DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE45

Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

Unit 1. Introduction to Research

1. Sampling is advantageous as it
a) Help in Capital-Saving
b) Saves Time
c) Increasing Accuracy
d) Both (a) and (b)

2. The data of research is

a) Qualitative only
b) Quantitative only
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)

3. Basic Research is also known as

a) Pure Research
b) Fundamental Research
c) Theoretical Research
d) All of the above

4. Research conducted to solve any problem of theory or practice is known as

a) Applied research
b) Pure research
c) Theoretical research
d) Action Research

5. Why the man went to moon? is an example of

a) Fundamental research
b) Applied research
c) Action Research
d) All of the Above

6. "A survey of the reading habits of Children in North Karnataka" is an example of

a) Descriptive Research
b) Comparative Research
c) Exploratory Research
d) Diagnostic Research

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

7. Research is
a) Searching again and again
b) Finding solution to any problem
c) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
d) None of the above

8. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
a) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
b) Survey of related literature
c) Identification of problem
d) Searching for solutions to the problem

9. What is a research design?

a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
b) he choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph.
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

10. What is a cross-sectional design?

a) A comparison of two or more variables longitudinally
b) A design that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood
c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time.
d) Research into one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes.

11. What does the term 'longitudinal design' mean?

a) A study completed far away from where the researcher lives.
b) A study which is very long to read.
c) A study with two contrasting cases.
d) A study completed over a distinct period of time to map changes in social phenomena.

12. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below ?
a) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis
making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
b) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data
analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
c) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design,
Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

d) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools,
Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.

13. Which of the following statement is NOT true about Random Sampling?
a) Random sampling is reasonably accurate
b) Random sampling is free from personal biases
c) An economical method of sampling
d) Can be applied for all types of data collections

14. Which is the main objective of research?

a) To review the literature

b) To summarize what is already known
c) To get an academic degree
d) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

15. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method?

a) Simple Random Sampling
b) Stratified Sampling
c) Cluster Sampling
d) Quota Sampling

16. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

a) Convenience sampling
b) Quota sampling
c) Judgement sampling
d) Stratified sampling

17. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :

(1) Identification of research problem
(2) Listing of research objectives
(3) Collection of data
(4) Methodology
(5) Data analysis
(6) Results and discussion

a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
b) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

c) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
d) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

18. Which one of the following is a research tool?

a) Graph
b) Illustration
c) Questionnaire
d) Diagram

19. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style

contributes more to institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of
a) Basic Research
b) Action Research
c) Applied Research
d) None of the above

20. Action-research is:

a) An applied research
b) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
c) A longitudinal research
d) All the above

21. The essential qualities of a researcher are

a) Spirit of free enquiry
b) Reliance on observation and evidence
c) Systematization or theorizing of knowledge
d) All the above

22. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives
b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools
d) Collection of Data

23. Which of the following statement is not true?

a) A research proposal is a document that presents a plan for a project
b) A research proposal shows that the researcher is capable of successfully conducting the
proposed research project

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

c) A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project

d) A research proposal is just like a research report and written before the research project

24. After identifying the important variables and establishing the logical reasoning in
theoretical framework, the next step in the research process is..........
a) To conduct surveys
b) To generate the hypothesis
c) To focus group discussions
d) To use experiments in an investigation

25. The one which will always appear in a research proposal is.......
a) Business objective
b) Research objective
c) Marketing objective
d) Creative objective

26. Good research proposals will always-.......

a) Consider all possible research that had previously been done on the topic
b) Provide respondent names and addresses
c) Focus on the Harvard style
d) Focus on addressing the research objectives

27. Define the correct sequence in the stage of sampling:

a) i) Sampling method selection
ii) Population definition
iii) Sampling frame development
iv) Sampling unit specification
v) Sample size determination
b) i) Population definition
ii) Sampling frame development
iii) Sampling unit specification
iv) Sampling method selection
v) Sample size determination
c) i) Sampling method selection
ii) Sampling unit specification
iii) Sample size determination

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

iv)Population definition
v) Sampling frame development
d) i) Sample size determination
ii) Population definition
iii) Sampling frame development
iv)Sampling unit specification
v) Sampling method selection

28. What are the two types of sampling methods?

a) Random or probability sampling and non-probability sampling
b) Probability sampling and random sampling
c) Probability sampling and non-random sampling
d) All of the above

