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Near Vaivakawn Presbyterian Church

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PRELIMS MOCK TEST SERIES, 2024

GEOGRAPHY
Time Allowed : 2 hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select
the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one
correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response
for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the OMR Sheet provided to you.

4. All questions carry equal marks.THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE
IN ALL THE QUESTIONS.

i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer is given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted
as penalty.

ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
1. What is the true shape of the earth?

(a) Perfect sphere

(b) Flat

(c) Slightly flattened at the poles and bulged at the equator

(d) Oval

Answer: (c) Slightly flattened at the poles and bulged at the equator

Explanation: The earth is not a perfect sphere; instead, it is slightly flattened at the poles and bulged at the
equator, resembling the shape of an oblate spheroid. This means that the diameter of the earth from pole to pole
is slightly shorter than the diameter measured around the equator. The text describes this shape, highlighting that
the earth is not perfectly round but rather has variations in its shape due to factors such as rotation and gravitational
forces.

2. Which river valley plains in India are known for their shallow gradients and relict mountains?

(a) The Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain

(b) The Peninsular Plateau

(c) The Northern Plains

(d) The Coastal Plains

Answer: (b) The Peninsular Plateau

Explanation: The Peninsular Plateau, encompassing vast areas of central and southern India, exhibits shallow
river valleys and low gradients. This region is characterized by relict and residual mountains, such as the Aravali
hills and the Nallamala hills, which have weathered over time but still influence the plateau's topography.

3. What type of coast is found along the western coast of India?

(a) Submerged coastal plain

(b) Emergent coast

(c) Submerged coral reef

(d) Submerged volcanic island

Answer: (a) Submerged coastal plain

Explanation: Along the western coast of India, a submerged coastal plain is prevalent. This coast has experienced
submergence over time, resulting in a narrow belt of land extending along the shoreline. The submerged nature
of this coastal region has facilitated the development of natural harbors and ports, contributing to its economic
significance.

4. Which of the following rivers originate in the Western Ghats of India?

(a) Ganga

(b) Yamuna

(c) Godavari

(d) Brahmaputra

Answer: (c) Godavari

Explanation: The Western Ghats, a prominent mountain range running parallel to the western coast of India,
serve as the origin point for several major rivers. Among these rivers, the Godavari stands out as one of the longest
and most significant, originating in the lush forests of the Western Ghats before flowing eastward across the
Deccan Plateau.

5. Which River system in India forms the largest delta in the world and is known for its intricate network of
distributaries and tidal channels?

(a) Mahanadi

(b) Krishna

(c) Narmada

(d) Ganga

Answer: (d) Ganga

Explanation: The Ganga River system forms the largest delta in the world, known as the Sundarbans Delta. This
delta is famous for its intricate network of distributaries and tidal channels, which support unique ecosystems and
biodiversity. The other options represent river systems with distinct geographical features.

6. Which of the following rivers is not considered a part of the "Seven Sisters" of Northeast India?

(a) Teesta

(b) Barak
 (c) Subansiri

(d) Tapti

Answer: (d) Tapti

Explanation: The "Seven Sisters" refer to the seven northeastern states of India, and the rivers associated with
them are Brahmaputra, Barak, Dibang, Lohit, Subansiri, Siang, and Kameng. The Tapti river, on the other hand,
originates in central India and flows westward into the Arabian Sea, far from the northeastern region.

7. Which soil type becomes cultivable after proper irrigation and is predominantly found in arid regions of India?

(a) Black Soil

(b) Red Soil

(c) Laterite Soil

(d) Desert Soil

Answer: (d) Desert Soil

Explanation: Desert/Arid soil, ranging from red to brown in color and sandy in texture, becomes cultivable after
proper irrigation, making it suitable for agriculture in arid regions of India.

8. Which region is known for intensive subsistence agriculture?

(a) North America

(b) Europe

(c) South Asia

(d) Australia

Answer: (c) South Asia

Explanation: Intensive subsistence agriculture, characterized by small plots of land, simple tools, and high labor
input, is prevalent in densely populated areas of South Asia, including regions with a monsoon climate like South,
Southeast, and East Asia.

9. Why is El Niño called "Child Christ"?

(a) Because it brings abundant rainfall, symbolizing rebirth

(b) Because it appears around Christmas in December

 (c) Because it causes extreme weather events, resembling biblical stories

(d) Because it is named after a famous scientist who discovered it

Answer: (b) Because it appears around Christmas in December

Explanation: The term "El Niño" means "Child Christ" in Spanish, as this weather phenomenon often occurs
around Christmas time in December, particularly in the Southern Hemisphere.

10. Which renewable energy source is primarily harnessed using photovoltaic cells?

(a) Solar energy

(b) Wind power

(c) Geothermal energy

(d) Biomass energy

Answer: (a) Solar energy

Explanation: Solar energy is primarily harnessed using photovoltaic cells, which convert sunlight directly into
electricity.

11. Which state in India has the highest coal reserves?

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Chhattisgarh

(c) Odisha

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (a) Jharkhand

Explanation: Jharkhand is the largest coal-producing state in India, with abundant coal reserves and numerous
coal mines.

12. What is the primary vegetation type found in the deltaic regions of India, known for its rich wetland habitats?

(a) Tropical Evergreen forests

(b) Tropical Deciduous forests

(c) Littoral and Swamp forests

 (d) Montane forests

Answer: (c) Littoral and Swamp forests

Explanation: Littoral and swamp forests are the primary vegetation type found in deltaic regions, known for their
rich wetland habitats.

13. Which type of earthquake waves arrive first at the surface?

(a) P-waves

(b) S-waves

(c) Surface waves

(d) Short waves

Answer: (a) P-waves.

Explanation: P-waves, also known as primary waves, are the fastest seismic waves and hence arrive at the surface
first during an earthquake. These waves travel through solid, liquid, and gaseous materials, causing them to
oscillate in the direction of wave propagation.

14. What is the region of calm with subsiding air at the center of a mature tropical cyclone called?

(a) Eyewall

(b) Rain bands

(c) Tropopause

(d) Eye

Answer: (d) Eye

Explanation: The region of calm with subsiding air at the center of a mature tropical cyclone is called the Eye.
This area contrasts with the intense winds and rainfall found in the eyewall surrounding it.

