Trường THPT B Bình Lục

Họ tên người ra đề: Trần Thị Lan

Đề đề xuất cho:
-Kỳ thi: Chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 12
-Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
 KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT
NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
Môn: Tiếng Anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

A. LISTENING (30 points)

SECTION 1 (10 points)
You will hear a woman phoning to inquire about exhibition information. Listen
and complete the notes below.
BIRMINGHAM EXHIBITION
Open in: 1. ………………………………
Length of exhibition: 2. ………………………………
A wide range of manufacturers will be showcased.
Some cars are available to observe and others are for 3. ………………………………
The 4. ………………………………is prohibited to take into the museum.
Every ticket includes one fere photo.
Price of the ticket: 5. £ ……………………………… (in advance).
Transfer to Mark 6. ……………………………… (Box Office Manager).
Held in the 7. ……………………………… Palace this year.
Not far from 8. ………………………………
Website: www. 9. ………………………………com.
Best way to contact: 10. ………………………………

SECTION 2 (10 points)

You will hear a tour of a newly renovated health club. What change has been made
to each part оf the health club? Write the correct letter, A-F next to questions 11—
15.

HARTFORD HEALTH CLUB Part of the health club

A installed a new floor 11. swimming pools
В repainted 12. locker rooms
С moved to a new location 13. exercise room
D rebuilt 14. tennis court
E enlarged 15. club store
F replaced the equipment
Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

SECTION 3 (10 points)

You will hear a conversation between Thomas and Nadia who are waiting at the
airport . Listen and choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
1. What did Nadia buy at the bookshop?
A. a newspaper B. a novel C. crossword puzzles
2. Thomas is interested in the play about
A. a hunter B. a pirate C. a doctor
3. The couple in the bookshop were discussing
A. A. a funny play B. a smooth play C. a boring play
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4. How does Nadia want her coffee?
A. sweet and black B. with milk C. black with no sugar
5. What kind of muffin does Nadia want?
A. plain B. berry C. Chocolate
Your answers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

B. PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group.
(5 points)
1. A. individual B. entertainment C. introduction D. environment
2. A. knowledge B. machine C. police D. bamboo
3. A. introduce B. yesterday C. ambulance D. furniture
4. A. confidence B. minimize C. interview D. consider
5. A. company B. atmosphere C. customer D. employment
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
rest. (5 points)
6. A. forest B. control C. product D. ecology
7. A. industry B. island C. construction D. satisfy
8. A. almond B. avocado C. sesame D. massage
9. A. advantage B. addition C. advertise D. adventure
10.A. thereafter B. other C. weather D. therapy
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (60 points)

Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression that best completes each sentence.
(20 points)
1. He’s at a very age and just tends to follow all the boys.
A. impressive B. impressionist C. impressing D. impressionable
2. John was the first person I saw _____ hospital.
A. by leaving B. on leaving C. in leaving D. on to leave
3. _____ depends mostly on her test scores.
A. Whether she goes to college B. Whether does she go to college
C. If does she go to college D. That if she goes to college
4. At this time tomorrow _______over the Atlantic
A. we’re flying B. we’ll be flying C. we’ll fly D. we’re to fly
5. He _____have committed the crime because he was with me all day.
A. mustn’t B. shouldn’t C. won’t D. can’t
6. _______ that she burst into tears.
A. Her anger was such B. So angry she was
C. She was so anger D. Such her anger was
7. She took up so many hobbies when she retired that she had hardly any time_____
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A. on her hands B. in hand C. at her hand D. at hand
8. I just feel safer with the food _________ supermarkets.
A. sold B. to sell C. selling D. to be selling
9. Sometimes, in order to get things done, you have to _________ the initiative.
A. give B. take C. have D. bring
10. There was a ________ debate about the Middle East, then they moved to a vote.
A. mainly B. flexible C. lively D. nimble
11. Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
-Ann: “I think children should be paid for doing the housework.”
-Peter: “______. It's their duty in the family.”
A. You're exactly right B. That's what I think
C. There's no doubt about it D. I don't think so
12. Looking down at the coral reef, we saw_________ of tiny, multi-colored fish.
A. swarms B. flocks C. teams D. shoals
13. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She's a different person at home,______
A. though B. although C. as though D. even though
14. "Where is the sofa?" "I got my son _________ it to the sitting room. "
A. take B. to take C. taken D. taking
15. Emphasis is placed_________practical training.
A. over B. with C. by D. on
th
16. In the early years of the 20 century, several rebellions _______in the northern
parts of the country.
A. turned out B. rose up C. broke out D. came up
Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the
following sentences
17. The year-end party was out of this world. We had never tasted such delicious food.
A. enormous B. terrific C. strange D. awful
18. Recognizable smaller than most of the kids in his age group, Lionel Messi was
diagnosed by doctors as suffering from a hormone deficiency that restricted his growth.
A. inadequacy B. sufficiency C. abundance D. strength
Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the
following sentences
19. Nothing could efface the people’s memory of their former leader’s cruelty although
many years had elapsed.
A. broaden B. erase C. maintain D. prove
20. None of her novels lends itself to being made into a film; they just simply lack a
coherent storyline.
A. inapplicable B. untamable C. unsuitable D. inconceivable
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part II. Give the correct form of words in brackets to complete the following sentences.
(10 points)