29. It is a special non-probability method used when the desired sample characteristic is
rare, which sampling
a) Panel Sampling
b) Snowball sampling
c) Convenience sampling
d) Purposive Sampling

30. The university book shop selects 200 of its more than 8000 customers to participate
in a study on service quality in the shop. The book Shop has established a ________
for use in its research.
a) Population
b) Field setting
c) Dependent grouping
d) Sample

31. A good sampling frame must be

a) Relevant
b) Complete
c) Precise
d) All of the above

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

32. How many different sample of size 3 can be taken from the population comprising 5
elements?
a) 7
b) 12
c) 5
d) 10

33. When sample size increases, which of the followings correct?

a) The standard error remains unchanged
b) The standard error increases
c) The standard error declines
d) None of the above

34. In case the population has a normal distribution, then the sampling distribution of
the mean
a) Has a mean equal to the population mean
b) Has normal distribution
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

35. In which of the following sample designs, maps rather than lists or registers are
used as the sampling frame?
a) Simple random sample
b) Cluster sample
c) Area Sample
d) none of these

36. Suppose that a population with N = 200 has µ = 30. What is the mean of the
sampling distribution of the mean for sample of size 40?
a) Not possible to determine as this information is inadequate
b) 40
c) 25
d) 30

37. A sample study is a study of

a) Whole population
b) Only representative items
c) 51 items

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

d) None of these

38. Among the following methods which is not a probability sampling method?
a) Systematic sampling
b) Stratified sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Quota sampling

39. Among the following methods which is not the non-probability sampling method?
a) Convenient sampling
b) Quota sampling
c) Judgement sampling
d) Systematic sampling

40. Which of the following is the example of random sampling techniques?

a) Taking the name of every person in a telephone book
b) Generating a list of numbers by picking numbers out of a hat and matching these
c) numbers to names in the telephone book
d) Taking every tenth or twentieth name from a list of everybody in the telephone book
e) All of the above

41. The process of selecting a number of participants for a study in such a way that they
represent the larger group from which they were selected is known as
a) Research Design
b) Sampling
c) Data collection
d) Random assignment

42. The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see what types
of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. They randomly sample
students from the program and have them fill out questionnaires with items asking
about the types of jobs they have had. They also are asked to describe the roles they
play in their current positions. This project is best described as having what kind of
objective—-
a) Descriptive
b) Predictive
c) Explanatory
d) None of the above

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

43. A developmental research design that examines age differences at only one point in
time is called the________ _method.
a) Cross-sectional
b) Longitudinal
c) Single-case
d) Sequential

44. Interviewing all members of a given population is called:

A. a sample.
B. a Gallup poll.
C. a census.
D. a Nielsen audit.

45. A simple random sample is one in which:

A. From a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected
B. A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalize
C. The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups
D. Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected

Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
D C D A A A C C D C D C D D D
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B C C B D C C B B D B A B D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
D D C C C D B D B B B A A C D

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

Unit 2. - Sources of Collection of Data

46. The focus groups, individual respondents and panels of respondents are classified as
a) pointed data sources
b) itemized data sources
c) secondary data sources
d) primary data sources

47. The reports on quality control, production and financial accounts issued by the
companies are considered as
a) external secondary data sources
b) internal secondary data sources
c) external primary data sources
d) internal primary data sources

48. The government and non-government publications are considered as

a) external secondary data sources
b) internal secondary data sources
c) external primary data sources
d) internal primary data sources

49. The data which is generated within the company such as routine business activities
is classified as
a) external primary data sources
b) internal primary data sources
c) external secondary data sources
d) internal secondary data sources

50. The type of questions included in questionnaire to record responses in which the
respondent can answer in any way are classified as
a) multiple choices
b) itemized question
c) open ended questions
d) close ended questions

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51. Information is…..

a) Raw Data
b) Processed Data
c) Input data
d) Organized data

52. Scale that indicates the relative position of two or more objects or some
characteristics is called
a) Ranking Scale
b) Ordinal Scale
c) Arbitrary Scale
d) Ratio Scale

53. ______allow a researcher to examine the degree and directionof the relationship
between two characteristics or variables.
a) Correlational designs
b) Quasi-experimental designs
c) Confounding variables
d) Experimental designs

54. It is helpful to use a multi-stage cluster sample when:

a. The population is widely dispersed geographically
b. You have limited time and money available for travelling
c. You want to use a probability sample in order to generalise the results
d. All of the above

55. Which one of these is NOT normally associated with quantitative data?
a) Analysis begins as data are collected.
b) Researchers views of high importance.
c) Numbers.
d) Analysis guided by standardised rules.

