SCHOOL OF PHARMACY

CEU Manila
Integrated Pharmaceutical Sciences on DISPENSING AND COMPOUNDING

1. Which of the following holds TRUE for the term DISPENSING? I. An act by a validly registered
pharmacist II. Filling of a prescription or doctor’s order on the patient chart
III. Simply selling the medication
a.I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I and III
2. Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) involves activities associated with all of the following EXCEPT; a. self-
care b. promotion of good health c. supply and use of medicines and items for the
administration of medicines d. prescribing medicine
3. Based on the amendments to republic act no. 6675, all government health agencies and their personnel
as well as other government agencies shall use generic terminology or generic names in all transactions
related to; I. purchasing of drugs and medicines II. prescribing of drugs and medicines
III. dispensing and administering of drugs and medicines
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I and III
4. Violative prescription; I. Generic name does not correspond to its brand name II. The brand name
precedes the generic name III. Generic name is not legible and brand name is legibly written
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. III only
5. Based on generic dispensing guidelines, finished pharmaceutical products having the same active
ingredient(s), same dosage form and strength as the prescribed drug is referred to as; a. therapeutic
equivalents b. generic equivalents c. bioequivalents d. equivalent dosage form
6. Which of the following prescriptions shall NOT be filled based on A.O.62 - Generic prescribing
guidelines? I. Erroneous II. Violative III. Impossible
a. I only b. III only c. I and II d. II and III
7. Drugs belonging to List A are; I. Dangerous drugs II. Regulated Drugs
III. Controlled precursors and essential chemicals
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
8. In partial filling of prescription, the following shall be written on the face of the prescription, EXCEPT:
a. The date of partial filling
b. The quantity served and balance of the prescription unserved
c. The date to fully served the prescription
d. Name and address of the drugstore
9. In dispensing products in unit-dose or not in their original packages, information that must be placed
legibly on the drug outlet’s label include all of the following EXCEPT;
a. Generic name of the drug c. Directions for use
b. Price of the product d. Name of pharmacist
10. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is; a. erroneous prescription
b. violative prescription c. impossible prescription d. non-violative prescription
11. Drugs classified as List B include: I. Oxycodone II. Thiopental III. Phenytoin
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. III only
12. The direction to the patient is referred to as; a. Superscription b. Subscription c. Transcription
d. Inscription
13. The label for drugs intended for oral administration is; a. red b. yellow c. white d. green
14. Correct statements about prescription drugs include; I. bears Rx symbol on label
II. Dispensed upon presentation of a written order from physician III. Also referred as OTC drug
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. I and II
15. TRUE statements regarding prescription include;
I. An order for medication, nondrug products, and services
II. Written by a licensed practitioner such as physician, dentist, veterinarian and pharmacist
III. May be written, presented orally (by telephone), or presented electronically (fax or e-mail) to the
pharmacist
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III
16. Prescription for controlled substances; I. prepared in 2 copies II. S-2 number of the
prescriber is required III. obtained from Dangerous Drugs Board
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. III only
17. Drugs should be taken on an empty stomach means; I. Taking the medication 1 hour before eating
II.Taking the medication 2 hours after eating III. Without food and for optimal absorption
a. I, II, II b. I and II c. I and III d. III only
18. This is an example of a subscription: a. M. ft. ung b. 1 tab qid c. 50 capsules
d. shake well before using
19. In prescription, the instruction for the patient on how to take the medication is referred to as the:
a. transcription b. superscription c. inscription d. subscription
20. The following are found in the patient information EXCEPT; a. Name of the patient b. age of
the patient c. Weight of the patient d. Marital status of the patient
21. Which of the following statements holds TRUE for a medication order? I. Issued or written by an
individual authorized to prescribe and is intended for use by patient while in an institutional setting
II. Instructions for administration such as quantity, route, schedule and duration of use, can be found
III. It contains refill information
a. I, II, and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
22. “prn” in prescription means; a. as mentioned b. as needed c. do not repeat
d. at pleasure
23. A stat order means the drug has to be administered; a. immediately b. at the hour of sleep
c. as needed by the patient d. before surgery
24. Dosage forms that require special administration techniques, EXCEPT: I. Eye drop and ointment .
II.Nose drops and sprays III. Tablets and capsules
a.I, II, III b. I and II c. I and III d. III
25. The direction for use of the product is “Applic ad lib ud”. On the prescription label this would read as;
a. “Apply liberally” c. “Use as directed”
b. “Apply as directed” d. “Apply liberally as directed”
26. Distinct portion of a compound prescription responsible for the therapeutic action is termed as;
a. base b. adjuvant c. corrective d. vehicle
27. Is the schedule of doses of medicine that includes the time between doses, the duration of treatment
and the amount to be taken of each time
a.Dosage form b. Dosage regimen c. Therapeutic dose d. Time of dose

28. ‘Do not crush medication” a. sustained release b. enteric coated c. extended release d. all

29. Common prescribers’ abbreviation include; I. Pb for lead II. HCTZ for hydrochlorthiazide
III. MTX for mixture
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. II only
30. In the pharmacy, the process of ensuring customer satisfaction with a product or a service.
a. Good customer service b Good patient care c. Good customer care d. Patient care
31. This step in processing the prescription order is important in determining the appropriate refill frequency
and patient compliance.
a. patient’s information c. numbering the prescription
b. dating the prescription d. labeling the prescription
32. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a. The purpose of numbering prescription is for identification.
b. The name of the prescriber is recorded in the prescription book. should be after
c. Morphine sulfate dispensed must be recorded in the DDB book. the last entry
d. Prescription book shall be kept in the pharmacy department for 2 years after the first entry
33. Patient considerations in evaluating the safety of a prescribed dose include all of the following EXCEPT;
a. Age of the patient b. Expiration date of the drug c. Weight and condition of the
patient d. Possible influence of the other drugs taken
34. In reading the prescription; I. It must be done in front of the patient II. If illegible or an error has been
made, consult another pharmacist or the prescriber III. Never guess the meaning of an
indistinct word or unrecognized abbreviation
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II and III
35. Numbering of prescription is a legal requirement. This step is important; I. in determining the appropriate
refill frequency II. in identifying the bottle or package III. for reference in case of refill
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II and III
36. Information legally required on the label of a product
I. The name and address of the pharmacist II. Date of dispensing III. Prescription number
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. I and II
37. Extemporaneous pharmacy compounding includes all of the following EXCEPT; a. making paracetamol
tablets b. IV admixture c. fortify a dermatological preparation d. making paper tabs
38. Considerations in extemporaneous prescription compounding m include; I. stability of the compounded
prescription II. mathematical calculations III. special adjuvants or techniques
a. I and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I, II and III
39. A compounded prescription requires protection from light due to the presence of a highly light sensitive
drug. Which of the following could be employed? I. amber bottle II. plastic container made opaque
III. glass container with carbon paper as outer wrapping
a. I, II and III b. I and III c. I and II d. II and III
40. Based on USP guidelines the stability of extemporaneously compounded aqueous liquids (reconstituted
formulations) is;
a. A beyond use date of not later than 25% of the time remaining until the products’ expiration date or 6
months, whichever is earlier
b. Not later than 14 days when stored at cold temperatures
 c. Not less than the intended duration of therapy or 30 days, whichever is earlier
d. Maximum beyond use date is 6 months or 25% of the remaining time between the compounding date
and the shortest expiration date of the ingredients, whichever is earlier
41. Which of the following is a controlled prescription?
a. Rx Amoxicillin c. Rx Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Rx Doxycycline d. Rx Meperidine HCl
42. Rx Olive oil 60 mL
Vitamin A 60,000 units
Water qs 120 mL
Sig. 15 mL t.i.d.