15. Which of the following processes is a gradational process?

(a) Deposition

(b) Diastrophism

(c) Volcanism
 (d) Erosion

Answer: (d) Erosion

Explanation: A gradational process refers to the leveling or wearing down of the Earth's surface through the
removal and transportation of materials by various agents such as water, wind, ice, and gravity. Erosion is a classic
example of a gradational process as it involves the gradual wearing away of land surfaces through the action of
erosional agents like running water, glaciers, wind, and waves.

16. Which one of the following materials is affected by hydration process?

(a) Granite

(b) Sandstone

(c) Basalt

(d) Gypsum

Answer: (d) Gypsum

Explanation: The hydration process refers to the absorption of water molecules by certain minerals, leading to
changes in their chemical composition and physical properties. Gypsum is a mineral composed of calcium sulfate
dihydrate (CaSO4·2H2O), and it readily undergoes hydration when exposed to water, forming a hydrated form
of calcium sulfate known as gypsum plaster or plaster of Paris.

17. In what type of rock does groundwater erosion primarily result in the formation of Karst topography?

(a) Granite

(b) Sandstone

(c) Limestone

(d) Shale

Answer: (c) Limestone

Explanation: Groundwater erosion, particularly through processes like solution and precipitation deposition,
predominantly occurs in permeable rocks like limestone, leading to the formation of Karst topography
characterized by various erosional and depositional landforms.

18. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

(a) Stratosphere
 (b) Troposphere

(c) Thermosphere

(d) Mesosphere

Answer: (a) Stratosphere

Explanation: The ozone layer, crucial for shielding the earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation, is predominantly
found in the stratosphere. It absorbs and dissipates much of the sun's ultraviolet energy.

19. What is the term for the air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature?

(a) Relative humidity

(b) Specific humidity

(c) Absolute humidity

(d) Saturated air

Answer: (d) Saturated air

Explanation: Saturated air refers to the air that contains moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature,
meaning it cannot hold any additional moisture at that stage. Absolute humidity is the mass of water vapor divided
by a unit volume of air (grams of water/cm 3 of air). Relative humidity is the amount of water vapor present in
the air divided by the maximum amount that the air could contain at that temperature. Relative humidity is
expressed as a percentage.

20. Why do enclosed seas in low latitudes typically record higher salinity levels than open seas?

(a) Higher evaporation rates

(b) Increased freshwater input from rivers

(c) Stronger ocean currents

(d) Deeper thermocline layers

Answer: (a) Higher evaporation rates

Explanation: Enclosed seas in low latitudes, such as the Mediterranean Sea, often exhibit higher salinity levels
compared to open seas due to higher rates of evaporation. The salinity in surface waters is greatly influenced by
evaporation and precipitation. In regions with high evaporation rates and limited freshwater input, such as
enclosed seas in low latitudes, the concentration of dissolved salts in seawater increases, leading to higher salinity
levels.
21. Spring tides are caused by:

(a) As a result of the moon and the sun pulling the earth gravitationally in the same direction.

(b) As a result of the moon and the sun pulling the earth gravitationally in the opposite direction.

(c) Indention in the coastline.

(d) None of the above.

Answer: (a) As a result of the moon and the sun pulling the earth gravitationally in the same direction.

Explanation: Spring tides occur when the sun, the moon, and the earth are in alignment, exerting gravitational
forces in the same direction, leading to higher than usual tides.

22. The earth reaches its perihelion in:

(a) October

(b) September

(c) July

(d) January

Answer: (d) January

Explanation: Perihelion is the point in the earth's orbit when it is closest to the sun, occurring around January.

23. Which level of biodiversity refers to the variation of genes within species?

a) Genetic diversity

b) Species diversity

c) Ecosystem diversity

d) Ecological diversity

Answer: a) Genetic diversity

Explanation: Genetic diversity refers to the variation of genes within species. It is essential for healthy breeding
populations and contributes to the overall biodiversity.

24. What is the main cause of the high population density in the Northern plains of India?
 (a) High birth rates

(b) Abundant rainfall

(c) Low death rate

(d) Unfavourable climatic conditions

Answer: (b) Abundant rainfall

Explanation: The Northern plains of India have high population densities due to their flat terrain, fertile soils,
and ample rainfall, which support agricultural activities and settlement.

25. Which state in India has the lowest population density?

(a) Bihar

(b) Kerala

(c) Goa

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density among the given options, with only 17
persons per square kilometer according to the 2011 Census.

26. Which one type of agriculture amongst the following is also called ‘slash and burn agriculture’?

(a) Extensive subsistence agriculture

(b) Primitive subsistence agriculture

(c) Extensive commercial grain cultivation

(d) Mixed farming

Answer: (b) Primitive subsistence agriculture

Explanation: Primitive subsistence agriculture, also known as shifting cultivation, is referred to as 'slash and
burn agriculture' because farmers clear small patches of land by slashing vegetation and burning the debris before
planting crops.

27. Which one of the following types of cultivation was developed by European colonists?
 (a) Kolkoz

(b) Viticulture

(c) Mixed farming

(d) Plantation

Answer: (d) Plantation

Explanation: Plantation agriculture was introduced by European colonists in colonies situated in the tropics.
They established large estates or plantations specializing in crops like tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm,
sugarcane, bananas, and pineapples.

28. Which of the following is NOT a direct threat to biodiversity?

(a) Habitat destruction

(b) Invasive species

(c) Climate change

(d) Ecotourism

Answer: (d) Ecotourism

Explanation: Ecotourism, when managed sustainably, can contribute to conservation efforts and local economies
without directly threatening biodiversity. However, habitat destruction, invasive species, and climate change are
significant threats to biodiversity worldwide.

