Mark Scheme (Results)

Summer 2023

Pearson Edexcel GCE

In Chemistry (9CH0)
Paper 01: Advanced Inorganic and
Physical Chemistry
 Edexcel and BTEC Qualifications
Edexcel and BTEC qualifications come from Pearson, the world’s leading
learning company. We provide a wide range of qualifications including
academic, vocational, occupational and specific programmes for employers.
For further information visit our qualifications websites at www.edexcel.com
or www.btec.co.uk for our BTEC qualifications.

Alternatively, you can get in touch with us using the details on our contact us
page at www.edexcel.com/contactus.

If you have any subject specific questions about this specification that require
the help of a subject specialist, you can speak directly to the subject team at
Pearson.
Their contact details can be found on this link:
www.edexcel.com/teachingservices.

You can also use our online Ask the Expert service at www.edexcel.com/ask.
You will need an Edexcel username and password to access this service.

Pearson: helping people progress, everywhere

Our aim is to help everyone progress in their lives through education. We
believe in every kind of learning, for all kinds of people, wherever they are in
the world. We’ve been involved in education for over 150 years, and by
working across 70 countries, in 100 languages, we have built an international
reputation for our commitment to high standards and raising achievement
through innovation in education. Find out more about how we can help you
and your students at: www.pearson.com/uk

Summer 2023
Question Paper Log Number P71912A
Publications Code 9CH0_01_2306_MS
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2023
General Marking Guidance

• All candidates must receive the same

treatment. Examiners must mark the first candidate in
exactly the same way as they mark the last.
• Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates
must be rewarded for what they have shown they can do
rather than penalised for omissions.
• Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme
not according to their perception of where the grade
boundaries may lie.
• There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark
scheme should be used appropriately.
• All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be
awarded. Examiners should always award full marks if
deserved, i.e. if the answer matches the mark
scheme. Examiners should also be prepared to award
zero marks if the candidate’s response is not worthy of
credit according to the mark scheme.
• Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will
provide the principles by which marks will be awarded
and exemplification may be limited.
• When examiners are in doubt regarding the application
of the mark scheme to a candidate’s response, the team
leader must be consulted.
• Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the
candidate has replaced it with an alternative response.
Using the Mark Scheme

Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to penalise. This does NOT mean giving credit for incorrect or inadequate answers, but
it does mean allowing candidates to be rewarded for answers showing correct application of principles and knowledge. Examiners should therefore
read carefully and consider every response: even if it is not what is expected it may be worthy of credit.

The mark scheme gives examiners:

• an idea of the types of response expected
• how individual marks are to be awarded
• the total mark for each question
• examples of responses that should NOT receive credit.

/ means that the responses are alternatives and either answer should receive full credit.
( ) means that a phrase/word is not essential for the award of the mark, but helps the examiner to get the sense of the expected answer.
Phrases/words in bold indicate that the meaning of the phrase or the actual word is essential to the answer.
ecf/TE/cq (error carried forward) means that a wrong answer given in an earlier part of a question is used correctly in answer to a later part of the same
question.

Candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark. Make sure that the answer makes sense. Do not give credit for correct
words/phrases which are put together in a meaningless manner. Answers must be in the correct context.

Quality of Written Communication

Questions which involve the writing of continuous prose will expect candidates to:
• write legibly, with accurate use of spelling, grammar and punctuation in order to make the meaning clear
• select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose and to complex subject matter
• organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist vocabulary when appropriate.
Full marks will be awarded if the candidate has demonstrated the above abilities.
Questions where QWC is likely to be particularly important are indicated (QWC) in the mark scheme, but this does not preclude others.
 Question
Answer Mark
Number
1(a) The only correct answer is B (2) (1)

A is not correct because it is an s-block element

C is not correct because it is a p-block element

D is not correct because it is a d-block element in Period 5

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
1(b) An answer that makes reference to the following point: Allow ‘d orbital(s)’ for ‘d-subshell’ throughout (1)
Do not award ‘d block orbital’
• an element which has its last electron added to a d-subshell Allow an element with its valence / outer /
(according to the Aufbau principle) outermost / last / highest energy electron in
the d-subshell
Allow outer occupied orbital is d
Allow electronic configuration ends with d-subshell
Allow 3d specified