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 Students learning English as a second language are sometimes given a word by
their teacher and asked to give an/a ___1__ (explain) as to what that word means; in
other words, to provide a __2__ (define). The __3__ (assume) is that if you know a
word, you can define it. __4__ (logic), that might make sense, but in reality it is not
always __5__ (reason) to assume that. There are words and phrases that even native
speakers use in conversation without much __6__ (think) which can lead to __7__
(confuse) when you ask a native speaker to define them. Take the __8__ (conceive) of
‘zeitgeist’, for example, which has entered English from German. It’s __9__ (doubt)
much easier to use than it is to define. With a word like ‘zeitgeist’ it may be more
__10__ (sense) to test the student’s understanding in ways other than asking them to
define it.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part III. The following passage contains ten errors. Underline the mistakes and write
the correct form in the provided space. (10 points)
18,000 years ago, much of Europe laid buried beneath vast sheets of ice, hundreds
of meters thick. Ever since this astonished fact was discovered in the last century,
scientists have thought over the nature of the Ice Age climate, and the circumstances
that were brought it to an end.
More recently, people have wondered if climate change could be taken place in our
own time. During the early 1970s, there were disastrous droughts in Africa, and
frequently failure of India monsoon. In 1976, Europe sweltered in a hottest summer for
over a century, and experienced one of the worst drought since the records began. Could
such events as these be symptoms of a worldwide climatic shift?
Even small changes in climate that occur from time to time can have a highly
damaging effect of agriculture. With food reserves now stand at only a few percent of
annual production, the world is extremely vulnerable to adverse shifts in climate. It is
therefore vitally important for us to understand how do climate changes take place.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in the brackets. (10 points)
1. Five thousand pounds (steal) _________ from the bank last night.
2. (Convince)_________that they were trying to poison him, he refused to eat
anything.
3. It is believed that two climbers (freeze) ___________to death in temperature of
minus 30°C
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4. Not until she arrived at the meeting she (realize) ___________that she had left her
document at home.
5. It won’t be safe to use these stairs until they (repair) __________
6. The neighbors are noisy. It looks as if they ( have)___________an argument.
7. More than twenty miners were reported (kill) ____________ in the accident.
8. I appreciate (tell) ___________the news.
9. I can’t find my umbrella. I (leave)_____________ it in the restaurant last night.
10. The city is now crowded with the people ( seek) ___________ employment.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part V. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
1. The scientists who study the sky are called ___________.
2. I’m not in ___________of children leaving home at such early age.
3. We walked on tiptoe for ___________of being discovered.
4. The bridge is ___________ repair so we’ll have to take the long way round.
5 . That wasn’t an accident. You did it on ___________.
6. You look tired. Why don’t we ___________it a day and finish up tomorrow.
7. I asked him to repeat his request. I couldn’t make___________what it was.
8. Although he drinks like a __________, he never looks drunk.
9. After feeling off for days, Tom finally went to see his doctor.
10. Can you tell me the___________of these shoes?
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

