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INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023

MM : 720 CST-2 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions :

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 2. A convex lens A of focal length 30 cm and a
1. A uniform thin ring of mass m and radius R is concave lens B of focal length 7 cm are kept
oscillating in a vertical plane about a horizontal along the same axis with the distance ‘x’ between
them. If a parallel beam of light falling on A
axis passing through its circumference as shown
leaves B as a parallel beam. Then distance x will
in the figure. Time period of oscillation of ring is
be
(1) 37 cm (2) 21 cm
(3) 23 cm (4) 43 cm
3. An air bubble in a glass with refractive index 1.6
is 3 cm deep when viewed (near normal
incidence) from one surface and 7 cm deep when
R 8R
(1) 2 (2)  viewed (near normal incidence) from the opposite
g g
face. The thickness of the slab is
 R 2R (1) 10 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) (4) 3 
2 g g (3) 27 cm (4) 16 cm

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CST-2_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

4. An open pipe 30 cm long and a closed pipe 23 10. Water stands 12.0 m deep in a storage tank
cm, both of the same diameter, each sounding whose top is open to the atmosphere. What is
their first overtone, are in unison. The end gauge pressure at the bottom of the tank?
correction (for each end) of these pipes is
(1) 1.18 × 105 N m–2 (2) 2.19× 105 N m–2
(1) 0.5 cm (2) 0.3 cm
(3) 2.49× 105 N m–2 (4) 1.01× 105 N m–2
(3) 1 cm (4) 1.2 cm
11. A thin square steel plate, having edge length
5. The type of wave primarily produced in a
sonometer wire is 10 cm is heated in a blacksmith’s forge to 800°C.
If its emissivity is 0.6, the total rate of radiation
(1) Transverse progressive
energy from the plate is
(2) Transverse stationary
(1) 900 W (2) 600 W
(3) Longitudinal progressive
(3) 1200 W (4) 1800 W
(4) Longitudinal stationary
6. Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 3 kg are moving 12. An aluminium cylinder 10 cm long with cross-
towards each other with 2 m/s and 4 m/s sectional area of 20 cm2 is used as a spacer
respectively. The velocity of centre of mass is between two walls. At 17.2°C it just steps
(1) 0.25 m/s towards 3 kg between wall, the force it exerts on wall when it
warms to 22.3°C
(2) 0.5 m/s towards 5 kg
(3) 0.25 m/s towards 5 kg (YAl = 7 × 1010 Pa, Al = 2.4 × 10–5 K–1)

(4) 0.5 m/s towards 3 kg (1) 3.5 × 104 N (2) 1.7× 104 N
7. A circular disc rotates freely about a vertical axis (3) 1.2× 104 N (4) 8.6× 104 N
through its centre with angular velocity 1. A ring 13. PV diagram shows a series of thermodynamic
having the double mass and same radius as of processes. In process AB, 150 J of heat is added
disc is placed on the disc and the system now
to system and in process BD, 600 J of heat is
rotates with an angular velocity 2 about the
added. What is change in internal energy in
same vertical axis. Assuming conservation of
process ABD?

angular momentum, then 2 is
1

1 1
(1) (2)
3 2
3 1
(3) (4)
2 5
8. A sports car is rounding a flat unbanked curve
with radius of 230 m. The coefficient of friction (1) 750 J (2) 510 J
between road and tyres is 0.96, the maximum
speed at which driver can take the turn without (3) 250 J (4) 240 J
sliding is nearly 14. What is the wavelength of light for the least
(1) 32 m/s (2) 42 m/s energetic photon emitted in Lyman series of
(3) 47 m/s (4) 52 m/s hydrogen atom spectrum?

9. A steel rod 2 m long has cross-sectional area of (1) 102 nm (2) 122 nm
0.30 cm2. It is hung from one end through a (3) 91 nm (4) 540 nm
support. A 550 kg machine is hung from its other
end. What is resulting elongation of the rod, 15. If 5 C charge given to a conductor raises its
young’s modulus of rod is 2 × 1011 N/m2? potential by 2 V, then its capacitance is

(1) 9 mm (2) 1.8 mm (1) 0.4 F (2) 2.5 F

(3) 0.6 mm (4) 3.2 mm (3) 10 F (4) 5 F

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16. Charge flowing across a conductor varies with 22. The total electric flux emanating from a closed
time as q = 5t2 + 4 (in SI units). The current in the surface enclosing a proton is (e is electronic
conductor at t = 2 s is charge)
(1) 20 A (2) 10 A 1 2
(1) (2)
0 0
(3) 5 A (4) 24 A
17. Resistivity of a conductor depends on 2e e
(3) (4)
0 0
a. Applied voltage
23. Two point charges +10–5 C and –10–5 C are
b. Number density of free electrons
placed at A and B respectively, 10 cm apart as
c. Average relaxation time shown in the figure. The magnitude of net electric
d. Length of conductor field at point C, if ABC form an equilateral triangle

(1) a only (2) a and d only

(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
18. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the source is
white light. One of the holes is covered by a red
filter (allowing only red light) and another by a
(1) 18 × 106 N/C (2) 9 × 106 N/C
blue filter (allowing only blue light). In this case
(3) 2 × 106 N/C (4) 36 × 106 N/C
(1) There shall be alternate interference patterns
24. The wave function for a light wave is given as
of red and blue
y(x, t) = 102sin(2 × 106x – 8 × 1014t). The
(2) There shall be an interference pattern for frequency of the wave is equal to (all parameters
blue but not for red are given in SI units)
(3) There shall be no interference fringes (1) 4 × 1014 Hz (2) 1 × 1014 Hz
(4) There shall be an interference pattern for red (3) 8 × 1014 Hz (4) 4 × 1014 Hz
but not for blue 25. A particle is moving with velocity 2i + 3 j . The
19. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an initial position vector of the particle is i − j then
electron moving with a speed of 5.4 × 106 m/s is
the final position vector after 2 sec will be
e and for a ball of mass 150 g travelling at 30
m/s is b, then choose the correct statement. (1) 5i + 5 j (2) 5i − 5 j