What formulation can be made from the given prescription?
a. suspension b. solution c. emulsion d. elixir
43. In reference to the above prescription, the pharmacist would need to add;
a. Tween 80 b. Acacia c. Glycerin d. Alcohol
44. In labeling the above prescription, which of the following caution label should be affixed?
a. “Refrigerate after opening” c. “For External Use Only”
b. “Shake well before use” d. “Do not swallow”
For Questions 45 - 47
Rx Morphine 1 mg/mL
Flavored vehicle, qs ad 120 mL
Sig. 5-20 mg po q 3-4 hours prn for pain
45. How much morphine is required to compound the prescription?
a. 240 mg b. 120 mg c. 60 mg d. 180 mg
46. How many tsp (based on the dosage range) is to be given per dose?
a. 5 to 20 tsp b. 1 to 5 tsp c. 1 to 4 tsp d. 2 to 3 tsp
47. Which statement about the prescription is correct?
a. The amount of morphine needed is 240 mg
b. Powdered morphine alkaloid should be used in compounding the prescription
c. The dosage form for the above prescription is a solution
d. A red label should be used
For Questions 48-50
Rx Podophyllum 5%
Salicylic acid 10%
Acetone 20 %
Flexible collodion ad 30 mL
Sig. Apply q h.s.
48. How much podophyllum is required to compound the product?
a. 5 g b. 3 g c. 1 g d. 1.5 g
49. In preparing the prescription, the pharmacist should; I. triturate podophyllum with acetone
II. add salicylic acid to the collodion III. a “ for external use” label should be affixed to the container
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
50. Which of the following information is TRUE for the prescription? I. The prescription is for wart treatment
II. It should be applied using the forefinger III. Store the prescription remote from fire or
other flammable material
a. I, II and III b. I and III c. II and III d. III only
51. The following are included in the Minimal Information Model for Patient Safety Incident Reporting,
EXCEPT: a. Incident type b. Resulting actions c. Patient’s role d. Incident outcomes
bn
52. Hinged-lid or slide boxes are used for packaging;
a. dusting powders b. oral bulk powders c. douche powders d. divided powders
53. A type of paper used to wrap divided powders that is moisture proof is;
a. ordinary bond paper b. vegetable parchment c. glassine paper d. waxed paper
54. Containers used in dispensing ointments;
I. Ointment jars II. Collapsible tube III. Sifter top containers
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. III only
55. Commonly used diluent in capsules; a. talc b. lactose c. starch d. acacia
56. A “shake well before use” label is affixed to; I. Eyewash II. Suspension III. Emulsion
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. III only
57. A part of the prescription that contains the medication prescribed for a specific patient.
a. Supersciption c. Transcription
b. Inscription d. Subscription
58. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Freshly boiled and cooled purified water must be used when making suspensions.
b. All suspensions will attract a 4-week discard date.
c. All suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle.
d. Suspensions containing a suspending agent do not need a direction to shake the bottle
59. Which of the following pain relievers require a physician’s prescription?
I. Mefenamic acid 250 mg cap II. Paracetamol 600 mg tab III. Tramadol 100 mg tab
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
60. Which of the following correctly applies to this group of drug products? Percocet 500mg/7.5 mg tab,
Tylenol with Codeine 300 mg/60 mg tab, Vicoprofen 7.5 mg/200 mg tab
I. all are generically equivalent
II. all are acetaminophen containing fixed-dose combination products
III. all are prescription drugs
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. III only
61. Which of the following drugs for aches/pain does not contain paracetamol/acetaminophen?
a. Panadol b. Norgesic Forte c. Tylenol d. Zgesic
62. In filling prescription, all of the following instructions should be given by the pharmacist to the patient
EXCEPT:
a. dangers of mixing drugs in one container c. proper storage for stability
b. danger of over-dosage d. life-threatening side effects
63. When the word otic appears in the label of a medication, this means that the drug is intended to be
administered in the: a. ears b. nose c. eyes d. rectum

64. Which of the following information apply to Naprosyn EC 250 mg tab?

a. Should be dissolved in water or juice c. Do not take with milk or antacid
b. Must be chewed first before swallowing d. Should not be swallowed
65. Which of the following formulations should not be crushed or broken in half?
I. Tegretol Retard 200 mg tab II. Glucotrol XL tab III. Xanax 1 mg tablet
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I and III
66. This product may cause dizziness or drowsiness due to alcohol content.
a. Maalox b. Nutrilin c. Elixophyllin theophylline
20% alcohol
+
d. Ambrolex
67. This type of product for inhalation therapy is to be recommended for infants and children less than 5
years old
a. Solution for inhalation b. Metered dose inhaler c. Turbuhaler d. Aerosol
68. When dispensing metered-dose inhaler in aerosol form, the following information must be provided to
the patient EXCEPT;
a. Do not puncture container c. Rinse mouth after use
b. Shake well prior to use d. Dilute medication with sterile saline solution
69. A heating pad, hot shower, or sauna bath should be avoided if patient is using this product due to the
massive release of the drug from its formulation matrix.
a. Salonpas pain relieving patch c. Levonorgestrel (Norplant) Implant
b. Mediplast Corn plaster d. Nitroderm TTS
70. Which of the following drug should not be taken with food?
a. ampicillin b. metformin c. griseofulvin d. aspirin
71. Which is correctly matched generic name-brand name?
I. Cloxacillin-Keflex II. Sulfinpyrazone-Zyloprim III.Digoxin-Lanoxin
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. III only
72. To control finished products in the warehouse of a company, the distribution practice is:
a. First-In-First-Out b. Ratio and proportion c. Samples needed d. Both a and b
73. The following are considered as dispensing error, EXCEPT:
a. Labelling error b. prescribing a drug to a wrong patient c. equipment failure
d. poor drug-storage practice
74. DPI means; ,
a. dose per inhalation c. dry powder for inhalation
b. drug prescription inventory d. drug for peritoneal injection
75. “Injecting diclofenac into the lateral thigh rather than the buttock”
a. Rule-based Error b. Lapse c. Slip d. Mistake
76. Which of the following products is an oral iron preparation?
I. Iron dextran injection II. Ferrous gluconate III. Ferrous fumarate
a. I, II and III b. I and III c. I and II d. II and III
77. The most appropriate patient parameter used for evaluating the dosages intended for children
a..Weight b. Body surface area c. age d. height
78. Which of the following could be written in a prescription?
a. Prescribed medications b. Request for laboratory test c. Referrals to specialists d. all
79. Which of the following NOT a cephalosporin?
a. ceftriaxone b. cefuroxime c. ceftazidime d. ciprofloxacin
80. Levodopa-carbidopa-entacapone combination is;
a. Tagamet b. Stalevo c. Sinemet d. Dilantin
Cimetedine carbidopa + levodopa Phenytoin
81. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. For patients with hearing problems, provide hand out of drug information which they
can read at home.