56. Which one of these is NOT normally associated with qualititative data?
a) Pie charts.
b) Narrative.
c) Words.

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d) Images.

57. A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is
this?
a) Structured study.
b) Qualitative study.
c) Questionnaire study.
d) Quantitative study.

58. A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face to face in shopping centres. What
type of study is this?
a) Questionnaire study.
b) Ethnographic study.
c) Self-completion study.
d) Qualitative study.

59. Which one of these studies is least associated with construct validity?
a) Quantitative.
b) Positivist.
c) Qualitative.

60. Which research strategy is described here?

The introduction of planned change on one or more of the variables; measurement
on a small number of variables and control of other variables.
a) Survey.
b) Case study.
c) Ethnography.
d) Experiment.

61. Which research strategy is described here?

The collection of data using questionnaires, but it also includes other techniques
(e.g. structured observation and structured interviews).
a) Grounded theory.
b) Ethnography.
c) Action research.
d) Survey.

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62. Which research strategy is described here?

The researcher is involved in the acts under study; s/he causes changes and
monitors the outcomes.
a) Grounded theory.
b) Case study.
c) Action research.
d) Survey.
.
63. Which of these should be most valuable to show a gradual change in behaviour over
time?
a) Extrapolations.
b) Longitudinal studies.
c) Experimental studies.
d) Snapshot surveys.

64. Which research strategy is described here?

Theory is developed from data generated by a series of observations or interviews
principally involving an inductive approach.
a) Ethnography.
b) Action research.
c) Experiment.
d) Grounded theory.

65. For any study you should question the validity and reliability of:

a) the sampling procedure.

b) the questionnaire.
c) the interviewing process.
d) all of the above.

66. When did the telephone become an accepted tool for primary data collection in
marketing research?
a) 1930s.
b) 1950s.
c) 1970s.
d) 1990s.

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67. A primary data collection method that involves tracking behaviour over a period of
time is called:
a) browsing.
b) observation.
c) sampling.
d) testing.

68. _______ is referred to as "the father of research on teaching"?

A. N. L. Gage
B. David Berliner
C. Egon Brunswik
D. Donald T. Campbell

69. The main purpose of research in education is to _________

A. Increase social status of an individual
B. Increase job prospects of an individual
C. Help in the personal growth of an individual
D. Help the candidate become an eminent educationist

70. Which ONE is an advantage of secondary data?

A. Expensive.
B. May not be accurate.
C. Already exist.
D. May be outdated.

71. Experimentation, questioning and ______ are primary methods.

A. multiplication
B. weighting
C. web surfing
D. observation

72. What are secondary data?

A. Ordinary data.
B. Unimportant data.
C. Ordinal data.
D. Existing data.

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73. Secondary data are LEAST helpful to:

A. evaluate new products.
B. develop questionnaires.
C. interpret tables.
D. formulate hypotheses.
.
74. Secondary data cannot help:
a. to create research instruments.
b. to give direction to primary data collection.
c. to decide on sampling.
d. to observe retail behaviour.

75. The mistake when using secondary data effectively is:

A. to combine it with other data.
B. to locate it via people.
C. to evaluate its usefulness.
D. to assume it is right.

76. Which ONE is a disadvantage of secondary data?

A. Already exist.
B. Addresses a fresh topic.
C. Fast to obtain.
D. Inexpensive.

77. Most governments in the world have statistical departments but they are unlikely to provide:
A. television programme viewing figures.
B. housing statistics.
C. general population census records.
D. industrial output figures.
E. agricultural census results.