Ignore just ‘outer orbital is d’

Ignore reference to forming stable ions with
incomplete d orbitals
Ignore general properties of transition metals e.g. has
variable oxidation states

Do not award just ‘ has electron(s) in d orbitals /

d-subshell’

(Total for Question 1 = 2 marks)

 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
2(a) An answer that makes reference to the following points: Mark independently (2)

Allow area / for region / space

• a region / space (in an atom) in which there is a high probability of Allow a percentage between 90 and 98% for the
finding electron(s) / electron(s) are (most) likely to be found (1) probability
Allow just ‘a region / space (in an atom) that
holds electrons’
Allow an area of high electron density where an
electron can be predicted to be found
Allow region / space around the nucleus that
holds electrons

Ignore just ‘where the electron(s) are’

Ignore energy level / sub-level

• containing (a maximum of ) 2 / a pair of electrons (with opposite

spin) (1)
 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
2(b) An answer that makes reference to the following points: s orbital p orbital (2)

• s orbital shown as a sphere / circle (1)

• p orbital shown as a figure of 8 / dumb-bell shaped (1)

Allow p orbital in any orientation

Lower p orbital does not need to be shaded
Allow all 3 p orbitals shown separately or altogether

Ignore x, y and/or z axes marked

Do not award p-orbital lobes of very different sizes

Note Do not award 2 p orbitals shown as a clover shape

unless labelled as separate orbitals (px etc)

Question
Answer Mark
Number
2(c) The only correct answer is A ([Ar]4s13d10) (1)

B is not correct because a full d-subshell is more stable

C is not correct because the atom does not have any 4p electrons

D is not correct because the atom does not have any 4p electrons

(Total for Question 2 = 5 marks)

 Question
Answer Mark
Number
3(a) The only correct answer is D (bromide ions reduce sulfuric acid forming sulfur dioxide) (1)

A is not correct because bromide ions reduce sulfuric acid

B is not correct because bromide ions reduce sulfuric acid

C is not correct because bromide ions are not strong enough reducing agents to form sulfur

Question
Answer Mark
Number
3(b)(i) The only correct answer is C (a cream precipitate forms that dissolves in concentrated ammonia only) (1)

A is not correct because bromide ions do not form a white precipitate

B is not correct because bromide ions do not form a white precipitate

D is not correct because the cream precipitate does not dissolve in dilute ammonia
 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
3(b)(ii) An answer that makes reference to the following point: Allow name or formula of ion but if both are (1)
given, both must be correct
• to react with / remove carbonate / CO32− / hydroxide / OH− (ions, which
could lead to a false positive) Allow other specified anions that would form
a precipitate with Ag+/ AgNO3 e.g.
hydrogencarbonate / sulfite

Ignore just ‘ to prevent a false positive’

Ignore just ‘ it reacts with impurities’
Ignore just ‘ so it only reacts with Br− ‘

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
3(b)(iii) An explanation that makes reference to the following points: Mark independently (2)
• nitric acid / HNO3 (1) Do not award incorrect formula
for nitric acid / use of NH3

• so that the anion (from the acid) does not form a precipitate (with silver Allow forms a precipitate with HCl / H2SO4 /
ions) (1) other acids (giving a false positive)
Allow so it doesn’t form precipitates with HCl
/ H2SO4 / other acids (giving a false positive)
Allow solid / ppt / ppte for precipitate
Ignore colour of precipitate
 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
3(c)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following points: (2)

molten
compound

heat
• a diagram of a simple electrical circuit, containing electrodes, Allow alternatives to bulb e.g. buzzer / ammeter
power supply and a bulb in series (1) Allow low voltage supply instead of cell
Allow a cell and electrodes dipping into the liquid
but with no bulb / ammeter etc.
Allow cell with connecting wires to filter paper on
microscope slide
Ignore missing heat / labels for molten compound /
/electrodes, wires, etc.
Do not award voltmeter instead of cell unless
electrodes made from two different materials are
specified