b. Patients must be well equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills in order to
conduct patient counseling effectively.
c. The counselling environment must ensure privacy and confidentiality and must be
conducive to patient involvement, learning and acceptance.
d. Patient counseling consists of three stages: introduction, process content, and conclusion
82. This means dispensing the buyer’s choice from among the generic equivalents.
a. Generic dispensing b. Basic dispensing c. Controlled dispensing d. Branded dispensing
83. A part of the label which indicates the frequency, duration and method of administering the medication
a. Date of dispensing
b. Auxiliary labels
c. Directions for use
d. Cautionary labels
84. A part of the drug outlet’s label which indicates the shelf-life of the dispensed product.
a. Name and strength of medication b. Manufacturer’s lot number c. Auxiliary label d. Expiration
date
85. Which of the following products is a diuretic?
a. Soma (Carisopodol) c. Hygroton (Chlorthalidone)
b. Haldol (Haloperidol) d. Dolobid (Diflunical)
86. Tolterodine (Detrol) is can be employed in;
a. Antiseizure c. GI and GU conditions
b. Skeletal muscle relaxant d. Cardiovascular conditions
87. These are roles of the pharmacy assistants, except:
a. Diagnose diseases and prescribe prescription medicines
b. Recommend OTC drugs according to established algorithm
c. Provide health information provision
d. Receive medicines according to Good Distribution Practice.
88. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch brands include; I. Nitrostat Tablet II. Minitran III. Nitro-Dur
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
89. The following are manifestation of physical incompatibility in extemporaneous compounding, EXCEPT:
a. evolution of gas b. salting out c. liquefaction d. immiscibility
90. Which statement regarding NSAIDS is correct?
I. Ibuprofen can be indicated for mild to moderate pain including those associated with arthritis, gout
and dysmenorrheal
II. Celecoxib and Aspirin are equally effective in preventing thrombotic conditions
III. GI toxicity is a common problem, but less likely with the coxib’s
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I and III
91. This analgesic drug should not be given to patients who have undergone dental surgery since it can
prolong bleeding time.
a. aspirin b. nalbuphine c. paracetamol d. tramadol
92. The daily dose of APAP should not exceed;
a. 500 mg b. 1000 mg c. 4 g d. 2 g
93. Alcohol + Barbiturates may lead to this effect
a. antagonism c. additive
b. synergism d. potentiation
94. Roaccutane capsule; I. an oral medication for acne II. it contains isotretinoin III. effective
contraceptive methods should be used concomitantly with the drug
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III
95. Diane-35 tablet is; a. a drug for dysmenorrhea b. for infertility in women c. a sleeping aid
d. an anti-androgen used to treat certain types of acne
96. A label/symbol which is represented by a skull and cross bones.
a. Flammable c. Explosive
b. Severe health hazard d. Acute toxicity
97. Symbicort Turbuhaler is dispensed. Which information does not apply to the proper use of the product?
a. Rinse mouth after use c. Inhale twice a day to prevent attack
b. Shake before use d. Do not wash – wipe clean if necessary
98. Which of the following products is a powder for inhalation? I. Zanamivir (Relenza) Diskhaler
II. Salmeterol (Seretide Accuhaler) III. Salbutamol (Ventolin) inhaler
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. III only d. I only
99. Fluticasone/Salmeterol inhalation product for asthma is; a. Advair Diskus b. Serevent
Diskhaler c. Symbicort Turbohaler d. Flixotide Diskus
100. Which of the following herbal products is recommended for recurrent UTI?
a. Cranberry b. St.John’s wort c. Evening Primrose d. Ginkgo biloba
101. Lagundi has been studied by the Philippine Department of Health and has suggested a number of
therapeutic values. One of these is;
a. for the treatment of cough and asthma symptoms
b. as prophylaxis for migraine
c. for painful or difficult menstruation
d. as supportive treatment for anxiety and depression
102. The following statements are TRUE regarding incompatibilities in prescription EXCEPT:
a. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration
b. easier to correct than prevent
c. may be intentional or unintentional
d. must be recognized by the pharmacist
103. Which of the following is considered as an incompatibility in prescription?
a. Release of CO2 in effervescent formulation c. Precipitates formed in washes and lotions
b. Liberation of SO2, NO2, and H2S d. All of these

104. KBr + Camphor water may lead to precipitation. What mechanism is involved?
a. Salting-out c. change in temperature
b. change in solvent system d. change in pH
105. Liquefaction in prescription could be due to the following EXCEPT;
a. eutexia b. deliquescence c. hygroscopy d. polymorphism
106. These substances have strong affinity for moisture and tend to absorb relatively large amounts of
water from the atmosphere if exposed to it, forming a liquid solution.
a. Endothermic b. Eutectic c. Hygroscopic d. Deliquescent
107. Rx Silver Nitrate, Water. Make isotonic with Sodium Chloride. What incompatibility could be
predicted from this combination?
a. Precipitation due to chemical reaction c. Evolution of gas
b. Inactivation of Silver chloride via hydrolysis d. Solidification
108. Liberation of carbon dioxide occurs when acid preparations are combined with carbonates or
bicarbonates. Which of the following syrups is incompatible with carbonates and bicarbonates?