(1) e  b (2) b  e (3) 5i − 7 j (4) 5i + 7 j

(3) e = b (4) 2b = e 26. A body of mass M is lifted to height H then the
work done by gravitational force will be
20. A car starts from rest has an acceleration of 2
(1) 2MgH (2) –2MgH
m/s2 while another car 150 m behind it starts at
(3) –MgH (4) +MgH
same time from rest with an acceleration of 3
m/s2. After how much time, the two cars meet? 27. The variation of magnetic susceptibility with
absolute temperature of a diamagnetic substance
(1) 200 s (2) 300 s is

(3) 150 s (4) 180 s

(1) (2)
21. The minimum kinetic energy which should be
given to an object of mass m placed on earth’s
surface, so that it escapes is (R is radius of earth)
1
(1) mgR (2) mgR
4 (3) (4)
1
(3) mgR (4) 2mgR
2

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CST-2_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

28. Lenz’s law can be explained by 33. The current flowing through the battery in the
(1) Law of conservation of momentum circuit shown in the figure, will be

(2) Law of conservation of mass

(3) Law of conservation of energy
(4) None of these
29. The symmetry of the laws of nature with respect
to translation in space is equivalent to the law of
conservation of (1) 5 A (2) 0.05 A
(1) Energy (2) Linear momentum (3) Zero (4) 0.5 A
(3) Angular momentum (4) Charge 34. A common emitter amplifier circuit is shown in
30. Which of the following dimensions will be the the figure. Given that  = 100 and VBE = 0.7 V,
same as that of resistance? the value of VCE will be

L = Inductance, C = Capacitance,
V = Potential difference, I = Electric current

L C
(1) (2)
C L

I V2
(3) (4)
V I
(1) 3 V (2) 4 V
31. For an ideal gas at 27°, the ratio of density of a
fixed mass to pressure is x, then at 127°C this (3) Zero (4) Data is insufficient
ratio will be 35. A nuclei A is formed at a constant rate  and
127 x 27 x decays with decay constant  into another stable
(1) (2)
27 127 nuclei B. If at time t = 0, A have zero nuclei, then
at any time t number of nuclei A will be
4x 3x
(3) (4)
  −t
3 4 (1)

(
1 − e −t ) (2)

e
32. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac
voltage source. When L is removed from the (
(3)  1 − e−t ) (
(4)  1 − e−t )
circuit, the phase difference between voltage and
 SECTION-B
current is . If instead C is removed from the
6 36. A plano-convex lens is made of a material of
 refractive index  = 1.6. The radius of curvature
circuit, the phase difference is again between
6 of curved surface of the lens is 30 cm. If its plane
current and voltage. The power factor of the surface is silvered, the focal length of the silvered
initial LCR circuit is lens will be
(1) 1 (1) 15 cm (2) 48 cm

3 (3) 25 cm (4) 30 cm
(2)
2 37. The moment of inertia of a wheel of radius 15 cm
1 is 30 kg m2. If a tangential force of 60 N applied
(3) on the wheel, its rotational K.E. after 4 s is
2
1 (1) 21.6 J (2) 12.6 J
(4)
3 (3) 8 J (4) 16 J

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38. A car engine with weight 1000 N hangs from a 42. Resistance per unit length of the wire AB is
chain that is linked at ring O to two other chains, 10 
one fastened to ceiling and other to the wall. The m
weights of chain and ring are negligible, then
tension T1 and T2 respectively are

In the given potentiometer circuit, if the null point

is obtained at 480 cm, then the emf of secondary
(1) 1000 N, 580 N (2) 1155 N, 577 N cell will be
(3) 1200 N, 620 N (4) 1500 N, 710 N (1) 1.20 V (2) 2.88 V
39. Choose the correct expression for pressure head (3) 4 V (4) 5.12 V
in Bernoulli’s equation (where symbols have their
usual meaning) 43. An element d = dxi is placed at the origin and
carries a large current I = 10 A, the magnetic field
P
(1) (2) g on the y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m is
g
[Take = dx = 1 cm]
P
(3) Pg (4)
g
40. Two gases have the same initial pressure,
volume and temperature. They expand to same
final volume, one adiabatically and other
isothermally, choose the incorrect option.
(1) Final temperature is greater for isothermal
process (1) dB = 4  10−8 T kˆ (2) dB = 2  10−8 T kˆ
(2) Final pressure is greater for isothermal
process (3) dB = 1 10−8 T kˆ (4) dB = 16  10−8 T kˆ

(3) Work done by the gas is greater for 44. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 vibrating
isothermal process in phase emit light of wavelength . The
(4) Final temperature is greater for adiabatic separation between them is 2. The light is
process collected on a screen placed at a distance D >> 
from the slit S1 as shown in the figure. The
41. In the circuit given, the equivalent capacitance of
minimum distance x so that intensity at P is equal
network between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is
to intensity at O is

(1) 4 F
(2) 6.2 F
(3) 12 F (1) 2D (2) 5D

(4) 2.8 F (3) 3D (4) D

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CST-2_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

