist
2. Disguise
3. Avenue
4. Apathy

Q.27 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.
Ms. Scarlet was indifferent to pain and pleasure, she never complained.
Ans 1. Versatile
2. Stoic
3. Amateur
4. Hypocrite

Q.28 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
They will not attend / the event / as they’re going / away at end of April.
Ans 1. the event
2. away at end of April.
3. as they’re going
4. They will not attend

Q.29 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Site
Ans 1. Location
2. Lap
3. Pull
4. Globe

Q.30 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Fear of water
Ans 1. Botanophobia
2. Microphobia
3. Hydrophobia
4. Bibliophobia

Q.31 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Damp
Ans 1. Arid
2. Misty
3. Tropical
4. Soaked

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 Q.32 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
spelling error.
He wrote his dairy / in code / so that nobody / could understand it.
Ans 1. He wrote his dairy
2. in code
3. could understand it
4. so that nobody

Q.33 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
Her paintings are way better then her sketches.
Ans 1. off
2. No substitution required
3. more
4. than

Q.34 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No
error’ as your answer.
We feed the horse oats for a week because it had eaten all the hay.
Ans 1. We feed the horse oats
2. No error
3. for a week because
4. it had eaten all the hay

Q.35 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Catastrophic
Ans 1. Calamity
2. Sabotage
3. Fiasco
4. Fortuitous

Q.36 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the underlined words in the following sentence.
This was a blatent disregard to the advisory by the host against it and in violation of norms of the
meeting.
Ans 1. blatent
2. disregard
3. violation
4. advisory

Q.37 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Haphazard
Ans 1. Sociable
2. Confident
3. Random
4. Aggressive

Q.38 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Students often burn the midnight oil to qualify for competitive examinations.
Ans 1. sleep well
2. work until late at night
3. want to be at a place full of light
4. put the things on fire at night

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 Q.39 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Left out in the cold
Ans 1. To be ignored
2. To bear extreme weather condition
3. To leave in hurry
4. To serve stale and cold food

Q.40 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

The best of both worlds
Ans 1. An ideal situation
2. Better to show than tell
3. Good things come after bad things
4. Make people comfortable

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option for each blank.
The Amazon rainforest is an awe-inspiring natural wonder that (1)_________ across several South
American countries, including Brazil, Peru, Colombia, and Ecuador. Covering an (2)________ area of
5.5 million square kilometres, it is the largest tropical rainforest on Earth. The Amazon jungle is
(3)_________ for its remarkable biodiversity, harbouring an astonishing array of plant and animal
species that are still being discovered and studied. The dense vegetation of the jungle creates a
(4)________ and complex ecosystem, supporting countless species and providing crucial ecosystem
services such as carbon sequestration and climate regulation. It is also home to (5)__________
communities that have thrived within its rich confines for centuries, preserving their traditions and
deep connection to the land.
SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. amounts
2. spans
3. lengths
4. reaches

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option for each blank.
The Amazon rainforest is an awe-inspiring natural wonder that (1)_________ across several South
American countries, including Brazil, Peru, Colombia, and Ecuador. Covering an (2)________ area of
5.5 million square kilometres, it is the largest tropical rainforest on Earth. The Amazon jungle is
(3)_________ for its remarkable biodiversity, harbouring an astonishing array of plant and animal
species that are still being discovered and studied. The dense vegetation of the jungle creates a
(4)________ and complex ecosystem, supporting countless species and providing crucial ecosystem
services such as carbon sequestration and climate regulation. It is also home to (5)__________
communities that have thrived within its rich confines for centuries, preserving their traditions and
deep connection to the land.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. gauged
2. estimated
3. rated
4. evaluated

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option for each blank.
The Amazon rainforest is an awe-inspiring natural wonder that (1)_________ across several South
American countries, including Brazil, Peru, Colombia, and Ecuador. Covering an (2)________ area of
5.5 million square kilometres, it is the largest tropical rainforest on Earth. The Amazon jungle is
(3)_________ for its remarkable biodiversity, harbouring an astonishing array of plant and animal
species that are still being discovered and studied. The dense vegetation of the jungle creates a
(4)________ and complex ecosystem, supporting countless species and providing crucial ecosystem
services such as carbon sequestration and climate regulation. It is also home to (5)__________
communities that have thrived within its rich confines for centuries, preserving their traditions and
deep connection to the land.

SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. renowned
2. acclaimed
3. pre-eminent
4. great

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option for each blank.
The Amazon rainforest is an awe-inspiring natural wonder that (1)_________ across several South
American countries, including Brazil, Peru, Colombia, and Ecuador. Covering an (2)________ area of
5.5 million square kilometres, it is the largest tropical rainforest on Earth. The Amazon jungle is
(3)_________ for its remarkable biodiversity, harbouring an astonishing array of plant and animal
species that are still being discovered and studied. The dense vegetation of the jungle creates a
(4)________ and complex ecosystem, supporting countless species and providing crucial ecosystem
services such as carbon sequestration and climate regulation. It is also home to (5)__________
communities that have thrived within its rich confines for centuries, preserving their traditions and
deep connection to the land.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. vibrant
2. spirited
3. vigour
4. lavish

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option for each blank.
The Amazon rainforest is an awe-inspiring natural wonder that (1)_________ across several South
American countries, including Brazil, Peru, Colombia, and Ecuador. Covering an (2)________ area of
5.5 million square kilometres, it is the largest tropical rainforest on Earth. The Amazon jungle is
(3)_________ for its remarkable biodiversity, harbouring an astonishing array of plant and animal
species that are still being discovered and studied. The dense vegetation of the jungle creates a
(4)________ and complex ecosystem, supporting countless species and providing crucial ecosystem
services such as carbon sequestration and climate regulation. It is also home to (5)__________
communities that have thrived within its rich confines for centuries, preserving their traditions and
deep connection to the land.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. ancient
2. late
3. indigenous
4. organic

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
We started our research into organisational and personal excellence by studying a slightly different
topic. We figured that if we could learn why certain people were more effective than others, then we
could learn exactly what they did, clone it and pass it on to others. We asked people to identify who
they thought were their most effective colleagues. In fact, over the past twenty-five years, we have
asked over twenty thousand people to identify the individuals in their organisations who could really
get things done. We wanted to find those who were not just influential but who were far more
influential than the rest.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 Select the most appropriate title to the given passage.
Ans 1. Different Topics
2. Most Effective Colleagues
3. Learn, Clone and Pass
4. Research Grants in Organisations

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
We started our research into organisational and personal excellence by studying a slightly different
topic. We figured that if we could learn why certain people were more effective than others, then we
could learn exactly what they did, clone it and pass it on to others. We asked people to identify who
they thought were their most effective colleagues. In fact, over the past twenty-five years, we have
asked over twenty thousand people to identify the individuals in their organisations who could really
get things done. We wanted to find those who were not just influential but who were far more
influential than the rest.
SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 Select the most suitable structure for the above passage.
Ans 1. Compare and contrast
2. Cause and Effect
3. Pragmatic
4. Chronological

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
We started our research into organisational and personal excellence by studying a slightly different
topic. We figured that if we could learn why certain people were more effective than others, then we
could learn exactly what they did, clone it and pass it on to others. We asked people to identify who
they thought were their most effective colleagues. In fact, over the past twenty-five years, we have
asked over twenty thousand people to identify the individuals in their organisations who could really
get things done. We wanted to find those who were not just influential but who were far more
influential than the rest.
SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 Which real life situation can be the most appropriate to be inferred from the passage?
Ans 1. If we do something wrong to decent people, the same comes to haunt us even after many
years.
2. Inflation has direct influence on the morals and ethics of an individual.
3. Jassie is an efficient employee whose work ethics can be a case study to learn more about
organisational and personal excellence.
4. People nowadays do not have patience and want quick success and does not matter what
path they choose to obtain their targets.

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
We started our research into organisational and personal excellence by studying a slightly different
topic. We figured that if we could learn why certain people were more effective than others, then we
could learn exactly what they did, clone it and pass it on to others. We asked people to identify who
they thought were their most effective colleagues. In fact, over the past twenty-five years, we have
asked over twenty thousand people to identify the individuals in their organisations who could really
get things done. We wanted to find those who were not just influential but who were far more
influential than the rest.
SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 Select the statement that most appropriately sums up the passage given.
Ans 1. Some people cannot be identified due to their most effective ways in 25 years.
2. Some people are more effective and more influential than others to get things done.
3. Research grants in an organisation should be increased for personal excellence.
4. It takes 25 years of research to make people more effective and influential.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
We started our research into organisational and personal excellence by studying a slightly different
topic. We figured that if we could learn why certain people were more effective than others, then we
could learn exactly what they did, clone it and pass it on to others. We asked people to identify who
they thought were their most effective colleagues. In fact, over the past twenty-five years, we have
asked over twenty thousand people to identify the individuals in their organisations who could really
get things done. We wanted to find those who were not just influential but who were far more
influential than the rest.
SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Effective
Ans 1. Harmonious
2. Fruitless
3. Courteous
4. Deniable

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 Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I
Exam Date 03/10/2023
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Shilpa goes to a park every day for walking. One morning, she started walking from her home and
walked 40 km towards the north. Then she turned to the right and walked 60 km. Again, she
turned right and walked 40 km. Lastly, she took a left turn and walked 30 km. How far is she from
her home?
Ans 1. 100 km
2. 60 km
3. 90 km
4. 140 km

Q.2 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.3 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Animals, Cats, Dogs
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.4 If M denotes ‘-’, N denotes ‘÷’, O denotes ‘×’, and P denotes ‘+’, then what will come in place of ‘?’
in the following equation?
255 N 5 O 4 P 16 O 3 M 29 = ?
Ans 1. 223
2. 216
3. 230
4. 211

Q.5 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
18, 27, 31, 43, 44, 59, 57, ?
Ans 1. 74
2. 75
3. 83
4. 82

Q.6

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.7 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to
each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Nun : Convent :: King : ?
Ans 1. Cottage
2. Monastery
3. Palace
4. Prison

Q.8 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) and complete the given number
series?
15, 19 , 21, 25 , 27, ?
Ans 1. 30
2. 32
3. 29
4. 31

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘DOING’ is written as ‘BQTOV’ and 'ZEBRA' is written as 'FAAKB'. How
will ‘STORM’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. PETBK
2. MKYTS
3. PRYSK
4. MLNKP

Q.10

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.11 In a certain code language, 'OIL' is coded as 27 and 'CREAM' is coded as 125. How will 'POWDER'
be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 169
2. 198
3. 225
4. 216

Q.12 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘COUNTY’ is written as ‘ULCYGN’ and 'FOREST' is written as 'RLFTHE'.
How will ‘MARGIN’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. RZMNRG
2. RJMDSZ
3. ZMTPRH
4. ZMMRGI

Q.14 Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some shells are pebbles.
All pebbles are rocks.
Conclusions:
I. No shell is a rock.
II. Some shells are rocks.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Both conclusions I and II follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

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 Q.15 Seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (not
necessarily in the same order). D is an immediate neighbour of B and C. A is sitting third to the
right of C. E is an immediate neighbour of A and F. G is sitting immediate left of C. B is sitting third
to the right of G. What is the position of G with respect to A when counted from the right side of A?
Ans 1. Third to the left
2. Third to the right
3. Second to the left
4. Second to the right

Q.16 Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one
that is different.
Ans 1. MRVY
2. TGQJ
3. NSWZ
4. GLPS

Q.17 Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.18 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(13, 104, 16), (9, 63, 14)
Ans 1. (23, 204, 26)
2. (10, 92, 17)
3. (12, 85, 15)
4. (8, 60, 15)

Q.19 A @ B means ‘A is the husband of B’

A & B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’
If Q @ M & Y @ J # R & Z, then how is Y related to Z?
Ans 1. Brother’s wife
2. Sister’s husband
3. Father’s sister
4. Father

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 Q.20 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(25, 3, 150)
(13, 7, 182)
Ans 1. (6,13,234)
2. (10,5,100)
3. (3,4,45)
4. (5,8,184)

Q.21 If ‘+’ means ‘divided by’, ‘ ̶ ’ means ‘added to’, ‘×’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘÷’ means
‘multiplied by’, then what will be the value of the following expression?
[{(25 × 13) - (3 ÷ 3)} + (3 - 4)] ÷ 5
Ans 1. 15
2. 10
3. 5
4. 20

Q.22 Which two mathematical signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(75 + 15) × 27 × 1 – 9 ÷ 7 × (135 + 3) – 10 ÷ (189 + 63) = 434
Ans 1. × and +
2. ÷ and –
3. + and –
4. + and ÷

Q.23 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(11, 33, 17), (18, 44, 21)
Ans 1. (15, 34, 19)

2. (12, 40, 18)

3. (7, 32, 9)
4. (16, 43, 22)

Q.24 Select the option that represents the letters which, when sequentially placed from left to right in
the blanks below, will complete the letter series.
A _ _ D F_ K _ _ FA _ L _ _
Ans 1. D L K L F A L D
2. L A L K D F D K
3. K L A L D K D F
4. F D L A K F D L

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 Q.25 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the
face showing ‘5’.

Ans 1. 2
2. 4
3. 1
4. 3

Q.26 In a certain code language, ‘HIGHLY’ is written as ‘GRHYOH’ and 'CLEVER' is written as 'EOCRVV'.
How will ‘HORROR’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. JPRDER
2. JRLPDB
3. RKJPED
4. RLHRLR

Q.27

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.28 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
90, 110, 132, ? , 182
Ans 1. 146
2. 169
3. 148
4. 156

Q.29 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
Ans 1. KNJZ
2. FIEU
3. MJLO
4. SVRH

Q.30 Town Q is to the north of Town P. Town R is to the west of Town Q. Town S is to the north of Town
R. Town T is to the east of Town S. What is the position of Town T with respect to Town R? (All
positions are arranged in GRID pattern).
Ans 1. South
2. East
3. North-east
4. South-east

Q.31 ‘M $ K’ means ‘M is the mother of K’.

‘M # K’ means ‘M is the father of K’.
‘M @ K’ means ‘M is the husband of K’.
‘M%K’ means ‘M is the daughter of K’.
If A $ C @ R, then how is R related to A?
Ans 1. Son's wife
2. Husband's father
3. Mother
4. Daughter

Q.32 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Formal
2. Foreign
3. Forest
4. Forgotten
5. Forge
6. Forlorn
Ans 1. 2, 3, 5, 6, 4, 1
2. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1
3. 2, 3, 5, 4, 6, 1
4. 2, 3, 6, 1, 5, 4

Q.33 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
MMNO, OKPM, ?, SGTI, UEVG
Ans 1. POKI
2. QRIL
3. QIRK
4. PQIJ

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 Q.34 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed at line MN as
shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.35 PRO 5' is related to 'OSQ 15' in a certain way. In the same way, 'OPO 10' is related to 'NQQ 30'.
Which of the following is related to 'MAC 9' using the same logic?
Ans 1. OZA 3
2. NZA 3
3. NZA 27
4. NZB 3

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 Q.36

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.37 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(18 × 2) – 24 + 10 × 160 ÷ 16 + (10 × 4) = 170
Ans 1. 16 and 18
2. 2 and 24
3. 24 and 18
4. 2 and 4

Q.38 Six students Meera, Jigyasa, Tarun, Naina, Shambhavi and Avni are sitting around a circular table
facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Shambhavi is an immediate neighbour of
both Jigyasa and Avni. Tarun is sitting third to the left of Jigyasa. Meera is sitting second to the
right of Avni.
Who is sitting third to the right of Meera?
Ans 1. Shambhavi
2. Jigyasa
3. Naina
4. Avni

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 Q.39

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.40 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
13 + 145 ÷ 29 × 52 – 11 = 106
Ans 1. x and +
2. ÷ and –
3. ÷ and +
4. – and ×

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 Q.41 If I denotes ‘÷’, J denotes ‘×’, K denotes ‘−’ and L denotes ‘+’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in
the following equation?
(35 I 5) J 9 K 23 L 39 K (3 J 8) = ?
Ans 1. 51
2. 59
3. 55
4. 60

Q.42 Given below are two statements and two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they
are at variance with commonly known facts, and decide whether the conclusion(s) follow(s) the
given statements.
Statements:
Some cakes are biscuits.
Some biscuits are chocolates.
Conclusions:
I. Some biscuits are cakes.
II. Some cakes are chocolates.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Both the conclusions follow
3. Only conclusion II follows
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.43 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
91, 111, 133, ?, 183, 211
Ans 1. 157
2. 156
3. 149
4. 167

Q.44 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following equation?
13 B 7 A 64 D 4 C 23 = ?
Ans 1. 82
2. 86
3. 84
4. 76

Q.45 In a certain code language, ‘FRIGHT’ is written as ‘FOCQED’ and ‘SHREDS’ is written as ‘OEPPAB’.
How will ‘UPSETS’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. PMRPQB
2. PMRSQB
3. PMSPQB
4. PMROQB

Q.46 Which letter-cluster will complete the given series?

BHERZ, DGHTX, FFKVV, _________
Ans 1. HENWT
2. GGNXU
3. HENXT
4. HGMWU

Q.47 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(15, 21, 66)
(9, 17, 44)
Ans 1. (11, 13, 35)
2. (2, 4, 12)
3. (7, 9, 86)
4. (5, 37, 52)

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 Q.48 Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'MN' as
shown below.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.49 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Authority
2.Automate
3.Authentic
4.Auspicious
5.Aureole
Ans 1. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
2. 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
3. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
4. 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

Q.50 Three Statements are given followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All valleys are mountains.
No sea is a mountain.
Some plains are seas.
Conclusions:
I. Some valleys are plains.
II. No plain is a mountain.
III. No sea is a valley.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.
2. Only conclusion I follows.
3. Only conclusion III follows.
4. Only conclusion II follows.

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

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 Q.1 Which of the following is the correct statement?
Ans 1. Joule/ second is also a unit of energy.
2. Joule is the unit of work
3. The unit of power is joule/newton.
4. The unit of energy is the watt.

Q.2 India's rank in Tokyo Olympic 2020 is:

Ans 1. 46
2. 47
3. 49
4. 48

Q.3 The earth's perihelion occurs in:

Ans 1. October
2. July
3. January
4. September

Q.4 Syed Modi India International is organised in which sporting event?

Ans 1. Chess
2. Volleyball
3. Badminton
4. Kabaddi

Q.5 ‘The Race of my Life’ is the autobiography of which of the following sportsmen?
Ans 1. Saurav Ganguly
2. Milkha Singh
3. Mary Kom
4. PT Usha

Q.6 Which Union Territory recorded the highest male literacy rate, according to the 2011 Census?
Ans 1. Delhi
2. Daman and Diu
3. Lakshadweep
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q.7 Prabhat Sarma, a recipient of Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, was a _______ player from Assam.
Ans 1. Ghatam
2. Flute
3. sarangi
4. Tabla

Q.8 Who among the following was the last Mauryan ruler and was killed by his commander-in-chief?
Ans 1. Shatadhanvan
2. Dashratha
3. Brihadratha
4. Bindusara

Q.9 A Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until
______________.
Ans 1. the Legislative Secretary takes charge
2. the President’s consent
3. he/she has aid and advice of the Chief Minister
4. his/her successor enters his/her office

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 Q.10 In 1784, who discovered the composition of water through his experiment with hydrogen and
oxygen?
Ans 1. Henry Cavendish
2. Herbert C Brown
3. John Dalton
4. Joseph Priestley

Q.11 What is the percentage of proteins in the cell membrane?

Ans 1. 40-60%
2. 20-40%
3. 60-80%
4. 80-100%

Q.12 Which of the following is the correct formula for moment of inertia?
Ans 1. I = rm2
2. I = mr2
3. I = 2mr
4. I = m/ r2

Q.13 The ‘Tripartite struggle’ was between Gurjara Pratiharas in North India, Palas in Eastern India and
________ in South India.
Ans 1. Cheras
2. Marathas
3. Cholas
4. Rashtrakutas

Q.14 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the relationship between the
Prime Minister and the President?
Ans 1. Article 45
2. Article 25
3. Article 75
4. Article 35

Q.15 During a game of hockey, following an offence, if a player is shown a yellow card then he will be
sent off the pitch for _______.
Ans 1. 3 minutes
2. 4 minutes
3. 5 minutes
4. 6 minutes

Q.16 Guru Bipin Singh, who received the honour of Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1966 and the
Kalidas Samman by Madhya Pradesh Government, was an exponent of which of the following
Indian classical dance forms?
Ans 1. Kathak
2. Manipuri
3. Odissi
4. Kuchipudi

Q.17 Who is the author of the novel ‘The Moor’s Last Sigh’?
Ans 1. Salman Rushdie
2. VS Naipaul
3. John Keay
4. Kiran Doshi

Q.18 Which dance form of Goa is also known as the ‘Warrior Dance’?
Ans 1. Rauf
2. Lavani
3. Ghode Modni
4. Bihu

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 Q.19 Mehrangarh fort is located in which of the following cities?
Ans 1. Bikaner
2. Jodhpur
3. Jaipur
4. Kota

Q.20 Which writ is issued when the court finds that there is unlawful arrest of a person?
Ans 1. Habeas corpus
2. Quo warranto
3. Prohibition
4. Mandamus

Q.21 Which of the following organisations was founded in Poona, Satara and other towns of
Maharashtra that worked against Brahmanical orthodoxy and tried to reform Hinduism?
Ans 1. Ramakrishna Mission
2. Arya Samaj
3. Brahmo Samaj
4. Paramahansa Mandali

Q.22 Which of the following is the most widely used method for refining impure metals?
Ans 1. Liquidation Refining
2. Poling Refining
3. Electrolytic Refining
4. Vapour-Phase Refining

Q.23 The office of Diwan-i-Insha dealt with which affair in administration?

Ans 1. Finance
2. Religious affairs
3. Military
4. State correspondence

Q.24 Under which strata do trees fall?

Ans 1. Bottom vertical
2. Second vertical
3. Middle vertical
4. Top vertical

Q.25 Which of the following five-year plan addressed the issue of removal of poverty as a chief
objective for the first time?
Ans 1. Third Five-year Plan
2. Fifth Five-year Plan
3. Fourth Five-year Plan
4. Sixth Five-year Plan

Q.26 Trade liberalisation has helped India improve its _____________ in industries with medium-to-
high technology content.
Ans 1. labour intensity
2. imports
3. fuel efficiency
4. comparative advantage

Q.27 Mawsynram, the place that receives the highest rainfall in the world, is situated in which hills?
Ans 1. Rajmahal Hills
2. Khasi Hills
3. Mishmi Hills
4. Patkai Hills

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 Q.28 In which of the following years was the Muslim League formed?
Ans 1. 1906
2. 1912
3. 1915
4. 1909

Q.29 Who among the following was the youngest recipient of the Padma Vibhushan award in dance in
1984?
Ans 1. Ehshan Hilal
2. Abhimanyu Lal
3. Birju Maharaj
4. Rajendra Gangani

Q.30 Who among the following founded an expatriate Communist Party of India at Tashkent in 1920?
Ans 1. PC Joshi
2. Jolly Kaul
3. MN Roy
4. Shripad Amrut Dange

Q.31 Which of the following statements is correct?

Ans 1. The transport of male gametes in angiosperms occurs through water.
2. The transport of male gametes in bryophytes and pteridophytes occurs through water.
3. The transport of male gametes in Gymnosperms occurs through water.
4. The transport of male gametes in bryophytes and pteridophytes occurs through air.

Q.32 Ker and Garia Puja are traditional tribal festivals of which state?
Ans 1. Odisha
2. Tripura
3. Manipur
4. Jharkhand

Q.33 According to the Census of India 2011, which metropolitan city has the highest population?
Ans 1. Kolkata
2. Mumbai
3. Chennai
4. Patna

Q.34 A government budget shows a primary deficit of ₹6,900 crore. The revenue expenditure on
interest payment is ₹400 crore. Fiscal deficit is equal to:
Ans 1. ₹6,900 crore
2. ₹7,300 crore
3. ₹7,100 crore
4. ₹6,500 crore

Q.35 The Chambal, Hindon and Tons rivers are tributaries of the river:
Ans 1. Mahanadi
2. Tapi
3. Kaveri
4. Yamuna

Q.36 Which of the following dances is based on Rasleela themes of Radha and Krishna?
Ans 1. Kathak
2. Sattriya dance
3. Mohiniyattam
4. Manipuri dance

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 Q.37 Which of the following microfinance institutions was established in India at the time of
independence?
Ans 1. Self Help Group
2. Grameen Model Bank
3. Rural Cooperatives
4. Joint Liability Group

Q.38 The fundamental duties were added in the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the:
Ans 1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Sardar Swaran Singh Committee
3. Bibek Debroy Committee
4. LM Singhvi Committee

Q.39 Pandit Ravi Shankar popularised which instrument in particular all over the world?
Ans 1. Sitar
2. Harmonium
3. Veena
4. Tabla

Q.40 From which country has the concept of Martial Law, which restricts Fundamental rights,
borrowed?
Ans 1. China
2. The USSR
3. Japan
4. The UK

Q.41 Copacabana beach is situated in __________.

Ans 1. Brazil
2. Peru
3. Mexico
4. Australia

Q.42 Which of the following has been INCORRECTLY listed as a condition for becoming a citizen of
India?
Ans 1. Citizenship by birth
2. Citizenship through acquisition of property
3. Citizenship by naturalisation
4. Citizenship by descent

Q.43 The duration of the 12th five year plan was from _______ to ________.
Ans 1. 2012 - 2017
2. 2007 - 2012
3. 1987 - 1992
4. 1990 - 1995

Q.44 Which of the following was the first B vitamin discovered in 1897 that is essential in amino acid
and carbohydrate metabolism and is active in energy production reactions?
Ans 1. Thiamine
2. Riboflavin
3. Folate
4. Biotin

Q.45 Which British scientist is known for developing the principle of holography in 1947 to improve the
resolution of the electron microscope?
Ans 1. Dennis Gabor
2. Charles Towns
3. Werner Heisenberg
4. Lloyd Cross

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 Q.46 In India, which of the following modes of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and
delays in supply of petroleum and gas?
Ans 1. Waterways
2. Pipeline
3. Railways
4. Roadways

Q.47 Which company has been given the responsibility of construction, operation and maintenance of
the Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) pipeline project?
Ans 1. TATA Petrodyne Limited (TPL)
2. Reliance Industries Limited (RIL)
3. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
4. Gas Authority of India (GAIL)

Q.48 Manisha Kalyan is associated with which of the following sports events?
Ans 1. Chess
2. Cricket
3. Football
4. Hockey

Q.49 Identify the cultural festival on the basis of given clues:

i) This festival brings together craftsmen like potters, embroiderers, weavers, wood carvers,
metal workers, stone smiths and painters from all over India on one platform in Haryana.
ii) This crafts mela is held in February every year and provides a glimpse of the state’s cultural
heritage and recent achievements.
Ans 1. Shamlaji Fair
2. Kapil Muni Fair
3. Surajkund Mela
4. Chitra Vichitra Fair

Q.50 When was the Indian Meteorological Department,Which collects data on temperature, rainfall,
wind, etc., and makes weather forecasts, established by the Government of India?
Ans 1. 1879
2. 1876
3. 1873
4. 1875

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1. 49
2. 81
3. 36
4. 38

Q.2

Ans 1. 32 cm
2. 36 cm
3. 28 cm
4. 35 cm

Q.3 In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix two types of rice worth ₹55 per kg and ₹70 per kg, so that
the average cost of the mixture is ₹65 per kg?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

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 Q.4 Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.
The pie-chart shows the percentage of 3600 students enrolled in different hobby classes in a
school.

The number of students enrolled in Painting classes is approximately what percentage of those
enrolled in Singing classes?
Ans 1. 98%
2. 78%
3. 108%
4. 83%

Q.5 A sum of ₹1,00,000 was taken from a bank at the rate of 7%p.a to be compounded annually for 5
years. Calculate the compound interest. (Closest to a ₹)
Ans 1. ₹40,255
2. ₹40,567
3. ₹20,963
4. ₹40,000

Q.6 P and Q can do a work together in 30 days. Q and R can do the same work together in 24 days and
R and P together in 20 days. They started the work together, but Q and R left after 10 days. How
many more days will P take to finish the remaining work?
Ans 1. 23
2. 21
3. 19
4. 18

Q.7

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 A hostel mess requires 217 eggs for a week. How many eggs will it require in total for the months
of July, August and September?
Ans 1. 2790
2. 2852
3. 2883
4. 2821

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 Q.9 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 300 m. The thief starts running and the
policeman starts chasing him. The thief and policeman run at the rate of 11 km/h and 13 km/h,
respectively. After running for how many kilometres will the policeman be able to catch the thief?
Ans 1. 1.85
2. 1.75
3. 1.95
4. 1.65

Q.10 The least common multiple of 210, 336 and 504 is :

Ans 1. 5040
2. 4560
3. 2100
4. 3360

Q.11

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 The curved surface area of a cone whose base radius is 7 cm and slant height is 10 cm is:
Ans 1. 220 cm2
2. 250 cm2
3. 280 cm2
4. 300 cm2

Q.13 At a courier shop, the weights of 8 parcels were found to be 1.5 kg, 1.25 kg, 1.35 kg, 750 gm, 950
gm, 0.7 kg, 0.4 kg, and 0.5 kg.
Find their average weight.
Ans 1. 700gm
2. 925gm
3. 900gm
4. 875gm

Q.14 What is the length (in cm) of the transverse common tangent between two circles with radii 6 cm
and 4 cm, given that the distance between their centres is 14 cm?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 Find the greatest possible length (in metres) that can be used to exactly measure the lengths 6 m,
5 m 25 cm and 12 m 50 cm.
Ans 1. 0.75 m
2. 0.35 m
3. 0.25 m
4. 0.90 m

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 Q.16 Sukhvir purchased some perishable items for sale but 30%of those items could not be sold and
went bad. However, Sukhvir managed to sell the rest of the items at a price that helped him earn
an overall profit of 19%. At what percentage above the cost price of each item purchased by
Sukhvir did he sell each of the items that did not go bad?
Ans 1.

2.
3.

4.

Q.17 Train ‘A’ requires 15 seconds to cross train ‘B’ of length 300 m moving in the opposite direction at
a speed of 36 km/h. Further, train ‘A’ requires 30 seconds to cross a 500 m long stationary train
‘C’. Find the length (in m) of train ‘A’.
Ans 1. 300
2. 275
3. 250
4. 200

Q.18 Find the greatest number which when divides 261, 853 and 1221, leaves a remainder of 5 in each
case.
Ans 1. 19
2. 16
3. 17
4. 18

Q.19

Ans 1. 3
2. 0
3. 2
4. 1

Q.20 The value of (1+ sin4 A - cos4 A) cosec2 A is:

Ans 1. −1
2. −2
3. 1
4. 2

Q.21 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the production of five types of cars P, Q, R, S and T by a company from the year
1989 to 1994.

During the period 1989-94, which type of car featured a continuous increase in production?
Ans 1. R
2. S
3. Q
4. P

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 Q.22 Swastik saves 20%of his income while spends the remaining amount on food, rent, education
and shopping. 15%of the income is spent on food, while ₹12,800 is spent on rent, ₹32,000 on
education and ₹7,200 on shopping. The amount spent on shopping is 11.25%of the total
expenditure. How much money (in ₹) is spent on food?
Ans 1. 15000
2. 9600
3. 10800
4. 12000

Q.23 What will be the difference between the total surface area and the curved surface area of a
hemisphere having 4 cm diameter?
Ans 1. 4π cm2
2. 4.4π cm2
3. 8π cm2
4. 5π cm2

Q.24

Ans 1. 300 more

2. 200 less
3. 200 more
4. 300 less

Q.25 The perimeter of a sector of a circle is 24 cm and the radius is 3 cm. Calculate the area (in cm2)
of the sector.
Ans 1. 24
2. 33
3. 30
4. 27

Q.26

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.27

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.28 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the production of five types of cars P, Q, R, S and T by a company from the year
1989 to 1994.

During the period 1989-94, which type of car featured a continuous decrease in production?
Ans 1. Q
2. T
3. R
4. S

Q.29 If the difference between the selling prices of an article at profits of 10%and 7%is ₹6, then the
cost price (in ₹) of the article is:
Ans 1. 175
2. 200
3. 100
4. 150

Q.30

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.31

Ans 1. 1145
2. 1155
3. 1210
4. 1122

Q.32 A conical shape vessel has a radius of 21 cm and has a slant height of 25 cm. If the curved part of
the vessel is to be painted white, find the cost (in ₹) of painting at the rate of ₹1.5 per cm2.
Ans 1. 2475
2. 1250
3. 825
4. 1650

Q.33

Ans 1. 3.33 cm
2. 3.67 cm
3. 1.33 cm
4. 1.67 cm

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 Q.34 Simplify the given expression.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.35 A can do a piece of work in 8 days, while B can do it in 7 days. If they work at it alternately
beginning with A, then in how many days will the work be completed?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.36

Ans 1. 76.25%
2. 99.23%
3. 80.55%
4. 92.12%

Q.37 If the marked price is 75%more than the cost price and a discount of 40%is allowed on the
marked price, then the percentage profit is:
Ans 1.
2.
3.

4.

Q.38

Ans 1. 225 m
2. 200 m
3. 250 m
4. 240 m

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 Q.39 John can do a piece of work alone in 20 days, while Ravi can do the same piece of work alone in
28 days. In how many days can the duo complete the same work if they work together?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.40 The given table shows marks obtained by four students in four subjects.

The average percentage of marks obtained by all students in Hindi is:

Ans 1. 77.5%
2. 77.6%
3. 77.0%
4. 77.8%

Q.41

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.42 What is the number of valid votes cast in favour of a candidate in an election, if the candidate
received 75%of the total valid votes, and 5%of the total votes were declared invalid, given that the
total number of voters was 1,46,000?
Ans 1. 1,08,850
2. 1,10,250
3. 1,04,025
4. 1,06,650

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 Q.43

Ans 1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
4. 7

Q.44

Ans 1. 1.6
2. 1.8
3. 1.9
4. 1.7

Q.45

Ans 1.

2.
3.
4.

Q.46

Ans 1. 1,250
2. 1,450
3. 1,700
4. 1,300

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 Q.47 The volume of a right circular cone having a base diameter of 14 cm is 196π cm3.Find the
perpendicular height of this cone
Ans 1. 14 cm
2. 12 cm
3. 10 cm
4. 8 cm

Q.48 If an amount of ₹80 becomes ₹96 in 2 years in a bank account which gives simple annual interest,
then an amount of ₹62,000 will become ________ in the same account after 5 years.
Ans 1. ₹82,400
2. ₹93,000
3. ₹84,600
4. ₹88,200

Q.49 In a village election, Sharuk got 80%of the total valid votes. 10%of the votes were invalid. If the
total number of votes was 4500, then find the number of valid votes the other candidate got.
Ans 1. 530
2. 450
3. 620
4. 810

Q.50 An item with a marked price of ₹1,940 was sold at a discount of 15%. At what price (in ₹) was the
item sold?
Ans 1. 1654
2. 1659
3. 1639
4. 1649

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Crack someone up
Ans 1. To make someone angry
2. To criticise someone
3. To force someone to commit a mistake
4. To make someone laugh

Q.2 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Choosing not to pursue a degree in computer engineering was ________, as the market for them
is extremely limited nowadays.
Ans 1. airy fairy
2. an elevator pitch
3. a cut above
4. a blessing in disguise

Q.3 Select the correct idiom that can substitute the italicised group of words in the given sentence.
He really stinks and smells foul after a hard session at the gym.
Ans 1. lame excuse
2. an old flame
3. pen and ink
4. an iron will

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘viable’ in the given sentence and choose the
correct option.
The engineer’s design was optimised for efficiency and scalability, with a focus on sustainability.
Ans 1. Sustainability
2. Optimised
3. Scalability
4. Efficiency

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 Q.5 Select the correct idiom to substitute the underlined word segment in the following sentence.
She trusted her husband but he stabbed her in the neck when he usurped her inheritance.

Ans 1. stabbed her with a fork

2. stabbed her prospects

3. stabbed her in the back
4. snapped her in the neck

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Miniture
2. Yearn
3. Merriment
4. Zenith

Q.7 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

All my efforts went in vain. The project on which I was working for the last two months has failed
and we are ________________________ .
Ans 1. back to square one
2. all in the seventh heaven
3. around the bend
4. on the fly

Q.8 Identify the sentence that correctly uses the indefinite article.
Ans 1. There are three cars parked outside: an Mercedes, a Jaguar and a Fiat.
2. There are three cars parked outside: a Mercedes, a Jaguar and a Fiat.
3. There are three cars parked outside: a Mercedes, an Jaguar and a Fiat.
4. There are three cars parked outside: a Mercedes, an Jaguar and an Fiat.

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Any sort of unfair conduct is not tolerated in international sports tournaments as it can
completely ruin an athlete’s career.
Ans 1. foul play
2. straw in the eye
3. red handed
4. hand in the mud

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Captivate
Ans 1. Envelope
2. Arrest
3. Allure
4. Study

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Happening repeatedly
Ans 1. Recurrent
2. Rapport
3. Recuperate
4. Regression

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Payal’s father was seen desperately searching for the medicine that can counteract the effect of
a venomous snakebite in Parul’s left hand.
Ans 1. antiseptic
2. anti-serum
3. remedy
4. antidote

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 Q.13 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.
I think we should ________ before buying this car.
Ans 1. hold our horses
2. stop to change horses
3. eat like a horse
4. get off our high horse

Q.14 Select the correct idiom to replace the underlined segment in the given sentence.
We should ask Emily to join our team. She is as keen as butter.
Ans 1. as keen as sugar
2. as keen as salt
3. as keen as mustard
4. as keen as a bee

Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
A Prime Minister of India / will address / the nation today / on the occasion of Independence Day.
Ans 1. on the occasion of Independence Day
2. will address
3. A Prime Minister of India
4. the nation today

Q.16 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The study of the human mind
Ans 1. Microbiology
2. Epidemiology
3. Psychology
4. Anthropology

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Asset
Ans 1. Liability
2. Wealth
3. Mole
4. Refuge

Q.18 Choose the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He has won the medal for the twelth time.
Ans 1. Twelfth
2. Twwelfth
3. Twellth
4. Tweltth

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Denounce
Ans 1. Criticise
2. Dainty
3. Relieve
4. Praise

Q.20 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No
error’ as your answer.
You arrived two days ago. By the time you leave, you will have spent nine days here.
Ans 1. By the time you leave
2. You arrived two days ago
3. you will have spent nine days here
4. No error

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 Q.21 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Apathy
Ans 1. Interest
2. Sincerity
3. Ignorance
4. Interruption

Q.22 Select the sentence that has a spelling error.

A- The art of living is learnt easily by those who are positive and optimistic.
B- We can learn a lot about the art of living by having a peep into the lives of great men.
C- The daily routines of these great men dissiminate that they are different.
D- Their unique lifestyles help us learn certain habits and practices that they followed.
Ans 1. The art of living is learnt easily by those who are positive and optimistic.
2. Their unique lifestyles help us learn certain habits and practices that they followed.
3. The daily routines of these great men dissiminate that they are different.
4. We can learn a lot about the art of living by having a peep into the lives of great men.

Q.23 Choose the most suitable idiom for the given situation.
Ravi has a strong desire to be in college hockey team this year and he is working hard to gain
such skills to fulfill his goal of life. He has clearly made up his mind to achieve his target.
Ans 1. Set sights on
2. To make the cut
3. To move the goal posts
4. To rise to the occasion

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
The Taj Mahal is one of the much popular seven wonders of the world.
Ans 1. No substitution required
2. most
3. much more
4. more

Q.25 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘discordant’ in the given sentence and choose
the correct option.
The sweet melodious symphony of the piano filled the room, transporting the listeners to a world
of beauty and emotion.
Ans 1. Filled
2. Melodious
3. Transporting
4. Emotion

Q.26 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
One who settles in another country
Ans 1. Resident
2. Immigrant
3. Traveller
4. Refugee

Q.27 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

What a small world!
Ans 1. The world is great.
2. What a coincidence!
3. The world is a village.
4. What a beautiful place!