I. Syrup, USP II. Syrup of Ipecac III. Syrup of Orange
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
109. Hydrolysis of aspirin tablets can be manifested as; I. Discoloration of the tablet II. Vinegar-like
odor of the tablet III. Needle like crystals noted around the tablet
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I and III
110. In the prescription, Sodium bicarbonate, Sodium salicylate, and Water qs., a brown quinoid
derivative of sodium salicylate may be formed. This incompatibility can be remedied by:
I. Adding a color diluent II. Adding an antioxidant III. Removal of water
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. I and II
111. Possible remedies for liquefaction of solid substances include; I. Dispense separately
II. Add adsorbents III. Add cotton in packaging
a. I and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I,II and III
112. Alkaline salts like phenytoin sodium when placed in an acidic medium will result to:
I. precipitation of phenytoin into free acid II. Inactivation of phenytoin sodium
III. Evolution of carbon dioxide gas
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. I, II, and III
113. Remedy when a solid substance fails to dissolve in a liquid: I. addition of co-solute
II. prepare an emulsion III. prepare a suspension
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II, and III
114. Which of the following substances or compounds would tend to form a liquid or soft mass when
brought in contact with camphor? I. chloral hydrate II. phenol III. salicylic acid
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II, and III
115. Dispensing of this antibiotic should be watched carefully as it depresses the bone marrow and block
protein synthesis.
a. bacitracin b. chloramphenicol c. penicillin d. cefaclor
116. Overdosage could be due to the following EXCEPT;
a. Excessive amounts taken at one time c. tinctures instead of fluidextracts
b. Doses repeated at too frequent intervalsm d. Dose dumping from modified-release formulation
117. Contact lenses will turn brown when prescribe to a patient who is also using this medication due to
the formation of adrenochrome.
a. ibuprofen b. propranolol c. lidocaine d. epinephrine
118. Tetracycline should not be taken with; I. Dairy products II. Antacid preparations
III. Hematinics
a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. I, II and III
119. When taking corticosteroids, patient should avoid; I. NSAIDs II. Thiazide diuretics
III. Insulin products
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I only
120. In medication counseling, the basic goal is; a. understanding b. disagreement
c. to let the patient do as they are told d. conflict
121. Checking compliance and side effects are information gathered in;
a. New prescription counseling b. Repeat prescription counseling c. OTC counseling d. all
122. A medication history interview is conducted to; I. new patient II. returning patient
III. refill prescription
a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II
123. Information to be provided in dispensing new prescription include; I. refill information
II. side effects and adverse effects III. purpose of the medication
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. I and II

124. “Does your medication lower your high blood pressure?” This is a specific question about:
a. compliance c. previous use of medication
b. effectiveness of medication d. purpose of medication
125. Practical strategies to reduce errors resulting from sound-alike medications and verbal orders
include: I. read back verbal orders II. prohibit the use of all verbal orders
III. establish policies on who can receive verbal orders
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II and III
dispensing errors associated with look-alike medications is to:
126. One strategy to decrease prescribing
a. store problem medications alphabetically
b. use only generic names on labels
c. avoid incorporating alerts in computer systems
d. Flag shelves where the look-alike products are stored
127. Certain medications are deemed high-alert because they:
a. are more error prone c. are labeled as such by FDA
b. can result in significant patient harm d. a and c
128. JCAHO patient safety goals encourage hospitals to remove _______ from floor stock.
a. lidocaine c. concentrated electrolytes
b. esmolol d. all of these
129. A new product has arrived to your pharmacy. The storage requirements on the label
read: Store at 1.5°C - 3.3°C. Where would you store it?
a. Room temperature c. Refrigerator
b. Freezer d. Incubator
130. The use of “tall-man” letters in label avoids errors due to;
a. Look-alike and Sound-alike drugs c. Illegible handwriting
b. Dangerous abbreviations d. Leading and Trailing zeroes
131. High-alert medication include all of the following EXCEPT;
a. Indomethacin b. Lidocaine c. Colchicine d. Heparin
132. Drug interactions may be classed as; I. pharmacokinetic interaction II. Pharmacodynamic
interaction III. pharmaceutical interactions
a. I and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I, II and III
133. Which of the following situations can lead to drug interactions? I. Multiple drug therapy
II. Multiple prescribers III. Patient compliance
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
134. When drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes or infusion prior to administration, it will give rise
to a; a. pharmacokinetic interaction b. pharmacodynamic interaction c. pharmaceutical
interaction d. beneficial interaction
135. The intermittent administration of a second solution, like antibiotics, through a Y-tube in the existing
IV line is referred to as; a. IV push b. IV bolus c. IV piggyback d. IV infusion
136. Amphotericin should not be admixed to;
a. D5W b. Lactated Ringer’s c. NSS d. Ringer’s Injection
137. Admixture of any drug is NOT allowed in; I. Blood derivatives II. D5W III. Amino acid
a. I only b. I and II c. I and III d. I, II and

138. Storage condition required for products that must be placed in an area with an air
conditioning facility.
a. Cold temperature b. Room temperature c. Controlled room temperature d. Cool temperature
139. In compounding phenytoin capsule, the use of this capsule filler should be avoided since it can
increase the toxicity of the drug.
a. Starch b. Microcrystalline cellulose c. Lactose d. Bentonite
140. Which of the following can lead to overdosage? I. Excessive amounts taken at one time
II. Doses repeated at too frequent intervals III. Dose dumping from modified-release formulation
a. I and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I, II and III
141. Antagonistic combinations are acceptable if; I. it is used to modify the action of other ingredients
II. It is given as placebos III. It will result to no therapeutic action or underdosage
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III
142. Penicillin and ASA are contraindicated to;
a. hypertensives b. patients with ulcer c. asthmatics d. anemics
143. Anemics should refrain from the use of;
a. nasal decongestants b. NSAIDs c. chloramphenicol d. ASA
144. Cough and cold remedies with decongestants are NOT recommended to patients experiencing;
a. low RBC count c. high blood pressure
b. GI ulcer d. airway obstruction
145. Mr. Lu would like to take Viagra, but is also taking Centrum, Vit. E, Lipitor and Isordil. You would like
to tell Mr. Lee that it can cause interaction with other agents he was taking. Which of the following
agents can cause interaction with Viagra?
a. Centrum b. Vitamin E c. Lipitor d. Isordil
146. A patient with a prescription for Dulcolax EC came to a drugstore. The patient revealed that he is
also on antacid therapy. Which of the following information should the pharmacist tell to the patient?
a. Take both drugs right after meal.
b. Take the other drug at least one hour before or two hours after the intake of the first drug.
c. Follow the intake of the laxative with milk for enhanced effect.
d. Crush the tablet and mixed it with antacid for better bioavailability.