29. The term used to describe the average weather conditions experienced in a specific location over a short
period, typically ranging from hours to weeks, is:

(a) Climate

(b) Weather

(c) Season

(d) Atmosphere

Answer: (b) Weather

Explanation: Weather refers to the short-term atmospheric conditions, including temperature, humidity,
precipitation, wind speed, and atmospheric pressure, experienced in a particular location over a relatively brief
period, such as hours, days, or weeks.
30. The term 'Adivasi' is commonly used in India to refer to:

(a) Scheduled tribes

(b) Indigenous peoples

(c) Ethnic minorities

(d) Scheduled Castes

Answer: (b) Indigenous peoples

Explanation: Adivasi, meaning "original inhabitants" or "first people," is a term commonly used in India to refer
to indigenous or tribal communities who have inhabited the land for centuries and have distinct cultural identities.

31. Which Indian state lies entirely within the tropics?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Punjab

(c) Kerala

(d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (c) Kerala

Explanation: Kerala, located in southwestern India, lies entirely within the tropics. Its geographical position
close to the equator results in a tropical climate characterised by high temperatures and abundant rainfall
throughout the year, making it an ideal habitat for diverse flora and fauna.

32. Why do the poles experience about six months of daylight and six months of night?

(a) Due to the elliptical orbit of the earth

(b) Because of the earth's revolution

(c) Because of the tilt of the earth's axis

(d) Because of the rotation of the earth

Answer: (c) Because of the tilt of the earth's axis

Explanation: The poles experience about six months of daylight and six months of night due to the tilt of the
earth's axis. This tilt causes one hemisphere to be inclined towards the sun while the other is inclined away from
it, resulting in prolonged periods of daylight or darkness at the poles.
33. Which river valley plains are known for their riverine islands and sand bars?

(a) Indus Plains

(b) Ganga Plains

(c) Brahmaputra Plains

(d) Godavari Plains

Answer: (c) Brahmaputra Plains

Explanation: The Brahmaputra river valley plains in India are renowned for their riverine islands and sand bars.
These plains have been gradually filled by sediments brought by the Brahmaputra River over millions of years.
The Brahmaputra, one of the major rivers of the Indian subcontinent, carries a significant sediment load from its
Himalayan source. As the river meanders through the plains, it deposits these sediments, leading to the formation
of islands and sand bars within its channels. These riverine islands and sand bars are characteristic features of the
Brahmaputra Plains, contributing to the unique geomorphology of the region and providing habitats for diverse
flora and fauna.

34. The Aravalli Range in India is primarily made up of which type of rock?

(a) Granite

(b) Gneiss

(c) Marble

(d) Sandstone

Answer: (b) Gneiss

Explanation: The Aravalli Range, one of the oldest fold mountain ranges in India, is primarily composed of
ancient gneisses and granites. Gneiss is a metamorphic rock formed from the alteration of pre-existing rocks under
high temperature and pressure conditions. These rocks constitute a major part of the geological composition of
the Aravalli Range, which stretches across the northwestern part of India. Additionally, the Aravalli Range is
known for its rich mineral resources, including mica, copper, zinc, and marble, which have been historically
mined from the region.

35. Which river in India flows through a rift valley, making it one of the few rivers in the world to exhibit this
characteristic?

(a) Godavari

(b) Krishna
 (c) Narmada

(d) Luni

Answer: (c) Narmada

Explanation: The Narmada River flows through a rift valley, known as the Narmada Rift Valley, which was
formed due to geological faulting. This makes it one of the few rivers in the world to flow through such a distinct
geological feature, setting it apart from the other rivers mentioned.

36. Which River in South India is known for its black soil, flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and forms
a large river basin?

(a) Kaveri

(b) Godavari

(c) Krishna

(d) Tungabhadra

Answer: (a) Kaveri

Explanation: The Kaveri is known for its black soil deposits in the Deccan Plateau region. Originating in
Karnataka, it flows through Tamil Nadu and forms a large river basin in India. The river is significant for
agriculture and supports the livelihoods of millions of people in the region.

37. Which crop is the major food crop of the world?

(a) Wheat

(b) Rice

(c) Maize

(d) Millets

Answer: (b) Rice

Explanation: Rice is the major food crop of the world, serving as the staple diet for tropical and subtropical
regions, requiring high temperature, high humidity, and rainfall for growth.

38. Which crop is known as the "golden fibre" and grows well in well-drained fertile soils in flood plains, requiring
high temperatures during growth?

(a) Wheat
 (b) Sugarcane

(c) Cotton

(d) Jute

Answer: (d) Jute

Explanation: Jute is referred to as the "golden fibre" due to its importance in various industries. It prefers well-
drained fertile soils in flood plains and requires high temperatures during its growth phase, making it suitable for
regions with a tropical climate.

39. Which of the following crops is a kharif crop and requires high temperature, high rainfall or irrigation, and
frost-free days for its growth?

(a) Rice

(b) Wheat

(c) Cotton

(d) Barley

Answer: (a) Rice

Explanation: Rice is a kharif crop that thrives in warm temperatures and requires abundant rainfall or irrigation
during its growing season. It also needs frost-free days for optimal growth, making it a suitable crop for regions
with a tropical climate.

40. Which season is known as the "summer cropping season" in India?

(a) Rabi

(b) Kharif

(c) Zaid

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Zaid

Explanation: The Zaid season is known as the "summer cropping season" in India. It falls between the rabi and
kharif seasons and includes crops like watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, and vegetables that are grown during
the summer months.

41. How does the shift of the ITCZ influence the direction of winds during the southwest monsoon in India?
 (a) It causes the winds to blow from northeast to southwest

(b) It causes the winds to blow from southwest to northeast

(c) It causes the winds to blow from northwest to southeast

(d) It causes the winds to blow from southeast to northwest

Answer: (b) It causes the winds to blow from southwest to northeast

Explanation: During the southwest monsoon in India, the shift of the ITCZ southward causes the trade winds of
the southern hemisphere to cross the equator and blow from southwest to northeast due to the Coriolis force.