Allow correct observation from alternatives

• bulb lights (1)
buzzer – rings
ammeter - shows a current
Allow observation for formation of iodine or
chlorine e.g. brown colour / purple vapour / bubbles
/ green gas
Question
Answer Mark
Number
3(c)(ii) The only correct answer is B (square planar) (1)

A is not correct because the central iodine atom only has four atoms attached and has two lone pairs of electrons

C is not correct because the central iodine atom has four bond pairs and two lone pairs of electrons

D is not correct because the central iodine atom only has four atoms attached and has two lone pairs of electrons

Question
Answer Mark
Number
3(c)(iii) The only correct answer is D (5.0 × 10−3) (1)

A is not correct because the value is greater than 1, which implies equilibrium lies to product side

B is not correct because the value is greater than 1, which implies equilibrium lies to product side

C is not correct because the value of 1 implies equilibrium concentrations of reactants and products are similar in magnitude

(Total for Question 3 = 9 marks)

Question
Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
4 An explanation that makes reference the following Allow marks for any relevant annotations on the graph (6)
trends: Ignore reference to boiling point
Ignore general trends across the period
Na, Mg and Al
• Na, Mg and Al have metallic bonding (in a giant Allow description of metallic bonding – attraction between cations and
lattice) (1) delocalised electrons
Ignore aluminium missing from answer
Do not award simple molecular / London forces / ionic for any of these metals

• charge on ion increases / (cation) radius Allow increasing number / more delocalised electrons
decreases / charge density increases (so strength Allow atomic radius decreases
of metallic bonding increases and melting Ignore nuclear charge / number of protons increases
temperature increases) (1) Ignore any explanation about why Al has similar melting temperature to Mg
Si
• Si is giant covalent (lattice) / giant molecular / Do not award silicon has metallic bonding / London forces
macromolecular (1)

• so a lot of energy required to break (many Allow a lot of energy is needed to overcome the electrostatic forces (in the
strong) covalent bonds (and it has the highest covalent bonds)
melting temperature) (1) Ignore covalent bonding is stronger than metallic bonding
P
• (large decrease from Si to) phosphorus as it Allow P4 molecules
consists of simple / discrete molecules / is Ignore formula of phosphorus even if incorrect
simple molecular (1) Do not award phosphorus has ionic / metallic bonding / permanent dipoles /
hydrogen bonding
• so only weak London forces (are broken on Allow London forces are weaker than covalent bonds / covalent bonds are
melting) (1) stronger than London forces
Allow not a lot of energy is required to overcome the (London) forces
Allow just ‘weak intermolecular forces’
Do not award covalent bonds broken in P
Allow dispersion / temporary dipole-induced dipole / instantaneous dipole / van
der Waals forces as alternatives to London forces throughout
Ignore abbreviations e.g. LDF / VDW / ID-ID
(Total Question 4 = 6 marks)
 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
5(a)(i) A graph that shows (2)
300 350 400 450 500 550 600
0

-10

-20

∆G
/ kJ mol−1
-30

-40

-50
Temperature / K
• suitable scale, points must cover at Allow break in x axis
least half the available space in both Allow x axis values at top or bottom of graph
directions (1) y axis must go in correct direction

Stand alone mark based on scale used

• all points plotted correctly and
Allow ± ½ a square
straight line of best fit (1)
 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
5(a)(ii) Example of calculation (3)

• deduction that gradient = −ΔSsystem (1) (y = mx + c so) m = −ΔSsystem

M1 could be subsumed within award of M2

• calculation of gradient (1) (36 ÷ (−200)) = −0.18 (kJ K−1 mol−1)

TE on graph in (i)
M2 can be subsumed within M3
Allow this left as a fraction e.g. -9/50
Penalise absence of negative sign once only in M1 and
M2

• calculation of ΔSsystem in J K−1 mol−1 (1) = (+)180 (J K−1 mol−1)

TE on M2
Correct answer, with or without working, scores (3)
Ignore SF except 1 SF
Do not award incorrect units but allow J K− mol−

Note
Allow use of 2 simultaneous equations or calculation of
intercept and substitution
Question
Answer Mark
Number
5(a)(iii) The only correct answer is C (intercept of the y axis) (1)