147. The patient is taking Midazolam as a sleeping pill. Which of the following medications should not be
taken concomitantly with midazolam?
a. allopurinol b. amoxicillin c. diphenhydramine d. salbutamol
148. What is the consequence of taking Diphenhydramine and midazolam?
a. excessive sweating b. excessive drowsiness and sedation c. chest pain d. palpitation
149. Ms. Cruz orders an OCP and Amoxicillin trihydrate 500 mg for two weeks. What is the potential
problem recognized if the two drugs are taken concomitantly?
a. OCP can weaken the antibacterial property of amoxicillin
b. Amoxicillin can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive
c. Amoxicillin increases the risk of OCP’s adverse drug reaction
d. There is no problem with the two drugs
150. Refer to the previous number. What should be your recommendation if the two drugs are taken?
a. take the OCP qod
b. take amoxicillin 2 hours after taking OCP
c. take the two drugs as prescribed, but use mechanical method of contraception or practice abstinence
d. Stop Amoxicillin and continue the OCP
151. If amoxicillin suspension was dispensed, which of the following information does NOT apply to the
dispensed product?
a. Allergy to penicillin c. Do not refrigerate
b. Shake the bottle well d. Take for 7 days or complete the course
152. The mechanism of interaction of the following is complexation EXCEPT;
a. Tetracycline-milk c. Flouroquinolones – Al and Mg containing antacids
b. Penicillamine-Aluminum or Iron salts d. Ketoconazole – antacids
153. A red orange urine is to be expected while taking this drug
a. vitamin B2 b. rifampicin c. chloroquine d. vitamin C
154. The following agents alter GI absorption of drugs taken concomitantly by altering GI motility and
gastric emptying EXCEPT;
a. anticholinergics b. metoclopramide c. cathartics d. antacids
155. The bioavailability of bisphosphonates may be markedly reduced if taken with;
I. Coffee II. Orange juice III. Mineral water
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III
156. In some situation, medication should be administered with food to obtain optimum benefit. This is
TRUE with;
a. Captopril b. Alendronate c. theophylline in controlled release form d. Miglitol
157. For optimum benefit associated with alpha-glucosidase inhibitors used in diabetes, these should be
taken; a. at the start (at first bite) of each meal c. with plain water only
b. at least ½ hour before the first food d. after each meal
158. By reducing microbial flora, antibiotics decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. This is due
to: a. increased extent of GI metabolism
b. alteration of Vitamin K production by microorganism
c. interruption of the enterohepatic circulation
d. reduced absorption of oral contraceptives
159. Food does NOT alter the activity of theophylline significantly when the drug is administered in;
a. a controlled-release form c. a transdermal patch
b. an immediate-release formulation d. injection form
160. A diagram that shows how and where specific retail merchandise should be placed on
shelves or display cabinets.
a. Pharmacy Lay-out b. Pharmagram c. Planogram d. Pharmacy design
161. The following drug interaction may manifest alteration of pH, EXCEPT:
 a. Warfarin + Phenylbutazone c. Antacid + Bisacodyl
b. Antacid + Salicylates d. Antacid + Ketoconazole
162. Consumption of cheese or Chianti wine with Isocarboxazid can lead to;
a. increased bleeding c. hypertensive crisis
b. diminished antihypertensive activity d. decreased antidepressant property
163. Warfarin and sulfonamide given concurrently leads to increased anticoagulant effect. This may be
due to;
a. displacement of warfarin from protein-binding sites c. increased absorption of warfarin
b. stimulation of warfarin’s metabolism d. decrease vit. K synthesis
164. Administration of Ketoconazole to a patient who is currently taking Omeprazole would likely result to:
a. decreased effectiveness of the antifungal agent
b. decreased activity of the PPI
c. enhanced activity of antifungal agent
d. increased activity of the antiulcer drug
165. Absorption of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors can be enhanced with food with the exception of:
a. rosuvastatin b. atorvastatin c. simvastatin d. pravastatin
166. Which of the following anti -cholesterol drugs are best taken at night?
a. niacin b. gemfibrozil c. colestipol d. lovastatin
167. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what mechanism?
a. alteration of pH c. adsorption
b. complexation d. alteration of motility rate
168. Moxifloxacin product labeling recommends that this antibacterial agent should be taken at least 4
hours before or 8 hours after taking;
I. Antacid preparations II. Multivitamins with Zinc III. Yogurt
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
169. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the interactions of Penicillamine?
I. Absorption of penicillamine is reduced by aluminum and iron salts through chelation mechanism
II. Antacid and penicillamine should be administered at least 2 hours apart
III. Penicillamine should be administered with metals preparation
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
170. The consumption of grapefruit juice has been reported to increase the serum concentration of some
drugs. Which of the following drugs can be affected by grapefruit juice?
I. Amlodipine II. Lovastatin III. Cyclosporine
a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. I, II, and III
171. If an antacid is to be taken with ketoconazole, the two drugs be administered at least _____ apart to
avoid interaction. a. 1 hr b. 2 hrs c. 3 hrs d. 4 hrs
172. Antibiotics enhance the pharmacologic action and increase the toxicity of the following drugs due to
alteration of GI flora. I. anticoagulant II. oral contraceptives III. digoxin
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III
173. What is the mechanism of interaction between methotrexate and salicylates?
a. Induction of metabolism c. displacement from plasma protein binding site
b. inhibition of metabolism d. additive effect
174. Ampicillin will produce a false-positive reactions when testing for the presence of glucose in urine
using the following, EXCEPT:
a. CLINISTIX ® b. CLINITEST ® c. Benedict's Solution d. Fehling's Solution
175. Concurrent use of alcohol with benzodiazepines result to;
I. Hyperexcitability II. Hallucinations III. Coma
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. III only
176. The activity of drug metabolizing enzymes can be increased by;
I. Phenobarbital II. Grapefruit juice III. Smoking
a. I and II b. I and III c. III only d. I, II and III
177. Which of the following interactions is not a harmful food-drug interaction?
a. Raw green salads with warfarin on DVT prophylaxis
b. Milk with doxycycline
c. Grapefruit juice and cyclosporine
d. Omeprazole beads in apple sauce
178. Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use of a drug interaction?
a. Citalopram and MAOI to treat depression
b. ASA and warfarin to enhance anticoagulation
c. Levofloxacin taken with antacid to decrease GI intolerance
d. Penicillin with probenecid to prolong the antibacterial effect to treat STD
179. The mechanism behind Probenecid and Penicillin interaction is;
a. enzyme induction c. alteration in gastric emptying
b. enzyme inhibition d. competition for tubular secretion
180. Indinavir Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) taken concomitantly with St. John’s Wort for depression leads
to decrease ART efficacy. This is most likely due to;
 a. Additive toxicity c. Enzyme induction
b. Antagonistic effect d. Enzyme Inhibition
181. Drugs having similar pharmacological effects include; I. antipsychotics – antihistamines –alcohol
II. antipsychotic – TCA’s – trihexyphenidyl III. Thiazide diuretics – oral hypoglycemics
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. III only

182. Grapefruit juice decreases the efficacy of Allegra (fexofenadine) by;

a. increasing the activity of drug metabolizing enzymes c. increasing the absorption of drugs
b. inhibiting the cytochrome P450 enzymes d. blocking the transport of drug
183. Chronic use of alcohol may;
a. increases the enzyme activity c. decrease gastric emptying
b. inhibits hepatic enzymes d. enhance elimination of other agents taken concurrently
184. Inducers of CYP3A4 include all of the following EXCEPT;
a. Phenobarbital b. Cimetidine c. St,John’s wort d. Carbamazepine
185. Enzyme inhibition may be precipitated by all of the following EXCEPT;
a. Use of macrolide antibiotics c. Acute use of alcohol by non alcoholic individuals
b. Intake of Rifampin d. Consumption of grapefruit juice
186. TRUE statements include;
I. HIV protease inhibitors are extensively metabolized via CYP3A4 pathways
II. Rifampin is a strong enzyme inhibitor that is contraindicated with HIV protease inhibitors
III. Concurrent use of HIV protease inhibitor and enzyme inducers could compromise the effectiveness of
the antiretroviral regimen for HIV infection
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. I and II
187. A smoker was prescribed with lorazepam. What would likely happen if he continuously smokes
while on the drug therapy?