78. The reports on quality control, production and financial accounts issued by the companies are
considered as
A. external secondary data sources
B. internal secondary data sources
C. external primary data sources
D. internal primary data sources

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79. The government and non-government publications are considered as

A. external secondary data sources

B. internal secondary data sources
C. external primary data sources
D. internal primary data sources

80. The type of questions included in questionnaire to record responses in which the respondent
can answer in any way are classified as
A. multiple choices
B. itemized question
C. open ended questions
D. close ended questions

81. The collection of data through primary and secondary data sources is classified as
A. data sources
B. observational research
C. objective research
D. applied research

82. The two major types of secondary data sources are

A. internal data and data mines
B. syndicated data and external data
C. internal data and external data
D. Internet data and syndicated data

83. The syndicated data source that measures consumer activity at the point of sale is
A. Arbitron Radio Market Reports
B. National Purchase Diary Panel (NPD)
C. Nielsen Retail Index
D. BehaviorScan

84. Providing the background necessary to understand the problem situation is a common use for
A. primary data
B. secondary data
C. exploratory data
D. explanatory data

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85. BehaviorScan is a syndicated data source that

A. provides monthly purchase information from approximately 50 product categories through a
panel of several thousand households
B. uses supermarket scanners to measure consumption behavior of a panel of consumers
C. provides information concerning radio listening habits
D. measures consumer activity at the point of sale

86. Questionnaire is a :
A. Research method
B. Measurement technique
C. Tool for data collection
D. Data analysis technique

87. Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than the
others?
A. Primary
B. Survey research
C. Experimental research
D. Secondary
E. Observational research

88. Secondary data are ________.

A. Collected mostly via surveys
B. Expensive to obtain
C. Never purchased from outside suppliers
D. Always necessary to support primary data
E. Not always very usable

89. Causal research is used to ________

A. Describe marketing problems or situations
B. Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of
research
C. Find information at the outset in an unstructured way
D. Gather preliminary information that will help define problems
E. Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships

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90. Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process, as he knows that
something is wrong but is not sure of the specific causes to investigate. He seems to be having
problems with ________, which is often the hardest step to take.
A. Selecting a research agency to help
B. Defining the problem and research objectives
C. Developing the research plan
D. Determining a research approach
E. C and D

91. In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should be translated
into specific ________.
A. Financial amounts
B. Results that justify the means
C. Marketing goals
D. Time allotments
E. Information needs

92. Secondary data consists of information ________.

A. That already exists somewhere and was collected for another purpose
B. Used by competitors
C. That does not currently exist in an organized form
D. That already exists somewhere and is outdated
E. That the researcher can obtain through surveys and observation

93. Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that people are
unwilling or unable to provide?
A. Focus groups
B. Personal interviews
C. Questionnaires
D. Observational research
E. e)Internet surveys

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94. Survey research, though used to obtain many kinds of information in a variety of situations,
is best suited for gathering ________ information.
A. Attitudinal
B. Personal
C. Preference
D. Exploratory
E. Descriptive

95. What are secondary data?

A. Information that has been collected for the specific purpose at hand
B. Information that has already been collected and recorded for another purpose and is
C. thus readily accessible
D. Information based on second-rate research
E. Information based solely on rumours

Answer Key
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D B A D C D B A D B A D A C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
D C B D D C B A D C D D A D D
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B A B A C A C B B B C D E E B
91 92 93 94 95
E A D E B

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Subject – Research Methodology (504) Class : TYBBA (2013 Pattern)

Unit 3. Methods of Collecting of Data

96. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?

a) Socio-economic Status
b) Marital Status
c) Numerical Aptitude
d) Professional Attitude

97. Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost
than..........data.
a)Primary
b) Tertiary
c)Collective
d)Research

98. Original source from which researcher directly collects the data that has not been previously
collected
a) Primary data
b) Secondary Data
c) Tertiary Data
d) None of these

99. A list of questions which is handed over to the respondent, who reads the questions and
records the answers himself is known as the..........
a) Interview schedule
b) Questionnaire
c) Interview guided.
d) All of the given options

100. The interview in which questions are already prepared is called

a) Telephonic interview
b) Personal interview
c) Unstructured interview
d) Structured interview

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101. Which one of the following is a data collection method?

a) The interview.
b) The case study.
c) The onion.
d) Positivism.

102. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using secondary analysis?

a) The researcher's lack of familiarity with the data
b) It is a relatively expensive and time consuming process
c) Hierarchical datasets can be very confusing
d) The researcher has no control over the quality of the data

103. Why might secondary analysis be a particularly useful method for students?
a) It is relatively easy to do
b) It saves time and money
c) It does not require any knowledge of statistics
d) It only requires a half-hearted effort

104. The term "secondary analysis" refers to the technique of:

A. Conducting a study of seconds, minutes and other measures of time
B. Analysing your own data in two different ways
C. Analysing existing data that has been collected by another person or organization
D. Working part time on a project alongside other responsibilities

105. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone interviews.