A is not correct because the value would have units of temperature

B is not correct because the value would have units of temperature and be a negative value in K

D is not correct because this value is − ΔH

Question
Answer Mark
Number
5(b) The only correct answer is C (moves to the left, mixture gets lighter) (1)

A is not correct because there are more particles on the right-hand side, so increase in P moves equilibrium to the left

B is not correct because there are more particles on the right-hand side, so increase in P moves equilibrium to the left and N2O4 is
colourless, so mixture lightens

D is not correct because N2O4 is colourless, so mixture lighten

(Total for Question 5 = 7 marks)

Question
Answer Mark
Number
6(a) The only correct answer is D (base acid acid base) (1)

A is not correct because HNO3 is the stronger acid

B is not correct because HNO3 is the stronger acid

C is not correct because C6H5COOH2+ is the conjugate acid, and NO3– is the conjugate base

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
6(b) An explanation that makes reference to the following points Allow reverse argument (2)

• as the sodium ion / Na+ is smaller / has a smaller ionic radius (but has Allow (the sodium ion’s) charge density is greater
the same charge) (1) / the (oppositely charged) ions are closer together
Ignore sodium ion has 1 less shell
Ignore atomic radius
Ignore just ‘sodium is smaller’
Ignore Na+ has less shielding
Do not award sodium ions have a higher charge

• so sodium benzoate has stronger ionic bonds / electrostatic forces Allow stronger attraction between ions
between ions (so more energy required to break the bonds) (1) Allow just ‘sodium benzoate has stronger bonds’
if ion mentioned / formula given in M1
Ignore reference to polarising power of cation /
distortion of anion
Do not award attraction of electrons to nucleus /
electronegativity
Do not award M2 if reference to other types of
bonding
 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
6(c)(i) Example of expression (1)
• expression for Ka
Ka = [C6H5COO−][H+]
[C6H5COOH]

Allow 6.28 x 10−5 instead of Ka

Allow [H3O+] for [H+]

Ignore missing Ka
Ignore state symbols, even if incorrect

Do not award
Ka = [H+]2
[C6H5COOH]

Do not award expression including [H2O]

Ignore expression with HA / A− instead of full

formulae

Do not award round brackets instead of [ ]

Question
Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
6(c)(ii) Example of calculation (4)

• calculation of concentration of H+ ions (1) 10−3.51 = 3.0903 × 10−4 (mol dm−3)

This can be subsumed in M2
• calculation of concentration of benzoic acid (1) 6.28 × 10−5 = (3.0903 × 10−4)2 ÷ [C6H5CO2H]
[C6H5CO2H] = (3.0903 × 10−4)2 ÷ 6.28 × 10−5
= 1.5207 × 10−3 (mol dm−3)
• calculation of moles of benzoic acid (1) = 1.5207 × 10−3 × (250÷1000)
= 3.8017 × 10−4 (mol)
• calculation of mass of benzoic acid (1) = 3.8017 × 10−4 × 122 = 0.046381 / 4.6381 x 10−2 (g)
Allow 46.381 mg
Alternative route for M2 to M4
• calculation of concentration of benzoic acid (1) [C6H5CO2H]eqm = 1.5207 x 10-3 = [C6H5CO2H]int - [H+]
[C6H5CO2H]int = [C6H5CO2H]eqm + [H+]
= 1.5207 x 10-3 + 3.0903 x 10-4
= 1.82973 x 10-3 (mol dm-3)

• calculation of moles of benzoic acid (1) 1.82973 x 10-3 / 4 = 4.5743 x 10-4 (mol)

• calculation of mass of benzoic acid (1) = 4.5743 x 10-4 × 122 = 0.055807 / 5.5807 x 10−2 (g)
Allow 55.807 mg

Allow TE throughout
Allow intermediate values shown as fractions
Ignore SF except 1SF
Ignore units
Final correct answer, with or without working scores 4 marks
Question
Answer Mark
Number
6(d)(i) The only correct answer is D (phenolphthalein) (1)

