Chemistry SAT
Chemistry SAT
CHEMISTRY
INDEX
Sl No. Chapter Name
3 Structure of Atom
5 Chemcial Bonding
6 Principles of Metallurgy
LEVEL - I
1. The substances which take part in a chemical reaction are called
a)Chemical reaction b) Products c) Reactants d) Both b and c
2. What is the formulae of Iron oxide
a)I2O b) CuO c) PbO d) FeO
3. The formation water (H2 O) is the example of
a)Endothermic rxn b) Exothermic reaction
c) Both a and b d) Displacement reaction
4. What is the lime water formulae?
a)CaO b) CaCO3 c) Ca(OH)2 d) CO2
5. Which of thefollowing is correct formulae of rust of iron
a)Fe3O 4 b) Fe2O3 c) Fe2O3 x H2O d) Feo
6. What is chemical formulae of Blue vitriol?
a)CaSO4 ½ H2O b) CaSO4 . 2H2O c) CuSO4 . 10H2O d) CuSO4.5H2O
7. The addition of oxygen to a substances is called?
a)Reduction b) Redox reaction c) Oxidation d) All of these
8. CaO + CO2 x is
a)x CaO b) x Ca(OH)2 c) x CaCO3 d) x Ca(NO3)2
9. C + O2 ____ ?
a)CO b) CO2 c) CaCO3 d) All of these
10. On strong heating of KClO3 produces?
a)KCl & O3 b) KClO & O2 c) KCl & O2 d) KClO2
11. What is the correct formulae of hydrogen peroxide?
a)H2O b) H2+O2 c) H2 O2 d) H2CO3
12. On heating CaCO3 it produces?
a)CaO b) CO2 c) Both a and b d) None of these
13. In the preparation of oxygen in laboratically method on heating of KClO3, which catalyst
is used?
a)Ni b) FeO c) MnO2 d) H2SO4
14. What is the chemical formulae of an hydrous copper sulphate?
a)CuSO4 5H2O b) CaSO4 c) CuSO4 d) CuSO4 . 5H2O
15. How many no. of oxygen atoms are present in the compound Al2 (SO4 )3?
a)3 b) 4 c) 10 d) 12
16. What is the chemical formulae of green vitriol?
a)FeSO4 . 5H2O b) FeSO4 . 7H2O c) FeSO4 . 10 H2O d) FeSO4 . XH2O
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
17. Correct balanced chemical Reaction is ?
a)N2 + H2 NH3 b) 2zn + HCl ZnCl2
c) 2Al + 3Cl2 2AlCl3 d) Mg + O2 MgO
18. Which of the following is the chemical formulae of milk of magnesia?
a)NaOH b) Ca(OH)2 c) Mg (OH)2 d) KOH
19. The common name of Iron (II) Oxide is
a)Ferric oxide b) Ferrous oxide c) Ferrous sulphate d) All of these
20. Which of the following is able to displace copper?
a)Au b) PT c) I d) Mg
LEVEL - II
1. Which of the following is combination reaction?
a)
CaCO3
CaO CO2
(S ) (S ) (g)
LEVEL - II
1. Identify the strong acid
A) HClO4 B) CH3COOH C) H3BO3 D) H2CO3
2. According to usanovich the acid is
A) e acceptor B) e pair acceptor C) e donor D) e pair donor
3. The larger the value of Ka
A) strong acid B) weak acid C) Strong base D) Weak base
4. Basicity of H3PO3 is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
-
5. The conjugate acid of Cl is
A) HCl B) Cl-2 C) Cl+ D) Cl
6. The strongest bronsted base in the following
A) ClO- B) ClO-2 C) ClO-3 D) ClO-4
7. H2O is a
A) pair donor B) pair accepter C) Proton donor D) A& C
8. I can roughly measure pH value from 0 - 14
A) Acid B) base C) Salt D) All the above
9. I give different smell in acid and base solution
A) Olfactory Indicator B) Acidic Indicator C) Basic D) None
10. I am a compound of calcium and can be used for disinfecting drinking water
A) CaCO3 B) CaCOHl2 C) CaOCl2 D) CaCHCO3l2
11. At what pH the mouth teeth start decaying
A) 5.5 B) < 5.5 C) > 5.5 D) none
12. Slaked lime formula
A)CaO B) Ca(OH)2 C) CaCO3 D) CaOCl2
13. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. When it changes to curd, will its pH value
A) decreases B) Increases C) remains same D) Both A & B