A. Interviewer bias is introduced
B. Under time pressures, some interviewers might cheat.
C. Potential respondents may refuse to participate
D. They are more expensive to conduct than mail questionnaires.
E. Interviewers tend to interpret answers similarly.

106. Which form of marketing research is flexible, allows for explanation of difficult
questions, and lends itself to showing products and advertisements?
A. Personal interviewing
B. Ethnographic research
C. Observational research
D. Online interviewing
E. Phone interviewing

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107. Which of the following is a disadvantage of online focus groups?

A. Results take longer to tabulate and analyze.
B. Participants must be in a central location.
C. The cost of online focus groups is greater than that of most other qualitative research methods.
D. The format of focus groups can be varied.
E. The Internet format can restrict respondents' expressiveness.

108. What are the two types of research data?

A. Qualitative and Quantitative.
B. Primary and secondary.
C. Predictive and quantitative.
D. Qualitative and predictive.

109. What is a major drawback of probability sampling?

A. Takes too much time
B. Sampling error cannot be measured
C. Easiest population from which to obtain info is chosen
D. Everyone has an equal chance of selection
E. Reliance on the judgment of the researcher

110. The most common research instrument used is the

A. Questionnaire
B. Moderator
C. Telephone interviewer
D. Live interviewer
E. Mechanical device

111. In marketing research, the ________ phase is generally the most expensive and most
subject to error.
A. Interpreting and reporting the findings
B. Exploratory research
C. Data collection
D. Planning
E. Data validation

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112. Qualitative research is exploratory research used to uncover consumer attitudes,

motivations and behavior. What techniques can be applied to obtain qualitative research?
A. Elicitation interviews.
B. One to one interviews.
C. Focus groups.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.

113. What are examples of techniques of obtaining qualitative data?

A. Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational
techniques; experimentation.
B. Video conferencing; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational techniques.
C. Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational techniques;
call centre feedback.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

114. What are the criteria for evaluating secondary data sources?
A. Source of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; construct of research.
B. Source of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; construct of data.
C. Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; who paid for the research.
D. Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; evidence of careful
work.

115. What are three popular methods for obtaining primary data?
A. Experimentation; personal interview; Delphi technique.
B. Survey; interviews; experimentation.
C. Interviews and surveys; observation; experimentation.
D. Interviews and surveys; observation; Harrison methodology.

Answer Key
96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C A A B D A B B C E A E A A A
111 112 113 114 115
C D A D C

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Unit 4. Data Processing & Analysis

116. The correlational research seeks to:

a) Determine the relationship between two or more variables
b) Study the effect of one on other
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

117. Which analysis is related with descriptive analysis?

a) Univariate Analysis
b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis
d) All of the above

118. Involves the orderly and systematic representation of numerical data in a form
designed to elucidate the problem under consideration
a) Coding
b) Classification
c) Editing
d) Tabulation

119. Which frequency expresses the number of items in an interval as a proportion or

fraction of the total number of items in the data set?
a) Relative frequency
b) Percentage Frequency
c) Cumulative frequency
d) None of the above

120. Which steps involves in processing operations of data after collection of data?
a) Coding
b) Classification
c) Editing
d) Tabulation

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121. Which is type of frequency distribution?

a) Continuous or grouped frequency distribution
b) Discrete or ungrouped frequency distribution
c) Cumulative Frequency Distribution
d) All of the above

122. Which is not type of test of significance for small sample ?

a) t- test
b) z-test
c) F-test
d) Q-test

123. Which test is the part of the parametric test?

a) Sign Test
b) Run Test for Randomness
c) Kruskal-Willis Test
d) z-test

124. Which analysis comes under inferential analysis?

a) Univariate Analysis
b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis
d) Hypothesis Testing

125. The procedure of classifying the answers to a question into meaningful categories is
called
a) Coding
b) Classification
c) Editing
d) Tabulation

126. Which analysis is the simultaneous analysis of two variables?

a) Univariate Analysis
b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis
d) None of these