45. A moving coil galvanometer has 100 turns and 48. The measured mass of the an object is 8.474 g
each turns has an area of 2 cm2. The magnetic and its measured volume is 5.02 cm3. The
field produced by the magnet is 0.01 T. The
density of object after rounding off the value for
deflection in the galvanometer coil is 0.05 rad
correct significant digits is
when a current of 10 mA is passed through it.
The torsional constant of the spiral spring is (1) 1.68 g cm–3 (2) 1.7 g cm–3
(1) 3 × 10–4 N m/rad (2) 5 × 10–6 N m/rad
(3) 1.688 g cm–3 (4) 1.69 g cm–3
(3) 4 × 10–5 N m/rad (4) 7 × 10–7 N m/rad
49. Average value of sinusoidal alternating current
46. A satellite of mass m is moving in an elliptical
orbit around earth and the time period of over a positive half cycle is, if I = I0sint
revolution is T. If area of the elliptical orbit is A, (All symbols have their usual meaning)
then angular momentum of the satellite would be
I0 I0
mA mA (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 2 2
T 2T
2mA 4mA 2I0
(3) (4) (3) (4) Zero
T T 
47. A bullet of mass m is moving with velocity v. 50. The logic circuit shown in the figure realizes the
Bullet passes through a sand wall of thickness X
offering the resistive force F. The exit velocity of
the bullet will be
1 1
 mv 2 − 2FX 2  mv 2 + 2FX 2 (1) NAND gate
(1)   (2)  
 m  m
    (2) AND gate
1 1
 mv 2 − FX 2  mv 2 + FX 2 (3) OR gate
(3)   (4)  
 m  m (4) NOR gate
   

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 55. Select an incorrect statement about chemisorption.
51. Sum of sigma bonds, pi bonds and number of (1) It is caused by chemical bond formation
lone pair(s) on the central atom of XeO2F2 is (2) It is not specific in nature
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) It is irreversible
(3) 6 (4) 7 (4) High temperature is favourable for adsorption
52. Which of the following is not a Lewis base? 56. A mixture which shows positive deviation from
Raoult’s law is
(1) NH3 (2) H2O
(1) n-Hexane + n-Heptane
(3) BBr3 (4) CH3OH
(2) Bromoethane + Chloroethane
53. For a reaction, unit of rate constant is mol L–1s–1.
(3) Ethanol + Acetone
Order of the reaction is
(4) Chloroform + Acetone
(1) Zero (2) One
57. Correct order of decreasing priority of the given
(3) Two (4) Half functional groups in IUPAC naming is
54. van’t Hoff factor (i) for an aqueous Na2SO4 (1) –CONH2 > –COCl > –COOR > –CN
solution in which solute is 70% ionised is (2) –COOR > –COCl > –CONH2 > –CN
(1) 3 (2) 2.4 (3) –COCl > –CONH2 > –COOR > –CN
(3) 2.7 (4) 1 (4) –COOR > –CONH2 > –COCl > –CN

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58. Total number of structural isomers possible for (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
C7H16 is incorrect
(1) 8 (2) 7 (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) 10 (4) 9 correct

59. Consider the following reaction sequence (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect
63. The given reaction is called
CH3CH2 – Br + AgF → CH3 – F + AgBr
product C is
(1) Finkelstein reaction (2) Fittig reaction
(1) Ketone (2) Ester
(3) Wurtz reaction (4) Swarts reaction
(3) Carboxylic acid (4) Ketal
64. Which among the following orbital will have
60. Deficiency of which vitamin causes cheilosis?
maximum energy for hydrogen atom?
(1) Ascorbic acid (2) Thiamine
(1) 2s (2) 3d
(3) Riboflavin (4) Pyridoxine
(3) 4s (4) 3p
61. Match the structures given in column-I with their
65. Chalcogen among the following is
name given in column-II.
(1) O (2) N
Column-I Column-II
(3) Cl (4) C
a. (i) Picric acid 66. Number of B–O–B linkage in borax is
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 3
b. (ii) Salicylic acid 67. Blue baby syndrome is caused due to excess of
which ion in drinking water?
(1) Sulphate (2) Fluoride
(3) Nitrate (4) Carbonate
68. Statement-I: [Zn(H2O)6]SO4 is colourless complex.
c. (iii) Phthalic acid
Statement-II: d-d transition is not possible in
complex with d0 configuration of central metal ion.
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
d. (iv) Carbolic acid
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
Select the correct option. correct
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) Both statement I and statement II are
62. Statement-I: [CoF6]3– is outer orbital complex. incorrect

Statement-II: Number of unpaired electrons in 69. Which among the following will have maximum
[CoF6]3– is five. size in aqueous medium?

In light of the above statements, choose the most (1) Na+ (2) K+
appropriate answer from options given below. (3) Rb+ (4) Li+

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CST-2_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

70. Correct expression of van der Waal’s equation 76. Consider the following relations for emf of a
for 1 mole real gas is electrochemical cell.

 a  a. emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) –

(1)  P + 2  ( V – b ) = RT
 v  (Reduction potential of cathode)
b. emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) +
 a 
(2)  P – 2  ( V + b ) = RT (Reduction potential of cathode)
 v 
c. emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) –
 b 
(3)  P + 2  ( V – a ) = RT (Oxidation potential of cathode)
 v 
Which of the above relation(s) is/are incorrect?
 a 
(4)  P + 2  ( V + b ) = RT (1) b and c only (2) a only
 v 
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
71. A sample of ammonium dichromate (NH4)2Cr2O7
77. German silver does not consists
contain 0.8 mole of hydrogen atoms. The number
of oxygen atoms in the sample is [NA = 6× 1023] (1) Ag (2) Cu

(1) 4.2 × 1020 (2) 4.2 × 1021 (3) Zn (4) Ni

(3) 4.2 × 1022 (4) 4.2 × 1023 78. In which case, change in entropy is negative?