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
14. Chemical name of baking soda
A) Sodium carbonate B) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Sodium hydroxide D) sodium tastarate
15. which has a higher pH value
A) 1 M HCl B) 1 M NaOH C) 1 M NaCl D) 1M H2SO4
16. The pH and pOH of 0.1 M aqueous HNO3 are
A) 1,14 B) 14, 1 C) 13, 1 D) 1,13
-4
17. What is the pH of Mg(OH)2 if normality is 10
A) 1 B) 10 C) 7 D) 9
-5
18. The dissociation constant of an acid HA is 1x10 the pH of 0.1 molar solution is
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 1
19. pH of 0.1 M H2SO4 is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
20. pOH of 0.2 M NaoH is
A) 12 B) 10 C) 2 D) 11
KEY
Level - I
1.A 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.D 10.C 11.A 12.C
LEVEL – II
1.A 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.A 6.A 7.A 8.D 9.A 10.C 11.B 12.B
3. Structure of Atom
LEVEL-1
1. Among the following the colour of light with highest wavelength
a)Red b) Violet c) Green d) Blue
2. If l 1 for an atom then the number of orbitals in its subshell is
a)1 b) 2 c) 3 d) O
14
3. Which one of the following is an isobar of C6 ?
12 14 15
13 b) C6 c) 7 N d) 7 N
a) C6
4. In electromagnetic radiation, which of the following has greater wavelength than visible
light?
a)U.V rays b) I.R-rays c) Gamma rays d) X-rays
5. The energy of a photon is Inversly proportional to its
a)Wave length b) Frequency c) Wave number d) Velocity
6. Line spectrum is characteristic of
a)Atoms b) Molecules
c) Any substance in solid state d) Any substance in liquid state
7. Bohr’s theory is applicable to
a)Li+2 b) Li+ c) He+ d) Both A and C
8. The values of quantum numbers n, l and ml for the 5th electron of boron is
a)n=2, l 1, ml 1 b) n=2, l 0, ml 1
c) n=2, l 2, ml 1 d) n=1, l 2, ml 1
9. When n=3, l=1,the designation given to the orbitals is
a)4s b) 4p c) 3s d) 3p
10. Which of the following designation is impossible
a)4f b) 5g c) 2d d) 6p
11. l 3 , then the values of magnetic quantum numbers are
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 0, 1, 2, 3 c) -1, -2, -3 d) +1, +2, +3
12. The impossible set of quantum number is
1 1
a)n=2, l 0, ml 0, ms b) n=2, l 1, ml 0, ms
2 2
1 1
c)n=2, l 0, ml 1, ms d) n 3, l 1, ml 1, ms
2 2
13. For the orbital, conventionally ml is
a)-2 b) +2 c) 0 d) Any of these
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
14. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression
a)( l +2) b) (2l 2)
c) (4l 2) (R) 2(2l 1) d) (1+1)
15. A new electron enters the orbital when
a)(n+l) is minimum b) (n+l) is maximum c) (n+m) is minimum d) (n+m) is maximum
16. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an
atom
a)n=3, l 0 , m=0, S = + ½ b) n=3, l 1, m=1, S=+ ½
c) n=3, l 2, m=1, S = + ½ d) n=4, l 0, m 0, S=+ ½
17. Sommerfeld modified Bohr’s atomic model by adding _____ orbits
a)Spherical b) Circular c) Elliptical d) Round
18. The Germon word “Aufbau” means
a)Above b) Building up c) Construct d) Create
19. Particles in cathode rays have some charge to mass ratio as
a) Particles b) Particles c) R-Rays d) Protons
20. Mulliken’s oil drop experiment is used to find
a)Elm ratio of an electron b) mass of an electron
c)Velocity of an electron d) charge of an electron
21. Which of the following statements is not correct
a)Isotopes have same number of neutrons b)Isobars have same number of neutrons
c)Isotones have same number of protons d)Isobars are atoms of different element.