42. What characterizes the phenomenon known as "break in the monsoon"?

(a) Intensification of the monsoon winds

(b) Frequent rain-bearing storms along the monsoon trough

(c) Dry spells lasting one or more weeks during the monsoon season

(d) Increased humidity leading to heavy rainfall

Answer: (c) Dry spells lasting one or more weeks during the monsoon season

Explanation: A "break in the monsoon" refers to dry spells lasting one or more weeks during the monsoon season
when rain fails to occur. These breaks are common during the rainy season and can occur due to various reasons
such as the infrequency of rain-bearing storms.

43. Which minerals are essential components of rechargeable lithium-ion batteries?

1. Lithium 2. Cobalt 3. Nickel 4. Silver

(a) 1, 2, 3

(b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 2, 4

(d) all the above

Answers: (a) 1, 2, 3

Explanation: Lithium, cobalt, and nickel are crucial components of rechargeable lithium-ion batteries, which are
widely used in electronic devices and electric vehicles due to their high energy density and long lifespan.
44. In which geological age do the major resources of metallurgical coal, such as those found in Damodar Valley,
occur in India?

(a) Jurassic

(b) Tertiary

(c) Gondwana

(d) Paleozoic

Answer: (c) Gondwana

Explanation: The major resources of metallurgical coal are located in Damodar Valley and are from the
Gondwana geological age, which is a little over 200 million years old.

45. What is the total number of wildlife sanctuaries in India as of the latest data?

(a) 570

(b) 573

(c) 553

(d) 567

Answer: (b) 573

Explanation: As of the latest data available from the National Wildlife Database Centre in November 2023, there
are 573 existing wildlife sanctuaries in India. These sanctuaries cover a total area of 123,762.56 square kilometers,
which constitutes approximately 3.76% of the country’s geographical area.

46. Which category of forestry involves the promotion of agroforestry and community forestry?

(a) Urban forestry

(b) Rural forestry

(c) Farm forestry

(d) Social forestry

Answer: (d) Social forestry

Explanation: Social forestry encompasses the promotion of agroforestry and community forestry as part of its
objectives, aiming for environmental and social benefits.
47. Which scale measures the energy released during an earthquake?

(a) Richter scale

(b) Mercalli scale

(c) Beaufort scale

(d) Fujita scale

Answer: (a) Richter scale.

Explanation: The Richter scale quantifies the magnitude of an earthquake, which is a measure of the energy
released at the earthquake's source. It is a logarithmic scale, meaning that each whole number increase represents
a tenfold increase in amplitude of the seismic waves and approximately 31.6 times more energy release.

48. Which type of volcano is characterized by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas, often resulting in
explosive eruptions?

(a) Shield volcano

(b) Composite volcano

(c) Cinder cone volcano

(d) Mid-ocean ridge volcano

Answer: (b) Composite volcano

Explanation: Composite volcanoes, also known as stratovolcanoes, are characterized by eruptions of cooler and
more viscous lavas than basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions, along with the release of large
quantities of pyroclastic material and ashes.

49. What is the higest percentage of carbon dioxide emissions compared to other human activities?

(a) Deforestation

(b) Agriculture and Animal husbandry

(c) Energy

(d) Industry

Answer: (c) Energy

Explanation: Fossil fuel burning for Energy accounts for approximately 40% of carbon dioxide emissions
attributed to human activities. This includes emissions from burning coal, oil, and natural gas for electricity
generation, transportation, heating, and domestic use.
50. What is the approximate percentage increase in global temperatures since the end of the 19th century?

(a) 0.2°C

(b) 1.1°C

(c) 1.5°C

(d) 3.0°C

Answer: (b) 1.1°C

Explanation: The globally averaged annual mean temperature at the end of the 20th century was about 1.1°C
higher than that recorded at the end of the 19th century. This warming trend is indicative of the influence of
human-induced climate change on Earth's temperature over the past century.

51. Which Ocean has relatively lower salinity due to influx of river water?

(a) Indian Ocean

(b) Arctic Ocean

(c) Atlantic Ocean

(d) Baltic Sea

Answer: (d) Baltic Sea

Explanation: the Baltic Sea records low salinity due to the influx of river waters in large quantities. This influx
of freshwater from rivers reduces the overall salinity of the Baltic Sea compared to other oceans. Understanding
the factors influencing ocean salinity is essential for comprehending oceanic circulation patterns and their impact
on climate and marine life.

52. Which demographic group constitutes one-fifth of India's total population?

(a) Elderly population

(b) Adolescent population

(c) Working-age population

(d) Infant population

Answer: (b) Adolescent population

Explanation: Adolescents, typically aged between 10 to 19 years, constitute approximately one-fifth of India's
total population.

53. What is the primary characteristic of footloose industries?

(a) Heavy reliance on specific raw materials

(b) Large-scale production with mass labor employment

(c) Ability to be located in a variety of places

(d) High pollution levels in manufacturing processes

Answer: (c) Ability to be located in a variety of places

Explanation: Footloose industries are not tied to specific raw materials or locations and can be located in a wide
variety of places. This flexibility distinguishes them from industries that heavily rely on specific raw materials or
require large-scale production facilities.

54. Which region is known for its concentration of traditional large-scale industrial regions?

(a) Sub-Saharan Africa

(b) Southeast Asia

(c) Western Europe

(d) North America

Answer: (c) Western Europe

Explanation: Traditional large-scale industrial regions are thickly clustered in more developed countries, with
Western Europe being one of the major concentrations. These regions have a long history of industrialization and
are characterized by their extensive manufacturing infrastructure and economic development.

55. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an inland waterway?

(a) High-speed transportation

(b) Low cost of transportation

(c) Suitable for bulky goods

(d) Dependence on natural water bodies

Answer: (a) High-speed transportation

Explanation: Inland waterways are characterized by their low cost and suitability for transporting bulky goods.
However, they generally do not offer high-speed transportation compared to modes like air or rail.

56. Which of the following ecosystems is characterized by high biodiversity and covers less than 1% of the Earth's
surface area?

(a) Tropical rainforests

(b) Temperate grasslands

(c) Deserts

(d) Tundra

Answer: (a) Tropical rainforests

Explanation: Tropical rainforests are known for their exceptionally high biodiversity despite covering less than
1% of the Earth's surface. They are home to a wide variety of plant and animal species, many of which are found
nowhere else.