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127. The null and alternative hypotheses divide all possibilities into
a) two sets that overlap
b) two non-overlapping sets
c) two sets that may or may not overlap
d) as many sets as necessary to cover all possibilities

128. ......... of the null and alternative hypotheses.

a) Exactly one hypothesis must be true
b) both hypotheses must be true
c) It is possible for both hypotheses to be true
d) It is possible for neither hypothesis to be true

129. The form of the alternative hypothesis can be:

a) one-tailed
b) two-tailed
c) neither one nor two-tailed
d) one or two-tailed

130. The alternative hypothesis is also known as the:

a) elective hypothesis
b) optional hypothesis
c) research hypothesis
d) null hypothesis

131. A Type II error is also known as a______.

a) False positive
b) False negative
c) Double negative
d) Positive negative

132. A Type I error is also known as a______.

a) False positive
b) False negative
c) Double negative
d) Positive negative

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133. .________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.

a) Type I error
b) Type II error
c) Type A error
d) Type B error

134. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of hypothesis
testing?
a) When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejected
b) When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
c) When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejected
d) Both b and c are true

135. Hypothesis test may also be called as:

a) Informal test
b) Significance test
c) Moderating test
d) T-test

136. Smaller p-values indicate more evidence in support of..........

a) the null hypothesis
b) the alternative hypothesis
c) the quality of the researcher
d) further testing

137. A researcher is said to be committed the Type I error when ___.

a) When he reject a null hypothesis which is actually true

b) When he accept a null hypothesis which is actually false
c) Both the null and alternate hypothesis is rejected
d) None of the above

138. Which of the following distributions is used to compare two variances?

A. T – Distribution
B. F – Distribution
C. Normal Distribution
D. Poisson Distribution

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139. F-Distribution cannot take negative values.

a) True
b) False
140. Find Variance for an F-Distribution with v1=5 and v2=9.
a) 1.587
b) 1.378
c) 1.578
d) 1.498

141. Determining the table value for the F distribution is different than finding values for
the t distribution because the F table requires which of the following?
A. no degree of freedom terms
B. values for alpha and beta
C. two degree of freedom terms
D. one degree of freedom term

142. A statement about a population developed for the purpose of testing is called:
A. Hypothesis
B. Hypothesis testing
C. Level of significance
D. Test-statistic

143. Any hypothesis which is tested for the purpose of rejection under the assumption that
it is true is called:
A. Null hypothesis
B. Alternative hypothesis
C. Statistical hypothesis
D. Composite hypothesis

144. A statement about the value of a population parameter is called:

1. Null hypothesis
2. Alternative hypothesis
3. Simple hypothesis
4. Composite hypothesis

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145. Any statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a sample is called:
A. Null hypothesis
B. Alternative hypothesis
C. Statistical hypothesis
D. Simple hypothesis

146. A statement that is accepted if the sample data provide sufficient evidence that the
null hypothesis is false is called:
a) Simple hypothesis
b) Composite hypothesis
c) Statistical hypothesis
d) Alternative hypothesis

147. The alternative hypothesis is also called:

A. Null hypothesis
B. Statistical hypothesis
C. Research hypothesis
D. Simple hypothesis

148. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is called:
A. Level of confidence
B. Level of significance
C. Power of the test
D. Difficult to tell

149. The dividing point between the region where the null hypothesis is rejected and the
region where it is not rejected is said to be:
a) Critical region
b) Critical value
c) Acceptance region
d) Significant region

150. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test-
statistic, the test is called:
a) One tailed
b) Two tailed
c) Right tailed
d) Left tailed

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151. Test of hypothesis Ho: µ = 50 against H1: µ > 50 leads to:

(a) Left-tailed test
(b) Right-tailed test
(c) Two-tailed test
(d) Difficult to tell

152. Test of hypothesis Ho: µ = 20 against H1: µ < 20 leads to:

a) Right one-sided test
b) Left one-sided test
c) Two-sided test
d) All of the above

153. Testing Ho: µ = 25 against H1: µ ≠ 20 leads to:

(a) Two-tailed test
(b) Left-tailed test
(c) Right-tailed test
(d) Neither (a), (b) and (c)

154. A rule or formula that provides a basis for testing a null hypothesis is called:
a) Test-statistic
b) Population statistic
c) Both of these
d) None of the above