22. Very few (1 in 10,000 or 20,000) particles are deviated through an angle of 1800 C.
This has lead to the discovery of
a)Proton b) Neutron c) Both d) Nucleus
23. Which of the following is not a gradient energy
a)X-rays b) -rays c) rays d) Radio-waves
24. The orbital diagram in which aufbau principle? Is violated is
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
25. No two electrons in an orbital can have parallel spin, this statement emerges from
a)Hund’s rule b) Aufbau Principle
c) Pauli’s exclusion principle d) (n+l) rule
LEVEL - 2
1. The nitrogen atom has 7 protons and 7 electrons the nitride ion will have
a)10 protons and 7 electrons b)7 protons and 10 electrons
c)4 protons and 7 electrons d)4 protons and 10 electrons
2. 6 14
A light whose frequency is equal 1-10 x10 HZ is incident on a metal whose work func-
tion is ………… (h = 6.63 x 10-34 JS, 1ev = 1.6x10-19 J). The maximum energy of electrons
emitted will be
a)2.49ev b) 4.49ev c) 0.49ev d) 5.49 ev
3. Which of the properties of the element is a whole number.
a)Atomic mass b) Atomic number c) Atomic radius d) Atomic volume
4. Increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e/m (charge/mass) for electron (e)< pro-
ton (P), neutron (n) and particle ( ) is
a)e, p, n, b) n,p, e, c) n, p, , e d) n, , p, e
5. Which of the following conditions is incorrect for a well behaved wave function ( )
a) must be finite b) must be single valued
c) must be infinite d) most be continuous
6. Na+ Ion is Iso electronic with
a)Li+ (b) Mg+2 c) Ca+2 d) Ba+2
7. Bohr advanced the idea of
a)Stationary electrons b) Stationary nucleus
c) Stationary orbits d) Elliptical orbits
8. The radios of the first orbit of H atom is r. Then the radius of the first orbit of Li+2 will be
r r
a) b) c) 3a d) 9r
a 3
9. According to Bohr theory, the angular momentum for an electron of 5th, orbit is
5h 2.5h 5 25h
a) b) c) d)
h
10. An electron in an atom
a)Moves randomly around the nucleus
b)Has fixed space around the nucleus
c)Is stationary in various …………. levels
d)Moves round its nucleus in definite ……. levels.
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
11. The position and the velocity of a small particle like electron cannot be simultaneously
determined The statement is
a) Heisenberg uncertainty princine b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
c)Aufbau’s principle d)De Broglies’ wave nature of electron
12. The electronic configuration of a dispositive Ion M 2+ is 2, 8, 14 and its atomic mass is
56. The number of neutron in the nucleus would be.
a)30 b) 32 c) 34 d) 42
13. Which of the following expressions gives the de Broglies relationship
h h h h
a) P b) c) d) m
m m mp p
14. The quantum number not obtained from the schrodingv’s wave equation is
a)n b) l c) m d) s
15. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l
a)n=4, l 1 b) n=4, l 0 c) n=3, l 2 d) n=3, l 1
Can be placed in the order of increasing energy.
a)A < C < B < D b) C < D < B < A c) D < B < C < A d) B < D < A < C
16. If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is written as IS2 , 2S2 ; it would violate
a)Hund’s rule b) Pauli’s exclusion …………..