a. Prolonged sleep c. no effect
b. Insomnia d. coma and death
188. Phenobarbital can increase the rate of metabolism of warfarin. The result of this interaction is;
a. increased anticonvulsant property of Phenobarbital c. increased risk of thrombus formation
b. decreased anticonvulsant property of Phenobarbital d. decreased risk of thrombus formation
189. The efficacy of estrogens and progestins as an oral contraceptive may be reduced by drugs that can
increase their metabolism. Which of the following agents can cause that interaction?
I. Phenobarbital II. Ampicillin III. Rifampin
a. I, II and III b. I and III c. I and II d. II and III
190. This agent reduces the action of levodopa by accelerating its decarboxylation to dopamine in the
peripheral tissues.
a. carbidopa b. pyridoxine c. entacapone d. dopamine
191. Alcohol-disulfiram interaction; I. A well-known example of stimulation of metabolism
II. The interaction has been used to advantage in the treatment of alcoholism
III. The interaction results in accumulation of excessive quantities of acetaldehyde and development of
unpleasant effects
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III
192. Allopurinol is an inhibitor of xanthine oxidase enzyme. This mechanism is the basis for;
a. its use in the treatment of gout c. both a and b
b. its interaction with mercaptupurine and azathioprine d. none of these
193. This antidiarrheal agent is unlikely to cause CNS adverse events in part because p-glycoprotein
prevents it from crossing the blood-brain barrier.
a. attapulgite b. bismuth subnitrate c. loperamide d. diphenoxylate
194. Prolonged use of this agent can cause potassium depletion. I. diuretics II. cathartics
III. corticosteroids
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I only
195. Concurrent use of MAOI’s with TCA’s should be avoided because it could result to:
I. severe atropine-like syndrome II. tremors and convulsions III. vascular collapse
a. I, II and III [acid) b. I and II c. II and III d. I only
196. Vitamin C may increase the urinary excretion of;
a. salicylates b. penicillin c. probenecid d. amphetamines
197. The renal clearance of Lithium is reduced by NSAID’s as a result of the action of the anti-
inflammatory agents to;
a. inhibits the renal tubular secretion of Lithium c. inhibit renal prostaglandin synthesis
b. alters the urinary pH d. altering the electrolyte concentration
198. Hyperkalemia results when Triamterene (Dyrenium) is co-administered with;
a. Capoten b. Medrol c. Diuril d. Kalium durules
199. Trihexyphenidyl, amitriptyline and chlorpromazine would result to;
a. additive hypotensive effects c. additive anticholinergic activity
b. antagonistic effect d. additive hypoglycemic property
200. Thiazides and certain other diuretics; I. enhance digitalis toxicity II. increase hypouricemic
effect of antigout drugs III. increase lithium toxicity
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III

201. Glibenclamide-thiazide diuretics interaction may result to;

a. increase potassium level c. platelet inhibition
b. decreases oral hypoglycemic effect d. sodium depletion
202. Concurrent administration of Enalapril and Spironolactone should be used with caution because of
the risk of; a. hypokalemia b. hyperkalemia c. dehydration d. excessive CNS depression
203. Sulfathiazole and Trimethoprim is a;
a. harmful antagonistic combination c. beneficial antagonistic combination
b. beneficial synergistic combination d. harmful synergistic combination
204. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a. Displacement of warfarin from its protein binding sites by sulfonamides may lead to thrombosis.
b. Antibiotics, by reducing the GI flora, may interrupt the enterohepatic recirculation of oral
contraceptives resulting to reduction in the serum estrogen concentrations.
c. Probenecid decreases renal excretion of penicillin by blocking the active tubular secretion of the
antibacterial drug.
d. Phenobarbital, antihistamine, and alcohol have additive sedative activity.
205. The bioavailability of propranolol is increased if taken with;
a. coffee b. carbohydrate-rich food c. high-fat content meal d. protein-rich food
206. TRUE statements regarding the effect of food/diet include;
I. Calcium ion in dairy products chelates tetracycline thus decreasing its absorption
II. Felodipine (Plendil) - plasma level is decreased by grapefruit juice
III. Plasma concentration of cetirizine and loratidine are decreased by fruit juices
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. I and II
207. Aloe vera-thiazide diuretics interaction may result to;
a. increase potassium level c. platelet inhibition
b. hypokalemia d. sodium depletion
208. Too rapid infusion of TPN may lead to this complication.
a. Sepsis b. Hyperglycemia c. Anemia d. Hyperammonemia
209. Which of the following statements characterize an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
I. a reaction that is noxious and unintended
II. may occur at doses normally used for prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy of disease
III. side effects and allergy are ADR
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
210. Any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm while
the medication is in the control of the health care professional, patient, or consumer is termed as;
a. adverse drug event c. side effect
b. medication error d. anaphylaxis
211. An expected and known effect of a drug that is not the intended therapeutic outcome is termed as;
a. allergy c. side effect
b. idiosyncratic reaction d. hypersensitivity reaction
212. Patients who are more likely to experience ADR include;
I. Elderly II. Obese and malnourished III. With chronic disease
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
213. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding risk factors of ADR?
a. Young adults are predisposed more to drug toxicity than elderly.
b. Female have lesser risk of developing ADR than male.
c. Taking multiple prescription medicines, OTC drugs and alternative products increase the risk of
experiencing an ADR.
d. Aminoglycosides, digoxin, and theophylline ADR are attributed to genetic factors.