57. The Montreal Protocol, signed in 1987, primarily targets the reduction of:

(a) Greenhouse gas emissions

(b) Ozone-depleting substances

(c) Acid rain pollutants

(d) Marine plastic pollution

Answer: (b) Ozone-depleting substances

Explanation: The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty aimed at phasing out the production and use of
ozone-depleting substances such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and other chemicals responsible for
ozone layer depletion.

58. The term 'Van Gujjar' refers to:

(a) Tribal communities of Gujarat

(b) Tribal communities of Rajasthan

(c) Nomadic pastoralist communities of Uttar Pradesh

(d) Hunter-gatherer communities of Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (c) Nomadic pastoralist communities of Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Van Gujjars are a nomadic pastoralist community found primarily in the forests of Uttar Pradesh
and Uttarakhand, known for their traditional lifestyle of cattle rearing and seasonal migration.

59. The Golden Quadrilateral is a highway network that connects which four major metropolitan cities in India?

(a) Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai

(b) Delhi, Jaipur, Ahmedabad, Mumbai

(c) Delhi, Agra, Lucknow, Kolkata

(d) Delhi, Chandigarh, Jaipur, Ahmedabad

Answer: (a) Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai

Explanation: The Golden Quadrilateral is a network of highways connecting the four major metropolitan cities
of Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, and Mumbai, forming a quadrilateral shape.

60. Which major port in India is known for its natural harbor and is often referred to as the "Gateway to the
South"?

(a) Chennai Port

(b) Kochi Port

(c) Mangalore Port

(d) Visakhapatnam Port

Answer: (b) Kochi Port

Explanation: Kochi Port, situated in Kerala, is known for its natural harbor and is often referred to as the
"Gateway to the South." It is an important port for trade and maritime activities in the region.

61. What is the approximate length of India's coastline including mainland and islands?

(a) 6,500 km

(b) 7,517 km

(c) 8,200 km

(d) 9,000 km
Answer: (b) 7,517 km

Explanation: India has a vast coastline stretching approximately 7,517 kilometers, encompassing the mainland
coast along with the coastlines of Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep Islands
in the Arabian Sea. This extensive coastline plays a crucial role in shaping India's maritime trade, biodiversity,
and cultural heritage.

62. What causes a meteoroid to produce a flash of light when it enters Earth's atmosphere?

(a) Nuclear fusion

(b) Gravitational pull

(c) Friction with the atmosphere

(d) Magnetic fields

Answer: (c) Friction with the atmosphere

Explanation: When a meteoroid enters Earth's atmosphere, it experiences intense friction with the air molecules
present in the atmosphere. This friction generates heat, causing the meteoroid to heat up and glow brightly,
creating a flash of light known as a meteor or shooting star. Most meteoroids burn up completely during this
process, resulting in a streak of light across the sky.

63. What is the primary distinguishing feature of asteroids in the solar system?

(a) They have a solid surface.

(b) They have their own heat and light.

(c) They orbit the Sun in elliptical paths.

(d) They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

Answer: (d) They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

Explanation: Asteroids are rocky objects that orbit the Sun, primarily found in the asteroid belt located between
the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. Unlike planets, asteroids are much smaller in size and irregular in shape. They are
remnants from the early formation of the solar system and are often referred to as minor planets or planetoids.

64. Arrange the following mountain ranges of India from north to south:

A. Pir Panjal Range B. Nilgiri Hills C. Aravalli Range D. Western Ghats

Options:
 (a) A, C, D, B

(b) C, A, D, B

(c) A, C, B, D

(d) C, A, B, D

Answer: (c) A, C, B, D

Explanation: Starting from the north, the Pir Panjal Range is situated in the northern part of India, predominantly
in Jammu and Kashmir. Moving southwards, we encounter the Aravalli Range, which stretches across Rajasthan
in western India. Next, the Nilgiri Hills are situated in the southern part of India, primarily in the states of Tamil
Nadu and Kerala. Finally, the Western Ghats lie along the western coast of India, running parallel to the Arabian
Sea. Therefore, the correct arrangement from north to south is Pir Panjal Range, Aravalli Range, Nilgiri Hills,
and Western Ghats.

65. Arrange the following mountain peaks of India in order of their height, from the highest to the lowest:

A. Kangchenjunga B. Nanda Devi C. K2 (Mount Godwin-Austen) D. Mount Everest

Options:

(a) D, C, A, B

(b) D, C, A, B

(c) C, D, A, B

(d) A, C, D, B

Answer: (b) D, C, A, B

Explanation: Starting with the highest peak, Mount Everest, which stands at 8,848.86 meters (29,031.7 feet), we
arrange it first. Next is K2, also known as Mount Godwin-Austen, which is the second-highest peak in the world
at 8,611 meters (28,251 feet). Then comes Kangchenjunga, the third-highest peak in the world at 8,586 meters
(28,169 feet). Lastly, Nanda Devi, with an elevation of 7,816 meters (25,643 feet), takes the last position in the
order. Therefore, the correct arrangement from the highest to the lowest is Mount Everest (D), K2 (C),
Kangchenjunga (A), and Nanda Devi (B).

66. Which of the following is the highest peak in the Western Ghats mountain range?

(a) Anamudi

(b) Doddabetta

(c) Mullayanagiri
 (d) Kalsubai

Answer: (a) Anamudi

Explanation: Anamudi, with an elevation of approximately 2,695 meters (8,842 feet) above sea level, is the
highest peak in the Western Ghats mountain range. It is located in the Indian state of Kerala and is a prominent
landmark in the Eravikulam National Park.

67. What geological process primarily contributed to the formation of the Deccan Traps in India?

(a) Subduction of oceanic plates

(b) Intrusion of magma into existing rock formations

(c) Rifting and volcanic activity associated with continental drift

(d) Glacial erosion during ice ages

Answer: (c) Rifting and volcanic activity associated with continental drift

Explanation: The Deccan Traps, a large igneous province in west-central India, were primarily formed as a result
of intense volcanic activity associated with the rifting of the Indian Plate from the supercontinent of Gondwana
during the Cretaceous period. As the Indian Plate moved northward, it underwent rifting, leading to the eruption
of vast quantities of basaltic lava over millions of years. This volcanic activity resulted in the accumulation of
thick basaltic layers, forming the Deccan Traps. The eruption of these lava flows had significant geological and
environmental impacts, shaping the landscape and contributing to the evolution of India's physical geography.