c) Both Hund’’s and Pauli’s …………… d) None of the above
17. Which of the following has non spherical shell of electron?
a)He b) B c) Be d) Li
18. Which of the following has highest orbital angular momentum?
a)4S b) 4P c) 4d d) 4f
19. The angular momentum of an electron depends on
a)Principal quantum number b) Azimuthal quantum number
c)Magnetic quantum number d) All of the above
20. Which one of the following orbitals has the shape of a baby booth cad
a)dxy b) dx2-y2 c) dz2 d) Px
21. Which point does not pertain to Bohr’s model of atom?
a)Angular momentum is an integral multiple of
b)The path of the electron is circular
c)Force of attraction towards nucleus = centrifugal force
d)The energy changes are tacking place continuously
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
22. The shape of orbital for which l=2 is
a)Spherical b) Dumb-bell c) Double dumb-bell d) Circular
23. The fine structure of atomic spectrum is satisfactorily explained by
a)Bohr’s atomic modal b) Sommerfield’s modal
c) Wave mechanical model of atom d) Rutherford’s model of atom
24. The familiar example of the visible spectrum in nature is the formation of
a)Cloud b) Spark c) Rainbow d) Sunrise
25. Visible light consists of rays with wavelength in the approximate range of
a)4000AO to 7500AO b) 4x10-3c.m to 7.5x10-4
c)4000nm to 7500nm d) 4x10-5m to 7.5 x 10-6m
KEY
LEVE-1
1)A 2)C 3)C 4)C 5)A 6)A 7)D 8)A 9)D 10)C 11)B 12)C
13)C 14)C 15)A 16)C 17)C 18)B 19)B 20)D 21)A, B, C 22)D 23)B
24)B 25)C
LEVE - II
1)B 2)C 3)B 4)D 5)C 6)B 7)C 8)B 9)B 10)D 11)A 12)A
13)B 14)D 15)C 16)A 17)B 18)D 19)B 20)C 21)D 22)C 23)B 24)C
25)A
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
Level - I
1. The atomic numbers of lanthanides are from
a.58-71 b. 90-103 c.21-30 d.39-48
2. The element with electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p5 belongs to
a.4th period, V A group b. 5th period, IV A group
c. 4th period VII A group d. 7th period, IV A group
3. Mendaleef’s periodic law is based on the ……………of the elements.
a.Atomic volume b. Atomic weights c. Atomic radii d. Atomic number
4. The physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic
numbers, this was started by
a.Mendaleef b. Lother Mayer c. Mosley d. Bohr
5. The inert gas present in the second long period is
a.Kr b.Xe c. Ar d. Rn
6. In the long form of periodic table all non-metals are placed in
a.s-Block b.p-Block c.d-Block d. f- Block
7. Which of the following is not the electronic configuration of a representative element?
a.ns2 b.ns2np5 c. ns2np1 d. ns2 np6
8. If the differentiating electron enters(n+1)d sublevel the element is
a. a representative element b.a noble gas
c.a n alkali metal d.a transition element
9. Which of the following is not an anamalous pair
a.S,Cl b.Te, I c.Co, Ni d. Ar, K
10. The properties of the following elements were predicted by Mendaleef before their
isolation are
a.Fe, Co & Ni b.I & Te c. Sc, Ga & Ge d. Cl, Ar &K
11. In which of the following period a maximum number of 32 elements are present
a.4th b.6th c. 3rd d. 7th
12. By taking chemical properties into consideration, the atomic weights of the following
elements were corrected
a.Te & I b. Ar & K c. Cp & Ni d. All
13. The triad not present in group VIII of Mendaleef’s table
a. Li Na, K b.Fe, Co, Ni c.Ru, Rh, Pd d.Os, Ir, Pt
14. The element which has highest electro negativity is
a.Oxygen b. Chlorine c. Flourine d. Carbon
15. The general electronic configuration of d-block elements is
a.ns1-2 (n-1)d1-10 b.Ns2 (n-1)d1 (N-2)f1-14 c. ns1-2 np6(n-1)d1-10 d. all
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
16. Largest ion among the following is
a.Na+ b. O-2 c. S-2 d. Cl-
17. Pauling’s electronegativity is based on
a.Electron affinity b. Ionisation potential c. Both IP & EA d. Bond energies
18. Milliken’s electro negativity is based on
a.Electron affinity b. Ionisation potential c. Both IP & EA d. Bond energies
19. Which of the following will not form Dobereiner’s triad
a.B,C,N b. Al, Si, P c. Li, Be, Mg d. All
20. Pair of elements with the following atomic numbers have the same chemical properties.
a.13 & 22 b. 3 & 11 c. 4 & 24 d. 2 & 1
21. Which of the following order is correct for the size of Fe+3,Fe & Fe+2.
a.Fe<Fe+3<Fe+2 b. Fe+3<Fe+2<Fe c. Fe<Fe+2<Fe+3 d. Fe=Fe+2=Fe+3
22. Correct order of first ionization potentials.
a.K < Na b. Ca < K c. Mg < Ca d. Li > Be
23. The elements belonging to third period which possesses both metallic and non-metallic
properties.