72. Number of electron(s) lost by one Fe atom in the (1) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
following reaction are (2) Cu2O(s) + C(s) → 2Cu(s) + CO(g)
2K4[Fe(CN)6](aq) + H2O2(aq) → 2K3[Fe(CN)6](aq) (3) 3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g)
+ 2KOH(aq) (4) 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(g)
(1) 4 (2) 3 79. Which among the following has the maximum
pKb value?
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) (CH3)2NH (2) CH3NH2
73. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by
addition of (3) (CH3)3N (4) NH3
(1) Na6P6O18 (2) NaHPO3 80. An example of a non-biodegradable polymer is
(3) Na3PO4 (4) CaCl2 (1) Nylon-2–Nylon-6 (2) PHBV
74. An element has a CCP structure with a cell edge (3) Cellulose (4) Nylon 6
of 244 pm. The atomic radius of element is 81. Match the following columns and choose the
2 2 correct option.
(1)  244 pm (2)  244 pm
4 8 Column-I (Drug) Column-II (Example)
2 2
(3)  244 pm (4)  244 pm a. Antibiotic (i) Equanil
4 3 6
b. Analgesic (ii) Furacine
75. A compound is formed by cation C and anion A.
The anions form body centerd cubic (bcc) lattice c. Antiseptic (iii) Tetracycline
and the cations occupy 75% of octahedral void.
d. Tranquilizer (iv) Morphine
The formula of the compound is
(1) C2A3 (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

(2) C3A4 (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) C3A3 (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(4) CA (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

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82. Conversion of 2-Bromobutane into But-2-ene 90. The oxidation state of Cl in CaOCl2 are
a. is - elimination. (1) –1 and –2 (2) +1 and +2
b. follows Zaitsev’s Rule. (3) –1 and +1 (4) +5 and –1

c. is dehydrohalogenation. 91. The number of faradays (F) required to produce

10 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (atomic mass
Choose the correct option with respect to given
of Ca = 40 mol–1) is
conversion.
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5
(1) All a, b and c (2) a and b only
(3) 0.75 (4) 1
(3) a and c only (4) b and c only
92. During estimation of nitrogen present in an
83. Consider the following oxo acids of phosphorus organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the
a. H3PO2 b. H3PO3 ammonia evolved from 1.25 g of compound was
neutralised by 20 mL of 1 M H2SO4 solution. The
c. H3PO4 d. H4P2O7
percentage of nitrogen present in the compound
P-H bond is absent in is
(1) All a, b, c and d (2) a and b only (1) 22.4% (2) 32.5%
(3) b and c only (4) c and d only (3) 56.1% (4) 44.8%
84. Which of the following has maximum boiling 93. Major product of the given reaction is
point?
(1) H2S (2) H2Se
(3) H2O (4) H2Te
(1) (2)
85. Which of the following reagents is used to
distinguish 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols?
(1) Lucas reagent (2) Fehling solution (3) (4)
(3) Hinsberg reagent (4) Tollen’s reagent
94.  acid ligand among the following is
SECTION-B
(1) OH (2) H2O
86. Which among the following has maximum bond
order? (3) CO (4) NH3
95. Correct order of boiling point of the given
(1) O2 (2) O2–
compounds is
(3) O+2 (4) O2–
2

87. pH of a saturated solution of Ba (OH)2 is 10. The

solubility product (Ksp) of Ba (OH)2 is
(1) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(1) 5 × 10–9 (2) 1.0 × 10–12
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (4) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(3) 5 × 10–13 (4) 5 × 10–10
96. Match list-I with list-II.
88. Pressure-volume relationship for an ideal gas
List-I (subshell) List-II (n + l)
 C 
undergoing adiabatic change is   = P 
 CV  a. 4f (i) 5

(1) P1V1 = P2V2 (2) P1P2 = V1V2 b. 3d (ii) 3

P1 P2 c. 2p (iii) 7
(3) P1V1 = P2 V2 (4) =
V1 V2 d. 6s (iv) 6
89. An example of positively charged sol is Select the correct option.
(1) Gold sol (2) Starch sol (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) As2S3 sol (4) TiO2 sol (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

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97. Given below are two statements one is labelled (1) p-aminoazobenzene
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(2) p-hydroxyazobenzene
Reason (R).
(3) p-chloroazobenzene
Assertion (A): Oxidation state of K in KO2 is +4.
Reason (R): In normal oxides, oxygen is present (4) p-bromoazobenzene
in –2 oxidation state. 99. 200 mL of Nitrogen gas at 0.850 bar pressure
In the light of above statements, choose the most and 400 mL of CH4 gas at 0.250 bar pressure are
appropriate answer from the options given below. kept in 4 L of flask. the total pressure of mixture
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct at constant temperature is
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) 0.0425 bar
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (2) 0.025 bar
correct explanation of (A)
(3) 0.0575 bar
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(4) 0.0675 bar
correct explanation of (A)
98. Consider the given reaction sequence. 100. Inversion of cane sugar is an example
(1) Zero order reaction
(2) Pseudo first order reaction
(3) Second order reaction
The product of reaction of B and C in basic
medium will be (4) Half order reaction

BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Select the incorrect match from the following
101. Which of the following statements is incorrect options.
w.r.t. the movement of water which occurs (1) Leptotene – Coiling of chromatin fibres
exclusively through the intercellular spaces and (2) Zygotene – Synaptonemal complex stabilize
the walls of the cells? the two homologous chromosomes
(1) It can be seen from cortex to endodermis in (3) Pachytene – Involvement of recombinase
roots
(4) Diplotene – Occurrence of crossing over
(2) Movement of water is independent of the
concentration gradient 105. Which of the following is the characteristic event
of mitotic prophase?
(3) It is not aided by cytoplasmic streaming
(1) Chromosomal material condensation
(4) It does not involve crossing the cell
membrane (2) Alignment of chromosome on equatorial plate
102. Select the characteristic not found in Gelidium. (3) Centromere splitting
(1) Sexual reproduction is of oogamous type (4) Development of nuclear envelope
(2) Predominance of the red pigment 106. Which of the following essential element is
r-phycoerythrin required in amount less than 10 m mol kg–1 of dry
(3) Food is stored in the form of laminarin or matter in plants?
mannitol (1) Element which helps in the maintenance of
(4) Gametes are non-motile ribosomal structure

103. Which of the following plant group is considered (2) Element which is a constituent of cysteine
as the ‘first embryophytes? (3) Element which helps in opening and closing
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes of stomata
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms (4) Element which is involved in auxin synthesis

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-2_(Code-A)

107. Which of the following taxonomical aids serve as 114. Which of the following is an example of a
a quick referral system for plants? chromosomal aneuploidy?
(1) Herbarium (2) Botanical Garden (1) Phenylketonuria
(3) Museum (4) Zoological Park
(2) Thalassemia
108. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. key.
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(1) They are based on contrasting characters
(2) Contrasting characters are generally in pairs (4) Klinefelter’s syndrome
called leads 115. Pisum sativum has 14 chromosomes. Mendel
(3) Separate taxonomic keys are required for selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties to
each taxonomic category study _______ characters.
(4) Keys are generally analytical in nature Fill the blank with the correct option
109. The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via the
(1) 14 (2) 4
TCA cycle requires all, except
(1) The continued replenishment of oxaloacetic (3) 7 (4) 1
acid 116. Viroids are similar to prions as both
(2) Regeneration of NAD+ from NADH a. Are smaller than viruses
(3) Conversion of acetyl CoA to pyruvic acid
b. Lack DNA
(4) Regeneration of FAD+ from FADH2
c. Are not cellular structures
110. Biofortification is done for all the following
objectives, except (1) Only a and c (2) Only b
(1) Improving protein content and quality (3) Only b and c (4) All a, b and c
(2) Improving resistance to insects and pests 117. All of the following are edible but one that does
(3) Improving vitamin content not belong to the same class is
(4) Improving micronutrient and mineral content
(1) Morels (2) Yeast
111. Predators play important roles in ecosystem.
(3) Mushroom (4) Truffles
Which of the following is not true w.r.t. above
statement? 118. Protists are not
(1) They transfer energy across trophic levels (1) Decomposers (2) Autotrophs
(2) They keep prey population under control (3) Heterotrophs (4) Chemoautotrophs
(3) They maintain species diversity in a
119. The site of perception of light/dark duration in a
community
plant is
(4) They completely exclude prey population
from the ecosystem (1) Flower (2) Root
112. Primary production can be expressed in terms of (3) Stem (4) Leaves
(1) kcal m–2 (2) (kcal m–2) yr–1 120. A fungi has both male and female reproductive
(3) g m–3 (4) g m–2 yr–1 structures on same thallus. The fungi is
113. Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell (1) Homothallic (2) Heterothallic
division results in polyploidy which means
(3) Unisexual (4) Dioecious
(1) Increase in a single chromosome in a diploid
set 121. The fungi responsible for ripening of Roquefort
(2) Reduction in chromosome number in diploid cheese is
set (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) An organism has only one set of (2) Lactobacillus
chromosomes
(3) Staphylococci
(4) Increase in a whole set of chromosomes in
an organism (4) Penicillium

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CST-2_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

122. a. A single plant can’t show both apomixis and 126. Match the following columns and select the
polyembryony. correct option.

b. Presence of multiple embryos in multiple Column I Column II

ovules called polyembryony. a. Cistron (i) Catalytic RNA
c. Species of grass family can produce seeds b. Ribozyme (ii) Unwinding of DNA
without fertilization. into two stands
Find the correct option w.r.t. above lines. c. Helicase (iii) Protein coding gene
(1) Only a is incorrect d. Intron (iv) Removed during
(2) b and c are incorrect splicing
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) All a, b and c are incorrect
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Only c is correct
127. Which of following features is not applicable for a
123. C4 pathway in photosynthesis is different from C 3
stable ecosystem?
pathway as in the former
(1) Being resilient to occasional natural
(1) NADPH is required for reduction step
disturbances
(2) Oxaloacetic acid is the first product of CO 2
(2) Showing great variations in productivity from
fixation
year to year
(3) There is no use of ATP energy
(3) Being resistant to invasions by alien species
(4) CO2 fixation occurs in mesophyll cells (4) Being resilient to man-made disturbances
124. Regarding the features of dsDNA, which amongst 128. Consider the following statements
the statements given below is incorrect?
(a) Biomagnification of organic compounds does
(1) The distance between two strands is uniform not occur in the food chain
because purine always comes opposite to a
(b) Presence of large amount of nutrients in
pyrimidine
aquatic ecosystem can result algal bloom
(2) The two chains in the DNA has unidirectional
(c) Shallower lakes are usually warmer as
and parallel polarity compared to deep lakes
(3) There are three H-bonds between guanine (d) BOD of river water decreases when get
and cytosine mixed with domestic sewage
(4) The distance between a base pair in helix is The correct ones are
about 3.4 Å
(1) (b) and (d) only
125. In Hershey and Chase experiment radioactivity is
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
detected in supernatant when
(3) (b) and (c) only
(1) The bacterium is grown in medium containing
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
radioactive sulphur
129. Select the pair of organelles in which both the
(2) The viruses were grown in medium
organelles does not contain DNA?
containing radioactive phosphorus
(1) Vacuole and chloroplast
(3) The bacterium is grown with other bacterium
having isotopes of phosphorus (2) Lysosome and mitochondria
(3) Vacuole and lysosomes
(4) The viruses were labelled with radioactive
sulphur (4) Mitochondria and chloroplast