68. Which of the following factors primarily determines the drainage pattern of an area?

(a) Human settlement density

(b) Annual precipitation levels

(c) Geological time period

(d) Population density

Answer: (c) Geological time period

Explanation: The drainage pattern of an area is primarily determined by geological factors such as the nature
and structure of rocks, the topography of the region, and the geological time period. While human settlement
density (option (a)) and population density (option (d)) can influence local aspects of drainage systems, they are
not the primary factors determining the overall drainage pattern. Similarly, while annual precipitation levels
(option (b)) can affect the volume of water flowing through drainage systems, they do not dictate the fundamental
drainage pattern. On the other hand, the geological time period (option (c)) shapes the landforms over extended
periods, affecting the direction and structure of drainage systems.
69. Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the formation of oxbow lakes in riverine
landscapes?

(a) Erosion

(b) Deposition

(c) Differential settlement

(d) Volcanic activity

Answer: (a) Erosion

Explanation: Oxbow lakes are formed as a result of the continuous erosional processes of a river. Over time, the
river erodes its banks and curves, causing the meanders to become more pronounced. Eventually, the river may
cut off a meander bend, creating a horseshoe-shaped oxbow lake. This process is driven by the erosive force of
the flowing water, which gradually reshapes the river's path.

70. Which of the following statements about drainage systems is true?

(a) The flow of water through poorly-defined channels are known as 'drainage'.

(b) The network of well-defined channels is called a 'river system'.

(c) The boundary line separating one river basin from the other is known as a 'watershed'.

(d) Watersheds cover larger areas compared to river basins.

Answer: (c) The boundary line separating one river basin from the other is known as a 'watershed'.

Explanation: A watershed is the boundary line separating one drainage basin from another. It delineates the area
drained by a river and its tributaries. A river basin, on the other hand, refers to the entire area drained by a river
and its tributaries. While both watersheds and river basins play crucial roles in water drainage and management,
watersheds are smaller in area compared to river basins.

71. What is the main cause of soil erosion in the Chambal basin?

(a) Overgrazing

(b) Deforestation

(c) Mining

(d) Intensive cultivation

Answer: (a) Overgrazing

Explanation: Overgrazing in the Chambal basin leads to soil erosion, creating deep channels known as gullies,
making the land unfit for cultivation.

72. Which soil type in India is known for its high water retaining capacity but is generally deficient in nutrients
and is prone to erosion due to its position on the landscape?

(a) Red Soil

(b) Alluvial Soil

(c) Laterite Soil

(d) Arid Soil

Answer: (c) Laterite Soil

Explanation: Laterite soil in India is characterized by its high water retaining capacity but is generally deficient
in nutrients. Its position on the landscape makes it prone to erosion.

73. What method is NOT effective in reducing soil degradation caused by industrial activities?

(a) Afforestation around industrial sites

(b) Implementing soil erosion control measures

(c) Proper disposal of industrial effluents

(d) Encouraging unregulated waste dumping

Answer: (d) Encouraging unregulated waste dumping

Explanation: Encouraging unregulated waste dumping would worsen soil degradation by introducing harmful
pollutants into the soil. The other options—afforestation, erosion control measures, and proper waste disposal—
are effective strategies to mitigate soil degradation caused by industrial activities.

74. In which type of farming system is crop rotation commonly practiced to maintain soil fertility?

(a) Plantation farming

(b) Subsistence farming

(c) Commercial farming

(d) Intensive farming

Answer: (b) Subsistence farming

Explanation: Subsistence farming typically involves small-scale agriculture aimed at producing enough food to
meet the needs of the farmer's family. Crop rotation is commonly practiced in subsistence farming to maintain
soil fertility and ensure sustainable agricultural practices.

75. Why are crops like rice and tea primarily grown in regions with high humidity and ample rainfall?

(a) They require abundant sunlight for growth.

(b) They thrive in arid climates with minimal moisture.

(c) High humidity and rainfall mimic their native habitats.

(d) They are resistant to waterlogging and flooding.

Answer: (c) High humidity and rainfall mimic their native habitats.

Explanation: Crops like rice and tea are native to regions with high humidity and ample rainfall. Therefore, they
are primarily grown in areas with similar climatic conditions to ensure optimal growth and yield.14.

76. What factors contribute to the success of wheat cultivation in the Ganga-Satluj plains and the black soil region
of the Deccan?

(a) The presence of perennial rivers for irrigation.

(b) The availability of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds.

(c) The requirement of cool growing seasons and bright sunshine during ripening.

(d) The suitability of the soil and climate for wheat cultivation.

Answer: (d) The suitability of the soil and climate for wheat cultivation.

Explanation: The success of wheat cultivation in the Ganga-Satluj plains and the black soil region of the Deccan
is primarily attributed to the suitability of the soil and climate for wheat cultivation. These regions have fertile
soils and experience cool growing seasons with bright sunshine during ripening, which are ideal conditions for
wheat cultivation.

77. Which region of India receives high rainfall during June-September due to its windward situation along the
Western Ghats?

(a) The northern plateau

(b) The southern plateau

(c) The Himalayan region

 (d) The coastal areas of Assam

Answer: (b) The southern plateau

Explanation: The windward sides of the Western Ghats, such as the southern plateau, receive high rainfall during
June-September. In contrast, the leeward sides, such as the rain shadow region of the southern plateau, remain
relatively dry.

78. What phenomenon is associated with the break in the monsoon during the rainy season in India?

(a) Intensification of rain-bearing storms along the monsoon trough

(b) Strong westerly winds blowing parallel to the west coast

(c) Increase in humidity levels over the Indian Ocean

(d) Formation of low-pressure systems over northern India

Answer: (b) Strong westerly winds blowing parallel to the west coast

Explanation: The break in the monsoon during the rainy season in India is associated with strong westerly winds
blowing parallel to the west coast. This phenomenon inhibits the regular inflow of moisture-laden winds from the
Arabian Sea, leading to a temporary cessation of rainfall over certain regions.