155. If Ho is true and we reject it is called:

(a) Type-I error
(b) Type-II error
(c) Standard error
(d) Sampling error

156. The probability associated with committing type-I error is:

a) β
b) α
c) 1 – β
d) 1 – α

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157. 1 – α is also called:

(a) Confidence coefficient
(b) Power of the test
(c) Size of the test
(d) Level of significance

158. Critical region is also called:

a) Acceptance region
b) Rejection region
c) Confidence region
d) Statistical region

159. Student’s t-test is applicable only when:

(a) n≤30 and σ is known
(b) n>30 and σ is unknown
(c) n=30 and σ is known
(d) All of the above

160. Student’s t-statistic is applicable in case of:

a) Equal number of samples
b) Unequal number of samples
c) Small samples
d) All of the above

161. Paired t-test is applicable when the observations in the two samples are:
a) Equal in number
b) Paired
c) Correlation
d) All of the above

162. The degree of freedom for paired t-test based on n pairs of observations is:
(a) 2n - 1
(b) n - 2
(c) 2(n - 1)
(d) n - 1

163. The purpose of statistical inference is:

(a) To collect sample data and use them to formulate hypotheses about a population

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(b) To draw conclusion about populations and then collect sample data to support the
conclusions
(c) To draw conclusions about populations from sample data
(d) To draw conclusions about the known value of population parameter

164. Suppose that the null hypothesis is true and it is rejected, is known as:
a) A type-I error, and its probability is β
b) A type-I error, and its probability is α
c) A type-II error, and its probability is α
d) A type-Il error, and its probability is β

165. An advertising agency wants to test the hypothesis that the proportion of adults in
Pakistan who read a Sunday Magazine is 25 percent. The null hypothesis is that the proportion
reading the Sunday Magazine is:
(a) Different from 25%
(b) Equal to 25%
(c) Less than 25 %
(d) More than 25 %

166. When σ is known, the hypothesis about population mean is tested by:
a) t-test
b) Z-test
c) χ2 -test
d) F-test

167. Given µo = 130, = 150, σ = 25 and n = 4; what test statistics is appropriate?

(a) t
(b) Z
(c) χ2
(d) F

168. In testing a hypothesis about two population means, it the t distribution is used,
which of the following assumptions is required?
a) The sample sizes are equal.
b) Both population means are the same.
c) Both populations are normally distributed.
d) The standard deviations are not the same.

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169. The t test for the difference between the means of two samples makes what
assumption?
(a) Sample variances are equal
(b) Samples are randomly and independently drawn.
(c) Populations are approximately normally distributed.
(d) All of the above.

170. What statistical distribution is used for testing the difference between two population
a) Z
b) t
c) F
d) Poisson

Answer Key
116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A D D A C D D D D A B B A D C
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145
B A B D C B A B A A C A A A C
146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
D C B B B B B A A A B A B A D
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
D B C B B B B C D C

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Unit 5. - Writing Skills for Business Research

171. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

a) Primary Data only
b) Secondary Data only
c) Both Primary and Secondary Data
d) None of the above

172. The main advantage of producing a written research proposal is-------

a) Informs all interested parties
b) Helps with credibility
c) Helps the institution
d) Helps keep people employed

173. The proposal's literature review is important because-——

a) It is expected by the university
b) The tutor insists upon it
c) It looks authoritative
d) It shows that you are knowledgeable about the literature that relates to your research topic

174. The proposal section which intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of
the
research question is-----------
a) Literature review
b) References
c) Introduction
d) Proposed Method

175. The statement of purpose in a research study should--------

a) Identify the design of the study
b) Identify the intent or objective of the study
c) Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d) Describe the study

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176. The purpose of a literature review is to-...........

a) Help you find out what is already known about this area
b) Identify any inconsistencies or gaps in the literature.
c) Demonstrate an awareness of the theoretical context in which the current study can be
located
e) Find what is already known, identify gaps,and demonstrate awareness

177. The application of the scientific method to study of business problems is called.......
a) Inductive reasoning
b) Deductive reasoning
c) Business research
d) Grounded theory

178. A literature review requires

a) Planning
b) Good & clear writing
c) Lot of rewriting
d) All of the above

179. Good research reports will always:

a) focus on addressing the research objectives.
b) provide results that may be irrelevant.
c) focus on the Harvard style.
d) provide respondent names and addresses

180. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Referencing gives authority to your work.
b) You can get into trouble for plagiarising if you don’t reference.
c) When you reference, it strengthens your argument.
d) Referencing is encouraged but not required by the University.