a.Na b. Mg c. Si d. As
24. In the periodic table, the elements are arranged in the periods following the
a.Hund’s rule b.paule’s exclusion principle
c. Aufbau principle d. All
25. 1Pm = ………… m
a.10-6 b.10-12 c.10-10 d.10-8
Level - II
1. Atoms with three of their outer most orbits incompletely filled with electrons are present
in
a.Lanthanides b.Representative elements
c.S-block elements d. Transitional elements
2. Most of the radio active elements are in
a.Lanthanides b.actinides
c. Representative elements d. Second transitional series
3. Which of the following statements related to the modern periodic table is incorrect
a.The p-Block has 6 columns because a maximum of 6 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a p
sub shell
b.The d-Block has 8 columns because a maximum of 8 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a d
sub shell
c.Each block contains a number of column equal to the number of electrons that can occupy that
subshell
d.The block indicates value of azimuthal quantum number (1) for the last subshell that received
electrons in building up the electronic configuration
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
4. The correct order of increasing radii of the following set of elements N, Rb, K & Mg is
a.M, Na, K, Rb b.Mg, K, Na, Rb c. Na, K,Rb,Mg d. Na, Rb,K Mg
5. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to ionization enthalpy.
a.Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron.
b.The greater increase in ionization enthalphy is experienced on removal of electron from core
noble gas configuration.
c.End of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in ionization enthalpy.
d.Removal of election from orbitals bearing lower ‘n’ value is easier than from orbital having higher
n value
6. The process required the absorption of energy is
a. F F b. Cl Cl c. O O 2 d. H H
7. The electron affinity values (in KJ mol-1) of three halogens X,Y & Z are respectively –
349, - 333 & -325, Then XYZ respectively are
a.F2, Cl2 & Br2 b.Cl2, F2, & Br2 c.Cl2, Br2 & F2 d. Br2, Cl2 & F2
8. The atomic number of elements A, B,C and D are Z-1,Z,Z+1 & Z+2 respectively . If ‘B’
is a noble gas choose the correct answer from the following statements
i. A has higher EA ii C exists in +2 oxidation state
iii D is an alkaline earth metal
a.i& ii b. ii & iii c.i & iii d. i, ii & iii
-
9. The I.P of X ion is equal to.
a.EA of X b. EN of X c. IP of X d. IP of X+
10. The element present in the IIIA Group & 3 period in the periodic table is
a.Carbon b.Phosphorus c. Cobalt d.Alluminium
11. An atom with atomic number 21 belongs to the category
a.s-block b. p- block c. d- block d. f- block
12. The covalent radius of hydrogen is 0.37 A0. The bond length in H2 molecule is
a.0.185A0 b. 0.74 A0 c. 1.48A0 d. 0.37A0
13. In the isoelectronic species the ionic radii of N3-, O2-, F are respectively given by.
a.1.36, 1.40, 1.71 b.1.36, 1.71, 1.40 c.1.71, 1.40, 1.36 d.1.71, 1.36, 1.40
14. In the long form of periodic table elements with low ionization potentials are present in
a.I A group b. IV A group c. VII A group d. Zero group
15. The I1, I2, I3,I4 values of an element M are 120, KJ/mole, 600 K J/mole 1000 J/mole &
8000 KJ/mole. Then the formula of its sulphate is
a.MSO4 b.M2(SO4)3 c. M2SO4 d. M3(SO4)2
16. The element with high electron affinity is
a.Nitrogen b.Oxygen c. Sulphur d. Phosphorous
17. The best oxidizing agent among the following is
a.Oxygen b.Flourine c. Sodium d. Copper
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
18. The electronegativity of Be is some as that of
a.Al b.Mg c. Na d. Li
19. The correct order of electro negativities of the element is
a.P>Si>Al>P>Mg>Na b. Na> Mg> Al> Si > P
c. Al> Si> P> Mg> Na d. Mg> Al> Si> Na>P
20. Diagonal relationship is quite pronounced in the elements of
a.2nd & 3rd periods b.1st & 2nd periods c. II & III groups d. 3rd & 4th periods
21. Metal exhibiting higher oxidation state is in which block
a.p b. s c. d d. f
22. An element has nine positive changes in its nucleus its common oxidation state is
a.+7 b.+5 c. -1 d. +1
23. Which of the following of ions have the same electronic configuration
a.Cr+3 ,Fe+3 b. Fe+3, Mn+2 c. Fe+3, CO+3 d. Sc+3, Cr+3
24. Let electronegativity, ionization energy & electron affinity be represented as EN, IP &
EA respectively. Which one of the following equation is correct according to mullilean
IP EA
a.EN=IP X EA b.EN= IP / EA c. EN d. EN=IP-EA