79. Why does the Tamil Nadu coast remain dry during the southwest monsoon season?

(a) It lies parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon winds.

(b) It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch.

(c) It is too far south to receive monsoon rains.

(d) It is located in a high-pressure zone.

Answer: (b) It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch.

Explanation: The text explains that the Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the southwest monsoon season
because it lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon winds, which means it receives
less rainfall due to the blocking effect of the Western Ghats.

80. Which type of coal is characterized by being high grade and used for smelting iron in blast furnaces?

(a) Peat

(b) Bituminous
 (c) Lignite

(d) Anthracite

Answer: (b) Bituminous

Explanation: Bituminous coal is the most popular coal in commercial use and is mentioned as high grade,
especially valued for smelting iron in blast furnaces.

81. Which Indian state has large reserves of iron ore in the Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru belt,
with Kudremukh mines known for being a significant export unit?

(a) Odisha

(b) Chhattisgarh

(c) Karnataka

(d) Maharashtra

Answer: (c) Karnataka

Explanation: Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore in the Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru

belt, with Kudremukh mines being a 100% export unit and known to have one of the largest deposits in the world.

82. Which group of minerals is formed as a result of evaporation, especially in arid regions?

(a) Tin, copper, zinc

(b) Coal, iron ore

(c) Gypsum, potash salt, sodium salt

(d) Gold, silver, tin

Answer: (c) Gypsum, potash salt, sodium salt

Explanation: Gypsum, potash salt, and sodium salt are formed as a result of evaporation, especially in arid
regions, and are a part of sedimentary minerals that occur in beds or layers.

83. Which of the following trees is known for its durable wood mainly used in construction activities in the
western part of the Himalayan range?

(a) Deodar

(b) Chinar
 (c) Blue Pine

(d) Spruce

Answer: (a) Deodar

Explanation: Deodar is a highly valued endemic species found mainly in the western part of the Himalayan
range. It is known for its durable wood, which is primarily used in construction activities. Deodar forests are well-
developed in the higher hill ranges of northeastern India and provide valuable timber resources.

84. What conservation measures were emphasized in India's forest policy of 1988?

(a) Commercial uses of forests

(b) Restoration of forest ecosystems

(c) Expansion of agricultural lands

(d) Encouragement of afforestation

Answer: (b) Restoration of forest ecosystems

Explanation: The forest policy of 1988 emphasized sustainable forest management, conservation, and restoration
of forest ecosystems to ensure environmental stability and meet the needs of local communities, as outlined in the
text.

85. What geographical features contribute to the formation and intensification of tropical cyclones?

(a) High-altitude mountain ranges

(b) Warm tropical oceans with sea surface temperatures above 27°C

(c) Cold tropical oceans with sea surface temperatures above 27°C

(d) Warm temperate oceans with sea surface temperatures above 27°C

Answer: (b) Warm tropical oceans with sea surface temperatures above 27°C

Explanation: Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans, where sea surface temperatures
are typically above 27°C. These warm waters provide the energy necessary for the formation and intensification
of tropical cyclones.

86. Which human-induced factor significantly complicates flood management in India?

(a) Adoption of un-environmentally friendly agricultural techniques

 (b) Implementation of sustainable urban planning

(c) Unregulated expansion of industrial zones

(d) Extensive clearing of mangrove forests

Answer: (c) Unregulated expansion of industrial zones

Explanation: While natural factors like rainfall contribute to flooding, unregulated expansion of industrial zones
poses a significant challenge to flood management in India. Rapid industrialization often leads to increased land
use changes, alteration of natural drainage patterns, and pollution of water bodies, exacerbating flood risks.
Despite efforts to implement sustainable practices, the uncontrolled growth of industrial zones complicates flood
mitigation strategies and requires comprehensive urban planning measures to address the issue effectively.

87. Which of the following regions in India is categorized as a "High Vulnerability Zone" for landslides?

(a) North-eastern regions

(b) Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh

(c) Rain shadow areas in the Western Ghats

(d) North-eastern regions except the plains of Assam

Answer: (d) North-eastern regions except the plains of Assam

Explanation: The high vulnerability zone for landslides includes areas with conditions similar to those in the
very high vulnerability zone, such as the Himalayan states and the northeastern regions, excluding the plains of
Assam. These areas experience frequent ground-shaking due to earthquakes and have steep slopes, making them
prone to landslides.

88. Which of the following forces contributes to physical weathering processes?

(a) Biological forces

(b) Gravitational forces

(c) Chemical forces

(d) Tidal forces

Answer: (b) Gravitational forces

Explanation: Physical weathering processes depend on applied forces that cause rocks to fracture or disintegrate
physically. These forces include gravitational forces, expansion forces due to temperature changes or crystal
growth, and water pressures controlled by wetting and drying cycles. Gravitational forces, such as overburden
pressure, load, and shearing stress, play a significant role in physical weathering by exerting pressure on rocks,
leading to fracturing or disintegration.

89. In desert landscapes, what erosional feature is formed by persistent wind currents?

(a) Cirques

(b) Deflation hollows

(c) Hanging valleys

(d) Lateral moraines

Answer: (b) Deflation hollows

Explanation: Deflation hollows are shallow depressions created by the removal of weathered mantle or soil by
persistent wind currents in deserts. They contribute to the shaping of desert landscapes through erosion. Cirques
are deep, bowl-shaped hollows found at the head of glacial valleys, typically in mountainous regions. They are
formed by glacial erosion, not by wind action. Hanging valleys are features found in glaciated landscapes, where
smaller tributary valleys join a main glacier valley but do not reach the same elevation. They are formed by
differential erosion by glaciers and are unrelated to wind action.Lateral moraines are ridges of glacial debris
deposited along the sides of a glacier. They form as the glacier erodes material from the valley walls and carries
it along the glacier's edges. This process is driven by glacial movement, not wind.