D. READING COMPREHENSION (50 points)

Part I. Complete the following passage with ONE suitable word. (20 points)
Cell Phones
Cell phones have been popular in Japan (0. since) the early 1990s, but it was
(1.)____ until 1999 that their use really took off. The age of cell phones has emerged,
but with it come problems.
Cell phones are used on buses and trains, in restaurants, and in all areas of
(2.)_____. They cause problems when they (3.)_____ during meetings, concerts,
weddings, or even funerals. What's more, people speak loudly in public, and students
read and text messages during lessons. (4.) ______ seriously, when a cell phone is used
near a person (5.)_____ a pacemaker to fegulate his heartbeat, its radio waves may
interfere with the functioning of the pacemaker.

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 Now, something is being done to solve these (6.)_______. In many places, new
technology is being used to block cell phone calls. Airline (7.) ______ are requested to
stop using cell phones while on board. Concert halls ask their audience to switch their
phones to the (8.)______ mode. However, phone users fear that if they do not (9.)
______ their phones, they will lose valuable business opportunities. That's why many
do not (10.)_____ off their phones even when they are asked to.
Your answers:

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part II. Choose the best word A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage.
(10 points)
There can be no (1) ______ at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our
lives. Parents are worried that children spend too much time playing on the Internet,
hardly (2) ______ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are (3)
______ to find out why the Internet is so attractive and they want to know if it can be
harmful for their children. Should parents worry if their children are spending that much
time (4) ______ their computers?
Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (5) _____ in some game,
instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. Parents and children could
decide how much use the child should (6) ______ of the Internet, and the child should
give his or her word that it won’t interfere with homework. If the child is not holding to
this arrangement, the parent can take more drastic (7) ______. Dealing with a child’s
use of the Internet is not much different from negotiating any other sort of bargain about
behavior.
Any parent who is seriously alarmed about a child’s behavior should make an
appointment to (8) ______ the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of the
screen does not necessarily affect a child’s performance at school. Even if a child is (9)
______ crazy about using the Internet, he or she is probably just going through a phase,
and in a few months there will be something else to worry (10) ______!
1. A. reason B. doubt C. purpose D. motive
2. A. always B. rarely C. never D. ever
3. A. worried B. concerned C. curious D. hopeful
4. A. staring at B. stare at C. stared at D. to stare at
5. A. supposed B. occupied C. excited D. absorbed
6. A. do B. have C. make D. create
7. A. rules B. procedures C. regulations D. steps
8. A. speak B. discuss C. talk D. say
9. A. absolutely B. more C. less D. few
10. A. at B. about C. on D. for
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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Part III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (20 points)
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by
humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or
materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits
continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the
fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelt
- a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has
developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the
list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered
an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon
monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the
concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they
became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification
scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a
global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human
activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In
such a region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural
purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious
chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be
greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human
activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in
fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this
represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example,
sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is
about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1
ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
2. The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
3. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _______.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelt
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
4. The word "These" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_.
A. the various chemical reactions
B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil
D. the components in biogeochemical cycles

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5. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in
controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
6. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions
_______.
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
7. The word "localized" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
8. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a
substance is only useful if __
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
9. The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to_______.
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable
10. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their
air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air
pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air
pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

E. WRITING (50 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly
the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points)
1. I can't believe this is the best hotel in the city!
→ There must .....................................................................................................................
2. They were unable to finish their tennis game because of the heavy rain.
→The heavy rain ...............................................................................................................
3. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.
→ At ...................................................................................................................................
4. People think that human’s error caused the accident.
→Human’s error..................................................................................................................
5. Basically, a couple’s happiness depends on their ability to communicate.
→ Basically, the .................................................................................................................