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 Q.28 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Placid
Ans 1. Turbulent
2. Pensive
3. Pristine
4. Destined

Q.29 Select the correct option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no
substitution is required, select ‘No substitution’.
He is faster than smarter.
Ans 1. fast than smart
2. more fast than smart
3. No substitution
4. faster than being smart

Q.30 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who believes that God does not exist
Ans 1. Atheist

2. Fanatic
3. Epicurean
4. Hedonistic

Q.31 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Study of science of insects
Ans 1. Anthropology
2. Entomology
3. Microbiology
4. Ecology

Q.32 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
I wanted to buy a candle holder, / but the store didn't have one. / So, I got a cake.
Ans 1. but the store didn't have one
2. No error
3. I wanted to buy a candle holder
4. So, I got a cake

Q.33 You are preparing a speech for an upcoming function. Select a synonym for the highlighted word
to make it better.
Effective public transportation networks may greatly alleviate traffic congestion and enhance
inhabitants’ quality of life in general.
Ans 1. Diversion
2. Gridlock
3. Laxity
4. Amplification

Q.34 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Rejoinder
Ans 1. Reply
2. Expedite
3. Ordinary
4. Request

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 Q.35 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.
Gandhiji considared untouchability to be one of India’s major social ills.
Ans 1. major
2. considared
3. untouchability
4. social

Q.36 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Pitza
2. Pasta
3. Noodle
4. Bread

Q.37 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an
error.
Raman ate the cake and exclaimed that it tasted sweetly.
Ans 1. Raman ate
2. the cake
3. and exclaimed that
4. it tasted sweetly

Q.38 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The capacity for being useful for some purpose.
Ans 1. Aid
2. Gain
3. Desirability
4. Utility

Q.39 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Leniency
Ans 1. Penalty
2. Sternness
3. Favour
4. Discard

Q.40 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A keeper or custodian of a museum or other collection
Ans 1. Chauffeur
2. Cartographer
3. Curator
4. Calligrapher

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
South Korea is the most cosmetically (1)______ country on Earth. Beauty editors estimate that it is
because of the government’s heavy investment (2)______ industry. It is ahead of its competitors, and
its citizens (3)_____ twice as much on skincare products as consumers in the United States, the UK,
and France. Korean shoppers are (4)______ the world’s most discerning. Eight out of 10 Korean
women in their 20s and 30s use an app that (5)_____ like a cosmetics-specific, to debate the merits
of various common ingredients.
SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. early
2. advanced
3. primitive
4. ancient

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
South Korea is the most cosmetically (1)______ country on Earth. Beauty editors estimate that it is
because of the government’s heavy investment (2)______ industry. It is ahead of its competitors, and
its citizens (3)_____ twice as much on skincare products as consumers in the United States, the UK,
and France. Korean shoppers are (4)______ the world’s most discerning. Eight out of 10 Korean
women in their 20s and 30s use an app that (5)_____ like a cosmetics-specific, to debate the merits
of various common ingredients.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. in the
2. by the
3. from the

4. of the

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
South Korea is the most cosmetically (1)______ country on Earth. Beauty editors estimate that it is
because of the government’s heavy investment (2)______ industry. It is ahead of its competitors, and
its citizens (3)_____ twice as much on skincare products as consumers in the United States, the UK,
and France. Korean shoppers are (4)______ the world’s most discerning. Eight out of 10 Korean
women in their 20s and 30s use an app that (5)_____ like a cosmetics-specific, to debate the merits
of various common ingredients.
SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. cherish
2. comply
3. propagate
4. spend

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
South Korea is the most cosmetically (1)______ country on Earth. Beauty editors estimate that it is
because of the government’s heavy investment (2)______ industry. It is ahead of its competitors, and
its citizens (3)_____ twice as much on skincare products as consumers in the United States, the UK,
and France. Korean shoppers are (4)______ the world’s most discerning. Eight out of 10 Korean
women in their 20s and 30s use an app that (5)_____ like a cosmetics-specific, to debate the merits
of various common ingredients.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. though
2. perhaps
3. although
4. maybe

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
South Korea is the most cosmetically (1)______ country on Earth. Beauty editors estimate that it is
because of the government’s heavy investment (2)______ industry. It is ahead of its competitors, and
its citizens (3)_____ twice as much on skincare products as consumers in the United States, the UK,
and France. Korean shoppers are (4)______ the world’s most discerning. Eight out of 10 Korean
women in their 20s and 30s use an app that (5)_____ like a cosmetics-specific, to debate the merits
of various common ingredients.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. malfunctions
2. stops
3. functions
4. dissolves

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Throughout history, the intricacies of the human mind have been the subject of fascination and inquiry.
From ancient philosophers to modern-day neuroscientists, the workings of the brain have been
studied and analysed in an attempt to unravel its mysteries. However, despite centuries of research,
much remains unknown about the complexities of human cognition and consciousness.
One of the most fascinating aspects of the human mind is its ability to create and imagine. The
human mind has the capacity to conceptualise and bring into being ideas that were previously
unknown or unimaginable, from artistic expression to scientific discovery. The process of creativity
has captured the attention of scholars and laypeople alike and is both enigmatic and awe-inspiring.
There have been many theories proposed to explain the process of creativity. Some suggest that it is
a purely subconscious process, while others argue that creativity is a result of conscious effort and
intentional problem-solving. Still others suggest that creativity arises from a combination of conscious
and subconscious processes.
Despite the ongoing debate over the nature of creativity, one thing is clear: it is a multifaceted and
complex phenomenon. Creativity can manifest in a wide range of human activities, from the creation of
art and literature to the development of scientific theories and inventions. It can occur in both individual
and collective contexts and can be driven by a variety of factors such as curiosity, passion, or the
desire for recognition.
Creativity also has the potential to bring about positive change in the world. Throughout history,
creative individuals and groups have used their talents to address social, political, and environmental
challenges, often inspiring others to take action and make a difference. From the abolitionist
movement to the civil rights movement to the environmental movement, creativity has played a crucial
role in promoting social justice and positive change.
Despite the many benefits of creativity, it is not without its challenges. The process of creative
expression can be fraught with obstacles, from self-doubt and insecurity to external pressures and
constraints. Moreover, not all creative ideas are successful or well-received, and many artists and
innovators face rejection and criticism as they seek to bring their ideas to fruition.
Despite these challenges, however, the human drive to create and imagine persists. Individuals and
groups continue to harness the power of creativity to make a difference in the world. From the
humblest amateur artist to the most celebrated innovator, the human capacity for creativity remains
one of our greatest strengths and sources of inspiration.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 Select an appropriate title for the passage.
Ans 1. The Role of the Human Mind in Promoting Positive Change
2. The History of the Human Mind
3. The Complexities of Human Cognition
4. The Power of Creativity

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Throughout history, the intricacies of the human mind have been the subject of fascination and inquiry.
From ancient philosophers to modern-day neuroscientists, the workings of the brain have been
studied and analysed in an attempt to unravel its mysteries. However, despite centuries of research,
much remains unknown about the complexities of human cognition and consciousness.
One of the most fascinating aspects of the human mind is its ability to create and imagine. The
human mind has the capacity to conceptualise and bring into being ideas that were previously
unknown or unimaginable, from artistic expression to scientific discovery. The process of creativity
has captured the attention of scholars and laypeople alike and is both enigmatic and awe-inspiring.
There have been many theories proposed to explain the process of creativity. Some suggest that it is
a purely subconscious process, while others argue that creativity is a result of conscious effort and
intentional problem-solving. Still others suggest that creativity arises from a combination of conscious
and subconscious processes.
Despite the ongoing debate over the nature of creativity, one thing is clear: it is a multifaceted and
complex phenomenon. Creativity can manifest in a wide range of human activities, from the creation of
art and literature to the development of scientific theories and inventions. It can occur in both individual
and collective contexts and can be driven by a variety of factors such as curiosity, passion, or the
desire for recognition.
Creativity also has the potential to bring about positive change in the world. Throughout history,
creative individuals and groups have used their talents to address social, political, and environmental
challenges, often inspiring others to take action and make a difference. From the abolitionist
movement to the civil rights movement to the environmental movement, creativity has played a crucial
role in promoting social justice and positive change.
Despite the many benefits of creativity, it is not without its challenges. The process of creative
expression can be fraught with obstacles, from self-doubt and insecurity to external pressures and
constraints. Moreover, not all creative ideas are successful or well-received, and many artists and
innovators face rejection and criticism as they seek to bring their ideas to fruition.
Despite these challenges, however, the human drive to create and imagine persists. Individuals and
groups continue to harness the power of creativity to make a difference in the world. From the
humblest amateur artist to the most celebrated innovator, the human capacity for creativity remains
one of our greatest strengths and sources of inspiration.

SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 What is the main focus of the passage?
Ans 1. The complexities and challenges of cognitive processes.
2. The mysteries of the human mind.
3. The nature of fancy and imagination.
4. The nature of creativity, its benefits and challenges.

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Throughout history, the intricacies of the human mind have been the subject of fascination and inquiry.
From ancient philosophers to modern-day neuroscientists, the workings of the brain have been
studied and analysed in an attempt to unravel its mysteries. However, despite centuries of research,
much remains unknown about the complexities of human cognition and consciousness.
One of the most fascinating aspects of the human mind is its ability to create and imagine. The
human mind has the capacity to conceptualise and bring into being ideas that were previously
unknown or unimaginable, from artistic expression to scientific discovery. The process of creativity
has captured the attention of scholars and laypeople alike and is both enigmatic and awe-inspiring.
There have been many theories proposed to explain the process of creativity. Some suggest that it is
a purely subconscious process, while others argue that creativity is a result of conscious effort and
intentional problem-solving. Still others suggest that creativity arises from a combination of conscious
and subconscious processes.
Despite the ongoing debate over the nature of creativity, one thing is clear: it is a multifaceted and
complex phenomenon. Creativity can manifest in a wide range of human activities, from the creation of
art and literature to the development of scientific theories and inventions. It can occur in both individual
and collective contexts and can be driven by a variety of factors such as curiosity, passion, or the
desire for recognition.
Creativity also has the potential to bring about positive change in the world. Throughout history,
creative individuals and groups have used their talents to address social, political, and environmental
challenges, often inspiring others to take action and make a difference. From the abolitionist
movement to the civil rights movement to the environmental movement, creativity has played a crucial
role in promoting social justice and positive change.
Despite the many benefits of creativity, it is not without its challenges. The process of creative
expression can be fraught with obstacles, from self-doubt and insecurity to external pressures and
constraints. Moreover, not all creative ideas are successful or well-received, and many artists and
innovators face rejection and criticism as they seek to bring their ideas to fruition.
Despite these challenges, however, the human drive to create and imagine persists. Individuals and
groups continue to harness the power of creativity to make a difference in the world. From the
humblest amateur artist to the most celebrated innovator, the human capacity for creativity remains
one of our greatest strengths and sources of inspiration.

SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the word ‘fraught’.
Ans 1. Beset
2. Devoid
3. Tranquil
4. Calm

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Throughout history, the intricacies of the human mind have been the subject of fascination and inquiry.
From ancient philosophers to modern-day neuroscientists, the workings of the brain have been
studied and analysed in an attempt to unravel its mysteries. However, despite centuries of research,
much remains unknown about the complexities of human cognition and consciousness.
One of the most fascinating aspects of the human mind is its ability to create and imagine. The
human mind has the capacity to conceptualise and bring into being ideas that were previously
unknown or unimaginable, from artistic expression to scientific discovery. The process of creativity
has captured the attention of scholars and laypeople alike and is both enigmatic and awe-inspiring.
There have been many theories proposed to explain the process of creativity. Some suggest that it is
a purely subconscious process, while others argue that creativity is a result of conscious effort and
intentional problem-solving. Still others suggest that creativity arises from a combination of conscious
and subconscious processes.
Despite the ongoing debate over the nature of creativity, one thing is clear: it is a multifaceted and
complex phenomenon. Creativity can manifest in a wide range of human activities, from the creation of
art and literature to the development of scientific theories and inventions. It can occur in both individual
and collective contexts and can be driven by a variety of factors such as curiosity, passion, or the
desire for recognition.
Creativity also has the potential to bring about positive change in the world. Throughout history,
creative individuals and groups have used their talents to address social, political, and environmental
challenges, often inspiring others to take action and make a difference. From the abolitionist
movement to the civil rights movement to the environmental movement, creativity has played a crucial
role in promoting social justice and positive change.
Despite the many benefits of creativity, it is not without its challenges. The process of creative
expression can be fraught with obstacles, from self-doubt and insecurity to external pressures and
constraints. Moreover, not all creative ideas are successful or well-received, and many artists and
innovators face rejection and criticism as they seek to bring their ideas to fruition.
Despite these challenges, however, the human drive to create and imagine persists. Individuals and
groups continue to harness the power of creativity to make a difference in the world. From the
humblest amateur artist to the most celebrated innovator, the human capacity for creativity remains
one of our greatest strengths and sources of inspiration.

SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 Which of the following factors can drive creativity?
Ans 1. Self-doubt and insecurity
2. Curiosity and passion
3. Fancy and imagination
4. External pressures and constraints

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Throughout history, the intricacies of the human mind have been the subject of fascination and inquiry.
From ancient philosophers to modern-day neuroscientists, the workings of the brain have been
studied and analysed in an attempt to unravel its mysteries. However, despite centuries of research,
much remains unknown about the complexities of human cognition and consciousness.
One of the most fascinating aspects of the human mind is its ability to create and imagine. The
human mind has the capacity to conceptualise and bring into being ideas that were previously
unknown or unimaginable, from artistic expression to scientific discovery. The process of creativity
has captured the attention of scholars and laypeople alike and is both enigmatic and awe-inspiring.
There have been many theories proposed to explain the process of creativity. Some suggest that it is
a purely subconscious process, while others argue that creativity is a result of conscious effort and
intentional problem-solving. Still others suggest that creativity arises from a combination of conscious
and subconscious processes.
Despite the ongoing debate over the nature of creativity, one thing is clear: it is a multifaceted and
complex phenomenon. Creativity can manifest in a wide range of human activities, from the creation of
art and literature to the development of scientific theories and inventions. It can occur in both individual
and collective contexts and can be driven by a variety of factors such as curiosity, passion, or the
desire for recognition.
Creativity also has the potential to bring about positive change in the world. Throughout history,
creative individuals and groups have used their talents to address social, political, and environmental
challenges, often inspiring others to take action and make a difference. From the abolitionist
movement to the civil rights movement to the environmental movement, creativity has played a crucial
role in promoting social justice and positive change.
Despite the many benefits of creativity, it is not without its challenges. The process of creative
expression can be fraught with obstacles, from self-doubt and insecurity to external pressures and
constraints. Moreover, not all creative ideas are successful or well-received, and many artists and
innovators face rejection and criticism as they seek to bring their ideas to fruition.
Despite these challenges, however, the human drive to create and imagine persists. Individuals and
groups continue to harness the power of creativity to make a difference in the world. From the
humblest amateur artist to the most celebrated innovator, the human capacity for creativity remains
one of our greatest strengths and sources of inspiration.

SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 According to the passage, what is one of the challenges of creative expression?
Ans 1. The lack of appreciation for creative ideas.
2. The absence of external pressures and constraints.
3. The overemphasis on conscious problem-solving.
4. The limited capacity of the human mind.

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 Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I
Exam Date 03/10/2023
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one
that is different.
Ans 1. KOLN
2. XBYA
3. MQNP
4. QJPK

Q.2

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.3 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
Ans 1. PRMQ
2. EHBG
3. JLGK
4. SUPT

Q.4 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to each other
based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Cat : Paw :: Crow : ?
Ans 1. Beak
2. Hoff
3. Claw
4. Wings

Q.5 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(125, 87, 49), (236, 198, 160)

Ans 1. (194, 162, 124)
2. (277, 239, 201)
3. (166, 128, 101)
4. (222, 186, 140)

Q.6

Ans 1. JGUX
2. GJXU
3. JGXU
4. JGVU

Q.7 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(5, 4, 405)
(7, 3, 500)
Ans 1. (4, 1, 125)
2. (5, 8, 789)
3. (4, 5, 850)
4. (3, 2, 145)

Q.8 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Glory
2. Glossary
3. Globe
4. Gloss
5. Glow
6. Gloomy
Ans 1. 3, 1, 6, 4, 2, 5
2. 3, 6, 1, 4, 2, 5
3. 3, 6, 1, 2, 4, 5
4. 6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

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 Q.9 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
WWVU , USTQ , ? , QKPI , OGNE
Ans 1. SORM
2. SROM
3. SQRM
4. SORW

Q.10 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. No dean is a teacher.
II. All teachers are professors.
III. No professor is a lecturer.
Conclusions:
I. Some deans are lecturers.
II. Some teachers are lecturers.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. Both conclusions I and II follow
4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 If '+' means '–', '–' means '÷', '÷' means '×' and '×' means '+', then what will come in place of the (?)
in the following equation?
15 ÷ 405 – 3 + 25 × 5 = ?
Ans 1. 1889
2. 2000
3. 1890
4. 2005

Q.13 In a certain code language, 'BED' is coded as 9 and 'TABLE' is coded as 25. How will 'RECLINER' be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 36
2. 64
3. 72
4. 58

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 Q.14 Six students Prateek, Sameer, Kabir, Ziya, Joseph, Kiran are sitting around a circular table facing
the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Prateek is an immediate neighbour of both
Sameer and Kabir. Ziya is sitting second to the right of Sameer. Kiran is sitting third to the left of
Kabir. Joseph is an immediate neighbour of both Ziya and Kabir.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of Joseph?
Ans 1. Kiran
2. Kabir
3. Sameer
4. Ziya

Q.15 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the given
sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(6, 8, 106)
(7, 11, 177)
Ans 1. (5, 9, 101)
2. (7, 9, 136)
3. (9, 8, 154)
4. (8, 7, 119)

Q.17 If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘−’, and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will be the value of the
following expression?
108 × 343 + 7 - 2 ÷ 13 = ?
Ans 1. 19
2. 28
3. 23
4. 44

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 Q.18

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19 Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A is an immediate neighbour of
both E and D. E sits third to the right of C. D sits third to the left of F. E is an immediate neighbour of
F. B sits second to the left of E. Who sits to the immediate left of C?
Ans 1. A
2. D
3. B
4. E

Q.20 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
38, 64, 98, 140, ?
Ans 1. 186
2. 190
3. 188
4. 192

Q.21 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
1024, 256, 64, ?, 4
Ans 1. 34
2. 16
3. 36
4. 32

Q.22 If ‘×’ means ‘ ̶ ’, ‘+’ means ‘ ÷ ’, ‘ ̶ ’ means ‘+’, and ‘÷’ means ‘×’, what will be the value of the
following expression?
40 + [{( 24 - 12) × ( 2 ÷ 2 )} + ( 18 × 10 )]
Ans 1. 20
2. 1
3. 10
4. 5

Q.23 A boy walks 15 m north, turns right and walks 20 m. Again, he turns right and walks 15 m. Finally,
he turns to his left and moves 20 m. What is the distance now from his original position?
Ans 1. 45 m
2. 40 m
3. 46 m
4. 50 m

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 Q.24 In a certain code language, 'Here we go' is coded as 'asa te du' and 'We can go' is coded as 'du
mu asa'. What is the code for the word 'Here'?
Ans 1. mu
2. asa
3. te
4. du

Q.25 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-
cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-
cluster.
CREATION : ETGCVKQP :: UNIVERSE : WPKXGTUG :: PLANET :?
Ans 1. RNCPGV
2. RPCGVN
3. RCPNGV
4. RPGVNC

Q.26 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of ‘?’ in the
following equation?
42 × 7- 11 ÷ 57 + 10 = ?
Ans 1. 133
2. 113
3. 103
4. 123

Q.27 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Jalopy
2.Jabber
3. Jackpot
4.Jackdaw
5.Jackal
Ans 1. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
2. 4, 5, 2, 3, 1
3. 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
4. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

Q.28 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
93, ?, 102, 111, 123, 138
Ans 1. 96
2. 97
3. 98
4. 95

Q.29 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All cupboards are shelves.
All shelves are drawers.
Conclusions:
I. All cupboards are drawers.
II. All drawers are shelves.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. Only conclusion I follows
4. Both conclusions I and II follow

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 Q.30 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.31 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
13, 14 , −2, 79, −177 ?
Ans 1. 448
2. 424
3. 608
4. 528

Q.32 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the
blanks below, will complete the letter series.
L _ _ A_ _ S _ _ K_ _ L _ _ A
Ans 1. K S L K A L S A K S
2. A S L K A L S A K A
3. K S K K A L S A K A
4. K S L K A L S A K A

Q.33 In a certain code language, 'How are you' is coded as 'si de tu' and 'You are fine' is coded as 'de
mu si'. What is the code for the word 'How'?
Ans 1. mu
2. de
3. si
4. tu

Q.34 Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to
the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.
5 : 21 :: ? : 252 :: 27 : 725
Ans 1. 16
2. 12
3. 10
4. 26

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 Q.35

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.36 Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.37 Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All goods are services.
No service is a delivery.
Conclusions:
I. No good is a delivery.
II. Some goods are deliveries.

Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. Both conclusions I and II follow
4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.38 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.39 In a certain code language, ‘TOWER’ is written as ‘INGYL’ and 'SIGHT' is written as 'JTWVJ'. How
will ‘BRING’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. LWYDB
2. ACTBE
3. AKUPW
4. KRPJS

Q.40 Manoj starts from point A and drives X km towards the south and then turns left and drives Y km.
He then takes a right turn and drives for 4 km to reach point D. If Manoj drove a total of 17 km
between Points A and D, and both X and Y are perfect squares where X > Y, then what is the value
of X ?
Ans 1. 4
2. 9
3. 11
4. 5

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 Q.41 In a certain code language, ‘CARD’ is coded as ‘3597’ and ‘DOGS’ is coded as ‘8346’. What is the
code for ‘D’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 9

Q.42 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following equation?
80 C 16 B 4 A 96 D 4 = ?
Ans 1. 40
2. 37
3. 54
4. 120

Q.43 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to
balance the given equation.
42 * 7 * 3 * 2 * 13 * 7
Ans 1. +, =, ÷, ×, +
2. ÷, ×, +, =, +
3. ÷, ×, −, =, ×
4. ÷, ×, =, +, +

Q.44 Given below are two statements and two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they
are at variance with commonly known facts, and decide whether the conclusion(s) follow(s) the
given statements.
Statements:
All dogs are cats.
Some cats are not dolls.
Conclusions:
I. All dolls are cats.
II. Some cats are dogs.
Ans 1. Both the conclusions follow
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Only conclusion I follows
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.45 ‘C @ D’ means ‘C is the mother of D’.

‘C $ D’ means ‘C is the brother of D’.
‘C # D’ means ‘C is the sister of D’.
‘C * D’ means ‘C is the father of D’.
If V $ Y @ G * F, then how is Y related to F?
Ans 1. Father's sister
2. Brother
3. Sister
4. Father's mother

Q.46 A @ B means ‘A is the husband of B’

A & B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’
If D & G @ F & E @ H, then how is G related to H?
Ans 1. Mother
2. Husband’s mother
3. Husband’s father
4. Father

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 Q.47

Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.48 Which two mathematical signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(63 × 21) + 8 + 99 × 11 ÷ 16 + (12 × 4) = 158
Ans 1. + and –
2. × and –

3. ÷ and ×
4. × and +

Q.49

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.50

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

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 Q.1 Sattriya was recognised in ______ as a Classical Dance by Sangeet Natak Akademi.
Ans 1. 2005
2. 2000
3. 2020
4. 2010

Q.2 In which of the following processes nutrients or contaminants are carried away by water or
moved into the lower layer of the soil?
Ans 1. Leaching
2. Bleaching
3. Sowing
4. Ploughing

Q.3 Identify the third germinal layer found in triploblastic animals.

Ans 1. Coelom
2. Ectoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. Endoderm

Q.4 Alarmel Valli is an Indian classical dancer and choreographer and a foremost exponent of the
__________ dance form of Bharatanatyam.
Ans 1. Vazhuvoor style
2. Pandanallur style
3. Melattur style
4. Tarangam style

Q.5 Which of the following Acts prevents disrespect to the National Flag and National Anthem?
Ans 1. Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
2. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 2006
3. Protection of National Honour Act, 1996
4. Civil Liberties Act, 2001

Q.6 In which type of tax is the marginal tax rate higher than the average tax rate?
Ans 1. Proportional
2. Regressive
3. Digressive
4. Progressive

Q.7 Famous musician Talvin Singh is associated with playing the ___________.
Ans 1. tabla
2. shehnai
3. veena
4. flute

Q.8 Which of the following Acts, enacted by the British Parliament, provided for the establishment of a
Law Commission for the consolidation and codification of Indian Laws?
Ans 1. Indian Council Act, 1909
2. Government of India Act, 1919
3. Charter Act, 1833

4. Charter Act, 1813

Q.9 Identify the dam that is located in South India.

Ans 1. Gandhi Sagar dam
2. Tilaiya dam
3. Mettur dam
4. Rihand dam

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 Q.10 Which of the following union territories has the lowest literacy rate according to the 2011
census?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep
2. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
3. Daman and Diu
4. Delhi

Q.11 By which Indian Constitutional Amendment Act was the 11th fundamental duty added in the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. 85th Constitutional Amendment Act
2. 88th Constitutional Amendment Act
3. 87th Constitutional Amendment Act
4. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act

Q.12 Malavikagnimitra, a drama of the 5th century CE, was written by _________.
Ans 1. Kalidasa
2. Harisena
3. Bhavabhuti
4. Pingala

Q.13 What is the metric unit of pressure that is equal to 0.986923 atm?
Ans 1. Yard
2. Quart
3. Gallon
4. Bar

Q.14 When the President of India keeps a bill (except money bill and constitutional amendment bill)
pending for an indefinite period, it is called ________.
Ans 1. absolute veto of the President
2. amendatory veto of the President
3. pocket veto of the President
4. suspensive veto of the President

Q.15 Who was the first winner of the Arjuna Award in Kabaddi?
Ans 1. BC Ramesh
2. Manjeet Chhillar
3. Sahanand Mahadev Shetty
4. Bholanath Guin

Q.16 Who among the following is considered as the ‘Father of Carnatic Music in India’?
Ans 1. Purandardas
2. Gopala
3. Krishna Bharati
4. Narayan Tirtha

Q.17 Terrestrial planets are composed of _________ .

Ans 1. metals and gas
2. rocks and gas
3. metals and air
4. rocks and metals

Q.18 Losar (a new year festival) is celebrated in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Jharkhand
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Uttarakhand

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 Q.19 Who among the following leaders founded the women’s wing of Congress in 1940?
Ans 1. Aruna Asaf Ali
2. Sucheta Kriplani
3. Lakshmi Sahgal
4. Sarojini Naidu

Q.20 In alchemy, aqua fortis is the classical name of which chemical compound that is used chiefly in
the manufacture of explosives and fertilisers, and in organic synthesis?
Ans 1. Hydrobromic acid
2. Nitric acid
3. Chloric acid
4. Formic acid

Q.21 During the year 1991–92, the industrial production recorded a ________growth of _______.
Ans 1. positive; 1.1 Percent
2. negative; 1.1 Percent
3. negative; 0.9 Percent
4. positive; 0.6 Percent

Q.22 Siddheshvara Mahadeva temple in Bengal depicts the architecture of which dynasty?
Ans 1. Hussain Shahi dynasty
2. Chalukaya dynasty
3. Shung dynasty
4. Pala dynasty

Q.23 Who is the author of the novel ‘Before We Visit the Goddess’?
Ans 1. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
2. Jhumpa Lahiri
3. Arundhati Roy
4. Kiran Doshi

Q.24 A money bill under Article 111 of the Constitution of India, presented to the President for assent,
has to be endorsed by a Certificate of the _______________ signed by him/her that it is a money
bill.
Ans 1. Secretary General of the Lok Sabha
2. Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Q.25 According to the Census of India 2011, what was the percentage of Sikh communities in the total
population in India?
Ans 1. 1.7%
2. 0.4%
3. 14.2%
4. 79.8%

Q.26 Which Nobel Laureate conducted an experiment in the late 19th century and observed that a glass
tube filled with a low-pressure gas emitted radiation when a voltage was applied between two
metal plates?
Ans 1. Hideki Yukawa
2. Paul Dirac
3. Victor Francis Hess
4. Philipp Lenard

Q.27 The number of Pawn in chess is_______.

Ans 1. 17
2. 16
3. 15
4. 14

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 Q.28 Which of the following Governor Generals, under the British rule in India, professionalised,
bureaucratised and Europeanised the administration of East India Company?
Ans 1. Warren Hastings
2. Lord Dalhousie

3. Lord Cornwallis
4. Lord Canning

Q.29 Who made the use of Gun powder common in North India to defeat enemies?
Ans 1. Ibrahim Lodi
2. Babur
3. Rana Sanga
4. Daulat Khan Lodi

Q.30 What is the height of the badminton net?

Ans 1. 6 feet
2. 5.1 feet
3. 6.5 feet
4. 5.5 feet

Q.31 In 2010, considering its outstanding value and vulnerability, UNESCO recognised 'Mudiyettu', an
age-old ritual-drama of _______________, as an ‘intangible cultural heritage of humanity’.
Ans 1. Kerala
2. Telangana
3. Karnataka
4. Tamil Nadu

Q.32 Choose the INCORRECT statement related to monsoon.

Ans 1. The intensity and position of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, affects the Indian
Monsoon.
2. The Southwest Monsoon winds blow over the warm oceans, gather moisture and bring
widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.
3. The difference in pressure over Tahiti (Pacific Ocean), and Darwin in northern Australia (Indian
Ocean) is computed to predict the intensity of the monsoons.
4. The western cyclonic disturbances occur due to withdrawal or the retreat of the monsoon.

Q.33 Which of the following is considered a capital expense?

Ans 1. Construction of school buildings
2. Pension
3. Payment of salaries
4. Subsidies

Q.34 The synthesis of which chemical is inhibited due to aspirin?

Ans 1. Histamines
2. Pyrites
3. Analgesics
4. Prostaglandins

Q.35 In which year did the 44th Amendment remove the right to property from the list of fundamental
rights?
Ans 1. 1981
2. 1978
3. 1973
4. 1975

Q.36 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions that all executive actions of the
Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President?
Ans 1. Article 67
2. Article 77
3. Article 81
4. Article 48

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 Q.37 Which of the following elements is a member of the actinoid series?
Ans 1. Lutetium
2. Magnesium
3. Thorium
4. Lanthanum

Q.38 Which of the following schemes adopts the One District One Product (ODOP) approach to reap
the benefit of scale in terms of procurement of inputs, availing common services and marketing
of products?
Ans 1. Micro and Small Enterprises Cluster Development Programme (MSE-CDP)
2. Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME)
3. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana
4. Production Linked Incentive Scheme For Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI)

Q.39 In which of the following Indian states does the southwest monsoon set first to give rainfall?
Ans 1. Goa
2. Kerala
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.40 Which Goddess is associated with the Gangaur Festival celebrated in Central and Western India?
Ans 1. Goddess Saraswati
2. Goddess Parvati
3. Goddess Kali
4. Goddess Lakshmi

Q.41 Which of the following is NOT a food preservative?

Ans 1. Aqua regia
2. Sodium nitrite
3. Vinegar
4. Sodium chloride

Q.42 'The Great Indian Novel’ is written by _____ in which he based ‘The Mahabharata’ as a framework
for his satirical novel.
Ans 1. Shashi Tharoor
2. Sarojini Naidu
3. Kuldip Nayyar
4. Khushwant Singh

Q.43 Which state was the host of fifth Khelo India Youth Games 2022?
Ans 1. Haryana
2. Uttarakhand
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Jharkhand

Q.44 Which of the following mosques/masjids was built during the reign of Lodi dynasty of the Delhi
Sultanate?
Ans 1. Lal Masjid, Delhi
2. Quwwat al-Islam, Delhi
3. Moth ki Masjid, Delhi
4. Begumpuri mosque, Delhi

Q.45 Where are Huka Falls located?

Ans 1. New Zealand
2. Germany
3. Spain
4. Australia

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 Q.46 In which year was the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) set up?
Ans 1. 1989
2. 1988
3. 1987
4. 1990

Q.47 The natural vegetation of India is broadly divided into ________ groups.
Ans 1. 6
2. 5
3. 9
4. 7

Q.48 Who was the first ecologist to describe the specific shape of eco-trophic interactions,Which he
called the pyramid of numbers, in the 1920s?
Ans 1. Edward O Wilson
2. Howard Thomas Odum
3. Charles Elton
4. Ernst Haeckel

Q.49 Select the correct pair of classical dance and dancer.

Ans 1. Jhelum Paranjape – Kuchipudi
2. Padma Subrahmanyam – Bharatnatyam
3. K Uma Rama Rao – Odissi
4. Mallika Sarabhai – Kathak

Q.50 In July 2018, an experiment aboard the International Space Station cooled a cloud of atoms of
which chemical element to one ten-millionth of one Kelvin above absolute zero, forming a Bose-
Einstein Condensate in space?
Ans 1. Rubidium
2. Radium
3. Plutonium
4. Thorium

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 In a ∆PQR and ∆ ABC, ∠ P = ∠ A and AC = PR. Which of the following conditions is true for triangle
PQR and ABC to be congruent?
Ans 1. AB = PQ by SSS
2. ∠Q = ∠B by AAA
3. BC = QR by ASS
4. AB = PQ by SAS

Q.2 The length and the breadth of the floor of a rectangular hall are 126 feet and 90 feet, respectively.
What will be the area (in square feet) of each of the largest identical square tiles that can be used
to tile this floor in a way that no part of the floor remains uncovered?
Ans 1. 196
2. 484
3. 256
4. 324

Q.3 Find the area of a rhombus if the perimeter of the rhombus is 52 cm, and one of its diagonals is 10
cm long.
Ans 1. 164 cm2
2. 120 cm2
3. 144 cm2
4. 160 cm2

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 Q.4 If (48 ÷ 72 × 3) – [15 ÷ 8 × (40 – 32) – 10] + 2P = 6 ÷ 2, then find the value of P?
Ans 1. 2
2. 4
3. 1
4. 3

Q.5 The area of a sector of a circle of radius 8 cm, formed by an arc of length 4.6 cm, is ____.
Ans 1. 6.3 cm2
2. 12.6 cm2
3. 9.2 cm2
4. 18.4 cm2

Q.6

Ans 1. 41 days
2. 39 days
3. 37 days
4. 38 days

Q.7 The curved surface area (CSA) and the total surface area (TSA) of a hemisphere whose radius is
7 cm are:
Ans 1. CSA – 350 cm2; TSA – 500 cm2
2. CSA – 412 cm2; TSA – 544 cm2
3. CSA – 320 cm2; TSA – 480 cm2
4. CSA – 308 cm2; TSA – 462 cm2

Q.8 A speedboat, whose speed in 20 km/h in still water, goes 35 km downstream and comes back in
a total of 8 hours. What is the speed of the stream?
Ans 1. 20 km/h
2. 5 km/h
3. 15 km/h
4. 10 km/h

Q.9 If 60 litres of a milk solution has 40%milk in it, then how much milk should be added to make the
milk 60%in the solution?
Ans 1. 25 litres
2. 35 litres
3. 30 litres
4. 20 litres

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 Q.10

Ans 1. 13,500
2. 12,000
3. 12,500
4. 13,000

Q.11 The LCM of two prime numbers x and y (x > y) is 533. The value of 4y - x is:
Ans 1. 11
2. 23
3. 18
4. 21

Q.12 Aditya sold article X at a profit of 23%and article Y at a loss of 13%. He earned a profit of ₹180 in
the entire transaction. If article X costs ₹90 less than article Y, then what is the price of article Y
(in ₹)?
Ans 1. 2,007
2. 2,100
3. 2,020
4. 2,050

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 Q.13

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14 A solid sphere made of wax of radius 12 cm is melted and cast into solid hemispheres of radius 4
cm each. Find the number of such solid hemispheres.
Ans 1. 14
2. 27
3. 28
4. 54

Q.15 If sin 2A = cos 15°, then the smallest positive value of A is:
Ans 1. 75°
2. 37.5°
3. 47.5°
4. 7.5°

Q.16 The average weight of 15 people increases by 3.2 kg when a new person comes in place of one of
them weighing 52 kg. The weight of the new person is:
Ans 1. 96 kg
2. 100 kg
3. 52 kg
4. 48 kg

Q.17

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.18

Ans 1. R
2. S
3. P
4. Q

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 Q.19 What is the HCF of 12, 18 and 42?
Ans 1. 60
2. 6
3. 123
4. 12

Q.20 Two numbers are in the ratio of 4 : 3. The product of their HCF and LCM is 2700. The difference
between the numbers is:
Ans 1. 105
2. 30
3. 15
4. 25

Q.21 In two circles centred at O and O’, the distance between the centres of both circles is 17 cm. The
points of contact of a direct common tangent between the circles are P and Q. If the radii of both
circles are 7 cm and 15 cm, respectively, then the length of PQ is equal to:
Ans 1. 22 cm
2. 15 cm
3. 17 cm
4. 10 cm

Q.22 Find the third proportional to 16 and 20.

Ans 1. 26
2. 25
3. 24
4. 23

Q.23 The least number which should be added to 1351 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 2,4,6 and
8 is:
Ans 1. 13
2. 11
3. 17
4. 15

Q.24 The price of a treadmill is marked at ₹1,250. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 14%after allowing a
discount of 14%on the marked price. Find the cost price (to the nearest rupee) of the treadmill.
Ans 1. ₹1,043
2. ₹845
3. ₹943
4. ₹840

Q.25 Study the given graph and answer the following question.
Number of boys and girls students in each section.

The number of boy students in section B is approximately what percentage of the number of girl
students in section E?
Ans 1. 45%
2. 25%
3. 55%

4. 15%

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 Q.26

Ans 1. 51 : 34
2. 34 : 51
3. 55 : 38
4. 38 : 55

Q.27 If the radius of a sphere is doubled, then its surface area will be increased by:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.28

Ans 1. College B
2. College C
3. College D
4. College A

Q.29 The speed of a boat in still water is 20 km/h, while the river is flowing at a speed of 8 km/h and the
time taken to cover a certain distance upstream is 6 h more than the time taken to cover the
same distance downstream. Find the distance.
Ans 1. 125 km
2. 126 km
3. 120 km
4. 336 km

Q.30 In an election, Ajay and Mohan are contesting for the Secretary post in a trade union of 9000
workers. 80%of the workers cast their votes, out of which 20%votes were found invalid. Ajay
defeated Mohan by 1152 votes. How many votes did Ajay get?
Ans 1. 2304
2. 3456
3. 3546
4. 4480

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 Q.31 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of employees in five different organisations A, B, C, D and E in
different departments.

Which organisation has minimum number of employees?

Ans 1. E
2. D
3. C
4. B

Q.32 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the consumption of food grains per day (in grams) in the given set of following
years.

For which food grain consumption was there successive increase over the given set of years?
Ans 1. Pulses
2. Coarse grains
3. Wheat
4. Rice

Q.33

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.34

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.35 A person covers 28 km while walking at a speed of 8 km/h. How much distance (in km) will he
cover in same time if he walks at a speed of 6 km/h?
Ans 1. 28
2. 21
3. 36
4. 32

Q.36 Jeevan can do a piece of work alone in 42 days, while Rishi and Jeevan together can do the same
piece of work in 27 days. How many days will Rishi take to complete the same piece of work
alone?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.37 Find the third proportional to 23 and 31.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.38

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.39 The area of an equilateral triangle is 173.2 cm2. Its side will be __________.
Ans 1. 20 cm
2. 22 cm
3. 17.32 cm
4. 21.32 cm

Q.40 Mayur sold a watch at a profit of 7%. If he had sold it for ₹1,329 more, he would have gained 57%.
Find the cost price (in ₹) of the watch.
Ans 1. 2856
2. 2580
3. 2658
4. 2420

Q.41 What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹25,000 after three years at a rate of 12 percent per
annum interest compounded yearly?
Ans 1. ₹9,824.00
2. ₹10,520.00
3. ₹10,123.20
4. ₹9,956.86

Q.42

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.43

Ans 1. Pages
2. Charts
3. Geometry
4. Notebook

Q.44 If 4 men or 6 boys can finish a piece of work in 20 days, then in how many days can 6 men and 11
boys finish the same work?
Ans 1. 5
2. 8
3. 6
4. 7

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 Q.45 A vendor bought a book marked at ₹850 at successive discounts of 20%and 10%, respectively. He
spent ₹55 on transport and sold the book for ₹980. What will be his profit percentage (rounded off
to 2 decimal places)?
Ans 1. 50.65%
2. 48.25%
3. 46.93%
4. 45.65%

Q.46 In an election between P and Q, P gets 40%of the total votes and thus loses by 10 votes. The total
number of votes is:
Ans 1. 90
2. 70
3. 80
4. 50

Q.47 A shopkeeper allows a discount of 15%on an article and still makes a profit of 20%. What does
the shopkeeper pay for an article whose marked price is ₹7,200?
Ans 1. ₹6,120
2. ₹5,120
3. ₹6,100
4. ₹5,100

Q.48

Ans 1.

2.

3.
4.

Q.49

Ans 1. 2,000
2. 1,500
3. 1,440
4. 2,550

Q.50 Ramesh borrowed some money at rate of 5%per annum for the first four years, 8%per annum for
the next six years, and 12%per annum for the period beyond ten years. If the total interest paid by
him at the end of twelve years is ₹9,016, then find the money borrowed by Ramesh.
Ans 1. ₹9,800
2. ₹9,816
3. ₹9,016
4. ₹9,616

Section : English Comprehension

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 Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Minimum people needed for a meeting
Ans 1. Forum
2. Quorum
3. Decorum
4. Addendum

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Face the music
Ans 1. To accept punishment for some mistake which you have done
2. To work every possible way to succeed
3. To be cheated by someone you trust
4. To have the problems with money

Q.3 In the following sentence, four words are underlined, out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.
Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
The ruins of many structures that still stand tall in their granduer are testimony to the fact that
Mewar was not only the land of the courageous .
Ans 1. ruins
2. courageous
3. granduer
4. testimony

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Contempt
Ans 1. Mockery
2. Immoral
3. Regard
4. Deny

Q.5 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Detailed list of goods dispatched with quantity and price to the purchaser.
Ans 1. Ledger
2. Sales
3. Receipt
4. Invoice

Q.6 Select the most appropriate phrasal verb to fill in the blank.
Though Pradeep _____________ for Jamaica, he landed up in Nigeria.
Ans 1. set about
2. set up
3. set out
4. set aside

Q.7 Select the most appropriate idiom or phrase to complete the given sentence.
I like her because she never likes to make _________.
Ans 1. a slap on the wrist
2. a drop in the bucket
3. a quick buck
4. a bed of roses

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
To criticise someone severely
Ans 1. Scoff
2. Remonstrate
3. Rate
4. Chastise

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 Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
To make a low continuous vibratory sound expressing contentment (of a cat).
Ans 1. To purr
2. To meow
3. To roar
4. To buzz

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

We shouldn’t blame or envy anyone.
Ans 1. Reap
2. Jealousy
3. Curse
4. Love

Q.11 Select the most appropriate one-word substitution of the given group of words.
A state of intense happiness and self-confidence.
Ans 1. Touché
2. Euphoria
3. Intoxication
4. Oblivion

Q.12 Select the sentence that has a spelling error.

A- A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea so he began fishing in the river.
B- Every morning he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long.
C- In the evening, he would sell whatever he had caught, buy food for himself and go home.
D- One hot afternoon, while he was bemoaning his fate, a large bird alited near him.
Ans 1. One hot afternoon, while he was bemoaning his fate, a large bird alited near him.
2. Every morning he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long.
3. A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea so he began fishing in the
river.
4. In the evening, he would sell whatever he had caught, buy food for himself and go home.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined idiom/phrase in the given
sentence.
You cannot throw dust into my eyes.
Ans 1. terrify me
2. mislead or deceive me
3. hurt me
4. abuse me

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘disclosed’ in the given sentence and choose
the correct option.
The linguist’s analysis of the language revealed patterns and structures that were previously
unknown.
Ans 1. Unknown
2. Patterns
3. Revealed
4. Linguist

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Keep a straight face
Ans 1. Get on extremely well with someone
2. Make more of an effort
3. Become very confused
4. Not laugh or change your expression even though you want to laugh

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 Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Unequivocal
Ans 1. Complete
2. Articulate
3. Unambiguous
4. Doubted

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Glad
Ans 1. Sad
2. Keen
3. Pleased
4. Loyal

Q.18 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

I was going to mention it, but it ________.
Ans 1. changed my mind
2. brought to mind
3. slipped my mind
4. bore in mind

Q.19 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
He made a mess of that bookcase he was supposed to be repairing.
Ans 1. had a butcher hook
2. made a clean breast
3. made a pig’s ear
4. brought a dog’s breast

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.
This case is serious. You need to look into this matter; otherwise, the situation will get out of
control soon.
Ans 1. look after
2. look at
3. No substitution
4. look up

Q.21 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vulnerable
Ans 1. Amiable
2. Guarded
3. Susceptible
4. Delectable

Q.22 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

Ram could not go to Delhi for vacation since he was banking on his arrears of pay which he did
not get in time
Ans 1. Calling on
2. Relying on
3. Sloping on
4. Depending on his bank

Q.23 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A plum job
Ans 1. A job involving extensive travelling
2. A rare job
3. An easy and pleasant job
4. A difficult job

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 Q.24 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Keep count of
Ans 1. To accept an invitation
2. To act more politely
3. To remind of a deadline
4. To remember a total

Q.25 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Grasping at straws
Ans 1. Trying to find manipulative ways to succeed
2. Trying to find the best way to compete with others when nothing you choose is likely to work
3. Trying to find some way to succeed when you see others are also doing the same
4. Trying to find some way to succeed when nothing you choose is likely to work

Q.26 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Airplane
2. Ladybug
3. Helicopter
4. Gllidder

Q.27 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Benevolent
Ans 1. Wicked
2. Innocent
3. Generous
4. Cruel

Q.28 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Specific
Ans 1. Stroll
2. Random
3. Topple
4. Lawful

Q.29 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

Saurabh imitates his boss perfectly.
Ans 1. Copies
2. Hates
3. Admires
4. Worships

Q.30 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
My apartment / in Delhi / is situated / on second floor.
Ans 1. My apartment
2. on second floor
3. is situated
4. in Delhi

Q.31 In the following sentence, four words are underlined, out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.
Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Traffic accidents are increasing steadily, and large cities are plaged by traffic congestion. Worst
of all is the air pollution caused by internal combustion engine, uninterruptedly.
Ans 1. plaged
2. uninterruptedly
3. congestion
4. combustion

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 Q.32 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
O’ Henry’s short stories are read all over the world till now because they are pithy.
Ans 1. exaggerated yet short
2. elusive and unreal
3. fascinating and lengthy
4. concise and expressive

Q.33 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.
I like to read books, but my brother prefers to watching movies.
Ans 1. to watch
2. No substitution
3. on watching
4. in watching

Q.34 Identify the option that rectifies the spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.
The disadvantages of listening to music at a loud voluume include loss of hearing.
Ans 1. Lose
2. Volume
3. Lissening
4. Heering

Q.35 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
There is a spectrum / of seas around that / land which attracts / tourists of all aging.
Ans 1. tourists of all aging.
2. of seas around that
3. There is a spectrum
4. land which attracts

Q.36 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
No longer used because something new has been invented
Ans 1. Classic
2. Ancient
3. Obsolete
4. Ornamental

Q.37 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Beneficent
Ans 1. Soft
2. Lethargic
3. Friendly
4. Cruel

Q.38 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Huge fire for celebration
Ans 1. Bonfire
2. Agenda
3. Campaign
4. Crossfire

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 Q.39 Select the grammatically correct sentence.
Ans 1. The simple mistake which was committed by an boy haunted her for years.
2. An simple mistake which was committed by the boy haunted her for years.
3. A simple mistake which was committed by an boy haunted her for years.