90. Match the following climate with its characteristics:

A. Tropical monsoon I. Hot, dry summers and mild, rainy winters

B. Subtropical desert II. Monsoonal patterns and short dry season

C. Marine west coast III. Moderate temperatures and precipitation throughout the year

D. Cold climate with humid winter IV. Cold temperatures with humid winters

Options:

(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(d) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Answer:(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Explanation:
A. corresponds to Tropical monsoon, characterized by monsoonal patterns and a short dry season.

B. matches with Subtropical desert, which has hot, dry summers and mild, rainy winters.

C. represents Marine west coast, known for moderate temperatures and precipitation throughout the year.

D. indicates Cold climate with humid winter, where temperatures are cold with humid winters.

91. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the Koeppen climate classification and
vegetation distribution?

(a) The Koeppen classification is solely based on vegetation distribution.

(b) Vegetation distribution is influenced by climate, which is reflected in the Koeppen classification.

(c) Vegetation distribution has no correlation with climate types in the Koeppen classification.

(d) The Koeppen classification determines vegetation distribution rather than vice versa.

Answer: (b) Vegetation distribution is influenced by climate, which is reflected in the Koeppen
classification.

Explanation: The Koeppen climate classification is based on the relationship between climate and vegetation.
Koeppen observed that certain vegetation types are associated with specific climate conditions, such as
temperature and precipitation patterns. Therefore, the classification scheme reflects how climate influences
vegetation distribution.

92. Which of the following factors does NOT directly influence the type of precipitation experienced in a
particular region?

(a) Air temperature

(b) Humidity levels

(c) Wind direction

(d) Atmospheric pressure

Answer: (d) Atmospheric pressure

Explanation: Atmospheric pressure primarily influences weather patterns and wind movements but does not
directly determine the type of precipitation experienced in a specific region. Precipitation type is primarily
influenced by air temperature, humidity levels, and wind direction. Temperature determines whether precipitation
falls as rain, snow, sleet, or hail, while humidity levels and wind direction affect the distribution and intensity of
precipitation events. Atmospheric pressure indirectly influences precipitation patterns by influencing weather
systems and air mass movements but is not a direct determinant of precipitation type.
93. How do gyres contribute to the global circulation of ocean water?

(a) Gyres are stationary regions of stagnant water that do not influence ocean currents.

(b) Gyres generate powerful whirlpools that disrupt the flow of ocean currents.

(c) Gyres produce large circular currents in ocean basins, facilitating the transport of water across vast
distances.

(d) Gyres act as barriers, preventing the mixing of water masses between different ocean basins.

Answer: (c) Gyres produce large circular currents in ocean basins, facilitating the transport of water across
vast distances.

Explanation: Gyres are large-scale circular currents that dominate ocean basins and play a crucial role in the
global circulation of ocean water. These gyres result from a combination of factors, including the Coriolis effect,
wind patterns, and continental landmasses. As gyres rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and
counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere, they generate large circular currents that transport water masses
across vast distances within ocean basins. These currents help redistribute heat, nutrients, and other properties of
seawater, influencing climate patterns and ecosystem dynamics on a global scale.

94. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of urban marketing centers?

(a) Specialized urban services

(b) Availability of manufactured goods

(c) Presence of wholesale markets

(d) Limited access to professional services

Answer: (d) Limited access to professional services

Explanation: The urban marketing centers provide various specialized goods and services, including professional
services like those offered by teachers, lawyers, consultants, physicians, etc. Therefore, limited access to
professional services is not a characteristic of urban marketing centers.

95. The concentric zone model of urban structure was proposed by:

(a) Walter Christaller

(b) Homer Hoyt

(c) Ernest Burgess

 (d) Chauncy Harris

Answer: (c) Ernest Burgess

Explanation: The concentric zone model was proposed by sociologist Ernest Burgess in 1925. It describes the
social and spatial organization of cities with rings of varying land use radiating outward from a central business
district.

96. The concept of 'multimodal transportation' involves:

(a) Using multiple modes of transportation for a single journey

(b) Transporting goods through multiple countries

(c) Using multiple lanes for traffic on highways

(d) Transporting goods via multiple pipelines

Answer: (a) Using multiple modes of transportation for a single journey

Explanation: Multimodal transportation refers to the use of multiple modes of transportation, such as rail, road,
air, or waterways, for a single journey or shipment, providing flexibility and efficiency in logistics and freight
movement.

97. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted in:

(a) 1972

(b) 1987

(c) 1992

(d) 2005

Answer: (c) 1992

Explanation: The UNFCCC was adopted in 1992 during the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It is a
framework treaty that serves as the foundation for international efforts to address climate change.

98. The term 'cultural landscape' refers to:

(a) Natural landscapes devoid of human influence

(b) Landscapes shaped by human activity and culture

(c) Landscapes designated as UNESCO World Heritage Sites

(d) Landscapes preserved for conservation purposes

Answer: (b) Landscapes shaped by human activity and culture

Explanation: Cultural landscapes are landscapes that have been significantly altered, influenced, or shaped by
human activities and cultural practices over time, reflecting the interactions between society and the environment.

99. Which of the following concepts refers to the belief in the superiority of one's own cultural group over others?

(a) Cultural pluralism

(b) Cultural relativism

(c) Ethnocentrism

(d) Multiculturalism

Answer: (c) Ethnocentrism

Explanation: Ethnocentrism is the tendency to evaluate other cultures based on one's own cultural norms and
values, often resulting in the belief that one's own culture is superior to others.

100. The concept of "Special Economic Zones" (SEZs) in India is aimed at:

(a) Promoting export-oriented industrialization and attracting foreign investment

(b) Strengthening rural agricultural economies

(c) Reducing income inequality through social welfare programs

(d) Protecting ecologically sensitive areas from industrialization

Answer: (a) Promoting export-oriented industrialization and attracting foreign investment

Explanation: Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India are designated geographical areas with favorable business
and trade policies aimed at promoting export-oriented industrialization, attracting foreign investment, and
boosting economic growth. These zones offer various incentives and concessions to businesses operating within
their boundaries to facilitate trade and industrial activities.