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Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as
the given one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the word.
(10 points)
1. I can’t find the answer without a calculator. (out)
...........................................................................................................................................
..
2. My friend took no notice of my advice. (deaf )
...........................................................................................................................................
..
3. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (taken)
...........................................................................................................................................
..
4. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast. (annual)
..........................................................................................................................................
..
5. From the educational point of view his childhood years had been well spent. (terms)
..........................................................................................................................................
..
Part III. (30 points)
Some people believe that studying at university or college is the best route to a
successful career, while others believe that it is better to get a job straight after
school. Discuss both views and give your opinion.
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THE END
ĐÁP ÁN, HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
SECTION 1 (10 points)
1 point for each correct answer
1. July
2. Three days
3. Test driving
4. Camera
5. 110
6. Edgeworth
7. Summer
8. City centre
9. Directions
10.Enquiring online

SECTION 2 (10 points)

1 point for each correct answer

11. B 12. E 13. A 14. F 15. C

SECTION 3 (10 points)

1 point for each correct answer
16. A 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. D

B. PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group.
(5 points)
1 point for each correct answer
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D
Part II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the rest. (5 points)
1 point for each correct answer
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10.D
C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (60 points)
Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression that best completes each sentence.
(20 points)
1 point for each correct answer
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. A 9.B 10.C
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 11. D 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. C
Part II. Give the correct form of words in brackets to complete the following sentences.
(10 points)
1 point for each correct answer

1. explanation 6. thought
2. definition 7. confusion
3. assumption 8. concept
4. logically 9. undoubtedly
5. reasonable 10. sensible
Part III. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. IDENTIFY and CORRECT
these ten mistakes (each line has one mistake). Write your answer on the
numbered blanks given below. (10 points)
1 point for each correct answer

Mistake Correction
1. Laid 1. Lay
2. Astonished 2. astonishing
3. were brought 3. brought
4. taken 4. taking
5. frequently 5. frequent
6. a 6. the
7. drought 7. droughts
8. of 8. on
9. stand 9. standing
10.how do 10.how

Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in the brackets. (10 points)
1 point for each correct answer
1. was stolen 6. are having
2. Having been convinced 7. to have been killed
3. froze 8. being told
4. did she realize 9. must have left
5. have been repaired 10. seeking

Part V. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
1 point for each correct answer
1. astronomers 6. call
2. favour/favor 7. out
3. fear 8.fish
4. under 9. colour/color
5. purpose 10. price
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 D. READING COMPREHENSION (50 points)
Part I. Complete the following passage with ONE suitable word. (20 points)
2 points for each correct answer
1. not 6. problems
2. life 7. passengers
3. ring 8. silent
4. more 9. nnswer
5. using 10. turn/switch
Part II. Choose the best word A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage.
(10 points):
1 points for each correct answer
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. B

Part III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (20 points)
2 points for each correct answer
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. D

E. WRITING (50 points)

Part I. (10 points): 2 points for each correct answer
1. There must be better hotels than this one in the city
2. The heavy rain prevented/stopped them (from) finishing their tennis game.
3. At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement
4. Human’s error is thought to have caused the accident.
5. Basically, the more a couple can communicate, the happier they are/ will be
Part II. (10 points): 2 points for each correct answer
1. I can’t work out the answer without calculator.
2. My friend turned a deaf ear to my advice.
3. We were not taken in by his smooth manner.
4. The annual rainfall in/for the northeast of Britain is higher than that in/for the
southeast.
5. In terms of education, his childhood years had been well spent.
Part III. (30 points)
Some people believe that studying at university or college is the best route to a
successful career, while others believe that it is better to get a job straight after
school. Discuss both views and give your opinion.
1. Form: a paragraph (5 points)
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent
+ the length of the paragraph: not too short/too long ( ± 20 words)
2. Content: (15 points)
+ Successful fulfillment of the task
3. Language: (10 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (3 points)
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+ Suitable connectors (3point)
+ Correct grammar (3 points)
+ Punctuating/Spelling (1 points)
Chú ý:Tổng số điểm toàn bài là 200; kết quả làm bài thi của thí sinh được quy về
thang điểm 20.

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