4. The simple mistake which was committed by the boy haunted her for years.

Q.40 Select the most appropriate one-word substitution of the given group of words.
A pretence of having a virtuous character, moral or religious beliefs or principles, etc., that one
does not really possess.
Ans 1. Shrewdness
2. Hypocrisy
3. Naivety
4. Gullibility

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not (1)________ in news. Rather, it is
an ordinary event. Such discoveries are so (2)________ these days that hardly anybody pays heed to
them. However, when the Lascaux cave complex was discovered in 1940, the world was
(3)________. Painted directly on its walls were hundreds of scenes showing how people lived
thousands of years ago. The scenes show people hunting animals, such as bison or wild cats. Other
images (4)________ birds and, most noticeably, horses, which appear in more than 300 wall
images, by far (5)________ all other animals.
SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. suitably
2. merrily
3. nearly
4. usually

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not (1)________ in news. Rather, it is
an ordinary event. Such discoveries are so (2)________ these days that hardly anybody pays heed to
them. However, when the Lascaux cave complex was discovered in 1940, the world was
(3)________. Painted directly on its walls were hundreds of scenes showing how people lived
thousands of years ago. The scenes show people hunting animals, such as bison or wild cats. Other
images (4)________ birds and, most noticeably, horses, which appear in more than 300 wall
images, by far (5)________ all other animals.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. delusional
2. disorderly
3. ghastly
4. frequent

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not (1)________ in news. Rather, it is
an ordinary event. Such discoveries are so (2)________ these days that hardly anybody pays heed to
them. However, when the Lascaux cave complex was discovered in 1940, the world was
(3)________. Painted directly on its walls were hundreds of scenes showing how people lived
thousands of years ago. The scenes show people hunting animals, such as bison or wild cats. Other
images (4)________ birds and, most noticeably, horses, which appear in more than 300 wall
images, by far (5)________ all other animals.
SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. crushed
2. overthrown
3. encouraged
4. baffled

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not (1)________ in news. Rather, it is
an ordinary event. Such discoveries are so (2)________ these days that hardly anybody pays heed to
them. However, when the Lascaux cave complex was discovered in 1940, the world was
(3)________. Painted directly on its walls were hundreds of scenes showing how people lived
thousands of years ago. The scenes show people hunting animals, such as bison or wild cats. Other
images (4)________ birds and, most noticeably, horses, which appear in more than 300 wall
images, by far (5)________ all other animals.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. depict
2. determine
3. imprint
4. require

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not (1)________ in news. Rather, it is
an ordinary event. Such discoveries are so (2)________ these days that hardly anybody pays heed to
them. However, when the Lascaux cave complex was discovered in 1940, the world was
(3)________. Painted directly on its walls were hundreds of scenes showing how people lived
thousands of years ago. The scenes show people hunting animals, such as bison or wild cats. Other
images (4)________ birds and, most noticeably, horses, which appear in more than 300 wall
images, by far (5)________ all other animals.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. outreaching
2. outsourcing
3. outlasting
4. outnumbering

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Climate policy must now put health at the centre and promote climate change mitigation policies that
bring health benefits simultaneously. Health-focused climate policy would help bring about a planet
that has cleaner air, more abundant and safer freshwater and food, more effective and fairer health
and social protection systems and, as a result, healthier people.
Investment in clean energy will yield health gains that repay those investments twice over. There are
proven interventions able to reduce emissions of short-lived climate pollutants, for instance applying
higher standards for vehicle emissions, which have been calculated to save approximately 2.4 million
lives per year, through improved air quality and reduce global warming by about 0.5°C by 2050. The
cost of renewable sources of energy has decreased significantly in the last few years, and solar
energy is now cheaper than coal or gas in most major economies.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 Which is the best description of the tone of the passage?
Ans 1. Humanistic
2. Technical
3. Biased
4. Cynical

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Climate policy must now put health at the centre and promote climate change mitigation policies that
bring health benefits simultaneously. Health-focused climate policy would help bring about a planet
that has cleaner air, more abundant and safer freshwater and food, more effective and fairer health
and social protection systems and, as a result, healthier people.
Investment in clean energy will yield health gains that repay those investments twice over. There are
proven interventions able to reduce emissions of short-lived climate pollutants, for instance applying
higher standards for vehicle emissions, which have been calculated to save approximately 2.4 million
lives per year, through improved air quality and reduce global warming by about 0.5°C by 2050. The
cost of renewable sources of energy has decreased significantly in the last few years, and solar
energy is now cheaper than coal or gas in most major economies.

SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 What is the ANTONYM for the word ‘promote’, from the passage?
Ans 1. Invade
2. Exclude
3. Conduct
4. Obstruct

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Climate policy must now put health at the centre and promote climate change mitigation policies that
bring health benefits simultaneously. Health-focused climate policy would help bring about a planet
that has cleaner air, more abundant and safer freshwater and food, more effective and fairer health
and social protection systems and, as a result, healthier people.
Investment in clean energy will yield health gains that repay those investments twice over. There are
proven interventions able to reduce emissions of short-lived climate pollutants, for instance applying
higher standards for vehicle emissions, which have been calculated to save approximately 2.4 million
lives per year, through improved air quality and reduce global warming by about 0.5°C by 2050. The
cost of renewable sources of energy has decreased significantly in the last few years, and solar
energy is now cheaper than coal or gas in most major economies.
SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 Which of the following most accurately states the central idea of the passage?
Ans 1. Climate policy for health
2. Fossil fuels
3. Pollution
4. Greenhouse gases

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Climate policy must now put health at the centre and promote climate change mitigation policies that
bring health benefits simultaneously. Health-focused climate policy would help bring about a planet
that has cleaner air, more abundant and safer freshwater and food, more effective and fairer health
and social protection systems and, as a result, healthier people.
Investment in clean energy will yield health gains that repay those investments twice over. There are
proven interventions able to reduce emissions of short-lived climate pollutants, for instance applying
higher standards for vehicle emissions, which have been calculated to save approximately 2.4 million
lives per year, through improved air quality and reduce global warming by about 0.5°C by 2050. The
cost of renewable sources of energy has decreased significantly in the last few years, and solar
energy is now cheaper than coal or gas in most major economies.
SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 Which of the following represents the structure of the passage?
Ans 1. Problem-solution
2. Definition
3. Chronology
4. Critique

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Climate policy must now put health at the centre and promote climate change mitigation policies that
bring health benefits simultaneously. Health-focused climate policy would help bring about a planet
that has cleaner air, more abundant and safer freshwater and food, more effective and fairer health
and social protection systems and, as a result, healthier people.
Investment in clean energy will yield health gains that repay those investments twice over. There are
proven interventions able to reduce emissions of short-lived climate pollutants, for instance applying
higher standards for vehicle emissions, which have been calculated to save approximately 2.4 million
lives per year, through improved air quality and reduce global warming by about 0.5°C by 2050. The
cost of renewable sources of energy has decreased significantly in the last few years, and solar
energy is now cheaper than coal or gas in most major economies.
SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 What is the ANTONYM for the word ‘intervention’, from the passage?
Ans 1. Non-involvement
2. Specific
3. Data
4. Evidence

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 Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I
Exam Date 04/10/2023
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(21, 5, 120)
(2, 7, 8)
Ans 1. (4,7,34)
2. (3,4,16)
3. (3,4,10)
4. (2,6,21)

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘FIRE’ is coded as ‘7391’ and ‘AGED’ is coded as ‘8247’. What is the
code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3
2. 7
3. 4
4. 2

Q.3 Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
Some elephants are fishes.
No fish is a tiger.
All deer are tigers.

Conclusions:
I. Some elephants are deer.
II. No elephant is a tiger.
III. No deer is a fish.
Ans 1. Only conclusion III follows.
2. Only conclusion II follows.
3. Both conclusions I and III follow.
4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

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 Q.4 Select the figure that will come next (?) in the following series.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5 Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.6 If '+' means '×', '×' means '–', '–' means '÷' and '÷' means '+', then what will come in place of the (?)
in the following equation?
9 + 3 ÷ 2 × 135 – 15 = ?
Ans 1. 25
2. 20
3. 22
4. 18.5

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 Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘LIFE’ is coded as ‘9351’ and ‘NEAR’ is coded as ‘4692’. What is the
code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1

Q.8 ‘D @ G’ means ‘D is the father of G’,

‘D # G’ means ‘D is the daughter of G’,
‘D * G’ means ‘D is the mother of G’, and
‘D – G’ means ‘D is the husband of G’.
If A – Q * B @ R, how is A related to R?
Ans 1. Father’s father
2. Son
3. Husband
4. Father

Q.9 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’
in the following equation?
145 A 27 D 3 B ? = 163
Ans 1. 6
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

Q.10 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to
the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
142 : 108 :: 185 : ? :: 169 : 135
Ans 1. 151
2. 148
3. 162
4. 157

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 Q.11

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(329, 145, 184), (567, 221, 346)
Ans 1. (308, 205, 192)
2. (506, 302, 224)
3. (676, 225, 451)
4. (464, 264, 206)

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 Q.13

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to
each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Wrestling : Arena :: Ice-Skating : ?
Ans 1. Stadium
2. Track

3. Ground
4. Rink

Q.15

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.16 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Realistic
2. Readily
3. Reach
4. Really
5. Reactor
6. Realize
Ans 1. 3, 5, 6, 1, 2, 4
2. 3, 5, 2, 1, 6, 4
3. 3, 2, 6, 1, 5, 4
4. 3, 5, 1, 2, 6, 4

Q.17 B is west of E. A is north-west of B. F is north-east of B. D is south-east of F, such that F is north-

west of E and D is south-east of E as well. If C is south-west of E, what is the position of A with
respect to E? (All positions are arranged in GRID pattern)
Ans 1. North-east
2. South-west
3. North-west
4. South-east

Q.18

Ans 1. 40 km
2. 50 km
3. 60 km
4. 20 km

Q.19 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. All buildings are towers.
II. No tower is a shop.
III. Some shops are offices.
Conclusions:
I. Some offices are towers.
II. No building is a shop.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Both conclusions I and II follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.20 ‘A ? B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
If H $ Q * Y * N, then how is Y related to H?
Ans 1. Father's father
2. Brother
3. Father
4. Father's brother

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 Q.21 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All cars are vehicles.
All vehicles are trucks.
Conclusions:
I) All cars are trucks.
II) All trucks are vehicles.
Ans 1. Only Conclusion II follows.
2. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
3. Only Conclusion I follows.
4. Both Conclusions I and II follow

Q.22 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Voice
2.Vocalist
3.Vivisection
4.Void
5.Vogue
Ans 1. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
2. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
3. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
4. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

Q.23 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
GOWB, MVEK, SCMT, ?, EQCL
Ans 1. YKCU
2. YJUC
3. YKUC
4. YJCU

Q.24

Ans 1. 2
2. 3
3. 5
4. 4

Q.25 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
VQSN, ?, ROOL, PNMK, NMKJ
Ans 1. TPQM
2. PTMQ
3. PQMN
4. TQRN

Q.26 उस िवक प का चयन कीिजए , जो तीसरे श द से उसी कार संबं ि धत है, िजस कार द सू रा श द पहले श द से संबं ि धत है (श द को
अथपूण श द के प म माना जाना चािहए , और वह श द म अ र की सं या / ंज न / वर की सं या के आधार पर एक -द सू रे से
संबं ि धत नह होना चािहए )
ु प न होना (Derive) : िन कष िनकालना (Infer) :: ग ुह ार लगाना (Urge) : ?
Ans 1. दोष लगाना (Censure)
2. आ ह करना (Exhort)
3. िवरोध करना (Protest)
4. बाधा डालना (Hinder)

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 Q.27 नीचे आकृ ित म िदखाए गए अन सु ार एक कागज को मोड़ा और काटा जाता है खोले जाने पर यह कै सा िदखेग ा ?

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.28

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.29 If A, B, C, D and E denote +, ̶ , ×, ÷ and =, respectively, then which of the following options is
correct?
Ans 1. 4A9C6D2E40A9
2. 4A9E6D2C40B9
3. 4A9C6D2B40E9
4. 4A9C6D2E40B9

Q.30 In a certain code language, ‘TRAUMA’ is coded as ‘36’ and ‘STIL’ is coded as ‘24’. How will
‘OBEIDEINT’ be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 72
2. 54
3. 84
4. 44

Q.31 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
352, 326, 284, 225, 148, ?
Ans 1. 54
2. 71
3. 52
4. 50

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 Q.32 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
114 ÷ 85 + 5 × 4 – 33 = 149
Ans 1. + and ×
2. ÷ and +
3. ÷ and –
4. – and +

Q.33 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight row, facing north (not necessarily in the
same order). Only 2 people sit to the right of D. G is an immediate neighbour of D. Only 3 people sit
between A and G. Only 2 people sit between B and C. E is not an immediate neighbour of C. F sits
to the immediate right of G.
How many people sit between E and D?
Ans 1. 0
2. 2
3. 1
4. 3

Q.34 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
239, 274, 309, 354, 399, 454, ?
Ans 1. 499
2. 474
3. 539
4. 509

Q.35 If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
124 × 4 ÷ 13 – 3 + 36 = ?
Ans 1. 42
2. 45
3. 34
4. 31

Q.36

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.37 In a certain code language, 'good morning' is coded as 'mu du', 'early morning tea' is coded as 'du
tu se', 'tea is early' is coded as 'se re tu'. What is the code for the word 'is'?
Ans 1. re
2. tu
3. du
4. mu

Q.38 Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'MN' as
shown below.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.39 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of ‘?’ in the
following equation?
36 - 5 ÷ 240 × 6 + 17 = ?
Ans 1. 203
2. 221
3. 237
4. 218

Q.40 Select the option that represents the letters which, when sequentially placed from left to right in
the blanks below, will complete the letter series.
P _ _ H_ _ CE_ Z P _ EH_
Ans 1. H Z C Z P E C
2. E P Z C H E C
3. C E Z P H C Z
4. Z C H P Z C E

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 Q.41 Given below are two statements and two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they
are at variance with commonly known facts, and decide whether the conclusion(s) follow(s) the
given statements.
Statements:
Some rats are mats.
All mats are ants.
Conclusions:
I. Some rats are ants.
II. Some ants are mats.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2. Both the conclusions follow
3. Only conclusion II follows
4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.42 If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
61 ÷ 9 × 3 – 8 + 5 = ?
Ans 1. 75
2. 80
3. 72
4. 89

Q.43 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
25, 26, 28, 32, 40, ?
Ans 1. 50
2. 56
3. 58
4. 52

Q.44 Select the set in which the number are related in the same way as the numbers of the given sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(13, 14, 54)
(15, 18, 66)
Ans 1. (15, 17, 66)
2. (13, 19, 64)
3. (12, 34, 90)
4. (11, 13, 52)

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 Q.45

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.46 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the
following series.
61, 95, 138, 197, 279, ?
Ans 1. 391
2. 397
3. 395
4. 389

Q.47 Six friends are sitting in a circle. All of them are facing the centre. Kanak sits third to the right of
Sona. Kapil is an immediate neighbour of Mani. Goldy sits second to the right of Mani. Sona is an
immediate neighbour of Kapil and Suresh.
Who sits second to the left of Kanak?
Ans 1. Mani
2. Kapil
3. Suresh
4. Goldy

Q.48 In a certain code language, ‘ASIA’ is written as ‘ZHRZ’ and ‘IRELAND’ is written as ‘RIVOZMW’. How
will ‘NORWAY’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. MJIDZB
2. NJIDZB
3. NLISZB
4. MLIDZB

Q.49 Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one
that is different.
Ans 1. NQST
2. PSUV
3. SVXY
4. GTHS

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 Q.50 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
Ans 1. TMHE
2. ZSNK
3. VOJG
4. WNDD

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.1 ‘A Grain Of Sand In The Hourglass of Time’ is an autobiography of which Indian politician?
Ans 1. LK Advani
2. Manmohan Singh
3. Arjun Singh
4. IK Gujral

Q.2 The main function of centriole is:

Ans 1. to maintain rigidity in plant cell
2. to help plant cell for multiplication
3. to maintain mineral composition in bacterial cell
4. to help cell division in animal cell

Q.3 Linthoi Chanambam is associated with which of the following sports events?
Ans 1. Chess
2. Judo
3. Cricket
4. Badminton

Q.4 What is the full form of RIDF?

Ans 1. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund
2. Road Infrastructure Development Fund
3. Rural Infrastructure Development Forum
4. Rural Industries Development Fund

Q.5 In which of the following states is Bonalu festival celebrated?

Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Jharkhand
3. Gujarat
4. Telangana

Q.6 In which year did Albert Einstein predict a new state of matter, the Bose-Einstein condensate
(BEC), based on a quantum formulation by the Indian physicist Satyendra Nath Bose?
Ans 1. 1919
2. 1935
3. 1924
4. 1930

Q.7 Who among the following designed a campaign that came to be known as the ‘Rowlatt
Satyagraha’?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Feroze Shah Mehta
3. Mahadev Govind Ranade
4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.8 Who among the following was the first president of IOC?
Ans 1. Demetrius Vikelas
2. Lord Killanin
3. Avery Brundage
4. Pierre, Baron de Coubertin

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 Q.9 Soparrkar and the logo of his worldwide initiative ‘Dance for a Cause’ are being printed on an
official postage stamp issued by the _______________ government.
Ans 1. Bhutan
2. Nepal
3. Bangladesh
4. Sri Lanka

Q.10 What do you call the fluid matrix filling in the cell?
Ans 1. Ribosome
2. Cytoplasm
3. Golgi bodies
4. Plasmid

Q.11 What amount of ‘Seed Capital’ is provided as support to a Self-Help Group under the Pradhan
Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme?
Ans 1. ₹50,000
2. ₹20,000
3. ₹40,000
4. ₹30,000

Q.12 In Which year did the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare of India launch the Weekly Iron and
Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS) program to meet the challenge of high prevalence and
incidence of anaemia among adolescent girls and boys (56%girls and 30%boys)?
Ans 1. 2012
2. 2014
3. 2013
4. 2011

Q.13 Thullal dance originated in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Kerala
2. Uttarakhand
3. Manipur
4. Gujrat

Q.14 Who among the following applied European theatrical techniques to Indian Classical dance with
folk and tribal dance?
Ans 1. Uday Shankar
2. Kelucharan Mohapatra
3. Birju Maharaj
4. Guru Bipin Singh

Q.15 Read the given statements and select the correct option.
i) The Governor is the real head of the State Government.
ii) The Chief Minister plays a key role in framing the laws and policies of the state government.
iii) Governor of a State is appointed by the President.
Ans 1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Both i and ii
4. Both ii and iii

Q.16 Who among the following was the successor of Mughal emperor Shahjahan to the throne?
Ans 1. Shah Shuja
2. Dara Shikoh
3. Aurangzeb
4. Murad Bakhsh

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 Q.17 In June _________, the Reserve Bank of India published a ‘Consultative Document on Regulation
of Microfinance’.
Ans 1. 2022
2. 2019
3. 2020
4. 2021

Q.18 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘On Writing: A Memoir of the Craft’?
Ans 1. F Scott Fitzgerald
2. Stephen King
3. Clive Staples Lewis
4. Ernest Hemingway

Q.19 What do you call the drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function?
Ans 1. Depressants
2. Antagonists
3. Agonist
4. Antidepressants

Q.20 Who among the following Bahmani sultans transferred his capital from Gulbarga to Bidar?
Ans 1. Firuz Shah
2. Humayun
3. Ahmad Shah
4. Mujahid Shah

Q.21 During the British rule in India, which of the following Governor Generals devised the ‘Doctrine of
Lapse’, a policy of annexation?
Ans 1. Lord Dalhousie
2. Warren Hastings
3. Lord Cornwallis
4. Lord Canning

Q.22 How many fundamental rights were provided originally by the Indian Constitution in 1950?
Ans 1. Six
2. Seven
3. Five
4. Nine

Q.23 Who among the following was the Vice President of the Interim Government formed by Congress
in 1946?
Ans 1. Vallabhbhai Patel
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Baldev Singh
4. John Matthai

Q.24 The Beating Retreat ceremony is held at which of the following places?
Ans 1. Connaught Place
2. India Gate
3. Chandni Chowk
4. Vijay Chowk

Q.25 Which east-flowing river basin covers the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Orissa and has
a Drainage area of 39,033 sq km?
Ans 1. Brahmani
2. Baitarni
3. Nagavali
4. Sarada

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 Q.26 Who among the following has written the biography of Buddha, Buddhacharita?
Ans 1. Vasumitra
2. Ashvaghosha
3. Nagarjuna
4. Charaka

Q.27 In 1957, who redefined a model that predicted the shape of individual molecules based on the
extent of electron-pair electrostatic repulsion?
Ans 1. Nyholm and Gillespie
2. Staudinger and Perey
3. Heitler and London
4. Marcet and Pauling

Q.28 The Olympic Winter Games 2026 would be played in_______.

Ans 1. Paris
2. Brisbane
3. Los Angeles
4. Milano Cortina

Q.29 Which ports belong to the western coast of India?

Ans 1. Kandla port, Haldia port, Kochi port
2. Kandla port, Mormugao port, Kochi port
3. Kandla port, Mormugao port, Kolkata port
4. Kandla port, Mormugao port, Chennai port

Q.30 How many planets are terrestrial planets?

Ans 1. 4
2. 6
3. 5
4. 3

Q.31 In which process is a solid substance volatilised by heating and the vapour is condensed back to
the solid at a cold surface?
Ans 1. Filtration
2. Distillation
3. Chromatography
4. Sublimation

Q.32 ________ 2005 is referred to as the ‘Right to Work’ as it guaranteed 100 days of employment in a
year by the Indian Government to people who are in need of and who are able to do work.
Ans 1. Mohan Gandhi Regional Guarantee Act
2. Mahatma Gandhi Regional Employment Guarantee Act
3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
4. Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Act

Q.33 The Karewa formations are found in the ____________.

Ans 1. Kashmir Himalayas
2. North Eastern Hills
3. Terai Region
4. Uttaranchal Himalayas

Q.34 What is the name of the Comprehensive Household Survey providing labour force statistics in
India, which was first conducted in 1955?
Ans 1. Employment-Unemployment Survey (EUS)
2. Area Frame Establishment Survey (AFES)
3. Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
4. Quarterly Employment Survey (QES)

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 Q.35 The five-year plans in India laid down not only specific objectives to be attained in the five years of
a plan, but also what was to be achieved over a period of 20 years. This long-term plan is called a
__________.
Ans 1. twenty-year plan
2. perpetual plan
3. two-decade plan
4. perspective plan

Q.36 Tansen, the music legend was a courtier in which of the following courts before coming to Akbar?
Ans 1. Benaras
2. Rewa
3. Maghad
4. Gandhara

Q.37 Which compound structure includes a saturated short-chain fatty acid with 4-carbon molecules,
commonly found in esterified form in animal fats and plant oils?
Ans 1. Butyric acid
2. Succinic acid
3. Lactic acid
4. Propionic acid

Q.38 Which of the following statements is NOT true for Indian monsoons?
Ans 1. Monsoonal rainfall is not affected by the relief features of the country
2. Himalayas play an important role in monsoonal rainfall
3. Monsoonal rainfall is the lifeline of Indian agriculture
4. Monsoonal rainfall is affected by jet streams

Q.39 Which odourless, colourless, tasteless and chemically unreactive gas was invented by Daniel
Rutherford in 1772 and was independently isolated at the same time by CW Scheele and H
Cavendish?
Ans 1. Fluorine
2. Nitrogen
3. Argon
4. Oxygen

Q.40 Asad Ali Khan was known for playing which of the following Indian instruments?
Ans 1. Violin
2. Tabla
3. Sitar
4. Rudra Veena

Q.41 How many fundamental rights were there at the time of adoption of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Seven
2. Five
3. Six
4. Eight

Q.42 Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

Ans 1. President
2. Attorney General of India
3. Vice President
4. Prime Minister

Q.43 In which part of the Constitution are fundamental duties added?

Ans 1. Part IV-A
2. Part III-B
3. Part I-A
4. Part II-B

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 Q.44 In 2015, the eminent danseuse and ______________ exponent, Padma Subrahmanyam was
selected for Kerala's prestigious choreography award 'Nishagandhi Puraskaram' instituted by the
state tourism department.
Ans 1. Sattriya
2. Kuchipudi
3. Bharatanatyam
4. Kathakali

Q.45 What was the target growth rate of the Indian economy in the second five-year plan?
Ans 1. 4.5%
2. 5.4%
3. 2.8%
4. 6.7%

Q.46 Which winds blow across the Asian continent at latitudes north of the Himalayas roughly parallel
to the Tibetan highlands?
Ans 1. Southwest winds
2. Trade winds
3. Jet streams
4. Northwest winds

Q.47 Recoveries of loans and advances, borrowings, are an example of ________.

Ans 1. capital receipts
2. revenue receipts
3. tax receipts
4. non-tax receipts

Q.48 What is the dimension of the kabaddi play field for men?
Ans 1. 13 m × 10 m
2. 12.50 m × 10 m
3. 14 m × 8 m
4. 14 m × 10 m

Q.49 In which of the following cases the Supreme Court, while laying out the ‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution held that the democratic character of the polity was an essential component of the
‘basic structure’?
Ans 1. A K Gopalan vs State of Madras
2. Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan
3. Romesh Thappar vs State of Madras
4. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala

Q.50 Ravana Phadi cave and Durga Temple at Aihole portray the architectural style of which dynasty?
Ans 1. Hoysala
2. Chalukya
3. Pallava
4. Vijaynagara

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 If sin A+ sin2 A = 1 , then the value of cos4 A + cos6 A is:
Ans 1. 1
2. cos A
3. sin A
4. 0

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 Q.2

Ans 1. 55 AH
2. 35 AH
3. 4 AH
4. 32 AH

Q.3 Avi sold a house to Bhargav at a gain of 10%and Bhargav sold it to Chetan at a gain of 20%. If
Chetan paid ₹2,64,00,000 for it, then at what price must Avi have purchased it?
Ans 1. ₹2,30,00,000
2. ₹2,50,00,000
3. ₹2,00,00,000
4. ₹1,75,00,000

Q.4 Two numbers are in the ratio 12:7. If their HCF is 25, find the numbers.
Ans 1. 300, 175
2. 175, 120
3. 300, 50
4. 225, 135

Q.5

Ans 1.
2.

3.
4.

Q.6 PQR is a triangle. The bisectors of the internal angle ∠ Q and external angle ∠ R intersect at S. If
∠ QSR = 40°, then ∠ P is:
Ans 1. 80°
2. 40°
3. 60°
4. 30°

Q.7 The product of two numbers is 20000. If their LCM is 800, then what is their HCF?
Ans 1. 25
2. 20
3. 30
4. 35

Q.8 In an election between two candidates, 80%of the voters cast their votes, out of which 5%votes
were declared invalid. A candidate got 9500 votes which were 80%of the valid votes. Find the total
number of voters enrolled in that election.
Ans 1. 15100
2. 15625
3. 16100
4. 14780

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 Q.9 Let C be a circle with centre O and radius 5 cm. Let PQ be a tangent to the circle and A be the
point of tangency. Let B be a point on PQ such that the length of AB is 12 cm. If the line joining O
and B intersects the circle at R, find the length of BR (in cm).

Ans 1. 8
2. 2
3. 13
4. 6

Q.10 In what proportion should a grocer mix wheat at ₹12 per kg and ₹25 per kg so as to make a
mixture of worth ₹20 per kg?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.11

Ans 1. 780
2. 720
3. 840
4. 820

Q.12 Anandi bought a smart watch from an electronic store for Rs.4,400. Since she had less money,
she paid Rs.2,000 for down payment and the shopkeeper offered her an alternative to pay
Rs.2,440 after 1 month. Find the rate of interest being charged at simple interest by the
shopkeeper in this instalment option?
Ans 1. 10%
2. 22%
3. 20%
4. 15%

Q.13

Ans 1. −1
2. 1
3. 2
4. 0

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 Q.14 The speed of a boat in standing water is 6 km/h and the speed of the stream is 2.5 km/h. A man
rows to a place at a distance of 59.5 kilometres and comes back to the starting point. The total
time taken by him is:
Ans 1. 24 hours
2. 18 hours
3. 22 hours
4. 16 hours

Q.15 The table below shows the number of students commuting to school by different modes of
transport:

Which mode of transport is used by maximum number of students?

Ans 1. Other vehicles
2. School bus
3. Walking
4. Bicycle

Q.16

Ans 1. 27
2. 47
3. 48
4. 81

Q.17

Ans 1. 328.6
2. 340.5
3. 314.3
4. 323.4

Q.18

Ans 1. 1,20,000
2. 1,00,000
3. 80,000
4. 1,10,000

Q.19 A shopkeeper has a sale of ₹5,445, ₹5,937, ₹5,865 and ₹6,562 for 4 consecutive days. If he gets
an average sale of ₹6,050 for 5 days, then his sale on the fifth day is:
Ans 1. ₹6,131
2. ₹6,341
3. ₹6,441
4. ₹6,231

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 Q.20 Three boys, on an average, are 25 years old, and their age are in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7. What is the
age of youngest boy'?
Ans 1. 15 years
2. 21 years
3. 24 years
4. 12 years

Q.21 A sum of money was invested at 10%interest per year, compounded half-yearly, for 18 months. If
the amount payable on maturity was ₹64,827, what was the sum invested?
Ans 1. ₹55,600
2. ₹56,000
3. ₹56,800
4. ₹56,500

Q.22

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.23

Ans 1. 2
2. 0
3. 1
4. 3

Q.24 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The data given in the table is for the month of December 2022.

What is the difference between the number of male employees in company P and that in company
R?
Ans 1. 605
2. 580
3. 592
4. 578

Q.25 A boat covers a distance of 72 km downstream in 6 hours, while it takes 12 hours to cover the
same distance upstream. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
Ans 1. 10 km/h
2. 6 km/h
3. 9 km/h
4. 8 km/h

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 Q.26 An inspector is 288 metres behind a thief. The inspector runs 42 metres and the thief runs 30
metres in a minute. In how much time will the inspector catch the thief?
Ans 1. 24 minutes
2. 19 minutes
3. 20 minutes
4. 21 minutes

Q.27 After deducing a commission of 20%, a DVD set costs ₹9,080. Its marked price is:
Ans 1. ₹11,200
2. ₹10,100
3. ₹11,350
4. ₹10,000

Q.28 In ΔABC, ∠ B = 90° and AB : BC = 1 : 2. The value of cos A + tan C is:

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.29 Rakhi purchased a basket, a wallet and a belt. She got discounts of 5%, 8%and 10%on the basket,
the wallet and the belt, respectively, on their respective marked prices of ₹80, ₹150 and ₹350.
How much amount (in ₹) did she pay in total?
Ans 1. 51
2. 580
3. 519
4. 529

Q.30 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students studying in 6 different classes of 6 different schools.

Which class has the maximum number of students from all schools together?
Ans 1. VI
2. V
3. X
4. VII

Q.31

Ans 1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 0

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 Q.32 A company is manufacturing boxes of three types – plastic, wood and glass. The ratio of the
numbers of plastic, wood and glass boxes is 2 : 3 : 5. The difference between the numbers of
wood and glass boxes is 144. If the number of plastic boxes is increased by 25%, then what will
be the number of plastic boxes now?
Ans 1. 216
2. 180
3. 360
4. 144

Q.33 A and B undertake a project worth ₹36,000. A alone can do the work in 25 days. They worked
together for 5 days. For the next five days, B worked alone. After that, A substituted B and
completed the remaining work in 5 days. The share of A in the earnings is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.34 The radius of a circle is 1.75 cm. What is the circumference of the circle?

Ans 1. 9.63 cm
2. 5.5 cm
3. 11 cm
4. 22 cm

Q.35 Let the HCF of m and n be ‘a’ and let n = ab, LCM of m and n is given by:
Ans 1. bm
2. mn
3. ab
4. am

Q.36 The total surface area of a square-based right pyramid is 1536 m2, of which 37.5%is the area of
the base of the pyramid. What is the volume (in m3) of this pyramid?
Ans 1. 3144
2. 3108
3. 3072
4. 3048

Q.37 If k(tan 45° sin 60°) = cos 60 ° cot 30 ° , then the value of k is:
Ans 1.
2.
3.

4.

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 Q.38 The given table shows the number of students from 4 schools during 2022-2023.

What is the percentage of girls in school B?

Ans 1. 65%
2. 45%
3. 60%
4. 55%

Q.39 An inlet pipe can fill an empty tank in 3.6 hours, while an outlet pipe can drain a completely-filled
tank in 6.3 hours. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously when the tank is empty, in how
many hours will the tank get completely filled?
Ans 1. 8.1
2. 8.7
3. 9.0
4. 8.4

Q.40

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.41 Find the mean proportional between 32 and 162.

Ans 1. 72
2. 97
3. 99
4. 65

Q.42 A dealer sells his goods at 10%loss on the cost price but uses 25%less weight. What is his profit
percentage?
Ans 1.
2.
3.

4.

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 Q.43

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.44 The volume of a sphere is given by 130977 cm3. Its surface area (in cm2) is:
Ans 1. 17424
2. 12474
3. 16847
4. 14274

Q.45 E, F, G, and H are four points lying on the circumference of a circle to make a cyclic quadrilateral.
If ∠ FGH = 57°, then what will be the measure of the ∠ HEF?
Ans 1. 143°
2. 33°
3. 93°
4. 123°

Q.46

Ans 1. 3 : 5
2. 3 : 7
3. 2 : 5
4. 2 : 3

Q.47 When A alone does a piece of work, he takes 25 days more than the time taken by A and B to do
the work together. On the other hand, B alone takes 16 days more than the time taken by A and B
to do the work together. How many days will A and B, working together, take to do the work?
Ans 1. 20
2. 24
3. 23
4. 22

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 Q.48

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.49 If the radius of a hemispherical balloon increases from 4 cm to 7 cm as air is pumped into it, find
the ratio of the surface area of the new balloon to its original.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.50

Ans 1. 650
2. 600
3. 550
4. 500

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No
error’ as your answer.
Luckily, I managed to get a room in the college hostel, and I move in there.
Ans 1. and I move in there
2. Luckily, I managed to get a room
3. in the college hostel
4. No error

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who does not eat any animal product
Ans 1. Vegetarian
2. Vegan
3. Non-vegetarian
4. Veggie

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
A gust of wind came abruptly and our sand castle toppled.
Ans 1. tumbled down
2. turned up
3. ran after
4. blew out

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 Q.4 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.
The company had some initial problems, but now it is ________.
Ans 1. flying like a rock
2. flying a kite
3. flying the nest
4. flying high

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
“You look so young! / When did you completed your graduation?” / asked Rekha / to her neighbour.
Ans 1. You look so young!
2. When did you completed your graduation?
3. asked Rekha
4. to her neighbour

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Brave
Ans 1. Cordial
2. Courageous
3. Cowardly
4. Elegant

Q.7 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
Neem tastes / a little bitterly, / but is very useful.
Ans 1. but is very useful
2. Neem tastes
3. No error
4. a little bitterly

Q.8 Select the most appropriate idiomatic expression to substitute for the underlined segment in the
given sentence.
I had to work late in the night for nearly three months to write my first book.
Ans 1. to blow a fuse
2. to take a back seat
3. to look through coloured glasses
4. to burn the midnight oil

Q.9 Select the most appropriate one-word substitution of the given group of words.
A list of source materials that are used or consulted in the preparation of a work or that are
referred to in the text.
Ans 1. Bibliophile
2. Bibliography
3. Bibliotheca
4. Bibliomemoir

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Spoken or done without any previous thought or preparation
Ans 1. Inaugural
2. Maiden
3. Initiative
4. Extempore

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 Q.11 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
He got a burst of energy and started digging again.
Ans 1. took bull by the horns
2. second wind
3. a fancy of someone
4. heart on the sleeve

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Behold
Ans 1. Look
2. Burden
3. Predict
4. Fortunate

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘hinderance’ in the given sentence and choose
the correct option.
The refreshing breeze blew through the open window, bringing relief from the summer heat.
Ans 1. Refreshing
2. Relief
3. Bringing
4. Blew

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

We’ve sent a very strong protest letter. That should make them sit up and take notice.
Ans 1. Follow
2. Consider
3. Observe
4. Attend

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A place where coins are made
Ans 1. Trough
2. Grove
3. Post Office
4. Mint

Q.16 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word.

Diplomats believe that buraucratic delays are inevitable.
Ans 1. beleave
2. inivitable
3. bureaucratic
4. burocratic

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
The new professor is liked by his students for his amiable approach.
Ans 1. simple
2. strict
3. academic
4. friendly

Q.18 Select the most appropriate idiomatic expression to fill in the blank.
Our Director took a meeting and asked us to express our views on ___________ of the new HR
policy.
Ans 1. the ups and downs
2. the pros and cons
3. the bandwagon
4. the hook

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 Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Credit
Ans 1. Impute
2. Litigate
3. Debit
4. Install

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Demolish
Ans 1. Unmethodical
2. Annihilate
3. Fabricate
4. Inferior

Q.21 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The compulsion to tell lies
Ans 1. Megalomania
2. Pyromania

3. Mythomania
4. Nymphomania

Q.22 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Boil the ocean
Ans 1. Try to do something impossible
2. Something very big
3. Something which gets hot gradually
4. To make someone very angry

Q.23 Some words in the following sentence have been underlined and given as options. Select the
option that contains a spelling error.
The rolling waves on the beach were so trainquil and soothing.
Ans 1. rolling
2. beach
3. soothing
4. trainquil

Q.24 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Caricature
2. Click
3. Cumbersome
4. Cumolative

Q.25 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Defunct
Ans 1. Extant
2. Stoicism
3. Redundant
4. Convoluted

Q.26 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
The postman / delivers the letters / through hand, / door to door.
Ans 1. door to door
2. The postman
3. through hand
4. delivers the letters

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 Q.27 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.
You must lie in the bed you have made.
Ans 1. Be contended always
2. Face the unpleasant consequences of your own acts
3. Sleep in your own bed
4. Sleep on the bed you made yourself

Q.28 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Open your heart
Ans 1. Feel relieved because the stress is removed
2. Could do something very easily
3. Share your deepest feelings
4. Immediately think of something

Q.29 Four words have been underlined in the given sentence of which one word has a spelling error.
Identify the incorrectly spelt word.
The tiger thrshed (A) against his chains (B) in the cage at the circus (C) but nobody paid him any
heed (D).
Ans 1. thrshed
2. circus
3. chains
4. heed

Q.30 You are preparing a speech for the upcoming function. Select a synonym for the highlighted word
to make it better.
The education system must evolve to keep pace with the rapid changes in the job market.
Ans 1. Emanate
2. Censor
3. Conceal
4. Demolish

Q.31 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Something of monstrous size or power
Ans 1. Behemoth
2. Heavyweight
3. Bulk
4. Amazon

Q.32 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom that can be substituted in the
following sentence.
Right now, my hands are full.
Ans 1. I’m very busy
2. My hands are swollen
3. My hands are filled up
4. I’m very tired

Q.33 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Spontaneous
Ans 1. Acquisitive
2. Instinctive
3. Attractive
4. Exhaustive

Q.34 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Someone who pretends to have certain moral standards while secretively that person practices
those very moral lapses.
Ans 1. Hypocrite
2. Spy
3. Actor
4. Sinner

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 Q.35 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Burn one’s bridges
Ans 1. Working very hard
2. Impossible to return to an earlier state
3. Attack on one’s enemy
4. Having an overnight success

Q.36 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
The village Seoni is located 113 km away from the capital city of MP, Bhopal.
Ans 1. near from the city capital of MP, Bhopal
2. proximate from capital of MP, Bhopal
3. adjacent from city capital of MP, Bhopal
4. far from the capital city of MP, Bhopal

Q.37 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an
error.
Rani was extreme upset with her results this year.
Ans 1. this year
2. Rani was
3. with her results
4. extreme upset

Q.38 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
An ability to do several things at the same time.
Ans 1. Unitasking
2. Blasphemy
3. Multitasking
4. Indictment

Q.39 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Vague
Ans 1. Elegant
2. Dwarf
3. Definite
4. Regal

Q.40 Select the sentence that has a spelling error.

A- Keeping cities clean and free of germs is particularly essential for keeping their residents
healthy.
B- Our health depends not just on our nutrition and personal hygeine but also on how we clean our
cities and surroundings.
C- The spread of various diseases is intricately linked to the deteriorating state of public health
condition.
D- The good news is that waste management, to keep cities clean, is now getting attention
through the Swachh Bharat Mission.
Ans 1. The spread of various diseases is intricately linked to the deteriorating state of public health
condition.
2. The good news is that waste management, to keep cities clean, is now getting attention
through the Swachh Bharat Mission.
3. Our health depends not just on our nutrition and personal hygeine but also on how we clean
our cities and surroundings.
4. Keeping cities clean and free of germs is particularly essential for keeping their residents
healthy.

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
It is said that everyone lives (1)________ selling something. What you can (2)________ from this
statement is that teachers live by selling knowledge, philosophers live by selling wisdom and priests
earn their living by selling spiritual comfort. Though it may be possible to measure the value of
material goods in terms of money, it is extremely difficult to (3)________ the true value of the services
which people perform for us. There are times when we would (4)________ give everything we
possess to save our lives, yet we might grudge paying a surgeon a high fee for offering us precisely
the same service. The (5)________ of society are such that skills have to be paid for in the same way
that goods are paid for at a shop.

SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. by
2. of
3. over
4. into

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
It is said that everyone lives (1)________ selling something. What you can (2)________ from this
statement is that teachers live by selling knowledge, philosophers live by selling wisdom and priests
earn their living by selling spiritual comfort. Though it may be possible to measure the value of
material goods in terms of money, it is extremely difficult to (3)________ the true value of the services
which people perform for us. There are times when we would (4)________ give everything we
possess to save our lives, yet we might grudge paying a surgeon a high fee for offering us precisely
the same service. The (5)________ of society are such that skills have to be paid for in the same way
that goods are paid for at a shop.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. separate
2. revive
3. choose
4. derive

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
It is said that everyone lives (1)________ selling something. What you can (2)________ from this
statement is that teachers live by selling knowledge, philosophers live by selling wisdom and priests
earn their living by selling spiritual comfort. Though it may be possible to measure the value of
material goods in terms of money, it is extremely difficult to (3)________ the true value of the services
which people perform for us. There are times when we would (4)________ give everything we
possess to save our lives, yet we might grudge paying a surgeon a high fee for offering us precisely
the same service. The (5)________ of society are such that skills have to be paid for in the same way
that goods are paid for at a shop.
SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. mock
2. extort
3. estimate
4. conceal

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
It is said that everyone lives (1)________ selling something. What you can (2)________ from this
statement is that teachers live by selling knowledge, philosophers live by selling wisdom and priests
earn their living by selling spiritual comfort. Though it may be possible to measure the value of
material goods in terms of money, it is extremely difficult to (3)________ the true value of the services
which people perform for us. There are times when we would (4)________ give everything we
possess to save our lives, yet we might grudge paying a surgeon a high fee for offering us precisely
the same service. The (5)________ of society are such that skills have to be paid for in the same way
that goods are paid for at a shop.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. thoughtfully
2. perfectly
3. willingly
4. thoroughly

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
It is said that everyone lives (1)________ selling something. What you can (2)________ from this
statement is that teachers live by selling knowledge, philosophers live by selling wisdom and priests
earn their living by selling spiritual comfort. Though it may be possible to measure the value of
material goods in terms of money, it is extremely difficult to (3)________ the true value of the services
which people perform for us. There are times when we would (4)________ give everything we
possess to save our lives, yet we might grudge paying a surgeon a high fee for offering us precisely
the same service. The (5)________ of society are such that skills have to be paid for in the same way
that goods are paid for at a shop.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. obstacles
2. interferences
3. connections
4. conditions

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As a society, we have come a long way in terms of progress and development. We have eradicated
diseases, explored space, and created technological wonders that were once thought impossible.
Yet, there is still one issue that continues to plague us: stupidity.
Yes, stupidity. The thing that seems to be contagious and has been spreading faster than the
common cold. It's everywhere you look - on social media, in politics, in the workplace. You can't
escape it.
It's as if we've all collectively decided that intelligence and common sense are no longer important.
Why bother using your brain when you can just rely on your gut feelings and conspiracy theories?
Take politics, for example. It used to be that politicians were expected to be knowledgeable and well-
informed about the issues they were dealing with. Now, it seems that all you need is a catchy slogan
and some empty promises to win an election.
And don't even get me started on social media. It's a breeding ground for stupidity. People will believe
anything they read as long as it confirms their preconceived biases. And don't even think about trying
to present them with actual facts and evidence. That's just a waste of time.
But it's not just individuals who are to blame for this epidemic of stupidity. Our education system is
failing us as well. We're teaching our kids how to pass tests instead of how to think critically and solve
problems. It's no wonder we have a generation of adults who can't even find their way around a basic
math problem.
Of course, there are some who would argue that stupidity is just a different way of thinking. That it's a
valid perspective that deserves to be respected. To those people, I say this: if you want to be stupid, go
ahead. Just don't expect the rest of us to respect your opinions when they're based on nothing but
ignorance and misinformation.
It's time for us to take a stand against stupidity. We need to start valuing intelligence and critical
thinking again. We need to hold our leaders accountable for their actions and demand that they be
knowledgeable and well-informed. We need to teach our children how to think, not just how to
memorise.
It won't be easy, but it's a fight worth fighting. Because if we don't, we'll be stuck in a world where
stupidity reigns supreme, and there's no telling what kind of damage that could do. So let's all do our
part and start using our brains again. It's time to put an end to the epidemic of stupidity once and for
all.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 What is the tone of the passage?
Ans 1. Sarcastic
2. Joyful
3. Serious
4. Melancholic

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As a society, we have come a long way in terms of progress and development. We have eradicated
diseases, explored space, and created technological wonders that were once thought impossible.
Yet, there is still one issue that continues to plague us: stupidity.
Yes, stupidity. The thing that seems to be contagious and has been spreading faster than the
common cold. It's everywhere you look - on social media, in politics, in the workplace. You can't
escape it.
It's as if we've all collectively decided that intelligence and common sense are no longer important.
Why bother using your brain when you can just rely on your gut feelings and conspiracy theories?
Take politics, for example. It used to be that politicians were expected to be knowledgeable and well-
informed about the issues they were dealing with. Now, it seems that all you need is a catchy slogan
and some empty promises to win an election.
And don't even get me started on social media. It's a breeding ground for stupidity. People will believe
anything they read as long as it confirms their preconceived biases. And don't even think about trying
to present them with actual facts and evidence. That's just a waste of time.
But it's not just individuals who are to blame for this epidemic of stupidity. Our education system is
failing us as well. We're teaching our kids how to pass tests instead of how to think critically and solve
problems. It's no wonder we have a generation of adults who can't even find their way around a basic
math problem.
Of course, there are some who would argue that stupidity is just a different way of thinking. That it's a
valid perspective that deserves to be respected. To those people, I say this: if you want to be stupid, go
ahead. Just don't expect the rest of us to respect your opinions when they're based on nothing but
ignorance and misinformation.
It's time for us to take a stand against stupidity. We need to start valuing intelligence and critical
thinking again. We need to hold our leaders accountable for their actions and demand that they be
knowledgeable and well-informed. We need to teach our children how to think, not just how to
memorise.
It won't be easy, but it's a fight worth fighting. Because if we don't, we'll be stuck in a world where
stupidity reigns supreme, and there's no telling what kind of damage that could do. So let's all do our
part and start using our brains again. It's time to put an end to the epidemic of stupidity once and for
all.
SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 According to the passage, what is the solution to the issue of stupidity in society?
Ans 1. Teaching students how to pass tests
2. Embracing ignorance and misinformation
3. Encouraging critical thinking and problem-solving skills
4. Electing politicians with catchy slogans

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As a society, we have come a long way in terms of progress and development. We have eradicated
diseases, explored space, and created technological wonders that were once thought impossible.
Yet, there is still one issue that continues to plague us: stupidity.
Yes, stupidity. The thing that seems to be contagious and has been spreading faster than the
common cold. It's everywhere you look - on social media, in politics, in the workplace. You can't
escape it.
It's as if we've all collectively decided that intelligence and common sense are no longer important.
Why bother using your brain when you can just rely on your gut feelings and conspiracy theories?
Take politics, for example. It used to be that politicians were expected to be knowledgeable and well-
informed about the issues they were dealing with. Now, it seems that all you need is a catchy slogan
and some empty promises to win an election.
And don't even get me started on social media. It's a breeding ground for stupidity. People will believe
anything they read as long as it confirms their preconceived biases. And don't even think about trying
to present them with actual facts and evidence. That's just a waste of time.
But it's not just individuals who are to blame for this epidemic of stupidity. Our education system is
failing us as well. We're teaching our kids how to pass tests instead of how to think critically and solve
problems. It's no wonder we have a generation of adults who can't even find their way around a basic
math problem.
Of course, there are some who would argue that stupidity is just a different way of thinking. That it's a
valid perspective that deserves to be respected. To those people, I say this: if you want to be stupid, go
ahead. Just don't expect the rest of us to respect your opinions when they're based on nothing but
ignorance and misinformation.
It's time for us to take a stand against stupidity. We need to start valuing intelligence and critical
thinking again. We need to hold our leaders accountable for their actions and demand that they be
knowledgeable and well-informed. We need to teach our children how to think, not just how to
memorise.
It won't be easy, but it's a fight worth fighting. Because if we don't, we'll be stuck in a world where
stupidity reigns supreme, and there's no telling what kind of damage that could do. So let's all do our
part and start using our brains again. It's time to put an end to the epidemic of stupidity once and for
all.
SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 What could be a suitable title for the passage?
Ans 1. The Joy of Living in a World of Ignorance
2. The Benefits of Stupidity
3. The Importance of Critical Thinking
4. The Evils of Social Media

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As a society, we have come a long way in terms of progress and development. We have eradicated
diseases, explored space, and created technological wonders that were once thought impossible.
Yet, there is still one issue that continues to plague us: stupidity.
Yes, stupidity. The thing that seems to be contagious and has been spreading faster than the
common cold. It's everywhere you look - on social media, in politics, in the workplace. You can't
escape it.
It's as if we've all collectively decided that intelligence and common sense are no longer important.
Why bother using your brain when you can just rely on your gut feelings and conspiracy theories?
Take politics, for example. It used to be that politicians were expected to be knowledgeable and well-
informed about the issues they were dealing with. Now, it seems that all you need is a catchy slogan
and some empty promises to win an election.
And don't even get me started on social media. It's a breeding ground for stupidity. People will believe
anything they read as long as it confirms their preconceived biases. And don't even think about trying
to present them with actual facts and evidence. That's just a waste of time.
But it's not just individuals who are to blame for this epidemic of stupidity. Our education system is
failing us as well. We're teaching our kids how to pass tests instead of how to think critically and solve
problems. It's no wonder we have a generation of adults who can't even find their way around a basic
math problem.
Of course, there are some who would argue that stupidity is just a different way of thinking. That it's a
valid perspective that deserves to be respected. To those people, I say this: if you want to be stupid, go
ahead. Just don't expect the rest of us to respect your opinions when they're based on nothing but
ignorance and misinformation.
It's time for us to take a stand against stupidity. We need to start valuing intelligence and critical
thinking again. We need to hold our leaders accountable for their actions and demand that they be
knowledgeable and well-informed. We need to teach our children how to think, not just how to
memorise.
It won't be easy, but it's a fight worth fighting. Because if we don't, we'll be stuck in a world where
stupidity reigns supreme, and there's no telling what kind of damage that could do. So let's all do our
part and start using our brains again. It's time to put an end to the epidemic of stupidity once and for
all.
SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 According to the author of the passage, who among the following is NOT responsible for the
spread of stupidity?
Ans 1. Education system
2. Children
3. Individuals
4. Politicians

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As a society, we have come a long way in terms of progress and development. We have eradicated
diseases, explored space, and created technological wonders that were once thought impossible.
Yet, there is still one issue that continues to plague us: stupidity.
Yes, stupidity. The thing that seems to be contagious and has been spreading faster than the
common cold. It's everywhere you look - on social media, in politics, in the workplace. You can't
escape it.
It's as if we've all collectively decided that intelligence and common sense are no longer important.
Why bother using your brain when you can just rely on your gut feelings and conspiracy theories?
Take politics, for example. It used to be that politicians were expected to be knowledgeable and well-
informed about the issues they were dealing with. Now, it seems that all you need is a catchy slogan
and some empty promises to win an election.
And don't even get me started on social media. It's a breeding ground for stupidity. People will believe
anything they read as long as it confirms their preconceived biases. And don't even think about trying
to present them with actual facts and evidence. That's just a waste of time.
But it's not just individuals who are to blame for this epidemic of stupidity. Our education system is
failing us as well. We're teaching our kids how to pass tests instead of how to think critically and solve
problems. It's no wonder we have a generation of adults who can't even find their way around a basic
math problem.
Of course, there are some who would argue that stupidity is just a different way of thinking. That it's a
valid perspective that deserves to be respected. To those people, I say this: if you want to be stupid, go
ahead. Just don't expect the rest of us to respect your opinions when they're based on nothing but
ignorance and misinformation.
It's time for us to take a stand against stupidity. We need to start valuing intelligence and critical
thinking again. We need to hold our leaders accountable for their actions and demand that they be
knowledgeable and well-informed. We need to teach our children how to think, not just how to
memorise.
It won't be easy, but it's a fight worth fighting. Because if we don't, we'll be stuck in a world where
stupidity reigns supreme, and there's no telling what kind of damage that could do. So let's all do our
part and start using our brains again. It's time to put an end to the epidemic of stupidity once and for
all.
SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 Which of the following techniques has been used by the author of the passage to convey the
message?
Ans 1. Factual and chronological account
2. Examples and anecdotes
3. Humour and exaggeration
4. Parody and mimicry

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 Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I
Exam Date 04/10/2023
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1

Ans 1. R and P
2. P and U
3. U and T
4. T and S

Q.2 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’
in the following equation?
56 D 8 B 7 = ? B 7
Ans 1. 12
2. 9
3. 8
4. 7

Q.3

Ans 1. 2
2. B
3. 1
4. C

Q.4 Based on the position in the English alphabetical order, three of the following letter-clusters are
alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
Ans 1. SWYX
2. LOQP
3. PTVU
4. RVXW

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 Q.5 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.6

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 Six students Prateek, Sameer, Kabir, Ziya, Joseph, Kiran are sitting around a circular table facing
the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Prateek is an immediate neighbour of both
Sameer and Kabir. Ziya is sitting second to the right of Sameer. Kiran is sitting third to the left of
Kabir. Joseph is an immediate neighbour of both Ziya and Kabir.
Who is an immediate neighbour of Ziya?
Ans 1. Prateek
2. Kabir
3. Kiran
4. Sameer

Q.8 Which two mathematical signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
15 × 3 ÷ 15 – (45 × 3) – 10 + (13 ÷ 2) = 76
Ans 1. × and –
2. × and +
3. ÷ and ×
4. ÷ and +

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 Q.9 If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
23 – 5 ÷ 240 × 8 + 14 = ?
Ans 1. 124
2. 119
3. 131
4. 145

Q.10 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some apples are oranges.
All oranges are fruits.
Conclusions:
I) All apples are fruits.
II) Some fruits are oranges.
Ans 1. Only Conclusion II follows.
2. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
3. Only Conclusion I follows
4. Both Conclusions I and II follow.

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 Q.11

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to
the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.
12 : 64 :: ? : 116 :: 32 : 144
Ans 1. 25
2. 35
3. 14
4. 46

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 Q.13 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
4, 11, 19, 31, 52, 89, ?
Ans 1. 115
2. 105
3. 151
4. 150

Q.14 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
PJVG, VBZB, BTDW, HLHR,?
Ans 1. NDLN
2. MDLM
3. NDLM
4. MDLN

Q.15

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 In a certain code language, 'ACTOR' is coded as ROYCA and 'NURSE' is coded as ESWUN. How will
'JUDGE' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. EGIUJ
2. EGJUI
3. EGUIJ
4. GEIUJ

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 Q.17 Aunt Gloria walked out of her house and walked 65 m towards the east. She took a left turn and
walked 28 m. Again, she took a left turn and walked 110 m to reach a public library. How far
(shortest distance) and in which direction is the library from Aunt Gloria’s house?
Ans 1. 53 m, North-East
2. 48 m, North-West
3. 48 m, North-East
4. 53 m, North-West

Q.18 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
134, 129, 122, ?, 102, 89
Ans 1. 111
2. 117
3. 113
4. 115

Q.19 उस िवक प का चयन कर , जो तीसरे श द से उसी कार संबं ि धत है, िजस कार द सू रा श द पहले श द से संबं ि धत है (श द को अथपूण
श द के प म माना जाना चािहए , और इ ह श द म अ र की सं या / ंज न की सं या / वर की सं या के आधार पर एक -द सू रे से
संब नह िकया जाना चािहए )
कलाकार (Artist) : पट करना (Painting) :: मोची (Cobbler) : ?
Ans 1. लकड़ी सबं ंधी मर मत काय करना (Wooden repair work)
2. जूत की मरम ्मत करना (Fixing shoes)
3. िव तु ीय मर मत काय करना (Fixes electricity)
4. कपड़े िसलना (Stitching clothes)

Q.20 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Wrist
2.Wrangle
3.Workable
4.Wrongful
5.Woodland
Ans 1. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
2. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
3. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
4. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4

Q.21 Six people are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. P sits second to the left of Q. S is
an immediate neighbour of both Q and U. T sits second to the left of R. Who is the immediate
neighbour of both P and U?
Ans 1. R
2. S
3. Q
4. T

Q.22 Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All teas are juices.
All juices are cocktails.
Conclusions:
I. All teas are cocktails.
II. All cocktails are definitely juices.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Only conclusion I follows
4. Both conclusions I and II follow

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 Q.23

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(7, 2, 70)
(6, 4, 120)
Ans 1. (13, 4, 208)
2. (3, 8, 120)
3. (11, 6, 143)
4. (5, 9, 270)

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 Q.25

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 A @ B का अथ है "A, B का पित है"

A & B का अथ है "A, B की माता है"
A # B का अथ है "A, B की प ु ी है"
यिद Z # L @ P & K @ J # X है, तो K का Z से या संबं ध है?
Ans 1. भाई
2. माता
3. भाभी
4. बहन

Q.27 Select the option that represents the letters which, when sequentially placed from left to right in
the blanks below, will complete the letter series.
F_ _ Y _ _ K B _ O F_ B Y _
Ans 1. Y O K B F O K
2. O F K B O Y K
3. K B O F Y K O
4. B Y O K F O K

Q.28 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to
the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
16 : 106 :: 11 : ? :: 10 : 22
Ans 1. 36
2. 31
3. 40
4. 42

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 Q.29 In a certain code language, ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘4268’ and ‘NICE’ is coded as ‘9723’. What is the
code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9
2. 2
3. 4
4. 3

Q.30 Manohar cycles X km towards west and then turns right and cycles Y km to reach his office. Now,
the shortest distance between the starting point and his office is 13 km. What can be the value of
X and Y, respectively, (in km)?
Ans 1. 11 and 6
2. 12 and 5
3. 8 and 5
4. 6 and 7

Q.31

Ans 1. B
2. A
3. D
4. E

Q.32

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.33 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some rivers are oceans.
All oceans are beaches.
Conclusions:
I. Some rivers are beaches.
II. All oceans are rivers.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. Only conclusion II follows
4. Both conclusions I and II follow

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 Q.34 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting/
multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(9, 1, 19)
(5, 2, 14)
Ans 1. (3,2,10)
2. (4,7,37)
3. (3,5,56)
4. (2,5,12)

Q.35 ‘F $ G’ का अथ है िक ‘F, Gकी माता है’

‘F # G’ का अथ है िक ‘F, Gका िपता है’
‘F @ G’ का अथ है िक ‘F, Gका पित है’
‘F %G’ का अथ है िक ‘F, Gकी प ु ी है’
यिद J @ C $ B # R है, तो J का R से या संबं ध है?
Ans 1. िपता
ु
2. बआ
3. दादा
4. मामा

Q.36 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
Ans 1. XOTP
2. NJRK
3. GCKD
4. UQYR

Q.37 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following equation?
22 B 7 C 288 D 12 A 27 = ?
Ans 1. 103
2. 160
3. 157
4. 130

Q.38

Ans 1. 1
2. 11
3. 12
4. 21

Q.39 In a certain code language, 'ALIVE' is coded as 64 and 'HALL' is coded as 45. How will 'MOVIE' be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. 58
2. 71
3. 80
4. 79

Q.40 If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, and ‘÷’ means ‘−’, then what will be the value of the
following expression?
42 × 168 - 8 ÷ 4 + 3 = ?
Ans 1. 45
2. 56
3. 51
4. 62

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 Q.41 In a certain code language, ‘PAINT’ is written as ‘ODYTN’ and 'BRUSH' is written as 'CMMOZ'. How
will ‘HOUSE’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. WDNOS
2. WPMOC
3. PHYWS
4. PBOMS

Q.42 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-
cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-
cluster.

INDIA : FKAFX :: ESTONIA : BPQLKFX:: MALAYSIA :?

Ans 1. JXIXVPFX
2. JXVPFXXI
3. JPFXXIXV
4. JXIXFXVP

Q.43 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
76, 99, 135, 185, 250, ?
Ans 1. 331
2. 330
3. 315
4. 328

Q.44 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.45 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Doctor
2. Doctorate
3. Docile
4. Documentary
5. Dock
6. Doctrine
Ans 1. 3, 5, 2, 1, 6, 4
2. 3, 5, 1, 2, 6, 4
3. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 6,
4. 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4

Q.46 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some movies are dramas.
Some dramas are fiction.
Conclusions:
I. Some movies are fiction.
II. All fiction are movies.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Both conclusions I and II follow
4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.47 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following equation?
21 B 14 C 154 D 14 A 42 = ?
Ans 1. 357
2. 352
3. 342
4. 325

Q.48 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
AXFN, GCJQ, MHNT, ?, YRVZ
Ans 1. QRLV
2. SWMR
3. RLQV
4. SMRW

Q.49

Ans 1. 189
2. 135
3. 169
4. 148

Q.50 In a certain code language, 'SUGAR' is coded as 81 and 'FILL' is coded as 51. How will 'CREAM' be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. 60
2. 55
3. 52
4. 57

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.1 Expenditure of the government on health facilities, education and fixed-asset acquisition is
termed as _________.
Ans 1. revenue expenditure
2. capital expenditure
3. plan expenditure
4. non-plan revenue expenditure

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 Q.2 Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with directive principles of state policy?
Ans 1. Part VI
2. Part IV
3. Part V
4. Part VII

Q.3 Which of the following is the new alluvium deposited by floods in the Ganga Plain?
Ans 1. Kachhar
2. Regur
3. Khadar
4. Bhangar

Q.4 FIFA Women’s World Cup 2023 will be hosted by_______.

Ans 1. Australia and New Zealand
2. Brazil and Argentina
3. France and Germany
4. USA and Canada

Q.5 Which of the following policy measures is a step towards liberalisation?

Ans 1. Imposing limits on capital accumulation
2. Eliminating licenses for importing a majority of goods
3. Increasing requirements for bank reserves and restrictions on interest rates
4. Enhancing tariffs

Q.6 Identify whether the given statements about ionisation energy are correct or incorrect.
Statement A: The ionisation energy of an atom is the amount of energy that is required to remove
an electron from a mole of atoms in the gas phase.
Statement B: The ionisation energy increases from top to bottom in groups and decreases from
left to right across a period.
Ans 1. Only Statement A is correct
2. Both Statements A and B are correct
3. Only Statement B is correct
4. Both Statements A and B are incorrect

Q.7 What type of climate is found in North Western Europe, West Coast of North America, North of
California, Southern Chile, South-eastern Australia and New Zealand?
Ans 1. Tropical wet and dry climate
2. Cold snow forest climate
3. Marine west coast climate
4. Subtropical steppe climate

Q.8 The President of India decides on the question as to the disqualification of Members of Parliament
in consultation with the ________.
Ans 1. Supreme Court of India
2. Election Commission of India
3. Vice President
4. Parliament

Q.9 Which of the following is INCORRECT match?

Ans 1. Pressure – Pascal
2. Force – Newton
3. Work done – Joule
4. Volume – Meter

Q.10 During Which phase of the cell cycle does metabolic changes assemble the cytoplasmic material
required for mitosis and cytokinesis?
Ans 1. M phase
2. S phase
3. G1 phase
4. G2 phase

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 Q.11 Mohiniyattam, a classical dance of India belongs to which of the following states?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Kerala
4. Manipur

Q.12 Identify an anomaly element that belongs to both group 1 and group 17.
Ans 1. Chlorine
2. Nitrogen
3. Oxygen
4. Hydrogen

Q.13 Which of the following cultural festivals of South India is associated with the folklore of King
Mahabali?
Ans 1. Pongal
2. Ugadi
3. Onam
4. Gudi Padwa

Q.14 In which year Timur’s invasion of Delhi took place?

Ans 1. 1526
2. 1221
3. 1492
4. 1398

Q.15 According to Census of India 2011, identify the third largest spoken language in India.
Ans 1. Bengali
2. Hindi
3. Marathi
4. Tamil

Q.16 Which of the following places of India can have maximum temperature difference between the
day and night?
Ans 1. Thiruvananthapuram
2. Port Blair
3. Jaisalmer
4. Kanyakumari

Q.17 Mohenjodaro site of Harappan civilisation is situated on the bank of which river?
Ans 1. Jhelum river
2. Beas river
3. Indus river
4. Gharghara river

Q.18 The Vijayanagar kingdom was established by ________ in 1336.

Ans 1. Krishnadevaraya
2. Harihara and Bukka
3. Venkata II
4. Devaraya II

Q.19 When was the National Interim Government of India formed, under Jawaharlal Nehru?
Ans 1. 2 September 1945
2. 20 September 1946
3. 2 September 1947
4. 2 September 1946

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 Q.20 What is the name of the large supercontinent that existed 200 million years ago when all the
continents were together?
Ans 1. Pangea
2. Asia
3. America
4. India

Q.21 Europeans entered India with a mindset of trading only. This streak was initiated by which of the
following European nations?
Ans 1. British
2. Portuguese
3. French
4. Dutch

Q.22 The Lucknow Pact was signed in ______ by Congress and the Muslim League to work in alliance
for representative government.
Ans 1. 1918
2. 1916
3. 1914
4. 1920

Q.23 Mango showers are:

Ans 1. jet streams
2. cyclones
3. pre-monsoon showers
4. storms

Q.24 Gopika Varma has won the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2019 in which of the following dance
forms?
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam
2. Kuchipudi
3. Kathak
4. Mohiniyattam

Q.25 What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound depicted in the figure?

Ans 1. 1-Methyl-1-Propylcyclohexane
2. 1-Methyl-2-Propylcyclohexane
3. 1-Methyl-3-Propylcyclohexane
4. 1-Methyl-4-Propylcyclohexane

Q.26 How big are red blood cells in diameter?

Ans 1. 40.0 µm
2. 2.0 µm
3. 4.0 µm
4. 7.5 µm

Q.27 What was the rural literacy rate in India, according to the 2011 Census?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

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 Q.28 Who explained the structure of protein?
Ans 1. Pauling and Corey
2. Johnson and Cristae
3. Emil Fischer
4. RF Rose

Q.29 Mohiniyattam belongs to which of the following states?

Ans 1. Jharkhand
2. Karnataka
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Kerala

Q.30 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides that the Governor appoints the
Chief Minister and later, the Chief Minister recommends the appointment of ministers to the
Governor?
Ans 1. Article 163
2. Article 164
3. Article 165
4. Article 167

Q.31 Who among the following Mauryan kings turned to Buddhism and its tenet of non-violence after
the Kalinga war?
Ans 1. Chandragupta Maurya
2. Ashoka
3. Dasharatha
4. Bindusara

Q.32 Which of the following is NOT an example of manufacturing activity?

Ans 1. Paper made from wood
2. Mutual fund product made by combing debt and equity funds
3. Yarn made from cotton
4. Sugar made from sugarcane

Q.33 Which of the following is the autobiography of the first Indian President Dr. Rajendra Prasad?
Ans 1. My Country My Life
2. Atmavrittanta
3. A Shot at History
4. Atmakatha

Q.34 What is the name of the geostationary satellite launched by ISRO in 1983 that provides high power
TV broadcasting and telecommunications national coverage transponders?
Ans 1. GSAT-7
2. RISAT-1
3. Insat-1B
4. Bhaskara-I

Q.35 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to restrict or
abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of the armed forces, para-military forces, police
forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces?
Ans 1. Article 31
2. Article 35
3. Article 37
4. Article 33

Q.36 The Wadali Brothers are _________ singers.

Ans 1. Bhatiali
2. Pandavani
3. Sufi
4. Lavani

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 Q.37 Who became the first Indian to win the prestigious Zurich Diamond League Final 2022 in
Switzerland?
Ans 1. Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa
2. PV Sindhu
3. Mary Kom
4. Neeraj Chopra

Q.38 What is most important health benefits of Vitamin D?

Ans 1. Strengthening of bones and muscles
2. Elevation of heartbeat
3. Reducing the blood pressure
4. Rapid growth after teenage years

Q.39 Which of the following sports does NOT have its apex national governing body headquartered in
New Delhi?
Ans 1. Badminton Association of India
2. Athletes Federation of India
3. Hockey India
4. Volleyball Federation of India

Q.40 Which of the following is an autobiography of a Bengali illiterate woman who secretly acquired
literacy skills to read sacred texts in an age when girls and women were denied education and
deemed fit only for household chores?
Ans 1. Ente Katha by Kamala Das
2. Jina Amucha by Baby Kamble
3. Amar Jiban by Rassundari Devi
4. Smritichitre by Lakshmibai Tilak

Q.41 Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for equal opportunity for all citizens in the matter
of employment under the state?
Ans 1. Article 15
2. Article 16
3. Article 18
4. Article 17

Q.42 Rongker festival is celebrated by which of the following tribes?

Ans 1. Bhil
2. Ao
3. Karbi
4. Gond

Q.43 Which of the following taxes is proportional in nature?

Ans 1. Income Tax
2. Corporation Tax
3. Capital Gains Tax
4. Goods and Services Tax

Q.44 Which element of the boron family has a high boiling point, making it ideal for recording
temperatures that would vaporise a thermometer?
Ans 1. Gallium
2. Thallium
3. Indium
4. Aluminium

Q.45 Which among the following is INCORRECT about the salient features of the 73rd Amendment Act?
Ans 1. The Act has added the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.
2. It contains 29 functional items of the Panchayats and deals with Article 243 to 243(O).
3. The Act gives a Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
4. The Act corresponds to Part III of the Constitution of India.

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 Q.46 How many medal(s) did India win in the World Athletics Championship 2022?
Ans 1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1

Q.47 During one of the Five-Year Plans which of the following politicians gave the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’?
Ans 1. Gaini Zail Singh
2. Morarji Desai
3. Indira Gandhi
4. Charan Singh

Q.48 Which of the following government departments is associated with infrastructure development in
India?
Ans 1. Department of Energy Affairs
2. Department of Economic Affairs
3. Division of Economic Agenda
4. Division of Electricity Agenda

Q.49 Haripriya Namboodiri is an exponent of which Indian classical dance form?

Ans 1. Kuchipudi
2. Kathakali
3. Odissi
4. Bharatanatyam

Q.50 Which Rajput princess belonged to the Bhakti tradition of Medieval India, whose songs were
devoted to Lord Krishna?
Ans 1. Muddupalani
2. Mirabai
3. Akka Mahadevi
4. Lal Ded

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 The price of a land passing through three hands rises on the whole by 65%. The first and second
sellers earned 20%and 25%profit, respectively. Find the profit percentage earned by the third
seller.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 The area of a rectangular field is 480 m2. If the length is 20%more than the breadth, then the
length of the rectangular field is:
Ans 1. 24 m
2. 20 m
3. 30 m
4. 27 m

Q.3 Ramesh borrowed ₹15,000 at a certain rate of simple interest from a bank. He repaid (the
principal but not interest) ₹6,000 after 5 years, and after 5 more years he paid ₹18,600 and settled
his account. Find the rate of simple interest per annum.
Ans 1. 8%
2. 10%
3. 12%
4. 6%

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 Q.4 The HCF of 3888 and 3969 is:
Ans 1. 81
2. 73
3. 71
4. 83

Q.5

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.6 Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.
The pie-chart shows the sale of different fruits in a shop in a day.

If a total of 1200 kg of fruits were sold in a day, calculate the amount of bananas sold (in kg).
Ans 1. 260
2. 360
3. 290
4. 330

Q.7 The time taken to travel the same distance by three cars is in the ratio of 12:15:10. What is the
ratio of the speeds of the three cars?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.8 The price of a stock increased by 30%in the first year and decreased by 20%in the second year. If
an investor bought 100 shares of the stock for ₹1,000, then what is the final value of the
investment after 2 years?
Ans 1. ₹1,040
2. ₹1,400
3. ₹1,020
4. ₹960

Q.9 A person has three iron bars whose lengths are 20, 30 and 40 metres, respectively. He wants to
cut pieces of the same length from each of the three bars. What is the least number of total
pieces if he cuts without any wastage?
Ans 1. 11
2. 10
3. 8
4. 9

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 Q.10 The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 1105 and 5. If the LCM is 17 times the first number, then
find the two numbers.
Ans 1. 65 and 75
2. 55 and 85
3. 60 and 80
4. 65 and 85

Q.11 Which is the smallest natural number that is exactly divisible by each of 96, 108 and 144?
Ans 1. 864
2. 1296
3. 2592
4. 1728

Q.12 Peter invested a certain sum of money in a scheme paying 10%simple interest per annum, while
Rachel invested half of the sum that Peter invested in a scheme paying 10%interest per annum
compounded annually. Also, while Peter invested for 2 years, Rachel invested for 3 years. If the
difference in the interest earned by Peter and Rachel was ₹897, what was the sum that Rachel
had invested?
Ans 1. ₹13,100
2. ₹12,900
3. ₹13,000
4. ₹12,960

Q.13 The following pie chart shows the number of students who failed in different subjects in an
examination. Examine the chart and answer the following question. The total number of students
who have failed is 350.

The number of students failed in mathematics is less than the number of students failed in all
other subjects by:
Ans 1. 161
2. 256
3. 95
4. 190

Q.14 Let ABC, PQR be two congruent triangles such that ∠ A = ∠ P = 90 °. If BC = 17 cm, PR = 8 cm, find
AB (in cm).
Ans 1. 15
2. 9
3. 14
4. 12

Q.15 In a ΔPQR,∠ P:∠ Q:∠ R=3∶4∶8. The shortest side and the longest side of the triangle, respectively,
are:
Ans 1. PQ and PR
2. QR and PQ
3. QR and PR
4. PQ and QR

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 Q.16 If the diameter of a sphere is reduced to its half, then the volume would be:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 The LCM of two numbers is 660 and their HCF is 5. If one of the numbers is 55, find the other.
Ans 1. 12
2. 110
3. 275
4. 60

Q.18 If a shopkeeper allows a discount of 10%to his customers and still gains 30%, then the marked
price of an article which costs ₹450 is:
Ans 1. ₹700
2. ₹500
3. ₹650
4. ₹750

Q.19 A car, during its entire journey of 5 hours, travels the first 45 minutes at a certain speed, the next
75 minutes at a speed of 85 km/h, and the last 3 hours at a speed of 70 km/h. During its entire
journey, the average speed of the car is found to be 73 km/h. What is the speed (in km/h) of the
car during the first 45 minutes?
Ans 1. 62
2. 72
3. 68
4. 65

Q.20 Simplify the given expression.

Ans 1. 4.508
2. 2.508
3. 3.156
4. 2.146

Q.21 Travelling a distance of 1000 km, a train slowed down due to repairs of the tracks. Its average
speed for the trip reduced by 75 km/h and the time of travel increased by 3 hours. The original
duration of the travel is:
Ans 1. 5 hours
2. 5.5 hours
3. 6.5 hours

4. 6 hours

Q.22

Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

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 Q.23 The table below shows the production of jute fabric (in lakh metre) by two Companies P and Q
during 2001 to 2005.

In which year/years, did Company Q produce more fabric than Company P?

Ans 1. 2002, 2005

2. 2002
3. 2005
4. 2003, 2005

Q.24 एक े न दो टे श न के बीच 540 km की द रू ी 240 िमनट म तय करती है यह 90 km/h की चाल से 5 घंटे म एक अ य टे श न तक

की या ा तय करती है ेन की औसत चाल (km/h म ) िकतनी है?
Ans 1. 112
2. 110
3. 120
4. 100

Q.25 Some medicine in liquid form is prepared in a hemispherical container of diameter 36 cm. When
the container is full of medicine, the medicine is transferred to small cylindrical bottles of
diameter 6 cm and height 6 cm. How many bottles are required to empty the container?
Ans 1. 75
2. 72
3. 70
4. 76

Q.26 A number is first decreased by 28%and then increased by 28%. The number so obtained is 784
less than the original number. Find the value of the original number.
Ans 1. 1500
2. 15000
3. 1000
4. 10000

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 Q.27 Study the pie-chart given below, and answer the question that follows.
Percentage-wise break up of students in terms of specialisation in BTech

What is the total number of students having specialisation in CSE, ECE and CIVIL?
Ans 1. 2480
2. 2840

3. 2860
4. 2680

Q.28 The price of almonds is increased by 10%. By what percentage should the consumption be
decreased so that the expenditure remains the same?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.29

Ans 1.

2.
3.

4.

Q.30 7 sin2 A+3 cos2 A=4, then find cotA:

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.31 In a circle centred at O, PQ is a tangent at P. Furthermore, AB is the chord of the circle and is
extended to Q. If PQ = 12 cm and QB = 8 cm, then the length of AB is equal to:
Ans 1. 20 cm
2. 4 cm
3. 10 cm
4. 8 cm

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 Q.32 The following table shows the number of mobile phones sold by four different stores in four
different years.

Find the difference between the number of mobile phones sold by store Q in 2013 and store S in
2015.

Ans 1. 8
2. 12
3. 7
4. 10

Q.33

Ans 1. 920
2. 740
3. 680
4. 560

Q.34 Find the area of a triangle whose length of two sides are 4 cm and 5 cm and the angle between
them is 45°.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.35

Ans 1. 27.36%
2. 18.25%
3. 29.65%
4. 22.35%

Q.36 What is the difference between a single discount of 35%on ₹700 and two successive discounts
of 18%and 12%on the same amount (correct to two places of decimals)?
Ans 1. ₹49.80
2. ₹52.10
3. ₹51.20
4. ₹50.12

Q.37 The fourth proportional to 0.3, 0.8 and 0.108 is:

Ans 1. 0.482
2. 0.288
3. 0.124
4. 0.144

Q.38

Ans 1. 2600
2. 2400
3. 2000
4. 2200

Q.39 Two trains of lengths 200 m and 250 m are running on parallel rail tracks at speeds of 68 km/h
and 50 km/h, respectively. In how much time (in seconds) will they cross each other if they are
running in the same direction?
Ans 1. 90
2. 75
3. 80
4. 85

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 Q.40 If sec A - tan A = p, then find the value of sec ⁡ A.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.41 Tom can do a piece of work in 7 days, whereas Jay can do the same work in 14 days. How long
will they take to finish the work if both work together?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.42 2(sin 1° × sec 89° ) + 3 (cos 11° × cosec 79°) + 5 (tan 21° × tan 69°) = ?
Ans 1. 12
2. 11
3. 20
4. 10

Q.43 एक िव े ता ने एक मे ज के य मू य म 35%लाभ जोड़ने के बाद उसका िव य मू य ₹5,670 अ ंि कत िकया चूिँ क इस मू य तर पर

िब ी ब त कम थी , इस लए उसने मे ज को 12%लाभ पर बे च ने का फै सला िकया नया िव य मू य (₹म ) ात कीिजए
Ans 1. 4,810
2. 4,750
3. 4,704
4. 4,608

Q.44 Akshita and Raina are typing a book, but have only one laptop to work upon. They decided that
they will work on alternate basis such that Akshita works for the first day, Raina works for the
second day, Akshita for the third day and so on. Akshita alone can finish the typing work in 16
days, while Raina will take 24 days if she works alone on the entire book. How many days will they
take to finish the typing work if they work on alternate basis?
Ans 1. 19

2. 17
3. 18
4. 15

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 Q.45

Ans 1. 33.33%
2. 55%
3. 66.66%
4. 50%

Q.46 Find the HCF of 240, 280 and 560.

Ans 1. 10
2. 40
3. 30
4. 20

Q.47 The upstream speed of a boat is 8 km/h and the downstream is 15 km/h. What is the speed of the
boat in still water and the speed of the stream (in km/h), respectively?
Ans 1. 3.5 and 11.5
2. 11.5 and 3.5
3. 3 and 11
4. 11 and 3

Q.48 In an office, 75 employees can finish a project in 60 days. After few days, 15 employees left the
job and the project was completed in 65 days. After how many days did the 15 employees leave?
Ans 1. 30
2. 45
3. 50
4. 40

Q.49

Ans 1.

2.
3.
4.

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 Q.50

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
There was no other book / in the English language / which is as interesting as this one.
Ans 1. No error
2. in the English language
3. which is as interesting as this one
4. There was no other book

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Transparent
Ans 1. Linger
2. Opaque
3. Oppress
4. Crossover

Q.3 Identify from the given options the word most similar in meaning to the underlined word according
to its meaning in the following sentence.
He is a person who holds old fashioned opinions.
Ans 1. obsolete
2. senior citizen
3. ancient
4. antique

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The office management was in dire straits after the financial crash.
Ans 1. To walk on already trodden paths
2. To be extremely happy
3. Being direct or fair
4. In a very bad situation

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

Ram was abandoned by his parents at a very early age.
Ans 1. Loved
2. Disgraced
3. Hated
4. Left

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 Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Part and parcel
Ans 1. Basic or essential element
2. Passing blame to someone else
3. A payment system for parcels
4. Agreement with someone

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Aggravate
Ans 1. Annoy
2. Enhance
3. Satisfy
4. Mitigate

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Apex
Ans 1. Pinnacle
2. Bottom
3. Watchful
4. Farthest

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Very attractive and easy to feel love for
Ans 1. Flamboyant
2. Adorable
3. Laudable
4. Mysterious

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
I have never / come to / such a kind person / like my friend.
Ans 1. I have never
2. such a kind person
3. like my friend
4. come to

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
The university has putting off / the semester examination / for the second time now / due to
technical issues.
Ans 1. due to technical issues
2. the semester examination
3. The university has putting off
4. for the second time now

Q.12 Select the correct option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no
substitution is required, select ‘No substitution’.
Her smile is similar to her mother.
Ans 1. the mother
2. No substitution
3. her mother’s
4. mother

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 Q.13 Select the most appropriate idiom to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
My final round of Spell Bee Competition is coming up and to win this event, I need to study hard
from today.
Ans 1. pour my heart out
2. burn the books
3. cut to the chase
4. hit the books

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
To have a strong emotional effect on.
Ans 1. To overwhelm
2. To forfeit
3. To smother
4. To yield

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Lasting for a very short time
Ans 1. Ephemeral
2. Chronology
3. Blasphemy
4. Eternal

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Abhor
Ans 1. Despise
2. Danger
3. Love
4. Occupy

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
Harry is the one sitting on the corner.
Ans 1. upon
2. onto
3. in
4. No substitution required

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Inquisitive
Ans 1. Careful
2. Dull
3. Indolent
4. Uninterested

Q.19 Choose the idiom that can best substitute the underlined part of the given sentence.
Shelley ignored her father’s wish of studying arts and instead took admission in commerce.
Ans 1. Blew over
2. Bid defiance to
3. Big fish
4. Beyond the pale

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 Q.20 Select the most appropriate idiom for the given situation.
He started with an online company and became a millionaire. Then, he sold it and invested in the
share market and earned more money. Now, he has invested in the transportation industry and is
generating huge wealth. What does he have?
Ans 1. Midas touch
2. As genuine as a three-dollar bill
3. Sticky fingers
4. Rule of thumb

Q.21 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined words.
He was not willing to attend the technical session of the conference.
Ans 1. comprehensive
2. curious
3. dejecting
4. reluctant

Q.22 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

There are others waiting to grab an opportunity; if you don’t act fast, you are going to ________.
Ans 1. miss the boat
2. be in the same boat
3. a full boat
4. push the boat out

Q.23 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Bombastic
Ans 1. Essential
2. Sarcastic
3. Plain
4. Rhythmic

Q.24 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

What we need is skilled and energetic planning and elbow grease.
Ans 1. Hard work that one puts into doing something
2. Hard work that one puts into removing grease
3. The grease that is earned through labour
4. Hard work that one puts into cleaning one’s elbow

Q.25 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A snowball effect
Ans 1. Cold and uncomfortable
2. Slow movement
3. Trick someone completely
4. An accelerating growth of magnitude

Q.26 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Do you believe that you have a possibility of getting that job?
Ans 1. shoot the breeze
2. snow job
3. spill the beans
4. stand a chance

Q.27 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
The Board of Film Analysts vituperated the novice Indonesian film-maker and cancelled its
nomination for the ‘Golden Globe Award’.
Ans 1. recognised and praised the talent of
2. lamented the untimely death of
3. dealt in a delicate and polite manner
4. censured with harsh and abusive language

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 Q.28 Select the correct spelling for the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.
The Eustachian tube and vestubular complex in the middle and inner ear, respectively, have an
important role to play.
Ans 1. midle
2. importent
3. respictevely
4. vestibular

Q.29 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given
sentence.
Kiran’s teacher was doubtful on her success.
Ans 1. doubtful off
2. doubtful in
3. doubtful of
4. doubtful beyond

Q.30 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Embezzlement
2. Puzzled
3. Councel
4. Nasal

Q.31 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No
error’ as your answer.
Anant was telling a story about his most recent exploits when a tree branch break the living room
window.
Ans 1. Anant was telling a story
2. when a tree branch break the living room window
3. about his most recent exploits
4. No error

Q.32 Some words in the following sentence have been underlined and given as options. Select the
option that contains a spelling error.
Roshni does a fabulouous job at her company and has been offered a promotion.
Ans 1. fabulouous
2. offered
3. promotion
4. company

Q.33 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

He uses one of the finest ingredients in his cooking.
Ans 1. Culinary
2. Preparations
3. Mixtures
4. Components

Q.34 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Agreeable
2. Ocassion
3. Formulae
4. Waitress

Q.35 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
An animal or a person that eats all types of food, especially plants and meat
Ans 1. Omnivore
2. Vegetarian
3. Carnivore
4. Herbivore

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 Q.36 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Get your act together
Ans 1. To ruin one’s plans
2. To get the conversation going
3. To understand something complicated
4. To organise yourself so that you can do something properly

Q.37 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Robe
Ans 1. Cloak
2. Mishap
3. Success
4. Robbery

Q.38 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A disease prevalent in a community or a specific region at a specific time, affecting a large area.
Ans 1. Pandemic
2. Epidemic
3. Endemic
4. Eradicate

Q.39 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
Mr. Khanna and family / have visit / Manali during / the summer vacation.
Ans 1. have visit
2. Mr. Khanna and family
3. Manali during
4. the summer vacation.