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-2_(Code-A)

130. Match the following column I with column II and SECTION-B

choose the correct option. 136. How many different types of aquaporins
constitute water channels found in cells?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Eight (2) Ten
a. Vacuole (i) Helps in packaging (3) Five (4) Seven
of materials of materials
137. Which of the following plant group contains all
b. Lysosomes (ii) Actively involve in heterosporous plants?
protein synthesis (1) Algae protein synthesis
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms
c. Golgi apparatus (iii) Rich in hydrolytic
enzyme 138. The enzyme
cattle egret and grazing cattle in close
association is a classic example of
d. Rough (iv) It contain excretory (1) Ammensalism (2) Commensalism
endoplasmic product and other
(3) Parasitism (4) Mutualism
reticulum material not useful
for cell 139. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) Assertion (A): The rate of decomposition is
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) controlled by chemical composition of detritus.
131. Which cell organelle is non-membrane bound? Reason (R): Decomposition rate is slower if
detritus is rich in lignin and chitin and faster if it is
(1) Mitochondria (2) Ribosomes
rich in nitrogen and water soluble substances.
(3) Nucleus (4) Leucoplast
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
132. Select the tissue which is not part of a stele? (2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(1) Vascular bundles (2) Pith (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) Pericycle (4) Endodermis correct explanation of (A)
133. Bulliform cells are (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
explanation of (A)
(a) Small
140. When a cross is made between pink and red
(b) Found mostly in dicot plants flowered snapdragon plants, what will be the
(c) Empty percentage of white flowered plants in progeny?
(d) Colourless (1) 0% (2) 25%
(e) Help plants to thrive water stress (3) 50% (4) 100%
Choose the correct ones. 141. In the two-kingdom classification of Linnaeus,
kingdom Plantae did not include
(1) (a), (b), (d) and (e)
(1) Bacteria (2) Protozoans
(2) All (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(3) Fungi (4) Angiosperms
(3) (c), (d) and (e)
142. Which of the following statements is wrong about
(4) All except (b) apical dominance?
134. Choose the plant in which leaf is modified into (1) Apical bud secrets auxin which inhibits the
tendrils for climbing. growth of lateral buds
(1) Watermelon (2) Pumpkin (2) Decapitation usually results in the growth of
lateral buds
(3) Pea (4) Cucumber
(3) Apical dominance is the phenomenon by
135. Epiphyllous condition of androecium is observed
which apical buds does not allow the growth
in flowers of
of axillary or lateral buds
(1) Brinjal (2) Lily (4) Gibberellic acid is used to overcome apical
(3) Sweet pea (4) Soyabean dominance
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CST-2_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

143. In a fertilized embryo sac the haploid, diploid and 146. In the equation that shows species-area
triploid structures are respectively relationship on a logarithmic scale, i.e., logS =
logC + zlogA, the value of which of the following
(1) Antipodal, Synergid and PEN
terms is found in the range of 0.1 to 0.2
(2) Synergid, Zygote, PEN regardless of the taxonomic group or the region?
(3) Zygote, PEN, Antipodals (1) S (2) A

(4) PEN, Zygote, Synergids (3) Z (4) C

147. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of
144. Which of the following option is incorrect?
Pollution) Act was amended to include noise as
(1) Trichoderma are free living fungi, that are an air pollutant in
very common in shoot ecosystems of plants (1) 1974 (2) 1981
(2) Aspergillus niger produces citric acid (3) 1987 (4) 1990
(3) Streptokinase is used as clot buster 148. Select the type of chromosome in which
centromere shift slightly away from the middle of
(4) Toddy is a traditional south Indian drink made
the chromosome and form one shorter arm and
by fermentation one longer arm.
145. In a lac operon, the adenine and guanine bases (1) Acrocentric (2) Telocentric
of the stop codon in i gene are replaced by (3) Sub-metacentric (4) Metacentric
guanine and adenine bases respectively. What
149. Presence of water containing cavities within the
will be the result of this change? vascular bundle is observed in
(1) There will be no synthesis of repressor (1) Dicot root (2) Monocot stem
mRNA (3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot root
(2) The operon will function in the same way as it 150. In racemose inflorescence
was before the change (1) Main axis terminates into flower
(3) The repressor mRNA will synthesise (2) Main axis has limited growth
abnormal repressor (3) Flowers are born in basipetal order
(4) There will be no synthesis of lac mRNA even (4) Younger flowers are present towards the
in the presence of inducer apex

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 153. Tasmanian tiger cat shows adaptive radiation

151. Amino acids can be considered as substituted with

(1) Trihydroxypropanes (2) Methanes (1) Bobcat (2) Mouse

(3) Purines (4) Trichloroacetic acid (3) Lemur (4) Marsupial mole

152. Arrange the following organic components of 154. The predominant antibodies present in colostrum
cells on the basis of their % of total cellular mass and produced during allergy, respectively, are
in decreasing order and choose the correct (1) IgG and IgE (2) IgG and IgA
option.
(3) IgA and IgG (4) IgA and IgE
(1) Carbohydrates > Lipids > Nucleic acids >
155. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. AIDS.
Proteins
(1) It is caused by retrovirus HIV, which has an
(2) Proteins > Lipids > Carbohydrates > Nucleic
envelope enclosing DNA genome
acids
(2) It can be transmitted by the use of infected
(3) Proteins > Carbohydrates > Nucleic acids >
needles
Lipids
(3) It was first reported in 1981
(4) Proteins > Nucleic acids > Carbohydrates >
Lipids (4) Diagnostic test for AIDS is ELISA

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-2_(Code-A)

156. All of the following are used to transfer alien DNA 161. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
into plant cells, except as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(1) Biolistics Reason (R).