214. ADR may be classified according to their onset or timing of reaction. Which of these is occurring
within 24 hours of drug exposure?
a. acute b. subacute c. latent d. mild
215. ADR may also be classified according to their severity. What class requires active treatment of
adverse reaction, or further testing or evaluation to assess?
a. mild b. moderate c. severe d. significant
216. A latent ADR appears; a. within 1 hour of exposure b. with 1 week of exposure
c. within 2 or more days of exposure d. within 2 or more weeks of exposure
217. FDA defines significant ADRs as those that are; I. Life-threatening II. Permanently or
significantly disabling III. Require or substantially prolong hospitalization
a. I and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I, II and III
218. Type F ADR or failure of therapy may be due to; I. patient compliance
II. antimicrobial resistance III. drug interactions
 a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III
219. Type B ADR can be described as; I. unrelated to the drug's pharmacological effect II. not dose
dependent III. common, predictable and less serious than Type A
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I and III
220. Idiosyncratic reactions are considered; I. Type A II. predictable III. non-immunologic
a. I only b. III only c. I and II d. I and III
221. Carcinogenicity is under what type of ADR?
a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D
222. Extensive sedation caused by decreased clearance of a usual dose of a benzodiazepine is an
example of:
a. Type E b. Type F c. Type B d. Type A
223. Anaphylaxis from a beta-lactam antibiotics is an immunologic reaction classed as:
a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
224. Cardiotoxicity is a delayed ADR associated with which chemotherapeutic agent?
a. Doxurubicin b. Paclitaxel c. Vincristine d. Cisplatin
225. Untoward reaction linked to Chloramphenicol include: I. Aplastic anemia II. Gray baby syndrome
III. SLE-like syndrome
a. I and II c. I and III d. II and III d. I, II, and III
226. Mrs. K experienced skin rash, which are large, deep red and look darker at the center after taking a
beta-lactam antibiotic for 3 days. The ADR is suspected to be;
a. photosensitivity reaction c. erythema multiforme
b. toxic epidermal necrolysis d. serum sickness
227. The adverse effect that may be produced by cough and cold remedies containing
phenylpropanolamine is;
a. GI disturbances b. Serum sickness c. Increase in BP d. Decrease in BP
228. Phocomelia is a teratogenic effect associated with the use of;
a. tretinoin b. thalidomide c. phenytoin d. phenothiazines
229. NSAID’s induced ADR include; I. cardiotoxicity II. nephropathy III. GI ulcer
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
230. Ototoxicity or hearing loss is an ADR commonly associated with the use of;
I. Phenothiazines II. Loop agents III. Aminoglycosides
a. I, II, and III b. I and III c. II and III d. I and II
231. Severe myopathy and rhabdomyolysis can be induced by which group of agents?
a. Statins b. NSAIDs c. Sulfonylureas d. Beta-blockers
232. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:
I. Parkinson’s disease II. Steven-Johnson’s disease III. Contact dermatitis
a. I, II, and III b. I and II c. I and II d. II and III
233. Which of the following is an idiosyncratic reaction?
a. Anaphylaxis from penicillin
b. Malignant hyperthermia from antipsychotic
c. Flushing and hypotension from Vancomycin
d. Hypoglycemia from oral sulfonylureas
234. Which of the following anti-TB drugs will cause peripheral neuritis in slow acetylators?
a. Isoniazid b. Ethambutol c. PZA d. Rifampin
235. This analgesic-antipyretic drug should not be used in children with chickenpox or flu.
a. Paracetamol b. ibuprofen c. Mefenamic acid d. aspirin
236. Reye’s syndrome has been associated with the use of which analgesic drug?
a. naproxen b. celecoxib c. aspirin d. paracetamol
237. Non-immunologic drug reactions include all of the following EXCEPT;
a. Stevens-Johnson syndrome c. Thrush while taking antibiotics
b. Dry mouth from antihistamines d. Hepatotoxicity from methotrexate
238. Type III immunologic drug reactions is described as;
a. cytotoxic b. idiosyncratic c. immune complex d. delayed cell mediated
239. An example of Type IV hypersensitivity reactions;
a. urticaria c. serum sickness
b. thrombocytopenia d. allergic contact dermatitis
240. Lupus-like syndrome is associated with which agent?
a. sulfonamides b. hydralazine c. anticonvulsants d. carbamazepine
241. Development of anemia with the use of anti-oxidant drugs in the presence of glucose-6 phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency is an example of;
a. intolerance c. pseudo-allergic reaction
b. hypersensitivity d. idiosyncratic reaction
242. Clinical manifestations of Ig-E type immune drug reactions include all of the following EXCEPT;
a. Urticaria b. bronchospasm c. anaphylaxis d. hemolytic anemia
243. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding conjunctival pigmentation as an ADR?
I. Phenytoin can cause this effect
II. It is the grayish-brown discoloration of the conjunctiva
III. It is dose related
a. I and II b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
244. ADR associated with the use of phenytoin include; I. gingival hyperplasia II. Steven’s-
Johnson Syndrome III. hirsutism
a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. I, II and III
245. This agent can cause pulmonary toxicity.
a. penicillin b. busulfan c. diethylstilbestrol d. aspirin
246. Phototoxic reactions are manifested as; a. bright or dark red macules b. exaggerated
sun-burn like reactions c. malaise and fever d. erosions and hemorrhagic crusting of
the lips, oral mucosa, conjunctiva, urethra and anogenital regions
247. A delayed allergic response by the immune system against a large amount of foreign protein or
hapten that have entered the bloodstream.
a. Anaphylactic reaction c. Serum sickness
b. Pseudo-allergic reactions d. Lupus-like syndrome
248. Type C ADR include all of the following EXCEPT; a. Adrenal suppression due to prolonged
corticosteroid administration b. Drug dependency c. Analgesic nephropathy
d. Tardive dyskinesia from antipsychotics
249. Opiate withdrawal is an ADR classified as; a. Type F b. Type E c. Type D d. Type C
250. Development of diarrhea with antibiotic therapy due to altered gastrointestinal bacterial flora is an
ADR due to; a. overdose b. side effect c. secondary effect d. drug interaction
251. Which of the following toxicities (ADR) is due to overdosage?
a. sedation with antihistamines c. tachycardia from albuterol
b. hepatic failure due to paracetamol d. diarrhea from amoxicillin
252. Following a single, small dose of ASA, a patient experienced ringing on both ears. This reaction
could be due to;
a. pharmacologic side effect of ASA c. allergic reaction to ASA
b. intolerance to the dose of salicylate d. secondary pharmacologic side effect
253. A drug-induced reaction associated with folate antagonist is; a. dermatologic reactions
b. serum sickness c. megaloblastic anemia d. cirrhosis
254. A patient with on stage C heart failure complains on dry, and persistent cough. Which of the drugs
for HF could be implicated with the patients’ complaint?