2
25. Statement I: The second I.E of ‘O’ is greater than that of N
Statement II: The half-filled P-orbitals cause greater stability
a.Both statements I & II ae true & statement II is correct explanation of statement I
b.Both statement I &II are true & statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
c.Statement I is true, statement II is false
d.Statement I is false, Statement II is true
KEY
LEVEL - I
1.A 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.D 8.D 9.A 10.C 11.B 12.D
13.A 14.C 15.A 16.C 17.C 18.A 19.D 20.B 21.B 22.A 23.C 24.A
25.B
LEVEL - II
1.A 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.D 11.C 12.B
13.C 14.C 15.B 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.A 20.A 21.A 22.C 23.B 24.C
25.A
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
5.CHEMICAL BONDING
Level - I
A) Fe2O3 B) CO C) Fe D) CO2
B) 2 Ag CN 2 aq Zn Zn CN 4 aq 2 Ag s
C) Ag 2 S 4 KCN K CN 2 SCN 2 Ag
D) All
10. _________ is the method in which low melting metal can be made to flow on a slope surface
A) Liquation B) Floatation C) Distillation D) Roasting
11. Metals of high reactivity are extracted from their ores by
A) Electrolytic reduction B) Distillation C) Magnetic separation D) None
12. Carbonate orcs are converted into oxides by
A) Calcination B) auto reduction C) Chemical reduction D) Distillation
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
13. Hematite is
A) Fe2O3 B) FeO.H 2 O C) FeO3 . OX 2 D) FeO. XH 2 O
14. In correct match
A) Carnalite - KCl.MgCl2 .6 H 2 O B) Horn silver - AgCl
Level - II
26. Coplex formation method is used for the extraction of
A) Zn B) Ag C) Hg D) Cu
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
27. Among the following the correct points regarding furnace
A) In blast furnace both fire box & hearth are combined in big chamber and ore & fuel also kept.
B) Reverberalaryfurnace has both fire box & hearth separeted, ut the vapoors obtained due to the
burning of the fuel touch the ore in the health & heat it.
C) In furnaces like retort furnaces there is no direct contact between the hearth or fire box & even the
flames do not touch ther ore.
D) All
28. Which statement are incorrect regarding metallurgy
A) All ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores.
B) It is the process of extraction of metals from ores.
C) The minarlas from which the metals are extracted with out economical loss are called ores.
D) Pyralusite is the carbonate are of Mn.
29. The ion that is likely to be colour less in aqueous solution is
A) Ti 2 B) V 3 C) Mn2 D) Zn2
30. Brass is an alloy of
A) Zn & Cu B) Cu & Sn C) Zn & Sn D) Cu, Zn & Sn
31. Bell metal is an alloy of
A) Zn & Cu B) Cu & Ni C) Zn & Pb D) Cu & Sn
32. Which metal is not present in german silver?
A) Cu B) Ni C) Zn D) Sn
33. The aloy used in making status
A) Brars B) Bronze C) Gun metal D) German silver
34. Constiturnt metals of type metal are
A) Pb, Sb, Sn B) Pb, Sb, Zn C) Bi, Pb, Sn, Cd D) Fe, Ni, Cr
35. Minor constituent of solder metal
A) Sn B) Pb C) Sb D) A & B
36. The alloy of nikel with high electrical resistance
A) Platinite B) Monel metal C) German silver D) Nichrome
37. Which transition metal cation has maximum unpaired electrons
A) Mn2 B) Fe 2 C) Co 2 D) Ni 2
38. The method used for removal of gangue from sulphide ores
A) Levigation B) Forth flotatin method C) Leaching D) Magnetic separation
39. The process used for refining of nikel is
A) Mond process B) Van Arkel method C) Electro refining D) None
40. Which of the following methods are used to refine low melting metals (tin) contains high
melting ingurities
A) Distillation B) Poling C) Liquation D) Electrolytic refining
41. The process used for refining of Zirconium
A) Mond process B) Van Arkel method C) Electro refining D) None
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
42. Identify incorrect point
A) K, Na, form peroxides in excess of O2 B) Ca, Mg, Al, Zn, Fe form oxides
C) Ag, Pt, Au can also react and form oxides D) All the above
43. In the process of corrosion Bisphenol is used to
A) It react readly rusting agents when compared to pure metal
B) It covers the surface of the metals as point
C) It self under go corrosion & protect the pure metal from corrosion
D) All the above
44. _____ Zn Zn CN 4 2 Ag
A) Zn CN 2 B) 2 Ag CN 2 C) 2Ag D) All
45. Identify the incorrect match
A) K, Na, Ca, Mg, Al, Zn, Fe,Pb, - displace H2 from dil. strong acids.