(2) Micro-injection Assertion (A) : Living state is an equilibrium

steady-state to be able to perform work.
(3) Disarmed Agrobacterium
Reason (R) : As living organisms work
(4) Gene gun
continuously, they afford to reach equilibrium.
157. In the naming of HindIII, the letter ‘d’ denotes
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Name of scientist (2) Genus most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) Name of strain (4) Species below.
158. Observe the given figure of a typical agarose gel (1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
electrophoresis.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
162. The type of movement which assists in the
movement of food through cytopharynx in
Paramoecium, also assists in
Which of the following lanes represents
undigested DNA fragments? (1) Capturing the prey by Hydra
(1) 4 (2) 3 (2) Maintenance of water current in the canal
(3) 2 (4) 1 system of sponges

159. Given below are different plant forms. (3) Swimming of spermatozoa

a. Rhynia-type plants (4) Passage of ova through the female

reproductive tract
b. Seed ferns
163. The skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
c. Psilophyton
constitute ‘X’ skeleton. How many bones are
d. Tracheophyte ancestors present in ‘X’ skeleton?
e. Progymnosperms (1) 120 (2) 80
Choose the correct sequence of evolution of (3) 70 (4) 140
plant forms.
164. Rearing, catching, selling, etc., of all is common
(1) d → a → c → e → b between fisheries and aquaculture, except
(2) a → d → c → b → e (1) Prawns (2) Crabs
(3) d → c → a → e → b (3) Sea weeds (4) Octopus
(4) c → d → a → b → e 165. Select the pair of organisms which share the
160. Darwinian variations are same type of excretory structure.

(1) Small and directionless (1) Pheretima and Periplaneta

(2) Random and directionless (2) Planaria and Amphioxus

(3) Large and directional (3) Prawn and peacock

(4) Directional and small (4) Rotifers and insects

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CST-2_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

166. Kidneys are situated between the levels of 171. The chromosome number in meiocyte of housefly
( A ) and (B ) vertebra close to the ( C) and gamete of fruit fly, respectively, is
inner wall of the abdominal cavity. (1) 4 and 12 (2) 6 and 12
Select the option that correctly identifies (A), (B) (3) 12 and 4 (4) 12 and 190
and (C).
172. A non-cellular layer among the following is
(A) (B) (C) (1) Zona pellucida (2) Corona radiata
(1) 12th thoracic 3rd lumbar Dorsal (3) Trophoblast (4) Myometrium

(2) 11th thoracic 5th lumbar Ventral 173. Select the option which represents only haploid
cells
(3) 7th cervical 3rd lumbar Dorsal
(1) Spermatozoa, secondary spermatocytes and
(4) 6th cervical 5th lumbar Ventral spermatids
167. The part of respiratory system in humans starting (2) Primary spermatocytes, secondary spermato-
with the external nostrils up to the terminal cytes and spermatids
bronchioles assists in all of the given functions,
(3) Primary spermatocytes, spermatogonia and
except
spermatozoa
(1) Bringing the temperature of air up to the body
temperature (4) Spermatogonia, secondary spermatocytes
and spermatozoa
(2) Diffusion of gases
174. Select the correct statement w.r.t. human sperm.
(3) Clearing the incoming air by trapping dust
particles present in the air (1) Middle piece of sperm contains energy
(4) Humidifying the incoming air by providing source required for swimming.
moisture (2) Ciliary movements are responsible for the
168. Select the correct pair of organisms exhibiting movement of sperms.
mesoglea in between the external and internal
(3) Acrosome contains the genetic material.
germ cell layers.
(1) Adamsia and Ascaris (4) Chitinous cell wall protects the sperm from
desiccation in female genital tract.
(2) Sycon and Struthio
175. ‘X’ consumed the meal having 10 gm of protein,
(3) Physalia and Meandrina
5 gm of carbohydrates and 2 gm of fat. Calculate
(4) Pennatula and Pheretima
physiological value of her meal (in kcal).
169. Consider the following features.
(1) 95.9 (2) 93
a. Females are longer than males
(3) 78 (4) 118
b. Organ system level of organisation
176. The tissue which serves as a support framework
c. Presence of pseudocoelom
for epithelium has all type of cells, except
The organism exhibiting the respective features
is the (1) Macrophages (2) Fibroblasts
(1) Causative agent of ascariasis (3) Mast cells (4) Osteocytes
(2) Blood sucking segmented ectoparasite 177. What would be the heart rate of a person if the
(3) Vector of dengue cardiac output is 6 L, blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastoles is 120 mL and
(4) Economically beneficial animal
at the end of ventricular systole is 60 mL?
170. Select the incorrect match.
(1) 120 times/min
(1) Sea fan – Gorgonia
(2) Sea pen – Pennatula (2) 100 times/min

(3) Sea urchin – Echinus (3) 72 times/min

(4) Sea hare – Dentalium (4) 90 times/min

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-2_(Code-A)