181. Which of these is NOT an example of plagiarism?

a) Explaining another author’s concept with your own words without citing.
b) Using the author’s exact words into your work but enclose the work with inverted
commas and provide a reference.
c) Slightly adapting a figure from the internet and claim it as your own.
d) Copying a sentence but change two words and provide a reference.

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182. If you don’t know what referencing style to use, it’s best to:
a) Ask your lecturer.
b) Find out what is being used by the majority in your class.
c) Choose the style that suits your writing.
d) All of the above.

183. Using a bibliographic management software helps you store references and convert
them in any referencing style you choose.
a) True
b) False

184. When you use a non-English source for your assignment, you should:
a) Check with your lecturer.
b) Reference the source.
c) Check if you need to translate the resource.
d) All of the above.

185. Literature review is not usually concerned with helping in:

a) objective setting.
b) research instrument design.
c) subsequent data collection.
d) literary appreciation.

186. The literature review will examine:

a) only opinions.
b) only one side of the main argument.
c) all aspects of a topic.
d) only facts.

187. The starting point for a literature search is:

a) secondary data.
b) tertiary data.
c) primary data.
d) some other data.

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188. Researchers need to be cautious of some material, particularly material found online.
Why?
a) It has been used before.
b) It is too recent.
c) The authors name often does not appear.
d) The quality is unknown.

189. Which one of these is likely to be peer-reviewed?

a) The Guardian.
b) The European Journal of Management.
c) The Economist.
d) Woman's Own.

190. Which of these will NOT help you to decide whether a publication is reputable?
a) Advertising inside.
b) Citation rate.
c) Audience.
d) Importance to peers.

191. The likely readers (or audiences) for a journal is a useful guide to the importance of
that journal to your research. Why?
a) It indicates the likely content.
b) It indicates the likely editor.
c) It indicates the likely publisher.
d) It indicates the likely number of pages.

192. Citation means that a particular paper has been:

a) reproduced elsewhere.
b) discussed orally by another author.
c) quoted in another paper by another author.
d) sold to another publisher.

193. When you discover that an author has, (1) cited another author (2) it is good practice
to:
a) not to use the work.
b) use the work and attribute it to author 2.
c) locate and read the original, then attribute it to author 2.
d) use the work and attribute it to author 1.

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194. Before searching you should define the timeframe of your search. Why?
a) So you don't find the library busy.
b) So you do not incur unnecessary costs.
c) So you work when you are most efficient.
d) So you find the most articles.

195. The style of referencing used at North Metro TAFE is APA. What does the abbreviation
APA stand for?
a) Australian Publication Association
b) Avoid Plagiarism
c) Anti Plagiarism Association
d) American Psychological Association

196. Listing the sources you use in your paper by creating notes and a bibliography is
called:
a) citation
b) documentation
c) styles

197. In APA style, a separate title page is required for a document.

a) True
b) False

198. What does an APA in-text citation include in parentheses when the source is quoted
directly and the author's name is not mentioned in the text?
a) Author, publication year, and page number (preceded by p.) all separated by commas: (Doe,
2017, p. 25)
b) Author, publication year, and page number (preceded by p.) without intervening punctuation:
(Doe 2017 p. 25)
c) Author and page number separated by a comma: (Doe, 25)
d) Author and page number without intervening punctuation: (Doe 25)

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199. Which of the following is cited correctly in APA style?

a) Dietel and Dietel define pointers as "variables that contain as their values addresses of other
variables." (1999, p. 294)
b) Dietel and Dietel (1999) define pointers as "variables that contain as their values addresses of
other variables" (p. 294).
c) Dietel and Dietel (C How to Program) define pointers as "variables that contain as their values
addresses of other variables" (p. 294).

200. While writing research report a researcher

a) must not use the numerical figures in numbers in the beginning of sentences
b) must arrange it in logical, topical and chronological order
c) must compare his results with those of the other studies
d) all of the above

Answer Key
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
C A C C B B C D A D B A A D D
186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
C B D B A A C C C D A A A B A

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