Q.40 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the underlined words in the following sentence.
Communities must build their resileince, including adopting appropriate technologies while
making the most of traditional knowledge, and diversifying their livelihoods to cope with current
and future climate stress.
Ans 1. diversifying
2. appropriate
3. livelihoods
4. resileince

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Among the largest species of cats in the world, tigers are powerful hunters with (1)________ teeth,
strong jaws and agile bodies. They range across Asia from Russia all the way to Sumatra and
mainland Southeast Asia. Researchers still have much to learn (2) ________ these beautiful,
endangered (3) ________.
There is currently one recognized species of tiger, Panthera tigris. Scientists have further (4)
________ the tiger into nine subspecies: the extinct Bali, Caspian and Javan subspecies, and the
living Malayan, Sumatran, South China, Indochinese, Bengal and Amur (or Siberian) subspecies. Of
these six subspecies, AZA-accredited zoos currently manage three: Amur, Malayan, and Sumatran.
The Smithsonian's National Zoo and Conservation Biology Institute is home to Sumatran and Amur
tigers; Sumatran tigers are (5) ________ as Critically Endangered on the International Union for
Conservation of Nature's Red List, and Amur tigers have been classified as Endangered.
SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill blank number 1.
Ans 1. Blunt
2. Sharp
3. Small
4. Long

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Among the largest species of cats in the world, tigers are powerful hunters with (1)________ teeth,
strong jaws and agile bodies. They range across Asia from Russia all the way to Sumatra and
mainland Southeast Asia. Researchers still have much to learn (2) ________ these beautiful,
endangered (3) ________.
There is currently one recognized species of tiger, Panthera tigris. Scientists have further (4)
________ the tiger into nine subspecies: the extinct Bali, Caspian and Javan subspecies, and the
living Malayan, Sumatran, South China, Indochinese, Bengal and Amur (or Siberian) subspecies. Of
these six subspecies, AZA-accredited zoos currently manage three: Amur, Malayan, and Sumatran.
The Smithsonian's National Zoo and Conservation Biology Institute is home to Sumatran and Amur
tigers; Sumatran tigers are (5) ________ as Critically Endangered on the International Union for
Conservation of Nature's Red List, and Amur tigers have been classified as Endangered.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill blank number 2.
Ans 1. Along
2. About
3. With
4. Into

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Among the largest species of cats in the world, tigers are powerful hunters with (1)________ teeth,
strong jaws and agile bodies. They range across Asia from Russia all the way to Sumatra and
mainland Southeast Asia. Researchers still have much to learn (2) ________ these beautiful,
endangered (3) ________.
There is currently one recognized species of tiger, Panthera tigris. Scientists have further (4)
________ the tiger into nine subspecies: the extinct Bali, Caspian and Javan subspecies, and the
living Malayan, Sumatran, South China, Indochinese, Bengal and Amur (or Siberian) subspecies. Of
these six subspecies, AZA-accredited zoos currently manage three: Amur, Malayan, and Sumatran.
The Smithsonian's National Zoo and Conservation Biology Institute is home to Sumatran and Amur
tigers; Sumatran tigers are (5) ________ as Critically Endangered on the International Union for
Conservation of Nature's Red List, and Amur tigers have been classified as Endangered.
SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill blank number 3.
Ans 1. Cats
2. Dogs
3. Rabbits
4. Elephants

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Among the largest species of cats in the world, tigers are powerful hunters with (1)________ teeth,
strong jaws and agile bodies. They range across Asia from Russia all the way to Sumatra and
mainland Southeast Asia. Researchers still have much to learn (2) ________ these beautiful,
endangered (3) ________.
There is currently one recognized species of tiger, Panthera tigris. Scientists have further (4)
________ the tiger into nine subspecies: the extinct Bali, Caspian and Javan subspecies, and the
living Malayan, Sumatran, South China, Indochinese, Bengal and Amur (or Siberian) subspecies. Of
these six subspecies, AZA-accredited zoos currently manage three: Amur, Malayan, and Sumatran.
The Smithsonian's National Zoo and Conservation Biology Institute is home to Sumatran and Amur
tigers; Sumatran tigers are (5) ________ as Critically Endangered on the International Union for
Conservation of Nature's Red List, and Amur tigers have been classified as Endangered.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill blank number 4.
Ans 1. Generalized
2. Declared
3. Classified
4. Restricted

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Among the largest species of cats in the world, tigers are powerful hunters with (1)________ teeth,
strong jaws and agile bodies. They range across Asia from Russia all the way to Sumatra and
mainland Southeast Asia. Researchers still have much to learn (2) ________ these beautiful,
endangered (3) ________.
There is currently one recognized species of tiger, Panthera tigris. Scientists have further (4)
________ the tiger into nine subspecies: the extinct Bali, Caspian and Javan subspecies, and the
living Malayan, Sumatran, South China, Indochinese, Bengal and Amur (or Siberian) subspecies. Of
these six subspecies, AZA-accredited zoos currently manage three: Amur, Malayan, and Sumatran.
The Smithsonian's National Zoo and Conservation Biology Institute is home to Sumatran and Amur
tigers; Sumatran tigers are (5) ________ as Critically Endangered on the International Union for
Conservation of Nature's Red List, and Amur tigers have been classified as Endangered.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill blank number 5.
Ans 1. Numerated
2. Listed
3. Detailed
4. Recorded

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
What if globally designed products could radically change how we work, produce and consume?
Several examples across continents show the way we are producing and consuming goods could be
improved by relying on globally shared digital resources, such as design, knowledge and software.
Imagine a prosthetic hand designed by geographically dispersed communities of scientists,
designers and enthusiasts in a collaborative manner via the web. All knowledge and software related
to the hand is shared globally as a digital commons.
People from all over the world who are connected online and have access to local manufacturing
machines (from 3D printing and CNC machines to low-tech crafts and tools) can, ideally with the help
of an expert, manufacture a customised hand. This is the case of the Open Bionics project, which
produces designs for robotic and bionic devices.
There are no patent costs to pay for. Less transportation of materials is needed, since a considerable
part of the manufacturing takes place locally; maintenance is easier, products are designed to last as
long as possible, and costs are thus much lower.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 Which of the following is NOT a globally shared digital resource?
Ans 1. Software
2. Knowledge
3. Design
4. Automobile

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
What if globally designed products could radically change how we work, produce and consume?
Several examples across continents show the way we are producing and consuming goods could be
improved by relying on globally shared digital resources, such as design, knowledge and software.
Imagine a prosthetic hand designed by geographically dispersed communities of scientists,
designers and enthusiasts in a collaborative manner via the web. All knowledge and software related
to the hand is shared globally as a digital commons.
People from all over the world who are connected online and have access to local manufacturing
machines (from 3D printing and CNC machines to low-tech crafts and tools) can, ideally with the help
of an expert, manufacture a customised hand. This is the case of the Open Bionics project, which
produces designs for robotic and bionic devices.
There are no patent costs to pay for. Less transportation of materials is needed, since a considerable
part of the manufacturing takes place locally; maintenance is easier, products are designed to last as
long as possible, and costs are thus much lower.
SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 What is the tone of the author?
Ans 1. Speculative

2. Belligerent
3. Caustic
4. Acerbic

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
What if globally designed products could radically change how we work, produce and consume?
Several examples across continents show the way we are producing and consuming goods could be
improved by relying on globally shared digital resources, such as design, knowledge and software.
Imagine a prosthetic hand designed by geographically dispersed communities of scientists,
designers and enthusiasts in a collaborative manner via the web. All knowledge and software related
to the hand is shared globally as a digital commons.
People from all over the world who are connected online and have access to local manufacturing
machines (from 3D printing and CNC machines to low-tech crafts and tools) can, ideally with the help
of an expert, manufacture a customised hand. This is the case of the Open Bionics project, which
produces designs for robotic and bionic devices.
There are no patent costs to pay for. Less transportation of materials is needed, since a considerable
part of the manufacturing takes place locally; maintenance is easier, products are designed to last as
long as possible, and costs are thus much lower.
SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 Select the most suitable word from the passage which means ‘scattered’.
Ans 1. Customised
2. Dispersed
3. Collaborative
4. Shared

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
What if globally designed products could radically change how we work, produce and consume?
Several examples across continents show the way we are producing and consuming goods could be
improved by relying on globally shared digital resources, such as design, knowledge and software.
Imagine a prosthetic hand designed by geographically dispersed communities of scientists,
designers and enthusiasts in a collaborative manner via the web. All knowledge and software related
to the hand is shared globally as a digital commons.
People from all over the world who are connected online and have access to local manufacturing
machines (from 3D printing and CNC machines to low-tech crafts and tools) can, ideally with the help
of an expert, manufacture a customised hand. This is the case of the Open Bionics project, which
produces designs for robotic and bionic devices.
There are no patent costs to pay for. Less transportation of materials is needed, since a considerable
part of the manufacturing takes place locally; maintenance is easier, products are designed to last as
long as possible, and costs are thus much lower.
SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 Identify the most suitable title for the given passage.
Ans 1. Knowledge Explosion
2. Shared Information
3. Customised Hand
4. Digital Globalisation

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
What if globally designed products could radically change how we work, produce and consume?
Several examples across continents show the way we are producing and consuming goods could be
improved by relying on globally shared digital resources, such as design, knowledge and software.
Imagine a prosthetic hand designed by geographically dispersed communities of scientists,
designers and enthusiasts in a collaborative manner via the web. All knowledge and software related
to the hand is shared globally as a digital commons.
People from all over the world who are connected online and have access to local manufacturing
machines (from 3D printing and CNC machines to low-tech crafts and tools) can, ideally with the help
of an expert, manufacture a customised hand. This is the case of the Open Bionics project, which
produces designs for robotic and bionic devices.
There are no patent costs to pay for. Less transportation of materials is needed, since a considerable
part of the manufacturing takes place locally; maintenance is easier, products are designed to last as
long as possible, and costs are thus much lower.
SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 What is the term used in the passage for globally shared digital things?
Ans 1. Digital commons
2. Digital resources
3. Digital information
4. Digital world

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 Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I
Exam Date 04/10/2023
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of ‘?’ in the
following equation?
121 × 11 ÷ 28 - 3 + 46 = ?
Ans 1. 71
2. 49
3. 65
4. 43

Q.2 If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
14 – 7 ÷ 42 × 6 + 33 = ?
Ans 1. 56
2. 68
3. 72
4. 84

Q.3 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
Ans 1. VRWU
2. LHMK
3. NJPM
4. EAFD

Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(1, 16 , 3)
(21, 529, 2)
Ans 1. (11, 429, 2)
2. (7, 364, 12)
3. (8, 100, 2)
4. (5, 189, 8)

Q.5 Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the blanks
below, will complete the letter series.

P _ RR_ P Q_ _ S _ QR_ S P _ RRS

Ans 1. Q S R R P R Q
2. R Q P Q R S Q
3. S Q R R Q P R
4. S Q Q R R P Q

Q.6 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

38, 57, 40, 59, 42, ?

Ans 1. 61
2. 59
3. 60
4. 62

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 Q.7 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of ‘?’ in the
following equation?
83 ÷ 12 - 65 × 13 + 47 = ?
Ans 1. 108
2. 79
3. 92
4. 96

Q.9

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘ACTION’ is written as ‘TXANLI’ and 'DEBATE' is written as 'BVDEGA'.
How will ‘CHANGE’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. HRPEIU
2. BJDLER
3. ASCETN
4. ATHFN

Q.11 In a certain code language, “GBTA” is coded as “24” and “ZWQVI” is coded as “30”. How will
“DLUCPR” be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 30
2. 28
3. 36
4. 24

Q.12 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Stoop
2. Stoke
3. Storage
4. Stock
5. Storey
6. Stomach
Ans 1. 4, 2, 6, 3, 1, 5
2. 2, 4, 6, 3, 1, 5
3. 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5
4. 4, 2, 6, 1, 3, 5

Q.13 In a certain code language, 'HORSE' is coded as 75 and 'MOVE' is coded as 63. How will 'RACE' be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. 35
2. 32
3. 48
4. 46

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 Q.14 Select a suitable figure from the answer figures which would replace the question mark (?).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 If '+' means '–' , '–' means 'x' , 'x' means '÷' and '÷' means '+', then what will come in place of (?) in
the given equation?
30 + 5 – 2 x 10 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 60
2. 80
3. 50
4. 31

Q.16 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
3, 5, 7, 12, 37, 69, 357, ?
Ans 1. 656
2. 645
3. 665
4. 654

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 Q.17

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.18 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
261, 232, 203, ?, 145, 116
Ans 1. 186
2. 188
3. 192
4. 174

Q.19

Ans 1. Only 1, 2 and 3

2. All 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Only 2 and 3
4. Only 2, 3 and 4

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 Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘HUSTLE’ is written as ‘SFHEOT’ and 'BRIGHT' is written as 'IIBTSG'.
How will ‘TUNNEL’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. NFTLVN
2. NRTPEN
3. NGTYPN
4. RNLPED

Q.21 Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to
the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.
2 : 26 :: ? : 152 :: 27 : 1026
Ans 1. 13
2. 8
3. 6
4. 24

Q.22 उस िवक प का चयन कर , जो तीसरे श द से उसी कार संबं ि धत है, िजस कार द सू रा श द पहले श द से संबं ि धत है (श द को अथपूण
श द के प म माना जाना चािहए , और इनको श द म अ र की सं या / ंज न / वर की सं या के आधार पर एक -द सू रे से संबं ि धत
नह िकया जाना चािहए )
हेल (Whale) : तनपायी (Mammal) :: मगरम छ (Crocodile) : ?
Ans 1. सम ु (Sea)
2. कृं तक (Rodent)
3. उभयचर (Amphibian)
4. सरीसृप (Reptile)

Q.23 Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to
the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.
5 : 24 :: ? : 143 :: 4 : 15
Ans 1. 12
2. 7
3. 8
4. 11

Q.24

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 If ‘+’ means ‘divided by’, ‘ ̶ ’ means ‘added to’, ‘×’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘÷’ means
‘multiplied by’, then what will be the value of the following expression?
[{(23 × 15) - (2 ÷ 2)} + (2 - 4)] ÷ 2
Ans 1. 8
2. 4
3. 6
4. 2

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 Q.26 In a certain code language, 'COACH' is coded as XAOHC and 'BERTH' is coded as WREHT. How will
'TRAIN' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. PARNI
2. ONIAR
3. OARNI
4. PARIN

Q.27

Ans 1. PJMK
2. PIMK
3. PMJK
4. PMIK

Q.28 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(13, 18, 21)
(11, 25, 8)
Ans 1. (4, 12, 24)
2. (8, 16, 23)
3. (14, 33, 9)
4. (6, 10, 12)

Q.29 Sona goes to a park every day for walking. One morning, she started walking from her home and
walked 40 km towards the north. Then she turned to the right and walked 60 km. Again, she
turned right and walked 40 km. Lastly, she took a left turn and walked 60 km. In which direction
and how far is she from her home?
Ans 1. East, 90 km
2. West, 60 km
3. East, 120 km
4. West, 120 km

Q.30 A @ B means ‘A is the husband of B’

A & B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’
If L @ M & K @ J # P, then how is J related to L?
Ans 1. Son
2. Daughter’s husband
3. Son’s wife
4. Mother

Q.31

Ans 1. 3
2. 6
3. 1
4. 5

Q.32 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the
blanks below, will complete the letter series.
P _ _ ON_ L B_ NP L _ O_ P L _ _ N
Ans 1. L B P B O N B O
2. L B P O B N B O
3. L B P O B B N O
4. L P B O B N N O

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 Q.33 Three Statements are given followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All plains are mountains.
No sea is a mountain.
Some valleys are seas.
Conclusions:
I. Some valleys are plains.
II. No valley is a mountain.
III. No sea is a plain.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.
2. Only conclusion III follows.
3. Both conclusions I and II follow.
4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.34 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
112, 129, 150, 175, 204, ?
Ans 1. 237
2. 240
3. 245
4. 234

Q.35

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.36 उस िवक प का चयन कीिजए , जो तीसरे श द से उसी कार संबं ि धत है, िजस कार द सू रा श द पहले श द से संबं ि धत है (श द को
अथपूण श द के प म माना जाना चािहए , और वह श द म अ र की सं या / ंज न / वर की सं या के आधार पर एक -द सू रे से
संबं ि धत नह होना चािहए )
आह (Alas) : शोक (woe) :: संदु रता (Beauty) : ?
Ans 1. अस ु पता (Inelegance)
2. आकषण (Charm)
3. अस यता (Crudeness)
4. िमटाना (Expunge)

Q.37 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. Some rooms are cages.
II. Some cages are enclosures.
III. All enclosures are houses.
Conclusions:
I. Some houses are cages.
II. All rooms are enclosures.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. Both conclusions I and II follow
4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.38 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Puritan
2.Purpose
3.Purge
4.Purgatory
5.Purify
Ans 1. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
2. 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
3. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
4. 4, 5, 3, 1, 2

Q.39

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.40 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
31 ÷ 48 × 7 – 322 + 23 = 353
Ans 1. × and +
2. – and ×
3. ÷ and –
4. ÷ and +

Q.41 Six students Shree, Dayal, Sharda, Tripti, Shrishti and Manju are sitting around a circular table
facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Shree is an immediate neighbour of both
Dayal and Tripti. Manju is sitting second to the right of Dayal. Shrishti is an immediate neighbour of
both Manju and Tripti.
Who is an immediate neighbour of Sharda?
Ans 1. Shrishti
2. Tripti
3. Dayal
4. Shree

Q.42

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.43 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following equation?
16 B 5 A 112 D 8 C 32 = ?
Ans 1. 65
2. 72
3. 57
4. 62

Q.44 Seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. C is an
immediate neighbour of both E and F. D is sitting third to the left of C and to the immediate right of
A. A is sitting second to the right of E. B is an immediate neighbour of both E and A. G is to the
immediate left of F. Who is the immediate neigbour of both C and G?
Ans 1. A
2. D
3. E
4. F

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 Q.45 Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one
that is different.
Ans 1. JEAX
2. DYUR
3. WDXC
4. QLHE

Q.46 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All kids are small.
Some funny are kids.
Conclusions:
I) Some funny are small.
II) Some small are kids.
Ans 1. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
2. Both Conclusions I and II follow.
3. Only Conclusion II follows.
4. Only Conclusion I follows

Q.47 X, from his house, ran 200 steps towards the east and then ran 30 steps after turning to his right
to reach a monastery. He then ran 30 steps towards his right and reached a point W. He then
turned again towards his right and ran 30 steps. From there, turning towards his right he ran 130
steps. He then turned towards his left and ran 10 steps to reach a bakery. In which direction is the
bakery with respect to X’s house?
Ans 1. North
2. East
3. South-East
4. North-East

Q.48 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Spoon, Soup, Rice
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.49 ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’

‘P ? Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q ‘
‘P = Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q ‘
If ‘D $ G * U ? F’, how is G related to F?
Ans 1. Father's sister
2. Daughter
3. Brother
4. Mother's sister

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 Q.50 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following states will host 2023 Men’s Hockey World Cup?
Ans 1. Chhattisgarh
2. Jharkhand
3. Odisha
4. Maharashtra

Q.2 Which of the following is NOT a correct match?

Ans 1. Voltage - Volts
2. Capacitance - Dyne
3. Conductance - Siemens
4. Resistance - Ohm

Q.3 Which of the following is a primary arylamine in which an amino functional group is substituted
for one of the benzene hydrogens?
Ans 1. Aniline
2. Toluidine
3. Pyridine
4. Quinoline

Q.4 The Bishnu Rabha Award 2019 went to the noted ________ dance exponent Kumari Laitjonam
Ebampisok Devi.
Ans 1. Kathakali
2. Odissi
3. Manipuri
4. Kuchipudi

Q.5 Which Article of the Constitution of India prohibits forced labour?

Ans 1. Article 23
2. Article 22
3. Article 21
4. Article 20

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 Q.6 Padma Bhushan awardee Kumudini Lakhia is renowned for which of the following dance forms?
Ans 1. Kathak
2. Kuchipudi
3. Odissi
4. Bharatanatyam

Q.7 Why do pickles last longer?

Ans 1. Only beneficial bacteria can grow in the pickle.
2. The water content of the pickle protect the pickle from spoilage.
3. Pickle is prepared in a vacuum so that no harmful bacteria can grow on it.
4. Bacterial and fungal cells get plasmolysed in high salt concentration of pickle.

Q.8 How many cities are covered under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(AMRUT) scheme?
Ans 1. 500
2. 400
3. 300
4. 200

Q.9 Chapchar Kut festival is predominantly celebrated in _________.

Ans 1. Mizoram
2. Meghalaya
3. Manipur
4. Nagaland

Q.10 Which scientist synthesised an organic compound, urea, from an inorganic compound,
ammonium cyanate?
Ans 1. Berthelot
2. F Wohler
3. Kolbe
4. Berzelius

Q.11 Which of the following CANNOT be grouped under physiographic divisions of India?
Ans 1. The Himalayas
2. Appalachian Mountains
3. The Indian Desert
4. The Island

Q.12 Who among the following was NOT associated with ‘Prarthana Sabha’?
Ans 1. Atmaram Pandurang
2. RG Bhandarkar
3. Motilal Nehru
4. Govind Ranade

Q.13 The age of the Earth is currently thought to be:

Ans 1. 5 billion years
2. 3.5 billion years
3. 4.5 billion years
4. 4 billion years

Q.14 Identify the group of major Jute producing states of India.

Ans 1. West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha
2. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh
3. Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat
4. Punjab, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh

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 Q.15 Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions for disqualification of legislator on
the ground of defection?
Ans 1. Schedule-VIII
2. Schedule-X
3. Schedule-XI
4. Schedule-IX

Q.16 Which trend is found about the distance between the galaxies?
Ans 1. Unpredictable
2. Decreasing
3. Increasing
4. Constant

Q.17 When was the first World Weightlifting Championship organized by the World Weightlifting
Federation in London, UK?
Ans 1. March 1891
2. March 1895
3. March 2000
4. March 1991

Q.18 When was the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) launched?
Ans 1. 2009
2. 2008
3. 2006
4. 2012

Q.19 What is the chemical formula for the aldehyde group?

Ans 1. –CHO
2. –COOH
3. –OH
4. –CH2O

Q.20 How many balls are there in an over in cricket?

Ans 1. 4
2. 6
3. 7
4. 5

Q.21 According to the 2011 Census, any person aged _______ and above and has the ability to read
and write is considered literate.
Ans 1. seven
2. ten
3. twelve
4. six

Q.22 The black soil of the Deccan Plateau lacks which of the following minerals?
Ans 1. Phosphorous
2. Lime
3. Potash
4. Iron

Q.23 Select the correct combination of the temple and the state in which it is located.
Ans 1. Jagannath Temple–West Bengal
2. Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga–Uttarakhand
3. Kamakhya Temple–Assam
4. Somnath Jyotirlinga Temple–Maharashtra

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 Q.24 In Which year did Ernst Haeckel introduced the term ‘ecology’ to describe the economies of living
forms?
Ans 1. 1884
2. 1887
3. 1888
4. 1866

Q.25 Who was the eldest of four sons of Babur?

Ans 1. Askari
2. Humayun
3. Kamran
4. Hindal

Q.26 Choose the INCORRECT statement out of the following.

Ans 1. There is increase in rainfall generally from east to west in the Northern Plains.
2. The annual precipitation in Meghalaya is over 400 cm.

3. Some parts like the Tamil Nadu’s coast gets a large portion of its rains during October and
November.
4. Most parts of the country receive rainfall from June to September.

Q.27 Who first observed ribosomes in the mid-1950s and described them as small particles in the
cytoplasm that were preferentially attached to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane?
Ans 1. George E Palade
2. Albert Kolliker
3. Carl Zeiss
4. Ernst Abbe

Q.28 When did the first Five-Year Plan end?

Ans 1. January 1956
2. December 1955
3. February 1956
4. March 1956

Q.29 The Landholder’s Society was founded to look after the interests of which class?
Ans 1. Traders
2. Farmers
3. Labour
4. Landlords

Q.30 Identify the pigment that gives blood its colour.

Ans 1. Ferritin
2. Chlorophyll
3. Haemoglobin
4. Xanthophyll

Q.31 Which Article of the Indian Constitution lays the condition that the President, once elected, shall
NOT be a member of the either House of Parliament or state legislature?
Ans 1. Article 79
2. Article 59
3. Article 62
4. Article 80

Q.32 Which of the following options are homogeneous mixtures?

Ans 1. Solution, colloid, milk, toothpaste, salt water, brass
2. Colloid, suspension, milk, toothpaste
3. Solution, salt water, brass
4. Solution, colloid, suspension, milk, toothpaste, salt water, brass

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 Q.33 Which state among the following started the Hornbill Festival to encourage interaction among the
tribes and to promote the cultural heritage of the state?
Ans 1. West Bengal
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Assam
4. Nagaland

Q.34 The agricultural land below the main canal water level forms the ________.
Ans 1. command area
2. lift system
3. warebandi
4. flow system

Q.35 Which Article of the Constitution clarifies that policies like 'reservation' is not a violation of right to
equality?
Ans 1. Article 21
2. Article 14 (1)
3. Article 16 (4)
4. Article 15 (2)

Q.36 In football, a kick is awarded to the opposition player when a player has committed a foul. What is
the kick called?
Ans 1. Bicycle kick
2. Goal kick
3. Wide kick
4. Free kick

Q.37 The liability to pay the tax and the actual burden of which of the following taxes lie on two different
persons?
Ans 1. Goods and Services Tax

2. Capital Gains Tax

3. Income Tax
4. Corporation Tax

Q.38 Who among the following was the successor of Muhammad-Bin Tughlaq to the throne?
Ans 1. Ghiyath-ud-din Tughlaq Shah II
2. Firuz Shah Tughlaq
3. Nais-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq
4. Abu Bakr Shah Tughlaq

Q.39 Kuchipudi originated in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Gujarat
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Kerala
4. Tamil Nadu

Q.40 As per Article 361 of the Constitution of India, who among the following shall NOT be answerable
to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office?
Ans 1. Chief Minister
2. Prime Minister
3. Governor
4. Secretary

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 Q.41 Consider the following statements regarding the Indo Greeks.
1. The most celebrated Indo-Greek ruler was Menander.
2. Menander has been identified with King Milinda mentioned in the famous Buddhist text
Milindapanho.
3. Milindapanho contains philosophical questions that Milinda asked Amrapali.
4. Impressed by the answers, King Milinda accepted Buddhism as his religion.
Which among the above statements are correct.
Ans 1. Only 1, 3 and 4
2. Only 1, 2 and 4
3. Only 1, 2 and 3
4. Only 3, 2 and 4

Q.42 Who was the teacher of the famous musician Tansen?

Ans 1. Surdas
2. Kalidas
3. Ravidas
4. Swami Haridas

Q.43 Which Manipuri dance expert founded Govindji Nartanalaya dance school for women in Imphal ?
Ans 1. Guru Bipin Singh
2. Phanjoubam Iboton Singh
3. Rajkumar Singhajit Singh
4. Guru Amubi

Q.44 Which of the following books has been written by the Booker Prize winner Kiran Desai?
Ans 1. A Fine Balance
2. Shantaram
3. The Year of Runaways
4. The Inheritance of Loss

Q.45 Under the Regulating Act of 1773, the King-in-Council created a Supreme Court in which of the
following places?
Ans 1. Delhi
2. Bombay
3. Madras
4. Calcutta

Q.46 Which of the following years was declared as the international year of micro credit by the UN?
Ans 1. 2002
2. 2004
3. 2005
4. 2008

Q.47 Which of the following rights was deleted from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment Act?
Ans 1. Right to freedom of religion
2. Right to freedom
3. Right to equality
4. Right to property

Q.48 Pandit Ram Narayan a famous instrumentalist, is known for playing which of the following
instruments?
Ans 1. Sarangi
2. Sarod
3. Ghatam
4. Veena

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 Q.49

Ans 1. a-i, b-ii, c-iii

2. a-i, b-iii, c-ii
3. a-iii, b-i, c-ii
4. a-ii, b-i, c-iii

Q.50 Which of the following is an autobiography of the international tennis player Andre Agassi?
Ans 1. Me
2. Open: An Autobiography
3. Becoming
4. Too Many Reasons to Live

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1. 2
2. 1
3. −1
4. 3

Q.2

Ans 1. 5∶8
2. 5∶9
3. 3∶8
4. 3∶7

Q.3 The area of a rhombus having one side measuring 17 cm and one diagonal measuring 16 cm is:
Ans 1. 240 cm2
2. 280 cm2
3. 180 cm2
4. 210 cm2

Q.4

Ans 1. 7.0
2. 5.5
3. 7.5
4. 15

Q.5 Simplify the given expression.

Ans 1. 6(1-x2)
2. 3(1-x2)
3. - 3(1-x2)
4. - 6(1-x2)

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 Q.6 The given pie chart shows the distribution of land under various food crops. The expenditure
invested on these food crops is ₹25,000 per annum. Study the pie chart carefully and answer the
question that follows.

The expenditure invested in Rice and Barley is what percentage (correct to 2 decimal places) of
the expenditure invested in Wheat and Bajra?
Ans 1. 206.55%
2. 260.55%
3. 206.66%
4. 260.66%

Q.7 If the base radius and the height of a right circular cone are increased by 10%, then the
percentage increase in the volume is:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.8 AB is a chord of a circle having radius 1.7 cm. If the distance of this chord AB from the centre of
the circle is 0.8 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of the chord AB?
Ans 1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1

Q.9 Find the mean proportion of x3y and xy3.

Ans 1. x2y2
2. x3y3
3. xy
4. x4y4

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 Q.10

Ans 1. 9,950
2. 9,780
3. 9,560
4. 9,880

Q.11 The average weight of A, B and C is 77 kg. If the average weight of A and B is 68 kg and that of B
and C is 83 kg, then the weight (in kg) of B is:
Ans 1. 71
2. 67
3. 73
4. 74

Q.12 Find the least value of 16cosec2θ + 25sin2θ.

Ans 1. 40
2. 35
3. 38
4. 42

Q.13 In an election between two candidates, the difference between the candidates who won and lost
was 2,500 votes. The candidate who won got 75%of the votes, and there were no invalid votes.
The total number of votes polled of the losing candidate was:
Ans 1. 1875
2. 5000
3. 1250
4. 3750

Q.14 Two pipes can fill a cistern in 12 hours and 16 hours, respectively. The pipes are opened
simultaneously and it is found that due to leakage at the bottom, it takes 90 minutes more to fill
the cistern. How much time will the leakage take to empty the completely filled tank?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 In a ΔPQR,∠ P=90°,∠ R=47° and PS⊥ QR. Find the value of ∠ QPS.
Ans 1. 43°
2. 47°
3. 40°
4. 45°

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 Q.16 Ramesh gives fifteen per cent additional discount along with a discount of 25%on the marked
price of a sofa set. If the selling price of the sofa set is ₹12,750, then find the marked price of the
sofa set.
Ans 1. ₹23,000
2. ₹20,000
3. ₹24,000
4. ₹22,000

Q.17 If the HCF of 45 and 55 is expressible in the form of 55 × 5 + 45m, then what is the value of m?
Ans 1. –5
2. 5
3. 6
4. –6

Q.18 By selling 42 m of cloth, Vijay gains the selling price of 7 m of cloth. Find the profit percentage.
Ans 1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 20%
4. 25%

Q.19 In an election between two candidates,30%of the electorate did not cast their votes. 20%of the
votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 64%of the valid votes and won by a
majority of 3136 votes. Find the number of voters enrolled in the voter list.
Ans 1. 30000
2. 24000
3. 25000
4. 20000

Q.20

Ans 1. 90
2. 50
3. 70
4. 30

Q.21 A vehicle is going at one-fourth of its usual speed and it takes an extra 45 minutes to reach its
destination. Its usual time to cover the same distance is:
Ans 1. 20 minutes
2. 30 minutes
3. 10 minutes
4. 15 minutes

Q.22 Find the least number which when divided by 4, 9, 12 and 15, leaves the remainder 3 in each case.
Ans 1. 180
2. 360
3. 193
4. 183

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 Q.23 What is the smallest perfect square number which is completely divisible by 4, 6, 9, 12 and 15?
Ans 1. 900
2. 961
3. 841
4. 784

Q.24 If perimeter of the circle is 13.2 cm, then the radius of the circle is ____.

Ans 1. 6.6 cm
2. 3.3 cm
3. 2.1 cm
4. 4.2 cm

Q.25 Sanjay and Rohan can complete a work in 8 days and 12 days, respectively. Starting with Sanjay,
they work on alternate days. In how many days will the work be completed?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of employees in five different organisations A, B, C, D and E in
different departments.

Which department has a minimum number of employees in each organisation?

Ans 1. Production
2. Legal
3. Accounts
4. Marketing

Q.27 In a triangle LMN, OP is a line segment drawn parallel to the side MN. OP intersects the sides LM
and LN at O and P, respectively. If LM = 15 cm, OM = 4 cm, and PN = 5 cm, then what is the length
(in cm) of the side LN?
Ans 1. 20.25
2. 22.75
3. 18.75
4. 16.25

Q.28 Determine the LCM of two numbers if their HCF is 12 and their ratio is 13 : 15.
Ans 1. 1780
2. 2340
3. 2450
4. 1890

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 Q.29 Two mixtures A and B have the following compositions:
Mixture A has copper and tin in a ratio of 1:2
Mixture B has copper and tin in a ratio of 1:3
If equal quantities of mixtures A and B are used for producing mixture C, then find the ratio of
copper and tin in mixture C.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.30

Ans 1. 26.23 percent

2. 25.76 percent
3. 22.75 percent
4. 21.68 percent

Q.31 Kanchan lent ₹10,000 for 2 years and ₹5,000 for 4 years at the same rate of simple interest. If the
total interest received by Kanchan is ₹2,000, then what was the rate of interest?
Ans 1. 5%
2. 2%
3. 4%
4. 3%

Q.32 A sum of money amounts to ₹1,200 in 2 years and becomes ₹1,260 in 3 years at compound
interest, when interest is compounded annually. What is the rate of compound interest per
annum?
Ans 1. 4%
2. 6%
3. 3%
4. 5%

Q.33 A goods train 350 m long passes through a tunnel of 1250m in 80 seconds. What is the speed of
the train?
Ans 1. 72 km/h
2. 56 km/h
3. 64 km/h
4. 78 km/h

Q.34

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.35

Ans 1. 8%
2. 10%
3. 12%
4. 4%

Q.36 The cost price of pulses is 12%less than the selling price. Using a faulty weighing machine,
shopkeeper is able to earn 25%profit. How much per cent of the faulty machine shows more
weight as compared to the actual weight (Rounded off to the nearest integer)?
Ans 1. 14%
2. 10%
3. 15%
4. 13%

Q.37 The diameter of a hemisphere is equal to the diagonal of a rectangle of length 4 cm and breadth 3
cm. Find the total surface area (in cm2) of the hemisphere.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.38 36 equally efficient workers can paint 25 identical walls in 48 days. In how many days can 45 such
workers paint 60 such walls?
Ans 1. 92.36
2. 91.96
3. 91.16
4. 92.16

Q.39

Ans 1. 940
2. 960
3. 920
4. 880

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 Q.40 The average weight of 49 students is 53 kg. When a new student is admitted to the class, the
average decreases by 500 g. Find the weight of the new student.
Ans 1. 28 kg
2. 48 kg
3. 18 kg
4. 38 kg

Q.41 A cylindrical metallic rod of diameter 2 cm and length 45 cm is melted and converted into wire of
uniform thickness and length 5 m. The diameter of the wire is:
Ans 1. 2 mm
2. 3 mm
3. 6 mm
4. 5 mm

Q.42 Which of the following numbers leaves the remainder equal to the highest common factor of 6, 8
and 9, when divided by 6, 8 and 9?
Ans 1. 575
2. 506
3. 433
4. 291

Q.43 On an item, there is an 18%discount on the marked price of ₹26,000. After giving an additional
season’s discount, the item is sold at ₹16,000. How much was the season’s discount correct upto
two places of decimal?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.44

Ans 1. cosec A + cot⁡ A

2. sec A + tan⁡ A
3. sec A - tan⁡ A
4. cosec A - cot⁡ A

Q.45

Ans 1. 12 km/h
2. 11 km/h
3. 10 km/h
4. 13 km/h

Q.46 If the volume of a sphere is 38808 cm3, then its surface area is:
Ans 1. 5574 cm2
2. 5564 cm2
3. 5554 cm2
4. 5544 cm2

Q.47 The monthly salary of a person is ₹50,000. He spends 40%of his salary on household expenses,
25%on rent, and 15%on transportation, and saves the remaining amount. What is his yearly
savings?
Ans 1. ₹1,00,000
2. ₹1,20,000
3. ₹90,000
4. ₹1,10,000

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 Q.48 If cosec A + cot A = 3, 0 ≤ A ≤ 900 , then find the value of cos⁡ A.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.49 The least common multiple of 12, 18 and 27 is :

Ans 1. 216
2. 27
3. 54
4. 108

Q.50

Ans 1. 38
2. 40
3. 35
4. 45

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
Farmers have harvested wheat by using whatever labour that was available to them.
Ans 1. by using united labour
2. by using amalgamated labour
3. by using dispersed labour
4. by using limited labour

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom in the given sentence.
Nancy held a grudge against her teacher for a long time, but she finally decided to let bygones be
bygones.
Ans 1. Change the past
2. Flatter someone
3. Ignore the past
4. Take revenge

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 Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A structure in the garden where climbing plants can grow and people can walk under
Ans 1. Treehouse
2. Pergola
3. Outhouse
4. Tomb

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
She was yearning for a trip to the mountains.
Ans 1. keenly desiring
2. deeply repenting
3. saving money for
4. leaving for

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the highlighted word.
The malice he developed for all caused a lot of damage.
Ans 1. grace
2. oppression
3. sympathy
4. avarice

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word.

Trousseau
Ans 1. Being true to oneself
2. Single leg side of a trouser
3. A large cabinet full of expensive clothes
4. The clothes, linen, and other belongings collected by a bride for her marriage

Q.7 Select the most appropriate idiom for the given situation.
You wanted to speak but you controlled yourself and became patient. What have you done?
Ans 1. Dragged your feet
2. Pin drop silence
3. Herculean task
4. Held your horses

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fierce
Ans 1. Lavish
2. Furious
3. Strange
4. Lame

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Antique
Ans 1. New
2. Modern
3. Gothic
4. Ancient

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the underlined words in the following sentence.
As affidevit is a statement or declaration in writing an oath or affirmation, sworn before a person
having authority to administer oath.
Ans 1. affirmation
2. affidevit
3. administer
4. authority

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 Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Cruise
Ans 1. Distance
2. Voyage
3. Fall
4. Bounce

Q.12 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
We should / not make an noise / in the class.
Ans 1. We should
2. not make an noise
3. in the class
4. No error

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Extravagance
Ans 1. Love
2. Simplicity
3. Fortune
4. Self- indulgence

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Step up to the plate
Ans 1. Take control of a situation
2. Think about a crisis
3. Plan for better performance
4. Implement a plan

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The Egyptian Pharohs were the Kings of ancient Egypt and were considered as the literal
embodiment of God himself.
Ans 1. embodiment
2. literal
3. ancient
4. pharohs

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

He ate the whole bunch of grapes under the nose of all of us.
Ans 1. After much persuasion
2. In full view of somebody
3. Secretly
4. Sharing equally

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Braed
2. Isle
3. Amicable
4. Achieve

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
At some point in the past, there were rows of temporary shops that used to display various
cooking utensils.
Ans 1. Long ago
2. In the past few years
3. Before now
4. One upon a time

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 Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
He travelled the whole world, but found piece at home.
Ans 1. prize
2. No substitution required
3. peace
4. peach

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Extremely beautiful, elaborate or impressive
Ans 1. Deficient
2. Transient

3. Proficient
4. Magnificent

Q.21 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

It was inevitable that the team management would sack him after his rude behaviour.
Ans 1. impassionate
2. amiable
3. measurable
4. unavoidable

Q.22 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
I was wish / to meet her / on her birthday.
Ans 1. No error
2. on her birthday
3. to meet her
4. I was wish

Q.23 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Addict
2. Abdact
3. Advise
4. Adjourn

Q.24 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
We have being / arranged the stay / for the guests at / a hillside resort.
Ans 1. for the guests at
2. a hillside resort
3. arranged the stay
4. We have being

Q.25 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A collection of historical documents or records providing information about a place, institution, or
group of people
Ans 1. Museum
2. Apostate
3. Archive
4. Asylum

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 Q.26 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.
Yamini is a great singer. She will make it big one day.
Ans 1. Migrate and settle
2. Educated and rich
3. Become financially sound
4. Succeed and become famous

Q.27 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Malice
Ans 1. Tremor
2. Kindness
3. Haughtiness
4. Torsion

Q.28 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Steer clear of
Ans 1. Avoid someone or something because it is dangerous for you
2. Show someone how to do a job or activity

3. Loose temper and react furiously to someone

4. Be kind and empathetic to someone

Q.29 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Malati has a difficult job, but she does it good.
Ans 1. nice
2. better
3. best
4. well

Q.30 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Revered
2. Reference
3. Prefered
4. Answered

Q.31 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence.
Rahim had to eat a humble pie in starting a row with his neighbour over a trifle.
Ans 1. To take simple food
2. To be punished for doing something wrong
3. To feel sorry and apologise for a mistake
4. To remain without food

Q.32 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.
Since God is an all-powerful creator, he has absolute control over those whom he has created.
Ans 1. Omniscient
2. Incorrigible
3. Voracious
4. Omnipotent

Q.33 Select the most appropriate idiom for the given situation focusing on the underlined segment.
The modern era statistics data provides useful advantage to the players at competent level.
Ans 1. Cost an arm and a leg
2. Play it by ear
3. Put something on ice
4. Grist to the mill

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 Q.34 Identify the ANTONYM of the following word in the given sentence.
Languid
The animated infantry was marching forward for another rehearsal.
Ans 1. infantry
2. animated
3. rehearsal
4. forward

Q.35 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To burn the midnight oil
Ans 1. To stay up late working or studying
2. To waste time
3. To be relaxed and calm
4. To overthink

Q.36 Choose the option which means the same as the underlined segment.
The boss wanted to finish the case before the arrival of the Inspection team.
Ans 1. be over and done with
2. be over and over
3. be over a barrel
4. be over one’s head

Q.37 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Naina is leaving and I am think to apply for her job.
Ans 1. thinking in applying
2. thinking about applying
3. thinking on applying
4. thinking about apply

Q.38 You are preparing a speech for an upcoming function. Select a synonym for the highlighted word
to make it better.
Sexual assault is a severe and pervasive issue that can have a significant impact on a victim’s
life.
Ans 1. Retrospective
2. Longitudinal
3. Widespread
4. Equatorial

Q.39 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
It is take / a couple of minutes / for the computer / to boot up.
Ans 1. for the computer
2. to boot up
3. It is take
4. a couple of minutes

Q.40 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Faithful
Ans 1. Unfaithful
2. Daring
3. Loyal
4. Cheerful

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Discrimination refers to the inequitable or (1)________ treatment of individuals or collectives on the
basis of attributes such as ethnicity, sex, age and sexual orientation. Studies have indicated that the
perception of discrimination can (2)________ a series of stress-induced alterations in an individual's
mental, physiological and behavioural responses. The experience of stress is known to elicit
unfavourable emotional reactions, including but not limited to (3)________, despair and resentment.
Furthermore, anxiety has been linked to a rise in health-compromising behaviours such as smoking,
drinking and (4)________ drug use, while simultaneously causing a (5)________ in health-
promoting activities such as quality sleep and vigorous exercise.
SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. tragic
2. systematic
3. biased
4. pathetic

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Discrimination refers to the inequitable or (1)________ treatment of individuals or collectives on the
basis of attributes such as ethnicity, sex, age and sexual orientation. Studies have indicated that the
perception of discrimination can (2)________ a series of stress-induced alterations in an individual's
mental, physiological and behavioural responses. The experience of stress is known to elicit
unfavourable emotional reactions, including but not limited to (3)________, despair and resentment.
Furthermore, anxiety has been linked to a rise in health-compromising behaviours such as smoking,
drinking and (4)________ drug use, while simultaneously causing a (5)________ in health-
promoting activities such as quality sleep and vigorous exercise.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. motivate
2. support
3. inspire
4. trigger

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Discrimination refers to the inequitable or (1)________ treatment of individuals or collectives on the
basis of attributes such as ethnicity, sex, age and sexual orientation. Studies have indicated that the
perception of discrimination can (2)________ a series of stress-induced alterations in an individual's
mental, physiological and behavioural responses. The experience of stress is known to elicit
unfavourable emotional reactions, including but not limited to (3)________, despair and resentment.
Furthermore, anxiety has been linked to a rise in health-compromising behaviours such as smoking,
drinking and (4)________ drug use, while simultaneously causing a (5)________ in health-
promoting activities such as quality sleep and vigorous exercise.
SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. anxiety
2. death
3. impairment
4. deafness

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Discrimination refers to the inequitable or (1)________ treatment of individuals or collectives on the
basis of attributes such as ethnicity, sex, age and sexual orientation. Studies have indicated that the
perception of discrimination can (2)________ a series of stress-induced alterations in an individual's
mental, physiological and behavioural responses. The experience of stress is known to elicit
unfavourable emotional reactions, including but not limited to (3)________, despair and resentment.
Furthermore, anxiety has been linked to a rise in health-compromising behaviours such as smoking,
drinking and (4)________ drug use, while simultaneously causing a (5)________ in health-
promoting activities such as quality sleep and vigorous exercise.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. illicit
2. legitimate
3. mandatory
4. prescribed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Discrimination refers to the inequitable or (1)________ treatment of individuals or collectives on the
basis of attributes such as ethnicity, sex, age and sexual orientation. Studies have indicated that the
perception of discrimination can (2)________ a series of stress-induced alterations in an individual's
mental, physiological and behavioural responses. The experience of stress is known to elicit
unfavourable emotional reactions, including but not limited to (3)________, despair and resentment.
Furthermore, anxiety has been linked to a rise in health-compromising behaviours such as smoking,
drinking and (4)________ drug use, while simultaneously causing a (5)________ in health-
promoting activities such as quality sleep and vigorous exercise.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. rise
2. upheaval
3. decline
4. unfruitful

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The world of social media is a strange and wondrous place. It's a world where you can connect with
people from all over the globe, share your thoughts and opinions, and maybe even go viral if you're
lucky. But let's be real, it's also a world filled with endless cat videos, oversharing, and drama.
One of the most interesting things about social media is the way it's changed the way we
communicate. We've gone from long, thoughtful emails to quick, abbreviated messages with emojis
and acronyms. And don't even get me started on the whole hashtag phenomenon. It's like we're all
speaking a different language now.
But there are also some downsides to this constant connection. It's easy to get sucked into the world
of social media and forget about the real world around us. We're so busy scrolling through our feeds
that we forget to enjoy the little moments in life. And let's not forget about the pressure to present the
perfect life online. It's like we're all in a competition to see who can be the most popular, the most
successful, the most enviable.
Despite all of this, I have to admit, I'm still a fan of social media. It's a great way to stay connected with
friends and family, and I've even made some new friends through various online communities. Plus,
let's face it, sometimes you just need a good laugh at a ridiculous meme.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a way social media has changed the way we
communicate?
Ans 1. Video conferencing for more meaningful conversations.
2. The use of hashtags.
3. Connecting with people from all over the world.
4. Quick, abbreviated messages with emojis and acronyms.