178. Heart failure means the state of heart when 183. Bt-toxin protein exists as inactive protoxin. It is
(1) Heart is not pumping blood effectively converted into an active form of toxin due to
enough to meet the needs of the body (1) Acidic pH of the gut of insect
(2) More oxygen is reaching the heart muscle (2) Alkaline pH of the gut of insect
(3) Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an (3) Action of enzyme secreted from the gut wall
inadequate blood supply of insect
(4) Heart stops beating (4) The mixing of protoxin with saliva of insect
179. Consider the given features. 184. Which of the following has been used to create
a. Present in least amount tailor-made plants to supply alternative resources
to industries?
b. Involved in inflammatory reactions
(1) Therapeutics (2) Genetic modification
c. Secrete histamine and serotonin
(3) ELISA (4) Gene therapy
Above features are applicable for which type of
WBCs? 185. Select the odd one w.r.t. increase in population
size of humans.
(1) Neutrophils (2) Eosinophils
(1) Decline in maternal mortality rate
(3) Monocytes (4) Basophils
(2) Incline in death rate
180. Absorption is the process by which the end
products of digestion pass into the blood or (3) Increase in number of people in reproducible
lymph through age

(1) Sub-mucosa of large intestine (4) Increase in health facilities

(2) Intestinal mucosa SECTION-B

(3) Muscularis of stomach 186. A highly specialised cell, which can detect,
receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli is
(4) Pancreatic mucosa
called
181. Match the columns w.r.t. cockroach.
(1) Nephron (2) Myocyte
A B (3) Neuron (4) Meiocyte
a. Testes (i) 6th segment 187. Cell body with one axon only but no dendrite is
usually found in the
b. Mushroom-shaped (ii) 2nd-6th segments
gland (1) Retina of eye
(2) Embryonic stage
c. Ovaries (iii) 6th-7th segments
(3) Cerebral cortex
d. Spermatheca (iv) 4th-6th segments
(4) Sensory neuron of reflex arc
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 188. Hypothalamus contains several groups of X
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) cells called Y which secrete hormones.
182. Periodic abstinence is a natural method of Identify X and Y from the following.
contraception. In this method, couples avoid from
X Y
coitus from day _____ of 28 days menstrual
cycle? (1) Epithelial Nephron

Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. (2) Epithelial Secretory cells

(1) 8-12 (2) 10-17 (3) Neurosecretory Nuclei

(3) 12-18 (4) 5-12 (4) Neurosecretory Tract

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CST-2_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

189. Which of the following is a prosthetic group for 194. Match column-I with column-II and select the
enzyme peroxidase? correct option.
(1) Vitamins (2) NAD Column-I Column-II
(3) Zinc ions (4) Haem
a. Larynx (i) Common passage for
190. Match the column-I with column-II. food and air
Column-I Column-II b. Pharynx (ii) Helps in the production
of sound
a. Ringworm (i) Streptococcus
c. Trachea (iii) Present inside the lungs
b. Pneumonia (ii) Salmonella
d. Secondary (iv) Supported by
c. Filariasis (iii) Microsporum
bronchi incomplete cartilaginous
d. Typhoid (iv) Wuchereria rings

Choose the correct answer from the options (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
given below. (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) 195. Comprehend the given statements and select the
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) correct option.
a. Hooks and suckers are present in tapeworm
191. How many of the given statements are correct?
and liver flukes.
a. EFB defines biotechnology as the integration
b. Hydra, Spongilla and Planaria are fresh water
of natural science and organisms, cells, parts
invertebrates.
thereof and molecular analogues for products
and services. c. Sexes are not separate and fertilisation is
internal in flatworms and sponges.
b. The stickiness of the ends made by
restriction enzymes facilitates the action of (1) a and b are incorrect while c is correct
DNA ligase. (2) a and c are incorrect while b is correct
c. The normal E. coli cells do not carry (3) b and c are correct while a is incorrect
resistance against ampicillin and tetracycline (4) a, b and c are incorrect
but carry for kanamycin.
196. A well-developed circulatory system and
d. Traditional hybridisation procedures used in respiratory system with complete digestive
animal breeding often lead to inclusion and system is seen in
multiplication of undesirable genes. (1) Pila and Periplaneta
(1) Three (2) Four (2) Adamsia and Antedon
(3) One (4) Two (3) Euspongia and Echinus
192. In which year, the first recombinant DNA was (4) Salpa and Sycon
created?
197. Select the incorrect match.
(1) 1963 (2) 1927
(1) Seminiferous - Site of spermatogenesis
(3) 1972 (4) 1997
tubules
193. Select the correct feature w.r.t. ancestor of man
having cranial capacity between 650-800 cc. (2) Epididymis and - Paired male accessory
vas deferens ducts
(1) About 5 mya, they lived in Africa
(3) Fallopian tubes - Site of fertilisation
(2) First human-like being the hominid
(3) More ape-like (4) Uterus and - Paired female accessory
vagina ducts
(4) Probably ate meat

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-2_(Code-A)

198. Complete the analogy w.r.t. the number of (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
formed elements per mm3 of blood.
(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
RBC : 5.5-5 million :: WBC : _____
(3) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
Choose the correct option.
(4) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) 600-800 (2) 15000-35000
(3) 6000-8000 (4) 150000-350000 200. How many hormones from the given box are
secreted from adenohypophysis?
199. Read the given statements A and B.
Statement-A : There is statutory ban on TSH, GH, PTH, TCT, Thymosin,
amniocentesis in India. ACTH, LH, Adrenaline
Statement-B : Amniocentesis usually performed
for sex determination of foetus is legal in India. (1) 4 (2) 6

Select the correct option. (3) 5 (4) 7

❑ ❑ ❑

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