a. ACE inhibitor b. Beta blocker c. Calcium channel blocker d. Digoxin
255. Bronchoconstriction may be precipitated by; I. atenolol II. aspirin III. tartrazine
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and II d. I only
256. Which of the following is NOT an anticholinergic effect? a. dry mouth b. urinary retention
c. tachycardia d. diarrhea
257. Situations or conditions that may lead to tachycardia include; I. hypoglycemia II. large
consumption of energy beverages III. concomitant administration of theophylline and erythromycin
a. I, II and III c. I and III c. I and II d. II only
258. Incidence of falls and injuries are associated with the; I. Prazosin II. Diphenhydramine
III. Diazepam
a. I, II and III c. I and III c. I and II d. II only
259. Orthostatic hypotension is common to; I. TCA’s II. Phenothiazines III. alpha-agonists
a. I, II and III c. I and III c. I and II d. III only
260. Extrapyramidal effect, such as Parkinson-like reaction is commonly associated with which group of
drugs? a. antidepressants c. neuromuscular blockers
b. antipsychotics d. all of these
261. Drugs that should NOT be given with levodopa include all of the following EXCEPT;
a. nonselective MAOIs b. Pyridoxine c. COMT inhibitors d. Antipsychotics
262. Due to sodium depletion, diuretics increase the toxicity of;
a. digoxin b. antigout drugs c. oral hypoglycemic d. lithium
263. Severe headache, hypertensive crisis and cardiac arrhythmias are toxicities than can develop if
MAOIs are taken with; a. TCAs b. Sympathomimetics c. NSAIDs d. Diuretics
264. TCAs can inhibit the uptake of this drug into nerve terminal resulting to reduced antihypertensive
action. a. clonidine b. prazosin c. guanethidine d. captopril
265. Ergot alkaloids can;
a. worsens ulcer c. induce hypothyroidism
b. precipitate gouty arthritis d. aggravate psychosis
266. Atropine-like reactions can be observed in; I. Benztropine II. Imipramine III. Phenelzine
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I and III
267. Sildenafil is contraindicated with organic nitrates because the interaction could lead to:
a. hypertensive crisis c. hypokalemia
b. severe hypotension d. arrhythmias
268. Respiratory depression with a characteristic pin point pupil is associated with overdosage of:
a. barbiturates b. benzodiazepines c. opiates d. alcohol
269. Masculinization of the female fetus can result after uterine exposure to;
a. androgens b. estrogens c. carbamazepine d. thalidomide
270. Amphotericin B, a systemic antifungal agent is; I. ototoxic II. hepatotoxic III. nephrotoxic
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I only d. III only
271. Newborns exposed repeatedly to benzyl alcohol, a preservative in many injectable products, may
lead to a potentially fatal condition referred to as;
a. Cushing syndrome c. Gray -baby syndrome
b. Gasping syndrome d. Reye’s syndrome
272. Drug-induced hyperthyroidism could be associated with which of the following drugs for arrhythmia?
a. Amiodarone b. Verapamil c. Quinidine d. Propranolol
273. Kava-kava and acetaminophen interaction may lead to;
a. increase bleeding time c. increased hepatic toxicity
b. autoimmune disease flare d. increase and prolong sympathomimetic effect
274. Herbal products that increase risk of bleeding include; I. Ginkgo II. Feverfew III. Dong quai
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. II and III d. I and III
275. This herb must be used in caution as it may be carcinogenic.
a. Licorice b. Ma Huang c. St. John’s wort d. Comfrey
276. Asian and Siberian ginseng may be used to increase physical stamina. These herbs should be
avoided by patients; I. with hypertension II. with autoimmune diseases III. on warfarin therapy
a. I, II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. I only
277. Which of the following statements is correct regarding St. John’s wort?
a. It’s safety in pregnancy is unknown c. May interact with SSRI
b. It is not helpful in treating mild depression d. May interact with milk and cheese
278. A patient, 32 years old has a family history of heart disease and would like to considered herbal
supplement to reduce the risk of developing atherosclerosis as he aged. Which of the following could be
beneficial to him? a. saw palmetto b. garlic c. ginger d. valerian
279. Garlic should be used with caution by diabetics since it may increase the release of: a. serotonin
b. adrenaline c. histamine d. insulin
280. Saw palmetto is indicated for the treatment of: a. micturition difficulty b. cirrhosis
c. fatigue d. convalescence
281. For medications requiring administration at school or day care, pharmacists should also explore
problems with; I. Dosage formulation II. Taste or texture aversion III. Dosing frequency
a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I, II and III
282. This herb is considered unsafe since it may cause MI, strokes or seizures.
a. Garlic b. Dong quai c. Kava d. Ma Huang
283. Hepatotoxic herbs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Kava b. Germander c. Milk thistle d. Liferoot
284. The patient asks the pharmacist about a supplement that could prevent colds and flus during the
winter months. Which of the following could be recommended?
a. Feverfew b. Black Cohosh c. Ginkgo d. echinacea
285. The classification of drug according to the degree of their potential risk during pregnancy is
contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant.
a. Category A b. Category B c. Category C d. Category X
286. Classification of drug according to the degree of their potential risk during pregnancy as showed no
risk in controlled studies.
a. Category A b. Category B c. Category C d. Category D
287. FDA Pregnancy Category D; I. Studies show human fetal risk II. Contraindicated in pregnancy
III. Potential benefit in pregnant women may outweigh risk
a. I, II and III b. I and III c. II and III d. II only
288. Etretinate, a derivative of vitamin ____, is a potent teratogen in human and should be discontinued
several months before pregnancy.
a. A b. B c. C d. D
289. The most teratogenic agent in the first trimester of pregnancy, but can also cause malformation
during the second and third trimester is;
a. Warfarin b. Finasteride c. Ethanol d. Phenytoin
290. This drug increases the risk of neural tube defects. I. Valproic acid II. Phenytoin
III. Carbamazepine
a. I and II b. II and III c. I, II and III d. III only

291. Neural tube defects are lowered in women who are taking;
a. ascorbic acid b. iron c. riboflavin d. folic acid
292. The use of these agents by pregnant women may cause ductus arteriosus to close prematurely and
could result in pulmonary hypertension in newborn.
a. NSAIDs b. anticoagulants c. anticonvulsants d. antineoplastics
293. Based on pregnancy risk, Tretinoin administered topically is classified as;
a. Category A b. Category B c. Category D d. Category X
294. This drug has been used therapeutically to enhance milk production.
a. metoclopramide b. methyldopa c. haloperidol d. dicyclomine
295. FDA Pregnancy Category X drug include; I. Rosuvastatin II. PTU III. Finasteride
a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. I only
296. Tetracycline should not be used in children because it can cause; a. neonatal apnea b. anemia
c. mottling of teeth d. Ebstein anomaly
297. Cleft lip and cleft palate are congenital abnormalities associated with the use these agents during
pregnancy.
a. Alcohol b. Cigarette smoking c. Hydantoins d. Lithium
298. Congenital malformation characterized by craniofacial abnormalities is referred to as;
a. Fetal hydantoin syndrome c. Ebstein anomaly
b. Fetal alcohol syndrome d. Neural tube defects
299. Which among these teratogens may compromise the fetal renal system?
a. warfarin b. finasteride c. ACE inhibitor d. lithium
300. Which of the following statements regarding the teratogenic effect of drugs is correct?
I. May lead to physical malformations and/or mental abnormalities.
II. Risk is lowest on the first trimester of pregnancy.
III. Category B drugs means the chance of fetal harm is remote.
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I and III d. III only