B) Cu, Hg , Ag , Pt , Au - do not dislace H 2 from dil. strong acids.
C) Potassium - reaction is explosive with dil. strong acids.
D) Pb - reaction is fast with dil. strong acids.
46. Identify the incorrect match
A) Heating ore in excess of air - roasting B) Heating ore in absnce of air - calcination
C) Reaction of metal oxide with Aluminium - thermite process
D) In thermite reaction reducing agent is Fe
47. Which statements are incorrect
A) Bauxite Al2O3 2 H 2O is ore of Al, containing 50% to 70% of aluminium oxide.
B) Cinnabar (HgS) is sulphide are of mercury
C) From zinc blend zinc is concentrated by magnetic separation
D) CuFeS 2 is dressed by magnetic sepeation.
48. Galena is an ore of
A) Zn B) Pb C) Hg D) Al
49. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is
A) Silver B) Aluminium C) Zinc D) Iron
50. The purpose of smelting an ore is to __________ it.
A) Oxidise B) Reduce C) Neutralise D) None of these
KEY
1) A 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) A 12) A
13) A 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) A
25) D 26) B 27) D 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) D
37) A 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) D 47) C 48) B
49) B 50) B
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
Level - 2
1. The compounds of carbon other than CO, CO2 and carbonates are caused
A) organic compounds B) Chemical compoundsC) Both A & B D) Physical compoundss
2. The property of catenation is strongest in carbon because
A) It’s I.P is low B) It’s E.N is low
C) The C-C bond energy is high D) It’s atomic radii is small
3. The first organic compound prepared from inorganic compounds was
A) Acetic acid B) Methane C) Urea D) Ethyl alcohol
4. Which of the following compounds have only sp3 hybridization carbon
A) C2H6 B) CH4 C) C2H2 D) C3H8
5. As s-character increases, acidity
A) decreases B) Increases C) remains same D) None
6. Which of the following is an aromatic compound
A) benzene B) Naphthalene C) Furan D) Compound
7. The molecular weight of one compound is 28. Next homologous compound weight will be
A) 42 B) 30 C) 32 D) 46
8. Formic acid was prepared from
A) Red Ants B) Vinegar C) maleic acid D) femoric acid
9. CH3COCH2CN has IUPAC name
A) 3 – OXO-butane nitrile B) 1 – Cyano propane
C) 2 – OXO Proane D) 1 – Cyano butanone
10. C60 contain
A) 12 Pentagonal B) 20 hexagonal C) Both D) 60 hexagonal
11. Which is 200 times stronger than steel
A) Graphene B) graphite C) Dianond D) Nanotubes
12. Which of the following is Alkene
A) C2H4 B) C3H6 C) C4H8 D) All of these
13. boiling point of butane is
A) – 164 B) – 89 C) Zero D) - 42
SAT_CHEMISTRY CLASS - X
14. C2H5OH+Na ——— X + Y
A) C2H5ONa, ½ H2 B) CH4, H2 C) C2H6, H2 D) C2H5COONa, H2
15. Sodium sterate formulae is
A) C17 H35 COONa B) C17H33 COONa C) C15H31 COONa D) None
16. CH4+2O2 —— A + B A, B aree
A) CO2, H2O B) CO, H2 C) CO, O2 D) CO2, H2
17. , bonds in 1,3,5,7-octa tetraene
A) 17,4 B) 33, 2 C) 23, 1 D) 41, 1
18. Lindalar’s catalyst’ is
A) Pd / C B) Na / liq NH3 C) Ni/H2 D) alc / koH
19. H2C=CH2 polymerization X, X is
A) Poly ethene B) Poly propene C) PVC D) Poly Acetylene
20. Number of bonds in benzene
A) 12, 3 B) 3, 12 C) 24, 6 D) 20, 5
KEY
LEVEL - I
1. A 2. C 3.B 4.B 5.B 6. A 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.C 11.A 12.A
13. B 14.A 15.C 16.A 17. B 18.A 19.A 20.A
LEVEL - II
1. C 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.B 6. D 7.A 8.A 9.A 10.C 11. A 12.D
13.C 14.A 15.A 16. A 17.A 18.A 19.A 20.A