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The world of social media is a strange and wondrous place. It's a world where you can connect with
people from all over the globe, share your thoughts and opinions, and maybe even go viral if you're
lucky. But let's be real, it's also a world filled with endless cat videos, oversharing, and drama.
One of the most interesting things about social media is the way it's changed the way we
communicate. We've gone from long, thoughtful emails to quick, abbreviated messages with emojis
and acronyms. And don't even get me started on the whole hashtag phenomenon. It's like we're all
speaking a different language now.
But there are also some downsides to this constant connection. It's easy to get sucked into the world
of social media and forget about the real world around us. We're so busy scrolling through our feeds
that we forget to enjoy the little moments in life. And let's not forget about the pressure to present the
perfect life online. It's like we're all in a competition to see who can be the most popular, the most
successful, the most enviable.
Despite all of this, I have to admit, I'm still a fan of social media. It's a great way to stay connected with
friends and family, and I've even made some new friends through various online communities. Plus,
let's face it, sometimes you just need a good laugh at a ridiculous meme.
SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 What is one of the downsides of social media mentioned in the passage?
Ans 1. It encourages people to enjoy the little moments in life.
2. It's a great way to stay connected with friends and family.
3. It can help connect with people all over the globe.
4. It can lead to pressure to present a perfect life online.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The world of social media is a strange and wondrous place. It's a world where you can connect with
people from all over the globe, share your thoughts and opinions, and maybe even go viral if you're
lucky. But let's be real, it's also a world filled with endless cat videos, oversharing, and drama.
One of the most interesting things about social media is the way it's changed the way we
communicate. We've gone from long, thoughtful emails to quick, abbreviated messages with emojis
and acronyms. And don't even get me started on the whole hashtag phenomenon. It's like we're all
speaking a different language now.
But there are also some downsides to this constant connection. It's easy to get sucked into the world
of social media and forget about the real world around us. We're so busy scrolling through our feeds
that we forget to enjoy the little moments in life. And let's not forget about the pressure to present the
perfect life online. It's like we're all in a competition to see who can be the most popular, the most
successful, the most enviable.
Despite all of this, I have to admit, I'm still a fan of social media. It's a great way to stay connected with
friends and family, and I've even made some new friends through various online communities. Plus,
let's face it, sometimes you just need a good laugh at a ridiculous meme.
SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this passage?
Ans 1. The Benefits of Social Media
2. The Dark Side of Social Media
3. Mastering the Art of Social Media
4. The Joys and Sorrows of Social Media

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The world of social media is a strange and wondrous place. It's a world where you can connect with
people from all over the globe, share your thoughts and opinions, and maybe even go viral if you're
lucky. But let's be real, it's also a world filled with endless cat videos, oversharing, and drama.
One of the most interesting things about social media is the way it's changed the way we
communicate. We've gone from long, thoughtful emails to quick, abbreviated messages with emojis
and acronyms. And don't even get me started on the whole hashtag phenomenon. It's like we're all
speaking a different language now.
But there are also some downsides to this constant connection. It's easy to get sucked into the world
of social media and forget about the real world around us. We're so busy scrolling through our feeds
that we forget to enjoy the little moments in life. And let's not forget about the pressure to present the
perfect life online. It's like we're all in a competition to see who can be the most popular, the most
successful, the most enviable.
Despite all of this, I have to admit, I'm still a fan of social media. It's a great way to stay connected with
friends and family, and I've even made some new friends through various online communities. Plus,
let's face it, sometimes you just need a good laugh at a ridiculous meme.
SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 What is the theme of the passage?
Ans 1. The positive and negative effects of social media.
2. The dangers of spending too much time online.
3. The history of social media.
4. The importance of social media for businesses.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The world of social media is a strange and wondrous place. It's a world where you can connect with
people from all over the globe, share your thoughts and opinions, and maybe even go viral if you're
lucky. But let's be real, it's also a world filled with endless cat videos, oversharing, and drama.
One of the most interesting things about social media is the way it's changed the way we
communicate. We've gone from long, thoughtful emails to quick, abbreviated messages with emojis
and acronyms. And don't even get me started on the whole hashtag phenomenon. It's like we're all
speaking a different language now.
But there are also some downsides to this constant connection. It's easy to get sucked into the world
of social media and forget about the real world around us. We're so busy scrolling through our feeds
that we forget to enjoy the little moments in life. And let's not forget about the pressure to present the
perfect life online. It's like we're all in a competition to see who can be the most popular, the most
successful, the most enviable.
Despite all of this, I have to admit, I'm still a fan of social media. It's a great way to stay connected with
friends and family, and I've even made some new friends through various online communities. Plus,
let's face it, sometimes you just need a good laugh at a ridiculous meme.
SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 What is the ANTONYM of the word ‘perfect’, as used in the passage?
Ans 1. Laughable
2. Troublesome
3. Unsatisfactory
4. Limited

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 Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I
Exam Date 05/10/2023
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
6, 20, 42, ?, 110, 156
Ans 1. 50
2. 72
3. 64
4. 80

Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 Select the option that represents the letters which, when sequentially placed from left to right in
the blanks below, will complete the letter series.
_ L _ _ KS _ T U_ S L _ _ K
Ans 1. S T U L K T U
2. L U S K T U K
3. K T U L U T S
4. U T S K T L U

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 Q.4

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.5 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Flint
2.Flec
3.Flaw
4.Fleet
5.Flight
Ans 1. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
2. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
3. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1
4. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

Q.6 If '+' means '–', '–' means '÷', '÷' means '×' and '×' means '+', then what will come in place of the (?)
in the following equation?
15 × 30 + 15 – 3 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 35
2. 30
3. 15
4. 40

Q.7 Pooja drives 4 km towards east from point A. She takes a right turn and drives 2 km. Then she
takes a left turn and drives 3 km. Again, she takes a left turn and drives 2 km to reach point B.
How far and towards which direction should she drive now in order to reach point A again?
Ans 1. 5 km towards north
2. 4 km towards south
3. 7 km towards west
4. 4 km towards east

Q.8 ‘Z @ A’ means ‘Z is the son of A’.

‘Z * A’ means ‘Z is the brother of A’.
'Z × A’ means ‘Z is the father of A’.
‘Z # A’ means ‘Z is the sister of A’.
‘Z $ A’ means ‘Z is the daughter of A’.
‘Z = A’ means ‘Z is the mother of A’.
How is A related to Y in the following expression?
A* S = J @ M × Y
Ans 1. A is the cousin of Y.
2. A is the brother of Y’s mother.

3. A is the father of Y.
4. A is the brother of Y.

Q.9 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
ZFKQ, BCMN, ?, FWQH, HTSE
Ans 1. DZPJ
2. DBOM
3. DZOK
4. DAOL

Q.10 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the
face showing ‘6’.

Ans 1. 1
2. 4
3. 2
4. 3

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 Q.11 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to each other
based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Yearn : Crave :: Haste : ?
Ans 1. Leisure
2. Delay
3. Alacrity
4. Hanker

Q.12 In a certain code language, 'YATCH' is coded as 67 and 'DINE' is coded as 40. How will 'MANGO' be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. 62
2. 57
3. 60
4. 65

Q.13 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. All teas are coffees.
II. All coffees are beverages.
III. Some teas are drinks
Conclusions:
I. All teas are beverages.
II. No drink is a coffee.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Only conclusion II follows
4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.14 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
729 × 9 – (56 – 6) × 5 ÷ 2 + 152 × 19 = 69
Ans 1. + and –
2. ÷ and –
3. × and +
4. × and ÷

Q.15 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Desperate
2. Desolate
3. Destruction
4. Desire
5. Descend
6. Destination
Ans 1. 5, 4, 1, 6, 2, 3
2. 5, 4, 2, 1, 6, 3
3. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3, 6

4. 5, 4, 1, 2, 6, 3

Q.16 Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one
that is different.
Ans 1. FBEC
2. JQAZ
3. HDGE
4. OKNL

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 Q.17

Ans 1. Only 3
2. Only 2
3. Only 4
4. Only 1 and 4

Q.18 Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one
that is different.
Ans 1. HMIL
2. KPLO
3. SXTW
4. LOKP

Q.19 In a certain code language, 'EDUCATION' is written as 'FCVBBSJNO' and 'MICROSOFT' is written
as 'NHDQPRPEU'. How will 'SEMICIRCLE' be written in that language?
Ans 1. TDNHDHSBMD
2. TDHNDHSFBD
3. TDNHHDSBFD
4. TDNHHDSBFM

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 Q.20

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 P is to the north of Q. T is to the east of Q and S is to the east of P. S is to the north-east of T and
south-west of R. What is the position of R with respect to Q? (All positions are arranged in GRID
pattern)
Ans 1. North-east
2. South-west
3. East
4. South

Q.22 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of ‘?’ in the
following equation?
42 × 6 - 7 ÷ 13 + 28 = ?
Ans 1. 39
2. 43
3. 34
4. 27

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 Q.23 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
42, 53, 46, ?, 53, 66
Ans 1. 55
2. 48
3. 58
4. 51

Q.24 Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the first number is related
to the second number and the third number is related to the fourth number.
32 : 10 :: 24 : 12 :: 98 : ?
Ans 1. 43
2. 24
3. 34
4. 25

Q.25 In a certain code language, ‘STORY’ is coded as ‘97’ and ‘PULL’ is coded as ‘61’. How will ‘INCOME’
be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 47
2. 59
3. 49
4. 54

Q.26 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
473, 517, 561, ?, 649, 693
Ans 1. 603
2. 607
3. 605
4. 598

Q.27 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(2, 5, 341)
(1, 7, 510)
Ans 1. (3,6,64)
2. (8,2,140)
3. (2,5,56)

4. (1,2,25)

Q.28 In a certain code language, 'GRAPE' is coded as 21-54-3-48-15 and 'MELON' is coded as 39-15-36-
45-42. How will 'PEACH' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 48-15-3-8-27
2. 48-15-3-9-24
3. 49-15-3-9-27
4. 45-16-3-9-24

Q.29 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(23, 6, 35)
(13, 5, 23)
Ans 1. (24, 5, 33)
2. (13, 7, 28)
3. (16, 4, 20)
4. (25, 8, 41)

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 Q.30 Select the correct mirror image of the given pattern when the mirror is placed at 'MN' as shown
below.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.31 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed at line MN as
shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.32 Given below are two statements and two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they
are at variance with commonly known facts, and decide whether the conclusion(s) follow(s) the
given statements.
Statements:
All irons are coppers.
All coppers are aluminiums.
Conclusions:
I. Some aluminiums are irons
II. Some aluminiums are coppers
Ans 1. Both the conclusions follow
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.33 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
HKOE , KNOE , ? , QTOE , TWOE
Ans 1. NQEO
2. NQOE
3. QNOE
4. NOQE

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 Q.34

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.35 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to each other
based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Pedal : Bicycle :: Oar : ?
Ans 1. Motorcycle
2. Car
3. Television
4. Canoe

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 Q.36 Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.37 Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A is an immediate neighbour of
both E and D. E sits third to the right of C. D sits third to the left of F. E is an immediate neighbour of
F. B sits second to the left of E. Who is the immediate neighbour of both A and C?
Ans 1. E
2. F
3. D
4. B

Q.38 In a certain code language, ‘COLD’ is coded as ‘6428’ and ‘TIDE’ is coded as ‘9673’. What is the
code for ‘D’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 9

Q.39

Ans 1. 3
2. B
3. 1
4. 2

Q.40 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series
32, 32, 32, 34, ?, 106, 530
Ans 1. 102
2. 34
3. 38
4. 96

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 Q.41 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following equation?
94 C 12 B 6 A 216 D 9 = ?
Ans 1. 52
2. 68
3. 47
4. 46

Q.42 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(7, 52), (9, 84)
Ans 1. (13, 172)
2. (14, 196)
3. (8, 65)
4. (11, 125)

Q.43 Six friends are sitting in a circle facing the centre. Sumit sits second to the right of Amit. Karan is
an immediate neighbour of Param. Tony sits third to the right of Amit. Dharam is an immediate
neighbour of Amit and Sumit. Karan sits second to the right of Sumit.
Who sits fourth to the right of Param?
Ans 1. Karan
2. Sumit
3. Dharam
4. Tony

Q.44 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of ‘?’ in the
following equation?
45 - 3 ÷ 144 × 12 + 38 = ?
Ans 1. 123
2. 91
3. 95
4. 109

Q.45 F is the brother of J. E is the sister of D. K is the sister of L. D is the son of L. J is the father of E.
How is D related to F?
Ans 1. Wife
2. Brother’s son
3. Sister’s husband
4. Brother’s daughter

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 Q.46 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Europe, United Kingdom, London
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.47 Given below are two statements and two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they
are at variance with commonly known facts, and decide whether the conclusion(s) follow(s) the
given statements.
Statements:
Some dates are hazelnuts.
All hazelnuts are walnuts.
Conclusions:
I. Some dates are walnuts.
II. Some walnuts are hazelnuts.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
4. Both the conclusions follow

Q.48 Choose one of the following correct combinations of mathematical signs which can be filled to
balance the following equation.

Ans 1. ̶ , +, ÷, ×, =, +
2. ̶ , +, ×, =, ÷, +
3. +, ̶ , ÷, ×, =, +
4. ̶ , ̶ , ÷, =, ×, +

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 Q.49

Ans 1. Only 2 and 4

2. Only 2 and 3
3. Only 1 and 4
4. Only 1 and 3

Q.50 If '+' means '÷' , '–' means '+' , '×' means '–' and '÷' means '×', then what will come in place of (?) in
the given equation?
8 ÷ 5 – 5 × 10 + 2 = ?
Ans 1. 40
2. 45
3. 30
4. 35

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.1 The Eastern Ghats stretch from the ____________ to the Nigiris in the south.
Ans 1. Damodar Valley
2. Son Valley
3. Mahanadi Valley
4. Godavari Valley

Q.2 Which of the following is a roundworm?

Ans 1. Taenia
2. Planaria
3. Liver fluke
4. Ascaris

Q.3 How many times has India won the ICC T20 Men’s World Cup in cricket?
Ans 1. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 4

Q.4 ________ land is suitable for cropping on a regular basis.

Ans 1. Barren
2. Arable
3. Urban
4. Marginal

Q.5 Which of the following indicates the system introduced by Lord Cornwallis granting legal
ownership of land to the zamindars in Bengal in order to get a fixed revenue by a fixed date?
Ans 1. The Permanent Settlement
2. Taluqdari System
3. The Ryotwari System
4. Mahalwari System

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 Q.6 Chad Sukra festival is celebrated by the Jaintia tribe of ________.
Ans 1. Punjab
2. Meghalaya
3. Jharkhand
4. Assam

Q.7 Who among the following had written the novel Coolie, that concentrated on social misery caused
by inhumanity?
Ans 1. Vijay Tendulkar
2. Mulk Raj Anand
3. RK Narayan
4. VS Naipal

Q.8 In which type of rainfall, winds move out from a high-pressure area with wind direction clockwise
in the northern hemisphere, and anti-clockwise in the southern hemisphere?
Ans 1. Orography
2. Cyclones
3. Anticyclone
4. Convection

Q.9 The President of which of the following countries was invited as the Chief Guest for the Republic
Day parade on 26 January 2020?
Ans 1. Indonesia
2. New Zealand
3. Brazil
4. Australia

Q.10 1 kilowatt is equivalent to:

Ans 1. 3600 KJ/h
2. 7200 Joule
3. 3600 calorie
4. 7200 KJ/h

Q.11 How many types of the amendment are mentioned by the Indian Constitution as per Article 368?
Ans 1. Two
2. Four
3. Five
4. Three

Q.12 The provision of fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution is inspired by _______________.
Ans 1. the constitution of USSR
2. the constitution of USA
3. the constitution of Canada
4. the constitution of France

Q.13 When was Khandesh merged into the Mughal empire by Akbar?
Ans 1. 1605
2. 1595
3. 1597
4. 1601

Q.14 The ________ birth rate indicates the number of live births occurring during the year per 1000
population estimated at midyear.
Ans 1. neutral
2. negative
3. crude
4. positive

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 Q.15 Which radioactive element with atomic number 43 in the modern periodic table is unstable, and
the half-lives of all its isotopes are relatively short, from 4.2 million years to 5.0 s?
Ans 1. Neptunium
2. Promethium
3. Technetium
4. Nobelium

Q.16 Vultures are:

Ans 1. decomposers
2. omnivores
3. herbivores
4. carnivores

Q.17 In which of the following languages is ‘Childhood Days - A Memoir’ by Satyajit Ray written?
Ans 1. Telugu
2. Hindi
3. Bengali
4. Kannada

Q.18 Ammannur Madhava Chakyar was conferred the Padma Shri for his contribution to which of the
following dance forms?
Ans 1. Yakshagana
2. Kuchipudi
3. Kathakali
4. Kutiyattam

Q.19 Which cell organelle appears as rounded or sausage-shaped structures under electron
microscopy, measuring about 0.5-1.0 µm in diameter and 2-8 µm in length?
Ans 1. Lysosomes
2. Mitochondria
3. Plastids
4. Ribosomes

Q.20 By observing the motion of objects on an inclined plane ______ deduced that objects move with a
constant speed when no force acts on them.
Ans 1. Galileo
2. Johannes Kepler
3. Michael Faraday
4. Archimedes

Q.21 In which of the following years did the government opt for a plan holiday after the seventh five-
year plan?
Ans 1. From 1990 to 1992
2. From 1992 to 1993
3. From 1989 to 1991
4. From 1991 to 1993

Q.22 Which chemical element of Group 18 of the periodic table is produced by the natural radioactive
decay of uranium in soils and rocks?
Ans 1. Krypton
2. Radon
3. Neon
4. Oganesson

Q.23 What do you call the type of drugs that mimic the natural messenger by switching on the
receptor?
Ans 1. Antagonists
2. Antidepressants
3. Agonist
4. Depressants

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 Q.24 In the game of Ice hockey, during normal play how many players are there in each team on the ice
at any one time to compete?
Ans 1. 5
2. 12
3. 10
4. 6

Q.25 Hara Shankar Bhattacharya is a maestro of ___________.

Ans 1. santoor
2. sitar
3. sarangi
4. violin

Q.26 Which of the following is NOT an example of a minor industrial region of India?
Ans 1. Durg-Raipur region
2. Ambala-Amritsar region
3. Northern Malabar region
4. Hugli region

Q.27 From the given options, choose the one which is NOT a product of the decomposition reaction of
Lead nitrate.
Ans 1. Oxygen
2. Lead oxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Nitrogen

Q.28 Maimata is a popular folk dance of which of the following states?

Ans 1. Haryana
2. Punjab
3. Uttarakhand
4. Tripura

Q.29 What percentage of jobs in India are at risk of automation, as per World Bank data, 2016?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.30 When was the 8th round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), the so-called
‘Uruguay Round’ which led to the establishment of World Trade Organization (WTO) completed?
Ans 1. 1991
2. 1993
3. 1994
4. 1992

Q.31 The shape of a basketball court is a_______.

Ans 1. rectangle
2. circle
3. square
4. triangle

Q.32 The ‘Servants of India Society’ was the brainchild of which of the following leaders?
Ans 1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Chittaranjan Das
4. BR Ambedkar

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 Q.33 Which of the following did NOT emerge as a result of disintegration of the Bahmani kingdom
during the 16th century?
Ans 1. Gaur
2. Golconda
3. Bidar
4. Ahmadnagar

Q.34 How many fundamental duties are listed in the Indian Constitution as of 2022?
Ans 1. 13
2. 10
3. 12
4. 11

Q.35 Ashtadhyayi, is a Sanskrit treatise on grammar, written in the 6th to 5th century BCE by
_________.
Ans 1. Agastya
2. Panini
3. Patanjali
4. Vishvamitra

Q.36 The term ‘inning’ is related to which of the following sports?

Ans 1. Hockey
2. Volleyball
3. Basketball
4. Kho-Kho

Q.37 To which feature of the Constitution of India does the appointment of the Governor by the Centre
belong?
Ans 1. Directive Principles
2. Federal feature
3. Supremacy of the Constitution
4. Unitary system

Q.38 Which of the following dance forms originated in Southeastern India?

Ans 1. Chhau
2. Kuchipudi
3. Sattriya
4. Kathak

Q.39 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution shall the executive power of the Union be vested in
the President?
Ans 1. Article 55
2. Article 53
3. Article 58
4. Article 56

Q.40 Jagjit Singh is associated with which form of singing?

Ans 1. Ghazal
2. Dhrupad
3. Thumri
4. Tappa

Q.41 Which of the following is NOT an example of small savings?

Ans 1. Kisan Vikas Patras
2. National Savings Certificates
3. Post Office Deposits
4. Mutual Funds

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 Q.42 Where is Red Lake found?
Ans 1. Japan
2. USA
3. UK
4. China

Q.43 Which of the following industries was NOT in Schedule A of Industrial Policy 1956?
Ans 1. Iron and steel
2. Mineral oils
3. Mining of salt
4. Air transport

Q.44 Which of the following dance forms traces its lineage to the ancient dance of Sadir Attam?
Ans 1. Kathakali
2. Mohiniyattam
3. Kuchipudi
4. Bharatanatyam

Q.45 Siachen in Himalayas is:

Ans 1. a national park
2. a glacier
3. a dam
4. a lake

Q.46 Which of the following is NOT included in inventory investment when calculating national income?
Ans 1. Change in stock of semi-finished goods
2. Change in stock of finished goods
3. Change in sales during the year
4. Change in stock of raw material

Q.47 The star-shaped temples were built during the reign of:
Ans 1. Cholas
2. Badami
3. Hoysala
4. Chalukaya

Q.48 When was the Atmiya Sabha founded to attack the evils within Hinduism?
Ans 1. 1828
2. 1845
3. 1814
4. 1839

Q.49 Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the Prime Minister is appointed by the
President of India?
Ans 1. Article 76
2. Article 73
3. Article 74
4. Article 75

Q.50 The Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from west to east. The correct order of
regions from west to east is:
Ans 1. Punjab Himalayas, Kumaon Himalayas, Nepal Himalayas and Assam Himalayas
2. Punjab Himalayas, Nepal Himalayas, Assam Himalayas and Kumaon Himalayas
3. Punjab Himalayas, Kumaon Himalayas, Assam Himalayas and Nepal Himalayas
4. Punjab Himalayas, Nepal Himalayas, Kumaon Himalayas and Assam Himalayas

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

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 Q.1 The salary of Arpit fell by 5%after 1 year and further fell by 8%after the second year due to bad
performance. Initially, his salary was ₹80,000. What is his current salary (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 65720
2. 69920
3. 70920
4. 69620

Q.2 Two trains Mumbai Rajdhani and Kissan Express of lengths 850 m and 700 m are 1050 m apart,
and are running on parallel tracks towards each other. Mumbai Rajdhani is running at 62 km/h
and Kissan Express is running at 55 km/h. In how much time (in sec) will the trains cross each
other?
Ans 1. 45
2. 70
3. 75
4. 80

Q.3 Find the least number which is exactly divisible by 20, 28, 34, 60 and 75.
Ans 1. 34500
2. 36220
3. 35900
4. 35700

Q.4

Ans 1. 780 cm3

2. 960 cm3
3. 1083 cm3
4. 1150 cm3

Q.5

Ans 1.
2.

3.

4.

Q.6

Ans 1. 1200
2. 800
3. 600
4. 1000

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 Q.7

Ans 1. ₹40,000
2. ₹45,000
3. ₹50,000
4. ₹55,000

Q.8 Find the fourth proportional to 0.48, 0.84 and 32.

Ans 1. 43
2. 34
3. 56
4. 65

Q.9

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 In a circle of radius 42 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the length of the
arc.

Ans 1. 21 cm
2. 42 cm
3. 22 cm
4. 44 cm

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 Q.11

Ans 1. 105°
2. 108°
3. 90°
4. 100°

Q.12 The height and the radius of the base of a right circular cone are in the ratio of 12 : 5. If its volume
is 314 cm3, then what is the slant height of the cone? (Use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 14 cm
2. 12 cm
3. 11 cm
4. 13 cm

Q.13 If 2 men or 4 women can build a wall in 34 days, in how many days can 6 men and 5 women build
the same wall?
Ans 1. 16
2. 12
3. 24
4. 8

Q.14 A shopkeeper increases the cost price of an item by 50%and offers a discount of 40%on this
marked price. What is his loss percentage?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 Three numbers are in the ratio of 5 : 7 : 9 and their LCM is 34,650. Their HCF is:
Ans 1. 55
2. 110
3. 99
4. 315

Q.16 If the radius of two circles be 6 cm and 9 cm and the length of the transverse common tangent be
20 cm, then find the distance between the two centres.
Ans 1. 27 cm
2. 22 cm
3. 25 cm
4. 24 cm

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 Q.17

Ans 1. 40
2. 33
3. 38
4. 36

Q.18 Mahesh agreed to sell rice with 24%loss, as the rice got rotten. However, he cheated customers
and gave only 19 gm of rice in place of 50 gm of rice. What is the percentage of his profit or loss?
Ans 1.

2.
3.

4.

Q.19 In a ∆ABC, the bisectors of angle ABC and angle ACB intersect each other at point O. If the angle
BOC is 125°, then the angle BAC is equal to:
Ans 1. 82°
2. 78°
3. 70°
4. 75°

Q.20 Rupu’s income is 20%more than Madhu’s income. Madhu’s income is less than Rupu’s income
by:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 Find the LCM of 73 and 657.

Ans 1. 365
2. 146
3. 73
4. 657

Q.22 Simplify the given expression.

(1 - 2x)2 - (1 + 2x)2
Ans 1.

2.
3.

4.

Q.23 If interest be compounded half-yearly, then find the compound interest on ₹8,000 at 20%p.a. for 1
year.
Ans 1. ₹1,685
2. ₹1,680
3. ₹1,675
4. ₹1,690

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 Q.24 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows data of population and literacy/illiteracy rate among the population in three
different villages.

The number of illiterates in village R is what percentage less than that in village P?

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 The mean proportional between 0.03 and 0.0003 is:

Ans 1. 0.0003
2. 0.0013
3. 0.033
4. 0.003

Q.26 A boy goes from home to school at a speed of 30 km/h and returns back at a speed of 70 km/h.
What is his average speed for the journey?
Ans 1. 36 km/h
2. 42 km/h
3. 48 km/h
4. 38 km/h

Q.27 The total surface area of a solid hemisphere is 4158 cm2. Find its volume (in cm3).
Ans 1. 9702
2. 19404
3. 1848
4. 462

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 Q.28 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students studying in 6 different classes of 6 different schools.

Which class has the minimum number of students from all schools together?
Ans 1. VIII
2. IX
3. X
4. VII

Q.29 Mihir buys a book for ₹625. However, because of certain urgency, he sells it for ₹550. Find his loss
percentage.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.30 In a circle, chords AB and CD intersect internally at E. If CD = 18 cm, DE = 5cm, AE = 13 cm, then
the length of BE is:
Ans 1. 4 cm
2. 5 cm
3. 7 cm
4. 3 cm

Q.31 Study the given bar graph carefully to answer the question that follows.
Marks obtained by four students in Mid-I and Mid-II.

Marks obtain by Hemanth in Mid-I are what percentage of the total marks obtained by all the
students in Mid-I?
Ans 1. 20%
2. 25%
3. 15%
4. 30%

Q.32 The sides of a rectangle are in the ratio of 3 : 8 and its area is 1944 cm2. What is its perimeter?
Ans 1. 308 cm
2. 208 cm
3. 198 cm
4. 189 cm

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 Q.33

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.34

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.35 At 7: 30 P.M. the owner of a Cycle noticed that a thief is taking away his cycle from his home and
is cycling in a particular direction at an estimated speed of 10 km per hour. He informed the police
about the theft and the policeman started from the same point, half an hour later than the time of
the theft but with a speed of 12 km per hour. At what time will Policeman catch the thief?
Ans 1. 10:30 P.M.
2. 9: 30 P.M.
3. 10:00 P.M.
4. 10:45 P.M.

Q.36

Ans 1. 22
2. 18
3. 15
4. 20

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 Q.37 The following table shows the income of a company in a year from various sectors:

What is the difference (in lakh ₹) between the income from the maximum earning sector and the
minimum earning sector?
Ans 1. 55
2. 48
3. 30
4. 40

Q.38 A cylinder has some water in it at a height of 16 cm. If a sphere of radius 9 cm is put into it, then
find the rise in the height of the water if the radius of the cylinder is 12 cm.
Ans 1. 8.75 cm
2. 8 cm
3. 6 cm
4. 6.75 cm

Q.39 What annual instalment (in ₹) will discharge a debt of ₹9,429 due in three years at 12.25%simple
interest per annum? [Note: Instalments will be paid at the end of Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3.]
Ans 1. 2700
2. 2,840
3. 2800
4. 2760

Q.40

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.41 In an election between two candidates, 20%of the voters on the voters list did not cast their votes
and 80 voters cast their ballot papers blank. The winner secured 45%of all the voters in the list
and he got 280 votes more than his rival. The number of voters on the list was:
Ans 1. 2500
2. 2000
3. 2800
4. 1500

Q.42 A and B complete a work in 24 and 30 days, respectively, working 10 hours per day. The work is
to be done in two shifts. The morning shift is for 6 hours and the evening shift is for 4 hours. On
the first day, A works in the morning and B works in the evening, and they interchange their shifts
every day. On which day did the work get completed?
Ans 1. 27th day
2. 24th day
3. 30th day
4. 21st day

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 Q.43

Ans 1. ₹24,75,000
2. ₹18,75,000
3. ₹21,55,000
4. ₹26,80,000

Q.44 Nikunj goes 4 kilometres against the current of a stream in 1 hour, and 2 kilometres along the
current in 15 minutes. How long will it take him to go 7 kilometres in stationary water?
Ans 1. 1 hour 15 minutes
2. 1 hour 5 minutes
3. 1 hour 10 minutes
4. 1 hour 20 minutes

Q.45 The average weight of 8 students is 48 kg. If four students of average weight 44 kg and four
students of average weight 58 kg is also added, then find the average weight of 16 students.
Ans 1. 48 kg
2. 49.5 kg
3. 49 kg
4. 48.5 kg

Q.46 Find the HCF of 78, 84, 90 and 112.

Ans 1. 2
2. 7
3. 1
4. 5

Q.47 Which is the largest number that divides each of 1036, 1813 and 3885 without leaving any
remainder?
Ans 1. 37
2. 111
3. 259
4. 333

Q.48
Ans 1. 30
2. 15
3. 25
4. 20

Q.49 An item with a marked price of ₹z was sold for ₹6,622, after a discount of 12%was offered. What
was the value of z?
Ans 1. ₹7,575
2. ₹7,425
3. ₹7,500
4. ₹7,525

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 Q.50

Ans 1.

2.

3.
4.

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Come what may
Ans 1. No matter what happens
2. To get frightened
3. To be among the latest
4. Meeting someone

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
To tell the nature of a disease by its symptoms.
Ans 1. Diagnosis
2. Dosage
3. Design
4. Decisive

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Rehabilitate
Ans 1. Reinstall
2. Decline
3. Absolve
4. Develop

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
After losing his job and his home, he found himself destitute and living on the streets.
Ans 1. affluent
2. ridiculous
3. glorious
4. disturbed

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Apple of discord
Ans 1. Practical
2. Distant love
3. Bone of contention
4. Centre of attraction

Q.6 Select the option that best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom.
Christy should discuss this with her face to face.
Ans 1. Come to fully accept or understand something
2. Remained normal and realistic
3. Almost always
4. With another person in their presence rather than, say, by phone or letter

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word which has been
incorrectly spelt.
Mrs. Lal taught me English gramar.
Ans 1. grammar
2. gramarr
3. gramer
4. gramerr

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 Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Break a leg
Ans 1. To hurt someone
2. To wish someone good luck
3. To avoid someone
4. To love someone

Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

She can't make up her mind where to go for her summer vacation.
Ans 1. Decide between alternatives or come to a decision
2. Decide on a suitable parlour
3. Decide how to do her makeup
4. Engage her mind in creative activities

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Sanchit stands by his friends through thick and thin .
Ans 1. In crowded areas
2. Under all circumstances
3. In winter and summer
4. In favourable situations

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To hit the nail on the head
Ans 1. To express an idea with great precision
2. To be indecisive
3. To hit something accurately
4. To miss an opportunity

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
Politics and money go together in this country.
Ans 1. No substitution required
2. go hand in hand
3. go holding hands
4. go arm in arm

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
We all should respect each other.
Ans 1. all of us
2. all other
3. every other
4. one another

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
The students / are expected / to come / in the right time.
Ans 1. to come
2. in the right time
3. are expected
4. The students

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Centre of public attention
Ans 1. Ambiguity
2. Fuzziness
3. Limelight
4. Obscurity

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 Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Fit as a fiddle
Ans 1. At the last moment
2. To ignore what someone is saying
3. In good health
4. To betray a close person

Q.17 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
We will / have been know the result / of the CAT exam by next week.
Ans 1. We will
2. No error
3. have been know the result
4. of the CAT exam by next week

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Authentic
Ans 1. Basic
2. Genuine
3. Fake
4. Different

Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Fit as a fiddle
Ans 1. To be in good health
2. To be extremely excited and energetic
3. Something is perfect
4. A good and useful invention

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The plane crash was a harrowing experience for everyone involved.
Ans 1. Awesome
2. Excruciating
3. Exterminate
4. Sad

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Rajib’s habit of sneering at the beliefs of others often hurts others’ sentiments.
Ans 1. cynicism
2. certainty
3. manipulation
4. cleverness

Q.22 Select the most appropriate one-word substitution of the given group of words.
A form of government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and exercised by their
elected agents under a free electoral system.
Ans 1. Democracy
2. Monarchy
3. Anarchy
4. Autocracy

Q.23 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Inquisitive
Ans 1. Studious
2. Innocent
3. Curious
4. Indifferent

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 Q.24 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.
He is so stingy that I have never seen him spending money on basic necessities.
Ans 1. Extravagant
2. Indecent
3. Obnoxious
4. Wicked

Q.25 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘factual’ in the given sentence and choose the
correct option.
The scientist’s hypothesis was based on empirical evidence and rigorous experimentation.
Ans 1. Evidence
2. Hypothesis
3. Empirical
4. Rigorous

Q.26 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Reminiscence
Ans 1. Harsh
2. Benevolence
3. Remembrance
4. Oblivion

Q.27 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
The book narrated the athlete’s prowess in a lucid manner.
Ans 1. exceptional mastery
2. affluent days
3. refined arguments
4. difficult situation

Q.28 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

She has become a familiar figure in the world of politics.
Ans 1. Legend
2. Elevated
3. Fancy
4. Known

Q.29 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’
The unexpected turn beside the project put the company in a big financial crisis.
Ans 1. until the project
2. No substitution required
3. between the project
4. in the project

Q.30 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the underlined words in the following sentence.
It is important to see school holistically, it is not a set of atomic items of rooms, library, assembly
halls, canteen and playgrounds; it is all of these but in symbiotic relationship with each other, the
contors of which are often far too obvious and often simply mysterious.
Ans 1. mysterious
2. contors
3. symbiotic
4. holistically

Q.31 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

She has no desire for money.
Ans 1. Care
2. Disgust
3. Wish
4. Despise

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 Q.32 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
My elder brother / yesterday had took / my Facebook password.
Ans 1. My elder brother
2. my Facebook password
3. yesterday had took
4. No error

Q.33 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A book published after author’s death.
Ans 1. Posthuman publication
2. Predecessor publication
3. Posthumous publication
4. Supernatural publication

Q.34 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
The decision to engage in an armed conflict is tacit.
Ans 1. ineffective completely
2. regretted by everyone
3. incomprehensible for some
4. implied without being stated

Q.35 Identify the option that rectifies the spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.
Students should have a good vocabulary to write an essay efectively.
Ans 1. Wriite
2. Gud
3. Effectively
4. Voicabulary

Q.36 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
One who goes from place to place, begging
Ans 1. Mendicant
2. Malleable
3. Meticulous
4. Misogamist

Q.37 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
You can become confident to speak English within one year.
Ans 1. convinced to speaking
2. assured of speaking
3. reassured of speaking
4. confident in speaking

Q.38 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an
error.
Will Ramya / had completed / that work / by 2025?
Ans 1. by 2025
2. had completed
3. that work
4. Will Ramya

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 Q.39 Fill in the blank by selecting the meaningful and correctly spelt word from the given options.
They knew that the stock of the food was getting reduced and the fund________for that was not
enough for the next week.
Ans 1. asserted
2. alerted
3. abandoned
4. allotted

Q.40 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

It is beyond my cognative capacity to solve the mathematical problems.
Ans 1. capacity
2. problems
3. cognative
4. mathematical

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Swans are large waterbirds that (1)________ to the family Anatidae, which also includes ducks and
geese. They (2) ________ for their beauty and grace and are often used as symbols of love, fidelity,
and elegance. They are also famous for their (3) ________ features, such as their long necks, large
wingspans, and striking white feathers. (4) ________, not all swan species are white; the Black
Swan, (5) ________, has black feathers with a red bill. Swans are found on every continent and are
known for their strong pair bonds. They mate for life and can live up to 20 years.
SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. belong
2. belonging
3. belongs
4. belonged

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Swans are large waterbirds that (1)________ to the family Anatidae, which also includes ducks and
geese. They (2) ________ for their beauty and grace and are often used as symbols of love, fidelity,
and elegance. They are also famous for their (3) ________ features, such as their long necks, large
wingspans, and striking white feathers. (4) ________, not all swan species are white; the Black
Swan, (5) ________, has black feathers with a red bill. Swans are found on every continent and are
known for their strong pair bonds. They mate for life and can live up to 20 years.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. have knowing
2. are known
3. were known
4. had know

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Swans are large waterbirds that (1)________ to the family Anatidae, which also includes ducks and
geese. They (2) ________ for their beauty and grace and are often used as symbols of love, fidelity,
and elegance. They are also famous for their (3) ________ features, such as their long necks, large
wingspans, and striking white feathers. (4) ________, not all swan species are white; the Black
Swan, (5) ________, has black feathers with a red bill. Swans are found on every continent and are
known for their strong pair bonds. They mate for life and can live up to 20 years.
SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. distinctive
2. similar
3. popular
4. finite

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Swans are large waterbirds that (1)________ to the family Anatidae, which also includes ducks and
geese. They (2) ________ for their beauty and grace and are often used as symbols of love, fidelity,
and elegance. They are also famous for their (3) ________ features, such as their long necks, large
wingspans, and striking white feathers. (4) ________, not all swan species are white; the Black
Swan, (5) ________, has black feathers with a red bill. Swans are found on every continent and are
known for their strong pair bonds. They mate for life and can live up to 20 years.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. Consequently
2. Formerly
3. Because
4. However

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Swans are large waterbirds that (1)________ to the family Anatidae, which also includes ducks and
geese. They (2) ________ for their beauty and grace and are often used as symbols of love, fidelity,
and elegance. They are also famous for their (3) ________ features, such as their long necks, large
wingspans, and striking white feathers. (4) ________, not all swan species are white; the Black
Swan, (5) ________, has black feathers with a red bill. Swans are found on every continent and are
known for their strong pair bonds. They mate for life and can live up to 20 years.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. after all
2. for example
3. of course
4. in addition

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As the world’s population approaches 8 billion and resource use intensifies, pollution is ever more
extensive, pervasive, and persistent. It affects our health through the food we eat, the water we drink
and the air we breathe. By 2025, the world’s cities will produce 2.2 billion tonnes of waste every year,
more than three times the amount produced in 2009. That said, pollution is not a new phenomenon
and is largely controllable and often avoidable, as shown in some countries and cities that have
succeeded in decoupling economic growth from pollution and waste accumulation.
With the end goal to eradicate all forms of pollution by 2030, the UN Environment Programme was
tasked by the UN Environment Assembly to coordinate the implementation of a global plan reiterating
that pollution is not only an environmental priority, it's a priority for the achievement of the Sustainable
Development Goals.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 Which of the following most accurately states the central idea of the passage?
Ans 1. Population explosion
2. Economic growth
3. United Nations
4. Pollution free planet

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As the world’s population approaches 8 billion and resource use intensifies, pollution is ever more
extensive, pervasive, and persistent. It affects our health through the food we eat, the water we drink
and the air we breathe. By 2025, the world’s cities will produce 2.2 billion tonnes of waste every year,
more than three times the amount produced in 2009. That said, pollution is not a new phenomenon
and is largely controllable and often avoidable, as shown in some countries and cities that have
succeeded in decoupling economic growth from pollution and waste accumulation.
With the end goal to eradicate all forms of pollution by 2030, the UN Environment Programme was
tasked by the UN Environment Assembly to coordinate the implementation of a global plan reiterating
that pollution is not only an environmental priority, it's a priority for the achievement of the Sustainable
Development Goals.
SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 What is the ANTONYM for the word ‘priority’ from the passage?
Ans 1. Last
2. Factor
3. Task
4. Part

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As the world’s population approaches 8 billion and resource use intensifies, pollution is ever more
extensive, pervasive, and persistent. It affects our health through the food we eat, the water we drink
and the air we breathe. By 2025, the world’s cities will produce 2.2 billion tonnes of waste every year,
more than three times the amount produced in 2009. That said, pollution is not a new phenomenon
and is largely controllable and often avoidable, as shown in some countries and cities that have
succeeded in decoupling economic growth from pollution and waste accumulation.
With the end goal to eradicate all forms of pollution by 2030, the UN Environment Programme was
tasked by the UN Environment Assembly to coordinate the implementation of a global plan reiterating
that pollution is not only an environmental priority, it's a priority for the achievement of the Sustainable
Development Goals.
SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 What is the ANTONYM for the word ‘pervasive’ from the passage?
Ans 1. Offensive
2. Limited
3. Clear
4. Emotional

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As the world’s population approaches 8 billion and resource use intensifies, pollution is ever more
extensive, pervasive, and persistent. It affects our health through the food we eat, the water we drink
and the air we breathe. By 2025, the world’s cities will produce 2.2 billion tonnes of waste every year,
more than three times the amount produced in 2009. That said, pollution is not a new phenomenon
and is largely controllable and often avoidable, as shown in some countries and cities that have
succeeded in decoupling economic growth from pollution and waste accumulation.
With the end goal to eradicate all forms of pollution by 2030, the UN Environment Programme was
tasked by the UN Environment Assembly to coordinate the implementation of a global plan reiterating
that pollution is not only an environmental priority, it's a priority for the achievement of the Sustainable
Development Goals.
SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 Which of the following represents the structure of the passage?
Ans 1. Critique
2. Chronology
3. Cause-effect
4. Definition

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As the world’s population approaches 8 billion and resource use intensifies, pollution is ever more
extensive, pervasive, and persistent. It affects our health through the food we eat, the water we drink
and the air we breathe. By 2025, the world’s cities will produce 2.2 billion tonnes of waste every year,
more than three times the amount produced in 2009. That said, pollution is not a new phenomenon
and is largely controllable and often avoidable, as shown in some countries and cities that have
succeeded in decoupling economic growth from pollution and waste accumulation.
With the end goal to eradicate all forms of pollution by 2030, the UN Environment Programme was
tasked by the UN Environment Assembly to coordinate the implementation of a global plan reiterating
that pollution is not only an environmental priority, it's a priority for the achievement of the Sustainable
Development Goals.

SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 Which is the best description of the tone of the passage?
Ans 1. Sarcastic
2. Dogmatic
3. Technical
4. Humanistic

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 Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I
Exam Date 05/10/2023
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 In a certain code language, 'BAKED' is written as 'CCNII' and 'COOK' is written as 'DQRO'. How will
'EATING' be written in that language?
Ans 1. FDVMRM
2. FCWMTM
3. FCWMSM
4. GDXNTN

Q.3 Param drives 8 km towards north from point A. He takes a right turn and drives 8 km. Again he
takes a right turn and drives 4 km. Finally, he takes a right turn and drives 8 km to reach point B.
How far and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?
Ans 1. 5 km towards north
2. 3 km towards west
3. 6 km towards east
4. 4 km towards south

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 Q.4 Six students P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. R is an
immediate neighbour of both T and U. P is sitting third to the right of U. Q is sitting to the
immediate left of S. S is sitting second to the right of P. Who is the immediate neigbour of both R
and S?
Ans 1. U
2. P
3. Q
4. T

Q.5

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘CANADA’ is written as ‘XZMZWZ’ and ‘AFRICA’ is written as ‘ZUIRXZ’.
How will ‘DEPRESSION’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. WVKIVHHRLM
2. XVKIVGGPLM
3. XVKIVGGRLM
4. WVKIVGGPLM

Q.7 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of ‘?’ in the
following equation?
137 ÷ 80 × 5 - 4 + 34 = ?
Ans 1. 167
2. 184
3. 235
4. 141

Q.8 Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one
that is different.
Ans 1. AZBY
2. FAEB
3. ZUYV
4. UPTQ

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 Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'MN' as
shown below.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to
the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
98 : 115 :: 74 : ? :: 67 : 84
Ans 1. 80
2. 85
3. 95
4. 91

Q.12 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All actors are singers.
Some musicians are dancers.
Conclusion:
I)All dancers are musicians.
II)Some singers are actors.
Ans 1. Only Conclusion II follows.
2. Both Conclusions I and II follow.
3. Only Conclusion I follows
4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

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 Q.13 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(6, 15, 1)
(5, 6, 3)
Ans 1. (5,32,7)
2. (7,42,5)
3. (15,21,8)
4. (12,46,5)

Q.14 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Sermonize
2.Serious
3.Servant
4.Session
5.Serrated
Ans 1. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
2. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
3. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
4. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4

Q.15

Ans 1. 61
2. 58
3. 69
4. 72

Q.16

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘BABY’ is coded as ‘29’ and ‘GENDER’ is coded as ‘52’. How will
‘CRIPPLE’ be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 88
2. 84
3. 78
4. 74

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 Q.18 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
FMQX, DJSA, ?, ZDWG, XAYJ
Ans 1. BGDU
2. BGUD
3. BFUC
4. BEDF

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(12,14, 38)
(6, 23, 35)
Ans 1. (16, 11, 43)
2. (8, 10, 24)
3. (4, 5, 20)
4. (19, 9, 38)

Q.20 In a certain code language, 'CHALK' is coded as 6-16-2-24-22 and 'BOARD' is coded as 4-30-2-36-
8. How will 'PAPER' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 32-2-32-12-36
2. 32-2-32-10-36
3. 36-2-36-10-32
4. 36-2-36-12-32

Q.21 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to each other
based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Pencil : Lead :: Pen : ?
Ans 1. Black
2. Gas
3. Ink
4. Water

Q.22 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to each other
based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Pamper: Gratify :: Devour:?
Ans 1. Build
2. Abstain
3. Receive
4. Ravage

Q.23

Ans 1. 38
2. 48
3. 29
4. 57

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 Q.24 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one
that is different.
Ans 1. QSRT
2. XZYA
3. NPOQ
4. PKQJ

Q.26 If '+' means '×', '×' means '–', '–' means '÷' and '÷' means '+', then what will come in place of the (?)
in the following equation?
150 – 5 + 3 ÷ 23 × 3 = ?
Ans 1. 110
2. 111
3. 145
4. 155

Q.27 6 friends are sitting around a circular table. Vini, Urja and Tanvi are sitting facing the centre and
two out of Abhay, Bala and Chan are not sitting facing the centre. Vini is sitting second to the left
of Chan. Urja is sitting second to the right of Abhay. Bala is sitting third to the left of Tanvi. Chan is
sitting second to the right of Tanvi. Abhay is sitting next to Vini.
Who is sitting fourth to the right of Chan?
Ans 1. Tanvi
2. Vini
3. Bala
4. Urja

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 Q.28

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.29

Ans 1. FIVD
2. FEVD
3. FDVD
4. FPVD

Q.30

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.31 A @ B means ‘A is the husband of B’
A & B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’
If J # L @ Y & K @ Z, then how is J related to Z?
Ans 1. Husband’s sister
2. Mother
3. Sister’s husband
4. Brother’s wife

Q.32 If '+' means '–', '–' means '÷', '÷' means '×' and '×' means '+', then what will come in place of the (?)
in the following equation?
300 – 2 + 50 × 3 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 23
2. 61
3. 106
4. 661

Q.33 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All cardiologists are doctors.
Some cardiologists are neurologists.
Conclusions:
I) Some doctors are cardiologists.
II) Some doctors are neurologists.
Ans 1. Only Conclusion II follows
2. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
3. Only Conclusion I follows.
4. Both Conclusions I and II follow.

Q.34 ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A * B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B‘.
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
If P * V # D $ B = Z, then how is B related to P?
Ans 1. Brother
2. Husband
3. Husband's father
4. Wife

Q.35 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
98, 126, 165, 216, 280, ?
Ans 1. 358
2. 344
3. 356
4. 348

Q.36 Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to
the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.
7 : 40 :: ? : 667 :: 39 : 1512
Ans 1. 25
2. 47
3. 34
4. 26

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 Q.37

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.38 Which of the following interchange of numbers (not digit) would make the given equation correct?
16 × 5 ÷ 20 + 6 + 50 = 40
Ans 1. 20, 40
2. 40, 50
3. 5, 40
4. 6, 40

Q.39 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Channel
2. Chariot
3. Charcoal
4. Chapel
5. Chamber
6. Chance
Ans 1. 5, 6, 1, 4, 3, 2
2. 5, 1, 6, 4, 2, 3
3. 5, 1, 6, 4, 3, 2
4. 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3

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 Q.40 A paper is folded and cut as shown. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.41 Amsterdam is located to the South of Barcelona. Munich is to the West of Amsterdam. Detroit is
to the East of Munich. Toronto is to the South of Detroit and to the South-East of Barcelona. What
is the position of Amsterdam with respect to Detroit? (All positions are arranged in GRID pattern)
Ans 1. North
2. South
3. West
4. East

Q.42 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
28, 30, ?, 188, 754, 3772
Ans 1. 122
2. 60
3. 120
4. 62

Q.43 In a certain code language, 'RING' is coded as 64 and 'WATCH' is coded as 125. How will
'BRACELET' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 343
2. 504
3. 478
4. 512

Q.44 Which of the following letters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
B, D, G, K, P, ?
Ans 1. Q
2. S
3. V
4. R

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 Q.45

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.46 Two statements are given followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All knives are guns.
Some bullets are knives.
Conclusions:
I. Some guns are bullets.
II. No bullet is a gun.
III. Some guns are knives.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.
2. Conclusions I, II and III follow.
3. Both conclusions I and III follow.
4. Both conclusions II and III follow.

Q.47 Three Statements are given followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All elephants are fishes.
No fish is a tiger.
Some deer are elephants.
Conclusions:
I. Some fishes are deer.
II. No elephant is a deer.
III. Some tigers are fishes.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and III follow.
2. Only conclusion II follows.
3. Only conclusion I follows.
4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

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 Q.48

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.49 Select the option figure that is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed)

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.50 If '+' means '÷' , '–' means '+' , '×' means '–' and '÷' means '×', then what will come in place of (?) in
the given equation?
5 ÷ 2 – 20 + 5 × 2 =?
Ans 1. 15
2. 20
3. 12
4. 10

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.1 Who succeeded Alivardi Khan as Nawab of Bengal?
Ans 1. Mir Kasim
2. Shaukat Jang
3. Siraj-ud-Daulah
4. Mir Jaffar

Q.2 The preferred IUPAC name of Allyl bromide is:

Ans 1. 3-Bromopropene
2. 2-Bromopropene
3. 1-Bromopantene
4. 3-Bromobutene

Q.3 In a basketball game, how many players from one team play on the court at any given time?
Ans 1. 6
2. 5
3. 7
4. 4

Q.4 The first Indian who won a medal in World Athletics Championship is_____.
Ans 1. Neeraj Chopra
2. Anju Bobby George
3. Murali Sreeshankar
4. Annu Rani

Q.5 The food component present in sugar is:

Ans 1. protein
2. carbohydrates
3. fats
4. vitamins

Q.6 Ugadi is a ________ New Year celebrated in the month of March.

Ans 1. Telugu
2. Punjabi
3. Bengali
4. Marathi

Q.7 Which of the following states has the lowest literacy rate in India according to census 2011?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Haryana
3. Bihar
4. Odisha

Q.8 Nauroz is celebrated by which of the following communities in India?

Ans 1. Jain
2. Sikh
3. Parsi
4. Buddhist

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 Q.9 In the Interim Government formed on 2 September 1946, Liaquat Ali Khan was given the charge of:
Ans 1. the Defence Ministry
2. the External Affairs Ministry
3. the Home Ministry
4. the Finance Ministry

Q.10 ______ is characterized by abundant dissolved oxygen, sunlight, nutrients, generally high wave
energies and water motion, and, in the intertidal subzone, alternating submergence and
exposure.
Ans 1. The Littoral Zone
2. The Lentic Zone
3. The Benthic Zone
4. The Limnetic Zone

Q.11 When did Heinrich Hertz discover the photoelectric effect and observe that shining ultraviolet light
on the electrodes caused a change in voltage between them?
Ans 1. 1990
2. 1902
3. 1916
4. 1887

Q.12 Ustad Asad Ali Khan is famous for which of the following schools of Dhrupad as an
instrumentalist?
Ans 1. Dagar
2. Khandarbani
3. Nauhar
4. Gauri

Q.13 The Madhya Pradesh government conferred the Dhananjayans, a celebrated ________________
couple from Chennai, with the prestigious Rashtriya Kalidas Samman for 2019-2020.
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam
2. Kathakali
3. Sattriya
4. Kuchipudi

Q.14 Identify the correct statement about gravity.

Ans 1. The unit of g is the same as that of friction.
2. The unit of g is the same as that of mass.
3. The unit of g is the same as that of acceleration.
4. The unit of g is the same as that of velocity.

Q.15 The drainage system formed when rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or
depression, as in the case of Loktak Lake in Manipur, is called ________.
Ans 1. trellis
2. dendritic
3. centripetal
4. radial

Q.16 Which of the following was the major export item from India in 2021?
Ans 1. Automobiles
2. Pharmaceuticals
3. Petroleum products
4. Jewellery

Q.17 ‘Wings of Fire’ is the autobiography of _______.

Ans 1. Rajendra Prasad
2. KR Narayanan
3. Zakir Husain
4. APJ Abdul Kalam

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 Q.18 Which of the following is responsible for attending to disputes concerning recruitment and
conditions of service of public personnel at the Centre?
Ans 1. The Competition Appellate Tribunal
2. The Settlement and Appellate Tribunal
3. Central Administrative Tribunal
4. Joint Administrative Tribunal

Q.19 Cricket became an international game with the formation of the Imperial Cricket Conference (ICC)
in the year _______.
Ans 1. 1951
2. 1947
3. 1921
4. 1909

Q.20 Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution deal with ___________.

Ans 1. fundamental rights
2. fundamental duties
3. preamble of Indian constitution
4. directive principles of state policy

Q.21 Who was the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir in October 2022?
Ans 1. Girish Chandra Murmu
2. NN Vohra
3. Satya Pal Malik
4. Manoj Sinha

Q.22 Who among the following had written ‘The Dark Room’ that presents an Indian woman in stiff
opposition to male domination?
Ans 1. Kuldip Nayyar
2. RK Narayan
3. Mulk Raj Anand
4. Kazi Nazrul Islam

Q.23 Calculate the GDP at factor cost given in the following data.
GDP at market price = 600 crores
Consumption of fixed capital = 100 crores
Indirect taxes = 200 crores
Subsidies = 50 crores
Ans 1. 950 crores
2. 450 crores
3. 850 crores
4. 350 crores

Q.24 After how many days of absence from Parliament without permission will a Member of
Parliament be disqualified?
Ans 1. 60 days
2. 50 days
3. 20 days
4. 30 days

Q.25 The ______________ Five-Year Plan was the first plan to focus on gender issues, women
empowerment and the growing inequalities amongst the states and inter-regional disparities.
Ans 1. Sixth
2. Fifth
3. Third
4. Fourth

Q.26 Tomb of Iltutmish was built in which year?

Ans 1. 1388 AD
2. 1235 AD
3. 1199 AD
4. 1458 AD

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 Q.27

Ans 1. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a

2. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
3. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
4. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

Q.28 Which of the following can degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances?
Ans 1. Algae
2. Phytoplankton
3. Fungal enzymes
4. Lichens

Q.29 M Balamuralikrishna is associated with which form of music?

Ans 1. Hindustani Sangeet
2. Folk music
3. Haveli Sangeet
4. Carnatic Sangeet

Q.30 The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the ‘Bill of Rights’ of which of the
following countries?
Ans 1. The USA
2. Japan
3. The USSR
4. Australia

Q.31 Bharatanatyam is traditionally performed to which type of music?

Ans 1. Hindustani
2. Carnatic
3. Lavani
4. Baul

Q.32 ________ are NOT considered surface water.

Ans 1. Lakes
2. Oceans
3. Aquifers
4. Rivers

Q.33 Which of the following statements is correct?

Ans 1. Chemically rust is non-hydrated ferric oxide.
2. Chemically rust is hydrated ferric oxide.
3. Copper can also turn into rust upon hydration.
4. Zinc oxide is a form of rust.

Q.34 Kanaka Raju has been awarded Padma Shri in 2021 for which of the following folk dances?
Ans 1. Gussadi
2. Bhavai
3. Fugdi
4. Ganagor

Q.35 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to the Green Revolution?
Ans 1. It was introduced in areas that were rain-fed.
2. It was funded by international agencies.
3. It was a government programme of agricultural modernisation.
4. It was targeted mainly at the wheat and rice-growing areas.

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 Q.36 Which report is NOT associated with Fundamental Rights?
Ans 1. Sarkaria Commission Report
2. JB Kripalani Report
3. Motilal Nehru Report
4. Tej Bahadur Sapru Report

Q.37 The Delhi sultan, who succumbed to injuries as a result of his fall from horse was _____.
Ans 1. Iltutmish
2. Balban
3. Qutubuddin Aibak
4. Behram Shah

Q.38 Aluna Kabuini is associated with which of the following dances?

Ans 1. Mohiniyattam
2. Sattriya
3. Manipuri
4. Kathak

Q.39 Which of the following is a source of tax revenue?

Ans 1. Customs
2. Grants
3. Penalties
4. Profits

Q.40 What is the length of a bacterial cell?

Ans 1. 0 to 3 µm
2. 1 to 40 µm
3. 30 to 50 µm
4. 3 to 5 µm

Q.41 French possessions in India were restored after the Battle of Wandiwash by the Treaty of
________ signed in the year 1763 between Britain and France.
Ans 1. Purandar
2. Tordesillas
3. Paris
4. Surat

Q.42 According to National Statistical Office (NSO) data, India's average literacy rate in 2021 was
_________.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.43 Identify the INCORRECT statement for the universal law of gravitation.
Ans 1. It is the force causing tides due to the stars and earth
2. It is the forces that assists motion of the moon around earth
3. It is the force keeps motion of planets around the Sun
4. It is the force that binds us to earth

Q.44 Which of the following places experiences extreme cold in winter and pleasant weather in
summer?
Ans 1. New Delhi
2. Amritsar
3. Chennai
4. Leh

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 Q.45 Which of the following policy measures is NOT a step towards liberalisation?
Ans 1. Enhancement in tariffs
2. Increase in equity limit of foreign investment
3. Removal of industrial licensing for certain industries
4. Removal of requirement of registration for certain industries

Q.46 The Harshacharita is written in Sanskrit by _________.

Ans 1. Harshavardhana
2. Harisena
3. Nagasena
4. Banabhatta

Q.47 Which ecosystem is the only one that does NOT thrive on solar energy?
Ans 1. Phytoplanktons
2. Deep sea hydro-thermal ecosystem
3. Marine organisms
4. Nitrogen fixing bacteria

Q.48 In test match cricket, how many minimum overs can a team play in a day?
Ans 1. 90
2. 70
3. 80
4. 60

Q.49 Which of the following events took place in 1398?

Ans 1. Timur invasion of india
2. Battle of Haldighati
3. Humayun’s flight to Persia
4. Babur’s invasion of Delhi

Q.50 Which of the following sets of statements are correct about Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
(ITCZ)?
a. The ITCZ is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes.
b. This is where the northeast and the southeast trade winds converge.
c. The ITCZ is the equatorial trough normally positioned about 5°N of the equator and remain there
throughout the year.
d. The ITCZ moves over to the plane of Ganga in Summer.
Ans 1. Only a and c
2. a, b and d
3. a, b and c
4. Only b and c

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Simplify the following.
9 × 2 ÷ 3 of 24 - 3 ÷ 2 × (6 - 7) × 2 + 3 ÷ 3 of 5
Ans 1.
2.

3.

4.

Q.2 A person sold two cars for ₹60,000 each. On one, he gained 20%while on the other he lost 20%.
Find the percentage of his gain or loss.
Ans 1. Gain 4%
2. Loss 4%
3. No profit and no loss
4. Loss 2%

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 Q.3 The following table shows the marks obtained out of 100, by 5 students in 5 different subjects.

What are the total marks scored by Ayush in all the subjects?

Ans 1. 425
2. 445
3. 435
4. 465

Q.4 A sum amounts to ₹7,656 in 4 years and to ₹8,120 in 5 years at a certain simple interest rate per
cent per annum. The rate of interest is:
Ans 1. 8%
2. 7%
3. 3%
4. 4%

Q.5 Two circles touch each other externally at C. AB is a direct common tangent to the two circles, A
and B are points of contact and ∠ CAB = 55°. Then ∠ ACB is:
Ans 1. 55°
2. 90°
3. 45°
4. 35°

Q.6 What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 14, 16 and 18?
Ans 1. 504
2. 636
3. 226
4. 428

Q.7 A can do a certain piece of work in 2.4 times the number of days in which B and C together can do
it. If A and B together can do the said piece of work in 27 days and C alone can do it in 75 days,
then how many days will B take to do this piece of work alone?
Ans 1. 54
2. 42
3. 48
4. 45

Q.8 Which of the following ratios is the greatest?

Ans 1. 7 : 10
2. 1 : 3
3. 5 : 6
4. 2 : 5

Q.9 A train of length 180 m takes 40 seconds to cross a tunnel of length 500 m. What is the speed of
the train, in km/h?
Ans 1. 71.2
2. 61.2
3. 52.5
4. 80.5

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 Q.10 Two successive discounts of 30%and 20%are equivalent to a single discount of:
Ans 1. 52%
2. 50%
3. 45%
4. 44%

Q.11 If tanθ + cotθ = 2, θ is an acute angle, then find the value of 2 tan25 θ + 3 cot20 θ + 5 tan30 θ cot15 θ.
Ans 1. 6
2. 12
3. 8
4. 10

Q.12

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14 The LCM of 96, 132 and 438 is:

Ans 1. 86084
2. 85046
3. 77088
4. 67055

Q.15 Out of two concentric circles, the radius of the outer circle is 6 cm and the chord PQ of the length
10 cm is a tangent to the inner circle. Find the radius (in cm) of the inner circle.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 The greatest possible length that can be used to measure exactly the lengths of 3 m 15 cm, 5 m,
and 6 m 85 cm is:
Ans 1. 11 cm
2. 5 cm
3. 9 cm
4. 7 cm

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 Q.17 In an equilateral ∆PQR, S is point on the side QR such that QR = 3QS. If PQ = 9 cm, then what will
be the length (in cm) of PS?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.18 Two circles with centres P and Q of radii 6 cm and 4 cm, respectively, touch each other internally.
If the perpendicular bisector of PQ meets the bigger circle in A and B, then the value of AB is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19 What will be the area of a plot of quadrilateral shape, one of whose diagonals is 20 m and lengths
of the perpendiculars from the opposite vertices on it are 12 m and 18 m, respectively?
Ans 1. 300 m2
2. 200 m2
3. 400 m2
4. 250 m2

Q.20 The monthly income of an employee was ₹26,500 and his monthly expenditure was ₹22,000. Next
year his income increased by 20%and his expenditure increased by 15%. Find the percentage
increase in his savings.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21

Ans 1. 6
2. 9
3. 7
4. 8

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 Q.22

Ans 1. 14 : 9
2. 9 : 14
3. 34 : 39
4. 39 : 34

Q.23

Ans 1. 2310
2. 2060
3. 2540
4. 3210

Q.24 Find the value of sin (50 ° + A) - cos (40 ° - A).

Ans 1. 1
2. 0
3. 2
4. −1

Q.25 The difference between a discount of 30%on ₹5,000 and two successive discounts of 15%and
25%on the same amount is:
Ans 1. ₹350.50
2. ₹412.50
3. ₹315.50
4. ₹312.50

Q.26

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.27 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of employees in five different organisations A, B, C, D and E in
different departments.

Which organisation has maximum number of employees?

Ans 1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E

Q.28 Julie and Soma start from the same point and walk in opposite directions. Julie walks 4 km/h
faster than Soma. After 4 hours they are 40 km apart. How fast did each walk?
Ans 1. Julie – 9 km/h; Soma – 5 km/h
2. Julie – 7 km/h; Soma – 3 km/h
3. Julie – 10 km/h; Soma – 6 km/h
4. Julie – 8 km/h; Soma – 4 km/h

Q.29

Ans 1. 150%
2. 10%
3. 100%
4. 50%

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 Q.30 A family earns ₹75,000, out of which 10%is saved. 30%of the expenditure is incurred on
education, while ₹30,375 is spent on health and the remaining amount is spent on food. What is
the percentage of food expenditure to the total income?
Ans 1.
2.
3.

4.

Q.31 The total surface area of a cone whose radius is 3 cm and height is 4 cm is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.32 What is the LCM of 0.15, 0.18 and 0.45?

Ans 1. 0.6
2. 0.9
3. 0.81
4. 0.09

Q.33 Arbind has 650 kg of wheat. A part of which he sells at 9%profit and the rest at 19%profit to get
15%profit on the whole. What is the quantity (in kg) of wheat sold by Arbind at 9%profit?
Ans 1. 390
2. 195
3. 260
4. 455

Q.34

Ans 1. 75%
2. 72.5%
3. 68.5%
4. 65%

Q.35 Ram has 12 hens and 5 cows, Shyam has 18 hens and 9 cows, Preetham has 4 hens and 8 cows,
and Vinay has 10 hens and 7 cows. Who has a greater ratio of hens to cows?
Ans 1. Vinay
2. Preetham
3. Shyam
4. Ram

Q.36

Ans 1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2

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 Q.37 The average of 45 numbers was found to be 39. Later on, it was detected that a number 65 was
misread as 56. Find the correct average of the given numbers.

Ans 1. 37.2
2. 38.2
3. 36.2
4. 39.2

Q.38 Find the amount (integral value only) if a sum of ₹6,500 is being borrowed at 10%interest per
annum for 2 years if interest is compounded half-yearly.
Ans 1. ₹8,150
2. ₹7,650
3. ₹7,900
4. ₹8,250

Q.39

Ans 1. 18.25%
2. 16.48%
3. 17.36%
4. 15.63%

Q.40 Three candidates contested an election and won 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes, respectively. What
percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get?
Ans 1. 49
2. 33
3. 45
4. 57

Q.41

Ans 1. B, 2015
2. B, 2010
3. A, 2011
4. A, 2010

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 Q.42 A sphere and another solid hemisphere have the same surface area. The ratio of their volumes is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.43 Robert takes twice as much time as Tom and thrice as much time as George to complete a work.
If working together, they can complete it in 23 hours, then find the time that Tom will take to
complete the work.
Ans 1. 39 hours
2. 46 hours
3. 11 hours
4. 69 hours

Q.44 Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.
The pie-chart shows the sale of different fruits in a shop in a day.

If a total of 1200 kg of fruits were sold in a day, find the difference between sales of grapes and
oranges (in kg).
Ans 1. 45
2. 65
3. 55
4. 60

Q.45 Find the LCM of 20, 30, 45 and 65.

Ans 1. 180
2. 2340
3. 2000
4. 2240

Q.46 Two metallic balls P and Q are such that the diameter of P is four times the diameter of Q. What is
the ratio between the volumes of P and Q?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.47 By selling a table for ₹1,596, Aarav loses 24%. At what price (in ₹) should he sell it to gain 24%?
Ans 1. 3196
2. 2604
3. 1979
4. 3024

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 Q.48 Vipin can do a piece of work in 2 days; Vaibhav can do the same work in 3 days and Chirag can do
the same work in 6 days. If they start working together, how many days will they take to complete
the work?
Ans 1. 1
2. 4
3. 5
4. 3

Q.49 A runner runs a 750-metre race in 54 seconds. Find the runner’s speed (in km/h).
Ans 1. 30
2. 14
3. 40
4. 50

Q.50

Ans 1. 22.22%
2. 33.33%
3. 44.44%
4. 55.55%

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Pull yourself together
Ans 1. Discourage the orphans
2. Feel agitated
3. Encourage the rich
4. Calm down after an upsetting incident

Q.2 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank and complete the meaning of the sentence.
Most of the ministers are concerned with the _________ of office than the service of man.
Ans 1. Herculean task
2. wear and tear
3. leaps and bounds
4. loaves and fishes

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
One of their freighters, / a Neptune, / will be leaving/ in two weeks.
Ans 1. in two weeks
2. will be leaving
3. a Neptune
4. One of their freighters

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Build castles in the air
Ans 1. To make imaginary schemes
2. To talk pointlessly
3. To make useless efforts
4. To build a palatial house

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Calm
Ans 1. Turbulent
2. Variable
3. Shocked
4. Confused

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 Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.
Technology has become a part and parcel of modern lifestyle.
Ans 1. a useless part
2. a myth
3. an integral part
4. an obstacle

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Camouflage
2. Comutter
3. Commission
4. Committee

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The court absolved the defendant of all charges due to lack of evidence.
Ans 1. accused
2. condemned
3. criticised
4. attacked

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.
Children and adolescents with a morbid compulsion to steal experience a growing sense of
tension just before stealing, followed by pleasure, relief or gratification during or just after
stealing.
Ans 1. Kleptomania
2. Dipsomania
3. Megalomania
4. Pyromania

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To let the cat out of the bag
Ans 1. To hide the truth
2. To be in a hurry
3. To be careful
4. To reveal a secret

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the underlined words in the following sentence.
But he waited with the inconceivable patience and persistancy of the race; besides, he was
certain, the cat was a creature of absolute convictions and his faith in his deductions never
wavered.
Ans 1. deductions
2. convictions
3. persistancy
4. inconceivable

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
Despite of an injury, he won the match.
Ans 1. In spite off
2. In despite of
3. Despite
4. No substitution required

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.
The teacher asked the students to be quite during the exam.
Ans 1. be quiet
2. No substitution
3. have quiet
4. been quiet

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 Q.14 Select the correctly spelt sentence.

Ans 1. The country’s GDP bloomed despete the ongoing war sitution
2. The country’s GDP bloomed dispete the ongoing war situation.
3. The country’s GDP bloomed despite the ongoing war situation.
4. The country’s GDP bloomed dispite the ongoing war situation.

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Being courteous _______ costs you nothing.
Ans 1. an
2. the
3. No article required
4. a

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vagrancy
Ans 1. Vagueness
2. Fragrance
3. Exploration
4. Vagabond

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word

Ans 1. Propagate
2. Legitimate
3. Exagerate
4. Promulgate

Q.18 Identify the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error in the given sentence.
Mountainering is now looked upon as the king of sports.
Ans 1. Mountaineering
2. Mounteineering
3. Mountainouring
4. Mountainearing

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
The cat climbed a tree and perched itself on a branch.
Ans 1. perked
2. parched
3. No substitution required
4. perished

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Hideous
Ans 1. Healthful
2. Attractive
3. Restorative
4. Lament

Q.21 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Profane
Ans 1. Barnyard
2. Immaterial
3. Divine
4. Perverse

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 Q.22 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Diabolical
Ans 1. Sophisticated
2. Malicious
3. Celestial
4. Sycophant

Q.23 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Sluggish
Ans 1. Abnormal
2. Swift
3. Utterly
4. Slow

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
The platter was insipid, so we refused to pay the bill.
Ans 1. full of spices
2. full of flavours
3. lacking taste
4. filled with dirt

Q.25 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Doctors are raising hue and cry against the RTH bill.
Ans 1. Protest
2. Postpone
3. Abandon
4. Enquire

Q.26 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
The manager noticed a discrepancy between the two audit reports.
Ans 1. deliberate mistake
2. selfish interest
3. major difference
4. great similarity

Q.27 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Fifty rupees feels too much for such a pen.
Ans 1. price
2. seems
3. minds
4. looks

Q.28 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Major
Ans 1. Shallow
2. Diligent
3. Creviced
4. Considerable

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 Q.29 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
He are very thirsty. / Give him / a little water to drink.
Ans 1. He are very thirsty
2. a little water to drink
3. No error
4. Give him

Q.30 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who eats too much
Ans 1. Greedy
2. Glutton
3. Gullible
4. Garrulous

Q.31 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no
improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.
Lily has dedicate her life towards becoming a doctor.
Ans 1. No improvement required
2. is dedicate
3. has dedicated
4. had dedicate

Q.32 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Study of coins
Ans 1. Numismatics
2. Philately
3. Antiquary
4. Apothecary

Q.33 Identify the error in tense and choose the correct form of the verb in present tense from the
following options.
My teacher often forget the name of students.
Ans 1. forgot
2. forgets
3. was forgetting
4. have been forgetting

Q.34 Select the most appropriate idiom for the given situation focusing on the underlined segment.
I know every detail of his accident because I heard the facts directly from him.
Ans 1. Pour one’s heart out
2. Speak of the devil
3. Straight from horse’s mouth
4. Get something out of your system

Q.35 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

I did not even listen to him; he was only talking through his hat.
Ans 1. Talking ignorantly
2. Talking nonsense
3. Talking garrulously
4. Talking non-stop

Q.36 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hear someone out
Ans 1. Let someone complete what they are saying
2. Keep someone out
3. Dismiss someone from listening to you
4. Hear from far away

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 Q.37 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the highlighted word.
They drank some spurious drink and fainted.
Ans 1. curious
2. genuine
3. artificial
4. nefarious

Q.38 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
I am sure Helena / would passes / with flying colours.
Ans 1. with flying colours
2. would passes
3. No error
4. I am sure Helena

Q.39 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Bite your tongue
Ans 1. To scold someone verbally
2. To have something explored
3. To avoid saying something
4. To drink very heavily

Q.40 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Ethical
Ans 1. Discord
2. Joyous
3. Immoral
4. Mourning

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
The concept of motivation focuses on explaining what ‘moves’ behaviour. In fact, the term
(1)________ is derived from the Latin word ‘movere’, referring to movement of activity. Most of our
everyday explanation of (2)________ is given in terms of motives. Motives also help in making
(3)________ about behaviour. A person will work hard in school, in sports, in business, in music, and
in many other situations, if he/she has a very strong need for (4)________. Hence, motives are the
general states that enable us to make predictions about behaviour in many different situations. In
other words, motivation is one of the (5)________ of behaviour. Instincts, drives, needs, goals, and
incentives come under the broad cluster of motivation.
SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. human behaviour
2. motivation
3. instinct
4. psychology

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
The concept of motivation focuses on explaining what ‘moves’ behaviour. In fact, the term
(1)________ is derived from the Latin word ‘movere’, referring to movement of activity. Most of our
everyday explanation of (2)________ is given in terms of motives. Motives also help in making
(3)________ about behaviour. A person will work hard in school, in sports, in business, in music, and
in many other situations, if he/she has a very strong need for (4)________. Hence, motives are the
general states that enable us to make predictions about behaviour in many different situations. In
other words, motivation is one of the (5)________ of behaviour. Instincts, drives, needs, goals, and
incentives come under the broad cluster of motivation.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. incentive
2. behaviour
3. goal
4. motivation

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
The concept of motivation focuses on explaining what ‘moves’ behaviour. In fact, the term
(1)________ is derived from the Latin word ‘movere’, referring to movement of activity. Most of our
everyday explanation of (2)________ is given in terms of motives. Motives also help in making
(3)________ about behaviour. A person will work hard in school, in sports, in business, in music, and
in many other situations, if he/she has a very strong need for (4)________. Hence, motives are the
general states that enable us to make predictions about behaviour in many different situations. In
other words, motivation is one of the (5)________ of behaviour. Instincts, drives, needs, goals, and
incentives come under the broad cluster of motivation.
SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. decisions
2. predictions
3. clarifications
4. directions

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
The concept of motivation focuses on explaining what ‘moves’ behaviour. In fact, the term
(1)________ is derived from the Latin word ‘movere’, referring to movement of activity. Most of our
everyday explanation of (2)________ is given in terms of motives. Motives also help in making
(3)________ about behaviour. A person will work hard in school, in sports, in business, in music, and
in many other situations, if he/she has a very strong need for (4)________. Hence, motives are the
general states that enable us to make predictions about behaviour in many different situations. In
other words, motivation is one of the (5)________ of behaviour. Instincts, drives, needs, goals, and
incentives come under the broad cluster of motivation.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. grow
2. achievements
3. desire
4. motivation

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
The concept of motivation focuses on explaining what ‘moves’ behaviour. In fact, the term
(1)________ is derived from the Latin word ‘movere’, referring to movement of activity. Most of our
everyday explanation of (2)________ is given in terms of motives. Motives also help in making
(3)________ about behaviour. A person will work hard in school, in sports, in business, in music, and
in many other situations, if he/she has a very strong need for (4)________. Hence, motives are the
general states that enable us to make predictions about behaviour in many different situations. In
other words, motivation is one of the (5)________ of behaviour. Instincts, drives, needs, goals, and
incentives come under the broad cluster of motivation.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. determinants
2. ways
3. meaning
4. causes

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The rise of social media has undoubtedly changed the way we communicate with one another. It has
connected people from all over the world and provided a platform for voices that were once silenced.
However, as with any form of communication, social media has its downsides.
One of the most significant downsides is the spread of misinformation. With the rise of social media,
anyone can become a content creator, which means that anyone can share information without fact-
checking or considering the consequences. This has led to a proliferation of false information, from
conspiracy theories to hoaxes, that can quickly spread and cause harm.
One recent example of this is the COVID-19 pandemic. Social media has played a significant role in
the spread of misinformation about the virus and the vaccines. False claims about the safety and
effectiveness of the vaccines have caused many people to be hesitant or outright refuse to get
vaccinated. This, in turn, has led to the prolongation of the pandemic and the loss of many lives.
The spread of misinformation on social media is not a new phenomenon. In fact, it has been around
for centuries. However, the speed and ease with which misinformation can spread on social media
have made it a particularly pernicious problem in our modern world.
Throughout history, misinformation has been used to sow discord and manipulate people. For
example, during World War II, the Nazi regime used propaganda to spread false information about
Jews, Roma, and other targeted groups in order to justify their persecution and ultimately their
extermination. Similarly, during the Cold War, both the United States and the Soviet Union used
propaganda to demonise one another and sway public opinion.
The difference now is that social media has made it easier than ever to spread false information. A
single post or tweet can reach millions of people within seconds, and it can be difficult to counteract
the effects of that misinformation once it has spread.
So, what can we do about it? The answer is not simple, but it starts with education. We need to teach
people how to think critically, how to fact-check, and how to discern between credible sources and
fake news. We also need to hold social media companies accountable for the content on their
platforms and ensure that they are doing their part to combat the spread of misinformation.
In short, the rise of social media has given us a powerful tool for communication, but we must use it
wisely. We must be vigilant against the spread of misinformation and work together to ensure that the
information we consume and share is accurate and reliable.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 Identify the main theme of the passage.
Ans 1. The significance of propaganda and misinformation.
2. The role of education in combating misinformation.
3. The benefits of social media for communication.
4. The dangers of spreading false information on social media.

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The rise of social media has undoubtedly changed the way we communicate with one another. It has
connected people from all over the world and provided a platform for voices that were once silenced.
However, as with any form of communication, social media has its downsides.
One of the most significant downsides is the spread of misinformation. With the rise of social media,
anyone can become a content creator, which means that anyone can share information without fact-
checking or considering the consequences. This has led to a proliferation of false information, from
conspiracy theories to hoaxes, that can quickly spread and cause harm.
One recent example of this is the COVID-19 pandemic. Social media has played a significant role in
the spread of misinformation about the virus and the vaccines. False claims about the safety and
effectiveness of the vaccines have caused many people to be hesitant or outright refuse to get
vaccinated. This, in turn, has led to the prolongation of the pandemic and the loss of many lives.
The spread of misinformation on social media is not a new phenomenon. In fact, it has been around
for centuries. However, the speed and ease with which misinformation can spread on social media
have made it a particularly pernicious problem in our modern world.
Throughout history, misinformation has been used to sow discord and manipulate people. For
example, during World War II, the Nazi regime used propaganda to spread false information about
Jews, Roma, and other targeted groups in order to justify their persecution and ultimately their
extermination. Similarly, during the Cold War, both the United States and the Soviet Union used
propaganda to demonise one another and sway public opinion.
The difference now is that social media has made it easier than ever to spread false information. A
single post or tweet can reach millions of people within seconds, and it can be difficult to counteract
the effects of that misinformation once it has spread.
So, what can we do about it? The answer is not simple, but it starts with education. We need to teach
people how to think critically, how to fact-check, and how to discern between credible sources and
fake news. We also need to hold social media companies accountable for the content on their
platforms and ensure that they are doing their part to combat the spread of misinformation.
In short, the rise of social media has given us a powerful tool for communication, but we must use it
wisely. We must be vigilant against the spread of misinformation and work together to ensure that the
information we consume and share is accurate and reliable.

SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 What is the ANTONYM of the word ‘accurate’, " as used in the passage?
Ans 1. Inexact
2. Correct
3. Reliable
4. Precise

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The rise of social media has undoubtedly changed the way we communicate with one another. It has
connected people from all over the world and provided a platform for voices that were once silenced.
However, as with any form of communication, social media has its downsides.
One of the most significant downsides is the spread of misinformation. With the rise of social media,
anyone can become a content creator, which means that anyone can share information without fact-
checking or considering the consequences. This has led to a proliferation of false information, from
conspiracy theories to hoaxes, that can quickly spread and cause harm.
One recent example of this is the COVID-19 pandemic. Social media has played a significant role in
the spread of misinformation about the virus and the vaccines. False claims about the safety and
effectiveness of the vaccines have caused many people to be hesitant or outright refuse to get
vaccinated. This, in turn, has led to the prolongation of the pandemic and the loss of many lives.
The spread of misinformation on social media is not a new phenomenon. In fact, it has been around
for centuries. However, the speed and ease with which misinformation can spread on social media
have made it a particularly pernicious problem in our modern world.
Throughout history, misinformation has been used to sow discord and manipulate people. For
example, during World War II, the Nazi regime used propaganda to spread false information about
Jews, Roma, and other targeted groups in order to justify their persecution and ultimately their
extermination. Similarly, during the Cold War, both the United States and the Soviet Union used
propaganda to demonise one another and sway public opinion.
The difference now is that social media has made it easier than ever to spread false information. A
single post or tweet can reach millions of people within seconds, and it can be difficult to counteract
the effects of that misinformation once it has spread.
So, what can we do about it? The answer is not simple, but it starts with education. We need to teach
people how to think critically, how to fact-check, and how to discern between credible sources and
fake news. We also need to hold social media companies accountable for the content on their
platforms and ensure that they are doing their part to combat the spread of misinformation.
In short, the rise of social media has given us a powerful tool for communication, but we must use it
wisely. We must be vigilant against the spread of misinformation and work together to ensure that the
information we consume and share is accurate and reliable.

SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 What is the author's opinion of social media in this passage?
Ans 1. Social media is a powerful tool for communication that has many benefits.
2. Social media has changed the way we communicate, but has also brought about significant
negative consequences.
3. Social media is responsible for the spread of false information, but its impact on society is
otherwise neutral.
4. Social media has had a mostly positive impact on society, despite some drawbacks.

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The rise of social media has undoubtedly changed the way we communicate with one another. It has
connected people from all over the world and provided a platform for voices that were once silenced.
However, as with any form of communication, social media has its downsides.
One of the most significant downsides is the spread of misinformation. With the rise of social media,
anyone can become a content creator, which means that anyone can share information without fact-
checking or considering the consequences. This has led to a proliferation of false information, from
conspiracy theories to hoaxes, that can quickly spread and cause harm.
One recent example of this is the COVID-19 pandemic. Social media has played a significant role in
the spread of misinformation about the virus and the vaccines. False claims about the safety and
effectiveness of the vaccines have caused many people to be hesitant or outright refuse to get
vaccinated. This, in turn, has led to the prolongation of the pandemic and the loss of many lives.
The spread of misinformation on social media is not a new phenomenon. In fact, it has been around
for centuries. However, the speed and ease with which misinformation can spread on social media
have made it a particularly pernicious problem in our modern world.
Throughout history, misinformation has been used to sow discord and manipulate people. For
example, during World War II, the Nazi regime used propaganda to spread false information about
Jews, Roma, and other targeted groups in order to justify their persecution and ultimately their
extermination. Similarly, during the Cold War, both the United States and the Soviet Union used
propaganda to demonise one another and sway public opinion.
The difference now is that social media has made it easier than ever to spread false information. A
single post or tweet can reach millions of people within seconds, and it can be difficult to counteract
the effects of that misinformation once it has spread.
So, what can we do about it? The answer is not simple, but it starts with education. We need to teach
people how to think critically, how to fact-check, and how to discern between credible sources and
fake news. We also need to hold social media companies accountable for the content on their
platforms and ensure that they are doing their part to combat the spread of misinformation.
In short, the rise of social media has given us a powerful tool for communication, but we must use it
wisely. We must be vigilant against the spread of misinformation and work together to ensure that the
information we consume and share is accurate and reliable.

SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a cause of the spread of false information
on social media?
Ans 1. Inability to discern between credible sources and fake news.
2. Social media companies’ failure to regulate false information on their platforms.
3. Lack of education and critical thinking skills among social media users.
4. The desire of people to engage in controversial and sensational content.

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The rise of social media has undoubtedly changed the way we communicate with one another. It has
connected people from all over the world and provided a platform for voices that were once silenced.
However, as with any form of communication, social media has its downsides.
One of the most significant downsides is the spread of misinformation. With the rise of social media,
anyone can become a content creator, which means that anyone can share information without fact-
checking or considering the consequences. This has led to a proliferation of false information, from
conspiracy theories to hoaxes, that can quickly spread and cause harm.
One recent example of this is the COVID-19 pandemic. Social media has played a significant role in
the spread of misinformation about the virus and the vaccines. False claims about the safety and
effectiveness of the vaccines have caused many people to be hesitant or outright refuse to get
vaccinated. This, in turn, has led to the prolongation of the pandemic and the loss of many lives.
The spread of misinformation on social media is not a new phenomenon. In fact, it has been around
for centuries. However, the speed and ease with which misinformation can spread on social media
have made it a particularly pernicious problem in our modern world.
Throughout history, misinformation has been used to sow discord and manipulate people. For
example, during World War II, the Nazi regime used propaganda to spread false information about
Jews, Roma, and other targeted groups in order to justify their persecution and ultimately their
extermination. Similarly, during the Cold War, both the United States and the Soviet Union used
propaganda to demonise one another and sway public opinion.
The difference now is that social media has made it easier than ever to spread false information. A
single post or tweet can reach millions of people within seconds, and it can be difficult to counteract
the effects of that misinformation once it has spread.
So, what can we do about it? The answer is not simple, but it starts with education. We need to teach
people how to think critically, how to fact-check, and how to discern between credible sources and
fake news. We also need to hold social media companies accountable for the content on their
platforms and ensure that they are doing their part to combat the spread of misinformation.
In short, the rise of social media has given us a powerful tool for communication, but we must use it
wisely. We must be vigilant against the spread of misinformation and work together to ensure that the
information we consume and share is accurate and reliable.

SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 What is the author's purpose in writing this passage?
Ans 1. To provide an in-depth analysis of the benefits of social media for communication.
2. To persuade readers to delete their social media accounts.
3. To explain the history of propaganda and misinformation and its impact on society.
4. To warn readers of the dangers of spreading false information on social media.

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 Sub Inspector in Delhi Police and Central Armed Police Forces Examination 2023 Paper I
Exam Date 05/10/2023
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject SICPO Paper I 2023

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Animal, Jungle, Wild Animal

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 Two statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All keys are locks.
No door is a lock.
Conclusions:
I. Some locks are doors.
II. Some locks are keys.
III. No key is a door.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and III follow.
2. Both conclusions II and III follow.
3. Both conclusions I and II follow.
4. Conclusions I, II and III follow.

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 Q.3

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.4

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
42 ÷ 7 + 11 × 87 – 12 = 141
Ans 1. – and ×
2. ÷ and –
3. x and +
4. ÷ and +

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 Q.6 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the
following series.
144, 171, 200, ?, 264
Ans 1. 225
2. 256
3. 231
4. 240

Q.7 Q is to the east of S. E is to the south of S. P is to the north-east of Q and north of T. If T is to the
south-east of Q, what is the position of S with respect to T? (All positions are arranged in GRID
pattern)
Ans 1. South-east
2. North-west
3. South-west
4. West

Q.8 In a certain code language, 'BLOCK' is coded as LBCON and 'CABIN' is coded as ACIBQ. How will
'SUITE' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. USHTI
2. ETHUS
3. UTSEH
4. USTIH

Q.9 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the
odd one out.
Ans 1. CEAX
2. GIET
3. MOKN
4. SQUH

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 Q.10

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed in the blanks below,
will complete the letter-series.
a, b, a, b, b, _, a, b, a, b, _, a, a, b, a, b, b, _
Ans 1. a, b, a
2. a, a, a
3. b, a, b
4. b, b, b

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 Q.12

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the
following equation?
11 B 12 C 144 D 24 A 57 = ?
Ans 1. 160
2. 186
3. 183
4. 180

Q.14 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
Ans 1. HGLM
2. DBGH
3. POTU
4. SRWX

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 Q.15

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an
English dictionary?
1.Brochure
2.Brine
3.Bright
4.Brief
5.Brocade
Ans 1. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
2. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
3. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
4. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

Q.17

Ans 1. 55
2. 61
3. 50
4. 65

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 Q.18 In a certain code language, 'PIN' is coded as 9 and 'CHARGER' is coded as 49. How will 'CABLE' be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 36
2. 27
3. 25
4. 18

Q.19 If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
39 × 3 – 11 ÷ 57 + 29 = ?
Ans 1. 163
2. 171
3. 185
4. 190

Q.20 In a certain code language, 'MOBILE' is written as 'NQEMQK' and 'BISHOP' is written as 'CKVLTV'.
How will 'CHARGE' be written in that language?
Ans 1. DJEVLJ
2. DJDVKL
3. DJDVLK
4. DJDWLK

Q.21 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
39 ÷ 3 – 11+ 57 × 29 = 171
Ans 1. – and +
2. – and ×
3. ÷ and +
4. ÷ and –

Q.22 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to
the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
25 : 18 :: 37 : ? :: 49 : 36
Ans 1. 32
2. 30
3. 29
4. 27

Q.23 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Clothes, Shoes, Shirts
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.24

Ans 1. 2
2. 1
3. B
4. C

Q.25

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All rivers are lakes.
Some seas are rivers.
Conclusion:
I)Some seas are lakes.
II)All lakes are rivers.
Ans 1. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
2. Both Conclusions I and II follow.
3. Only Conclusion II follows.
4. Only Conclusion I follows

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 Q.27 Stanley starts cycling from Point A. He cycles X km towards the west and then turns right and
cycles 3 km. He again turns right and cycles for X+1 km. He again turns right and cycles for 2X+1
km. He takes a final right turn and cycles for 1 km to stop at Point B. Point B is 6 km south of Point
A. What is the value of X?
Ans 1. 3
2. 9
3. 4
4. 5

Q.28 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.29 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(112, 327, 215), (98, 254, 156)
Ans 1. (108, 209, 184)
2. (105, 347, 322)
3. (126, 268, 142)
4. (281, 490,309)

Q.30 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to each other
based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Pressure : Barometer :: Electricity : ?
Ans 1. Bolometer
2. Cyclotron
3. Multimeter
4. Audiometer

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 Q.31 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful words and must not be related to each other
based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Centre : Focus :: Vicar : ?
Ans 1. Life
2. Riddle
3. Priest
4. Building

Q.32 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of ‘?’ in the
following equation?
79 ÷ 64 × 8 −7 + 12 = ?
Ans 1. 123
2. 117
3. 138
4. 147

Q.33

Ans 1. O4
2. I3
3. E2
4. U5

Q.34 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting/
multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(5, 4, 2)
(9, 9, 3)
Ans 1. (24,43,34)
2. (5,2,6)
3. (17,6,5)
4. (21,39,1)

Q.35

Ans 1. 3
2. A
3. B
4. 2

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 Q.36 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(53, 36, 25)
(71, 54, 43)
Ans 1. (99, 82, 71)
2. (32, 14, 7)
3. (66, 53, 41)
4. (41, 23, 18)

Q.37 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.38 ‘T + U’ means ‘T is the mother of U’.

‘T – U’ means ‘T is the father of U’.
‘T $ U’ means ‘T is the husband of U’.
‘T # U’ means ‘T is the daughter of U’.
If A # C $ V + X, then how is A related to X?
Ans 1. Daughter
2. Father
3. Sister
4. Brother

Q.39 In a certain code language, 'Live long' is coded as 'mu ae', 'Road is long' is coded as 'ae si du' and
'Game is live' is coded as 'si mu zt'. What is the code for the word 'Game'?
Ans 1. si
2. zt
3. mu
4. ae

Q.40 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
5, 20, 60, 240, 720, ?
Ans 1. 2160
2. 2880
3. 2675
4. 2580

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 Q.41 Which two mathematical signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(45 × 2) ÷ 15 – (6 × 3) + 10 – (63 ÷ 21) = 17
Ans 1. × and –
2. ÷ and ×
3. ÷ and +
4. – and +

Q.42 Six students Meera, Jigyasa, Tarun, Naina, Shambhavi and Avni are sitting around a circular table
facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Shambhavi is an immediate neighbour of
both Jigyasa and Avni. Tarun is sitting third to the left of Jigyasa. Meera is sitting second to the
right of Avni.
Who is sitting second to the left of Jigyasa?
Ans 1. Tarun
2. Naina
3. Avni
4. Meera

Q.43 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
270, 241, 212, ?, 154, 125
Ans 1. 186
2. 183
3. 192
4. 198

Q.44 Q + J means “Q is the Husband of J”

Q – J means “Q is the Father of J”
Q × J means “Q is the Mother of J”
Q * J means “Q is the Daughter of J”
If D * V + B × U, how is D related to U?
Ans 1. Brother
2. Sister
3. Mother
4. Daughter

Q.45 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
BRCQ, EPFO, ?, KLLK, NJOI
Ans 1. HINO
2. HNIM
3. GINO
4. GNMI

Q.46 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
69, 65, 67, 63, ?, 61
Ans 1. 65
2. 60
3. 62
4. 64

Q.47 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
FOHV, CKER, ?, WCYJ, TYVF
Ans 1. ZGBN
2. XHBM
3. AFCP
4. AHCO

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 Q.48 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which
they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Warehouse
2. Warden
3. Warship
4. Wardrobe
5. Warrant
6. Warfare
Ans 1. 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 3
2. 2, 4, 1, 5, 6, 3
3. 2, 4, 6, 5, 1, 3
4. 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3

Q.49 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only 2 people sit to
the right of D. G is an immediate neighbour of D. Only 3 people sit between A and G. Only 2 people
sit between B and C. E is not an immediate neighbour of C. F sits to the immediate right of G.
Who sits to the immediate left of A?
Ans 1. E
2. B
3. D
4. C

Q.50 In a certain code language, ‘SPAM’ is coded as ‘36’ and ‘JUG’ is coded as ‘27’. How will ‘FROCK’ be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. 45
2. 48
3. 90
4. 72

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.1 In Ball Badminton, players change the ends in each game when a side first scores all of the
following, EXCEPT:
Ans 1. 18
2. 11
3. 27
4. 9

Q.2 At the time of launch of the Smart Cities Mission, how many cities were proposed to be covered
under this scheme?
Ans 1. 100
2. 25
3. 75
4. 50

Q.3 From which five-year plan did India start its journey of industrialisation?
Ans 1. Fifth Five-year Plan
2. Second Five-year Plan
3. Fourth Five-year Plan
4. Third Five-year Plan

Q.4 Who was/were the founder(s) of the Theosophical Society?

Ans 1. H P Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott
2. Annie Besant
3. Charles W Leadbeater and Emily Lutyens
4. Madam Bhikaji Cama

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 Q.5 According to the Koppen classification,Which regions experience cold humid winter with short
summers?
Ans 1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. South of Goa
3. Northern Madhya Pradesh
4. Western Rajasthan

Q.6 What is the name of the 1,3-isomer (or meta-isomer) of benzenediol with the chemical formula
C6H4(OH)2?
Ans 1. m-Cresol
2. Glycerol
3. Catechol
4. Resorcinol

Q.7 Which of the following rights forbids employment of children below the age of 14 years in
dangerous jobs?
Ans 1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Constitutional Remedies
3. Right against Exploitation
4. Right to Freedom

Q.8 Ghanakanta Bora Borbayan has been conferred the Padma Shri award for his contribution to
which of the following fields?
Ans 1. Chhau
2. Bhortal
3. Bagurumba
4. Sattriya

Q.9 Who among the following Bahmani sultan was noted for cruelty and hence got the title as ‘Zalim’?
Ans 1. Firuz Shah
2. Mujahid Shah
3. Ahmad Shah
4. Humayun

Q.10 Who among the following Mauryan king fasted to death and died at Shravanabelagola?
Ans 1. Bindusara
2. Chandragupta Maurya
3. Dasharatha
4. Ashoka

Q.11 According to the 2011 Census, which state recorded the lowest literacy rate?
Ans 1. Bihar
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Jharkhand
4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.12 Which Articles of the Indian Constitution describe Fundamental Rights?

Ans 1. Articles 12 to 35
2. Articles 5 to 11
3. Articles 36 to 51
4. Articles 52 to 62

Q.13 According to the Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest Hindu
population percentage of total population?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Haryana

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 Q.14 Which of the following statements about green revolution is/are correct?
I. Green revolution began in the 1960s.
II. HYV of a seed made green revolution a success.
III. Extensive use of cattle was also one constituent of green revolution.
Ans 1. Only II and III
2. Only I
3. Only I and II
4. Only II

Q.15 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down the establishment of Public
Service Commissions for the Union and for the States?
Ans 1. Article 316
2. Article 317
3. Article 315
4. Article 318

Q.16 What is the bicameral legislature of the Indian Constitution?

Ans 1. It is legislative body with three houses.
2. It is legislative body with one house.
3. It is legislative body with four houses.
4. It is legislative body with two houses.

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT the manifestation of Iron-deficiency anaemia (IDA)?
Ans 1. General pallor
2. Paleness of conjunctiva of eyes
3. Soft palate
4. Blindness

Q.18 Select the INCORRECT pair of a famous minaret and its construction year in India.
Ans 1. Chand Minar–1435 CE
2. Char Minar–1664 CE
3. Shaheed Minar–1828 CE
4. Jhulta Minar–1452 CE

Q.19 Who is the author of the book ‘The Soul of a Butterfly: Reflections on Life’s Journey’?
Ans 1. Jake LaMotta
2. Eugene J Bullard
3. Muhammad Ali
4. Roberto Duran

Q.20 Which of the following books is an autobiography of the Indian politician LK Advani?
Ans 1. In Pursuit of Justice: An Autobiography
2. My Times: An Autobiography
3. Wings of Fire: An Autobiography
4. My Country My Life

Q.21 Which of the following is an indirect tax?

Ans 1. Capital gains tax
2. Death duty
3. Interest tax
4. Goods and services tax

Q.22 The Arms Act was passed in _____ that prevented Indians from keeping arms without an
appropriate license.
Ans 1. 1897
2. 1878
3. 1912
4. 1909

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 Q.23 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that all the authorities— civil and judicial— in the
territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court?
Ans 1. Article 144
2. Article 141
3. Article 142
4. Article 143

Q.24 Assessment of the country’s GDP growth, external balance and fiscal balance are presented in
which part of the budget document?
Ans 1. Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement
2. Appropriation bill
3. Macroeconomic Framework Statement
4. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement

Q.25 What do you call a Glycocalyx that is a loose sheath type?

Ans 1. Tubules
2. Slime layer
3. Mesosomes
4. Capsule

Q.26 The seven years of war in the 18th century was fought between Britain and ________.
Ans 1. Portugal
2. France
3. Spain
4. Germany

Q.27 Choose the correct statement(s) related to ‘continentality’.

a. The sea exerts a moderating influence on climate.
b. As the distance from the sea increases, the people experience extreme weather conditions.
c. As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less
dense and temperature decreases.
Ans 1. a and b
2. Only c
3. b and c
4. a and c

Q.28 In which of the following states are Aus, Boro and Aman paddy crops grown in a year?
Ans 1. Odisha
2. Punjab
3. Uttarakhand
4. Haryana

Q.29 With which of the following dance forms is Thumri music associated?
Ans 1. Kathak
2. Kathakali
3. Bharatanatyam
4. Sattriya

Q.30 The ball colour in the sport of Ball Badminton should be:
Ans 1. pink
2. green
3. yellow
4. red

Q.31 The measure of the force that can cause an object to rotate about an axis is called:
Ans 1. moment of inertia
2. torque
3. power
4. centripetal force

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 Q.32 Which Article of the Indian Constitution refers to the Rights of Ministers with respect to the State
Legislature?
Ans 1. Article 176
2. Article 177
3. Article 178
4. Article 175

Q.33 ________ river has the least storage capacity of usable water.
Ans 1. Krishna
2. Ganges
3. Brahmaputra
4. Godavari

Q.34 The masculine aspect of the Manipuri classical dance is known as:
Ans 1. Ras
2. Choloms
3. Maiba
4. Pareng

Q.35 In 1932, who discovered the positron, a particle described as ‘carrying a positive charge but
having a mass of the same order of magnitude as that normally possessed by a free negative
electron’?
Ans 1. Niels Bohr
2. Carl Anderson
3. Paul Dirac
4. Ernest Rutherford

Q.36 Neeruswamy Pillai and Rajaratanam Pillai are exponents of which musical instrument?
Ans 1. Nadaswaran
2. Sarangi
3. Mridangam
4. Mandolin

Q.37 What is the standard weight of a hockey ball?

Ans 1. 161 gm - 156 gm
2. 162 gm - 156 gm
3. 163 gm - 156 gm
4. 160 gm - 156 gm

Q.38 Which of the following organisms belongs to phylum Apicomplexa?

Ans 1. Plasmodium
2. Sponge
3. Hydra
4. Physalia

Q.39 Shifting agriculture is known as ______ in the Western Ghats.

Ans 1. kumari
2. waltre
3. dahiya
4. koman

Q.40 Which disease is caused by NOT having enough vitamin C in the diet for at least 3 months leading
to weakness, anaemia, gum disease and skin problems?
Ans 1. Scurvy
2. Pellagra
3. Rickets
4. Beriberi

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 Q.41 Lavani is a traditional dance of which of the following states?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.42 Which of the following scientists provided the Law of Octaves?

Ans 1. Galileo Galilei
2. John Newlands
3. Michael Faraday
4. Marie Curie

Q.43 The term ‘Dribble’ is generally associated with______.

Ans 1. baseball
2. basketball
3. tennis
4. cricket

Q.44 Who takes the salute during the Republic Day parade at New Delhi?
Ans 1. President
2. Governor
3. Prime Minister
4. Chief Justice

Q.45 Dihang and Lohit are rivers in which of the following regions?
Ans 1. Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Sikkim and Manipur
4. Punjab and Himachal

Q.46 Who among the following classical poets of the Sultanate period in India popularised Qawwali, a
form of music which derived its name from the Arabic word ‘qaul’, meaning ‘to speak’?
Ans 1. Shams al-Din Muhammad Hafiz
2. Amir Khusrau
3. Jalal al-Din Muhammad Rumi
4. Nizam al-Din Awliya

Q.47 Living organisms have been on Earth for how much percent of Earth's history?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.48 Which of the following Sultans of Delhi was appointed as Amir-i-Tuzuk (Master of Ceremonies)
before becoming the Sultan?
Ans 1. Iltutmish
2. Alauddin Khalji
3. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
4. Balban

Q.49 In 1928, which equation was derived and combines quantum theory and special relativity to
describe the behaviour of an electron moving at a relativistic speed?
Ans 1. Bernoulli's equation
2. Lorentz equation
3. Dirac equation
4. Helmholtz equation

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 Q.50 The Rajpath was decided to be a permanent venue for the Republic Day parade from which of the
following year onwards?
Ans 1. 1958
2. 1959
3. 1955
4. 1951

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1. 200
2. 300
3. 500
4. 700

Q.2 The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 9 and 126, respectively. Find the larger number, if the ratio
between the numbers is 2 : 7.
Ans 1. 77
2. 21
3. 63
4. 42

Q.3 The given graph shows the income and expenditure of a family.
Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

The expenditure of the family increased by _____ from 2017 to 2018.

Ans 1. 20%
2. 22%
3. 25%
4. 11%

Q.4 Ankita sold three toys. The first toy was sold for ₹1,500 at a profit of 25%; the second toy was sold
for ₹2,800 at a loss of 50%and the third toy was sold for ₹3,500 at a profit of 25%. Find her total
profit or loss percentage.
Ans 1. 15.25% profit
2. 18.75% profit
3. 18.75% loss
4. 15.25% loss

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 Q.5 The length of the common chord of two intersecting circles is 24 cm. If the diameter of the circles
are 30 cm and 26 cm, then the distance between the centres (in cm) is:
Ans 1. 18 cm
2. 14 cm
3. 16 cm
4. 12 cm

Q.6 In ∆ABC with sides 8 cm, 9 cm and 12 cm, the angle bisector of the largest angle divides the
opposite sides into two segments. What is the length of the shorter segment?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 11 days, 20 days and 55 days respectively. How soon can the
work be done if A works with B on first day, A works with C on second day and so on?
Ans 1.
2.

3.

4.

Q.8 Which of the following is the greatest four-digit number that is divisible by 15, 25, 40, and 75?
Ans 1. 9000
2. 9500
3. 9200
4. 9600

Q.9 Simplify the given expression.

(x - 2y)(y - 3x) + (x + y)(x - y) + (x - 3y)(2x + y)
Ans 1. 2y(x - 3y)
2. 2x(x + 3y)
3. 2y(x + 3y)
4. 2x(x - 3y)

Q.10

Ans 1.
2.

3.

4.

Q.11

Ans 1.

2.
3.
4.

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 Q.12

Ans 1. 1.72
2. 1.23
3. 1.59
4. 1.47

Q.13 The ratio of monthly income and expenditure of a man is 7∶3. If his expenditure is ₹5,400, find his
monthly income.
Ans 1. ₹10,400
2. ₹11,500
3. ₹13,300
4. ₹12,600

Q.14 A and B are equally efficient, and each can individually complete a piece of work in 36 days, if
none takes any holiday. A and B started working together on this piece of work, but A took a day
off after every five days of work, while B took a day off after every seven days of work. If the duo
had started work on 1 July 2021, on which date was the work completed?
Ans 1. 19 July 2021
2. 22 July 2021
3. 20 July 2021
4. 21 July 2021

Q.15

Ans 1. 20 ∶ 23
2. 18 ∶ 23
3. 19 ∶ 25
4. 17 ∶ 25

Q.16 In a store, Arun has two options to buy a mobile phone, either he can pay the full amount of
Rs.2,500 or he may buy at an instalment scheme, i.e. Rs.520 in down payment and four equal
instalments, rate of interest being charged at 25%p.a. simple interest. Arun buys a mobile phone
on the instalment scheme. What is the monthly instalment for Arun?
Ans 1. Rs.530
2. Rs.550
3. Rs.510
4. Rs.520

Q.17 The value of 2tan2 45° + cos2 30° - sin2 60° is:
Ans 1. 2
2. −1
3. 1
4. −2

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 Q.18 A shopkeeper sells sugar at ₹40 per kg, which he purchased at ₹36 per kg. His weighing machine
is faulty and it weighs only 800 gm while selling. His percentage profit (correct to 2 decimal
places) is:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Q.19 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students in various courses in various cities A, B, C, D and E in
India during the academic year 2022-2023.

During the academic year 2022-2023, which city had the largest number of students?
Ans 1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A

Q.20 If cot2θ = 1 - e2, then the value of cosec θ + cot3θ sec θ is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 In a school of 720 students, the ratio of boys to girls is 3 : 5. Find how many new boys may be
allowed to the school if 18 new girls are admitted, so that the ratio of boys to girls changes to 2 :
3.
Ans 1. 50
2. 42
3. 44
4. 38

Q.22 Rakesh runs a coaching institute having 50 faculty members. The average monthly salary of 35
faculty members is ₹37,500. What will be the average monthly salary (in ₹) of the other 15 faculty
members, if the average monthly salary of all the 50 faculty members is found to be ₹30,000?
Ans 1. 13,000
2. 12,500
3. 12,000
4. 13,500

Q.23 A hollow cylindrical tube made of plastic is 3 cm thick. If the external diameter is 20 cm and
length of the tube is 49 cm, find the volume of the plastic.
Ans 1. 7238 cm3
2. 7854 cm3
3. 7546 cm3
4. 7644 cm3

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 Q.24 In a 1200 m race, Rakesh reaches the final point in 36 seconds and Rajesh reaches in 40 sec. By
how much distance does Rakesh beat Rajesh?
Ans 1. 140 m
2. 130 m
3. 120 m
4. 150 m

Q.25 If the slant height of a cone is 29 cm and its height is 20 cm, find the ratio between the
magnitudes of total surface area and the volume.
Ans 1. 3 : 14
2. 3 : 7
3. 7 : 15
4. 5 : 14

Q.26 Study the given pie-chart carefully and answer the question that follows.
Degree wise Break-up of Expenditure of a Family in a Month

What is the amount spent by the family on housing?

Ans 1. ₹11,814
2. ₹6,248
3. ₹10,615
4. ₹12,496

Q.27 The chord of a circle is equal to its radius. Find the difference between the angle subtended by
this chord at the minor arc and major arc of the circle.
Ans 1. 60°
2. 120°
3. 30°
4. 150°

Q.28 An article is sold at a discount of 25%and an additional discount of 28%is allowed on cash
payment. If Ramendra purchased the article by paying ₹10,800 in cash, then what was the
marked price of the article?
Ans 1. ₹19,800
2. ₹20,800
3. ₹18,000
4. ₹20,000

Q.29 Find the fourth proportional of 22, 66 and 11.

Ans 1. 33
2. 17
3. 39
4. 23

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 Q.30

Ans 1. 33 : 23
2. 23 : 41
3. 41 : 31
4. 33 : 41

Q.31 Ayush spends 25%of an amount of money on an insurance policy, 26%on food, 23%on children’s
education and 19%on recreation. He deposits the remaining amount of ₹26,600 in the bank. What
is the total amount (in ₹) that he spends on food and recreation together?
Ans 1. 1,71,000
2. 1,95,000
3. 1,62,000
4. 1,83,000

Q.32 Find the HCF of 125, 250 and 750.

Ans 1. 125
2. 75
3. 25
4. 50

Q.33 A fast local of Mumbai takes 45 minutes less than a slow local for a journey of 150 km. If the
speed of the fast local is 10 km/h more than that of the slow local, find the speed (in km/h) of the
slow local train.
Ans 1. 35
2. 40
3. 30
4. 45

Q.34 If the sum of two numbers is 60 and their HCF and LCM are 5 and 60, respectively, then the sum of
the reciprocals of the numbers will be:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Q.35 Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows. Increment of four
employees (in ₹) in the months of May, June and July.

What is Kamal’s overall average increment in three months?

Ans 1. ₹60
2. ₹65
3. ₹75
4. ₹70

Q.36

Ans 1. 3
2. 2
3. 5
4. 4

Q.37 The LCM of 8, 12 and 18 is:

Ans 1. 24
2. 72
3. 36
4. 80

Q.38 Some ice pieces, spherical in shape, of diameter 6 cm are dropped in a cylindrical container
containing some juice and are fully submerged. If the diameter of the container is 18 cm and level
of juice rises by 40 cm, then how many ice pieces are dropped in the container?
Ans 1. 80
2. 85
3. 90
4. 95

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 Q.39 A shopkeeper marked the price as ₹15,000 on an article, and a successive discount of 5%, 10%
and 20%was allowed on it. What is the selling price?
Ans 1. ₹9,850
2. ₹11,520
3. ₹10,260
4. ₹13,520

Q.40

Ans 1. 10,000
2. 9,500
3. 10,500
4. 9,000

Q.41 The LCM of two numbers is five times their HCF. If the product of the two numbers is 20480,then
find their HCF and LCM, respectively.
Ans 1. 56 and 280
2. 46 and 230
3. 48 and 240
4. 64 and 320

Q.42 Simplify the given expression.

b + 2a - [(3b + a) - (2a + b) + 2a] - a
Ans 1. b
2. a
3. − a
4. - b

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 Q.43 What is the average of the first six prime numbers?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.44 The number of balls, each one is 4 cm in the diameter that can be made from a solid metallic
sphere of diameter 32 cm is:
Ans 1. 64
2. 512
3. 256
4. 1024

Q.45 The value of a washing machine depreciated from ₹40,960 to ₹21,970 in 3 years. Find the yearly
rate of depreciation.
Ans 1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 18.75%
4. 16.25%

Q.46 The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by 9, 12, 15, 25 and 27 is:
Ans 1. 10600
2. 10250
3. 10700
4. 10800

Q.47 If 30%of Ravi’s income is equal to 40%of Suresh’s income, then 50%of Ravi’s income is equal to
what percentage of Suresh’s income?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.48 A man covers a certain distance by bike. If he covers 25%of the distance at the speed of 25 km/h,
50%of the distance at the speed of 50 km/h and the remaining distance at the speed of 12.5 km/h,
find his average speed over the whole journey.
Ans 1. 35 km/h
2. 20 km/h

3. 25 km/h
4. 30 km/h

Q.49 The radius of a metallic spherical ball is 3 cm. If the metallic ball is melted and recast into x
number of hemispheres of radius equal to half the radius of the metallic spherical ball, then find
the value of x.
Ans 1. 16
2. 14
3. 15
4. 13

Q.50 ΔPQR is right angled at Q such that PQ=(x-y),QR=x and PR=(x+y). S is a point on QR such that
QS=PQ. The ratio QS∶SR for any values of x and y is:
Ans 1. 3 : 1
2. 2 : 1
3. 1 : 2
4. 1 : 3

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 Section : English Comprehension
Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Spill the beans
Ans 1. To talk randomly
2. To reveal secret information
3. To make anything visible
4. To ruin someone’s plan

Q.2 Select the most appropriate phrasal verb to fill in the blank.
It took seven years for Harish to ________________ his migraine.
Ans 1. shake down
2. shake up
3. shake off
4. shake out

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
All members of the association adhere to a strict code of practice.
Ans 1. comply
2. flout
3. observe
4. cling

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the highlighted word.
She has a penchant for art and craft.
Ans 1. joy
2. anxiety
3. fear
4. hatred

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Together
Ans 1. United
2. Apart
3. Freight
4. Engulf

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Resolute
Ans 1. Steadfast
2. Serious
3. Wavering
4. Brave

Q.7 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

I have all the technical and communication skills necessary to crack any interview; it will be
_____________________ .
Ans 1. a piece of cake for me
2. a hard nut to crack
3. a chip on my shoulder
4. a storm in a tea cup

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

This is not ______ exhaustive list of words.
Ans 1. an
2. a
3. No word required
4. many

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 Q.9 Select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined word segment.
He seems to be undecided about whether to move to another city for better prospects.
Ans 1. Counting down the days
2. Running out of steam
3. Sitting on the fence
4. Bouncing off the walls

Q.10 Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment correctly and
completes the sentence meaningfully:
Unless you (do will not prepare) well you will not perform well.
Ans 1. will prepare
2. prepare
3. will do not prepare
4. would not prepare

Q.11 Some words in the following sentences have been underlined and given as options. Select the
option that contains a spelling error.
Why is everyone so dressed up? What’s the occaseon? Is it a wedding?
Ans 1. wedding
2. everyone
3. dressed
4. occaseon

Q.12 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
People say different things at different times.
Ans 1. say diverse things at different times
2. says delectable things at different times
3. says whimsical things at different times
4. should say fanciful things at different times

Q.13 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
To restrain or compel a person to do something by force.
Ans 1. Coerce
2. Consensus
3. Casualty
4. Convoy

Q.14 Replace the underlined segment with the most appropriate idiom/phrase from the following
options.
This is the critical point of the issue. One should always be focused on it.
Ans 1. Chip off the old block
2. Don’t cry over spilt milk
3. A black sheep
4. The crux of the matter

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Superb
Ans 1. Incorrigible
2. Infallible
3. Inferior
4. Splendid

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Improved rail transport is essential for business.
Ans 1. Technical
2. Crucial
3. Recommended
4. Trivial

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 Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
I have a dog and a cow. / A dog is black / but the cow is / black and white.
Ans 1. but the cow is
2. black and white
3. A dog is black
4. I have a dog and a cow

Q.18 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word.

He had a round face made jovial by bright, almost boyish eyes and eyebrows ridiculusly small for
a man his size.
Ans 1. ridicolusly
2. jouvial
3. juvial
4. ridiculously

Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
An act of exchanging information
Ans 1. Hold
2. Communication
3. Collaboration
4. Touch

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
It was a quite afternoon, so Dan decided to take a nap.
Ans 1. No substitution required
2. a quiet
3. an quite
4. an quiet

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
I like all games instead of cricket.
Ans 1. exclude
2. rather
3. object
4. except

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Health insurance are important today since anyone can face a medical emergency without
warning.
Ans 1. was important
2. has been important
3. will be important
4. is important

Q.23 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Bite the bullet
Ans 1. Decide to do what is good
2. Decide to do the inevitable which you were avoiding
3. Decide to take the easier way out
4. To bite something very hard

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 Q.24 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.
He was carried off his feet when he was declared to have won the prize.
Ans 1. Was dizzy
2. Became delirious
3. Danced on his toes
4. Was wild with excitement

Q.25 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
Roger went / to an United Kingdom / with his wife / to celebrate Christmas.
Ans 1. with his wife
2. to celebrate Christmas
3. to an United Kingdom
4. Roger went

Q.26 Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom in the given sentence.
She said she liked my hair, but it turned out to be a left handed compliment.
Ans 1. A joke
2. A flattery
3. An insult
4. A praise

Q.27 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word.

They were more often abnoxious than not, impatient with me because my services had been
essentially imposed upon them.
Ans 1. essentialy
2. servises
3. impatint
4. obnoxious

Q.28 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Requiring exceptional skill or caution in performance or handling
Ans 1. Blunt
2. Tricky
3. Abstract
4. Sustainable

Q.29 Parts of the following sentence have been underlined and given as options. Select the option that
contains an error.
Have they been work in that particular shop for several years?
Ans 1. Have
2. for
3. been
4. work

Q.30 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom that can be substituted in the
following sentence.
The new routine will suit you to a T.
Ans 1. very poorly
2. nicely
3. a little bit
4. exactly

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 Q.31 Select the sentence that has a spelling error.
A- One has to understand the rudimentery fact that intelligence and intellect are at two opposite
poles.
B- An intellectual person may have all the knowledge of the world but won’t know how to give it a
shape.
C- Knowledge will plague the individual if he does not have the intelligence to express it.
D- Without basic intelligence, an individual is trapped within himself manifesting conflicts and
ignorance in the external world.
Ans 1. Without basic intelligence, an individual is trapped within himself, manifesting conflicts and
ignorance in the external world.
2. An intellectual person may have all the knowledge of the world but won’t know how to give it a
shape.
3. One has to understand the rudimentery fact that intelligence and intellect are at two opposite
poles.
4. Knowledge will plague the individual if he does not have the intelligence to express it.

Q.32 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Redemption
Ans 1. Corrugation
2. Blasphemy
3. Salvation
4. Conjunction

Q.33 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Spill the beans
Ans 1. Fail to make an impact
2. Sound familiar
3. Give away a secret
4. To be very expensive

Q.34 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
The concert was filled with rapt teenage listeners.
Ans 1. truly energetic
2. really fashionable
3. fully attentive
4. boldly dressed

Q.35 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word which has been
incorrectly spelt.
They have begun to study in sepparate rooms.
Ans 1. seprate
2. separate
3. saparate
4. saperate

Q.36 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as
your answer.
(1) He could / (2) be pass his exams / (3) if he studied harder. / (4) No error
Ans 1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 1

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 Q.37 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Decline
Ans 1. Escape
2. Traverse
3. Demonstrate
4. Ascend

Q.38 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Magnificent
Ans 1. Quiet
2. Peaceful
3. Impressive
4. Modest

Q.39 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
The team leader tried to remain positive or optimistic in the situation, even though they were
facing tough competition and limited resources.
Ans 1. to put on a strong exterior
2. to put a strong desire in front of
3. to put a strong hand forward
4. to put a brave face on

Q.40 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Desolate
Ans 1. Depressive
2. Hopeful
3. Sturdy
4. Fortunate

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Rabindranath Tagore founded a small school at Santiniketan in 1901 and Kala Bhavan, an art school,
in 1919 which (1)________ became a part of the Visvabharati University founded in 1921. Located in
an (2)________ village some distance from the city of Calcutta, Kala Bhavan presented an alternative
methodology of art training, in which studio based practice was (3)________ in favour of learning
through observation and living as a part of nature. The natural surroundings with the (4)________ of
bare red earth dotted with trees, the colours of the changing seasons, the animals and birds
(5)________ inspiration to students.
SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. later
2. faster
3. slower
4. better

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Rabindranath Tagore founded a small school at Santiniketan in 1901 and Kala Bhavan, an art school,
in 1919 which (1)________ became a part of the Visvabharati University founded in 1921. Located in
an (2)________ village some distance from the city of Calcutta, Kala Bhavan presented an alternative
methodology of art training, in which studio based practice was (3)________ in favour of learning
through observation and living as a part of nature. The natural surroundings with the (4)________ of
bare red earth dotted with trees, the colours of the changing seasons, the animals and birds
(5)________ inspiration to students.
SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. magical
2. idyllic
3. normal
4. reliable

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Rabindranath Tagore founded a small school at Santiniketan in 1901 and Kala Bhavan, an art school,
in 1919 which (1)________ became a part of the Visvabharati University founded in 1921. Located in
an (2)________ village some distance from the city of Calcutta, Kala Bhavan presented an alternative
methodology of art training, in which studio based practice was (3)________ in favour of learning
through observation and living as a part of nature. The natural surroundings with the (4)________ of
bare red earth dotted with trees, the colours of the changing seasons, the animals and birds
(5)________ inspiration to students.
SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. rejected
2. aspired
3. investigated
4. accepted

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Rabindranath Tagore founded a small school at Santiniketan in 1901 and Kala Bhavan, an art school,
in 1919 which (1)________ became a part of the Visvabharati University founded in 1921. Located in
an (2)________ village some distance from the city of Calcutta, Kala Bhavan presented an alternative
methodology of art training, in which studio based practice was (3)________ in favour of learning
through observation and living as a part of nature. The natural surroundings with the (4)________ of
bare red earth dotted with trees, the colours of the changing seasons, the animals and birds
(5)________ inspiration to students.
SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. band
2. murk
3. vistas
4. haze

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the
most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Rabindranath Tagore founded a small school at Santiniketan in 1901 and Kala Bhavan, an art school,
in 1919 which (1)________ became a part of the Visvabharati University founded in 1921. Located in
an (2)________ village some distance from the city of Calcutta, Kala Bhavan presented an alternative
methodology of art training, in which studio based practice was (3)________ in favour of learning
through observation and living as a part of nature. The natural surroundings with the (4)________ of
bare red earth dotted with trees, the colours of the changing seasons, the animals and birds
(5)________ inspiration to students.
SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. agreed
2. refused
3. groomed
4. provided

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Mountains occupy about a quarter of the Earth’s land, harbour most of its biodiversity hotspots and
supply fresh water to an estimated half of humanity. Present on every continent, mountains include a
multitude of ecosystems holding many unique species such as snow leopards and mountain
gorillas. They are also home to great cultural diversity among people adapted to the challenges of
mountain life. Their special traditions and breath-taking scenery attract ever-growing numbers of
tourists.
Mountain regions are particularly sensitive to degradation from both human pressures and climate
change. Steep slopes mean the clearing of forest for farming, settlements or infrastructure can cause
serious soil erosion as well as the loss of habitat. Erosion and pollution harm the quality of water
flowing downstream. Climate change threatens the quantity and timing of water supplies to farms,
cities, industry and power stations. Fast-rising temperatures are forcing mountain species,
ecosystems and the people that depend on them to adapt or migrate.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 What is the ANTONYM for the word ‘migrate’ from the passage?
Ans 1. Assume
2. Run
3. Stay
4. Die

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Mountains occupy about a quarter of the Earth’s land, harbour most of its biodiversity hotspots and
supply fresh water to an estimated half of humanity. Present on every continent, mountains include a
multitude of ecosystems holding many unique species such as snow leopards and mountain
gorillas. They are also home to great cultural diversity among people adapted to the challenges of
mountain life. Their special traditions and breath-taking scenery attract ever-growing numbers of
tourists.
Mountain regions are particularly sensitive to degradation from both human pressures and climate
change. Steep slopes mean the clearing of forest for farming, settlements or infrastructure can cause
serious soil erosion as well as the loss of habitat. Erosion and pollution harm the quality of water
flowing downstream. Climate change threatens the quantity and timing of water supplies to farms,
cities, industry and power stations. Fast-rising temperatures are forcing mountain species,
ecosystems and the people that depend on them to adapt or migrate.
SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 Which is the best description of the tone of the passage?
Ans 1. Humanistic
2. Laudatory
3. Biased
4. Emotional

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Mountains occupy about a quarter of the Earth’s land, harbour most of its biodiversity hotspots and
supply fresh water to an estimated half of humanity. Present on every continent, mountains include a
multitude of ecosystems holding many unique species such as snow leopards and mountain
gorillas. They are also home to great cultural diversity among people adapted to the challenges of
mountain life. Their special traditions and breath-taking scenery attract ever-growing numbers of
tourists.
Mountain regions are particularly sensitive to degradation from both human pressures and climate
change. Steep slopes mean the clearing of forest for farming, settlements or infrastructure can cause
serious soil erosion as well as the loss of habitat. Erosion and pollution harm the quality of water
flowing downstream. Climate change threatens the quantity and timing of water supplies to farms,
cities, industry and power stations. Fast-rising temperatures are forcing mountain species,
ecosystems and the people that depend on them to adapt or migrate.
SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 Which of the following most accurately states the central idea of the passage?
Ans 1. Mountain ecosystem
2. Climate change
3. Pollution
4. Biodegradation

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Mountains occupy about a quarter of the Earth’s land, harbour most of its biodiversity hotspots and
supply fresh water to an estimated half of humanity. Present on every continent, mountains include a
multitude of ecosystems holding many unique species such as snow leopards and mountain
gorillas. They are also home to great cultural diversity among people adapted to the challenges of
mountain life. Their special traditions and breath-taking scenery attract ever-growing numbers of
tourists.
Mountain regions are particularly sensitive to degradation from both human pressures and climate
change. Steep slopes mean the clearing of forest for farming, settlements or infrastructure can cause
serious soil erosion as well as the loss of habitat. Erosion and pollution harm the quality of water
flowing downstream. Climate change threatens the quantity and timing of water supplies to farms,
cities, industry and power stations. Fast-rising temperatures are forcing mountain species,
ecosystems and the people that depend on them to adapt or migrate.
SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 Which of the following represents the structure of the passage?
Ans 1. Chronological
2. Definition
3. Compare and contrast
4. Cause-effect

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Mountains occupy about a quarter of the Earth’s land, harbour most of its biodiversity hotspots and
supply fresh water to an estimated half of humanity. Present on every continent, mountains include a
multitude of ecosystems holding many unique species such as snow leopards and mountain
gorillas. They are also home to great cultural diversity among people adapted to the challenges of
mountain life. Their special traditions and breath-taking scenery attract ever-growing numbers of
tourists.
Mountain regions are particularly sensitive to degradation from both human pressures and climate
change. Steep slopes mean the clearing of forest for farming, settlements or infrastructure can cause
serious soil erosion as well as the loss of habitat. Erosion and pollution harm the quality of water
flowing downstream. Climate change threatens the quantity and timing of water supplies to farms,
cities, industry and power stations. Fast-rising temperatures are forcing mountain species,
ecosystems and the people that depend on them to adapt or migrate.
SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 What is the ANTONYM for the word ‘diversity’ from the passage?
Ans 1. Block
2. Uniformity
3. Heritage
4. Dilemma

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