A is not correct because bromothymol blue does not change colour within the region of rapid change of pH of this weak acid-strong
base titration

B is not correct because litmus does not change colour within the region of rapid change of pH of this weak acid-strong base titration

C is not correct because methyl orange does not change colour within the region of rapid change of pH of this weak acid-strong base
titration
Question
Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
6(d)(ii) Example of calculation (3)

• calculation of heat released (1) 50 × 4.18 × 2.9 = 606.1 (J)

Allow 0.6061 kJ
Ignore any signs
• calculation of moles of quinic acid (1) (25 ÷ 1000) × 0.500 = 0.0125 (mol)

Ignore calculation of moles of NaOH

• calculation of standard enthalpy of neutralisation −606.1 = −48.5 (kJ mol−1)

and value in kJ mol−1 0.0125 x 1000
and correct sign (1)
Allow −30.305 (kJ mol−1) as TE if M2 lost for only
calculating mol NaOH
Allow −48500 J mol−1 (units essential)

Allow TE throughout
Allow intermediate values shown as fractions
Ignore SF except 1 SF
Ignore missing / incorrect units in M1 and M2
Correct final answer with or without working scores (3)
Penalise incorrect rounding once only e.g. 0.012 mol
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
6(d)(iii) An explanation that makes reference to the following points Allow ionise for dissociate throughout (2)

• HCN / the weak acid is only partially dissociated (but HCl is fully Allow HCN is not fully dissociated
dissociated) (1) Allow HCN dissociates less than HCl
Allow HCN produces a lower concentration
of H+ ions (from the same concentration of
acid as HCl)

• (so releases less energy when neutralised as) energy is needed to break Allow (some) energy is needed to complete
H-C bond(s) (in order to completely dissociate) (1) the dissociation (of HCN)
Allow (some) energy is needed to remove /
separate all the H+ ions
Ignore references to enthalpy of hydration of
ions
Ignore just energy is needed to break bonds
Do not award fewer H+ ions so less NaOH
needed for neutralisation
Do not award incorrect bond broken

If no other mark is awarded allow 1 for HCl is

fully dissociated so no energy is required to
break the H-Cl bond

(Total for Question 6 = 14 marks)

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
7(a) An answer that makes reference to the following points (2)

• (atoms with) the same atomic number / number of protons (1) Ignore atoms of the same element
Ignore comments about same number of
electrons
Do not award compounds

• but with a different mass number / number of neutrons (1) Do not award different number of
electrons

Note
Allow both M1 and M2 in terms of Cr
i.e.
M1 Cr has 24 protons
M2 but may have 26, 28, 29 or 30 /
different numbers of neutrons

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
7(b)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following point Allow numbers of electrons as subscripts (1)
but not as large numbers
• (1s2)2s22p63s23p63d4 Allow the 2p6 written as 2px22py22pz2 and
similar for 3p6
Ignore 1s2 repeated
Ignore 4s0
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
7(b)(ii) An explanation that makes reference to the following points: Allow reverse arguments (3)
Ignore references to group / period trends
• calcium forms a +2 ion more readily as (the sum of) its first and second Allow it takes 1735 (kJ mol−1) to form
ionisation energies is lower (1) Ca2+ but 2245 (kJ mol−1) to form Cr2+ so
calcium forms a +2 ion most easily
Allow just ‘the ionisation energies of
calcium are lower so it forms a +2 ion
more easily’

• as (calcium’s atomic number is lower so) its nuclear charge is less Allow calcium atoms have fewer protons
or Ignore shielding
(calcium’s metallic / atomic radius is greater so) its outer / valence
electrons are further from the nucleus (1)

• so the outer / valence electrons experience weaker attraction from the

nucleus (1)

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
7(c)(i) (1)
• green Allow violet
Ignore shades of colours e.g. pale / light
Do not award mixed colours e.g. blue-green
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
7(c)(ii) An explanation that makes reference to the following points Mark independently (2)

• the (highly charged, small) Cr3+ ion weakens / polarises / Allow Cr3+ forms dative bonds with the O (of H2O) so
distorts the O-H bonds (in the water ligands) (1) the H is less strongly attached

• allowing some water ligands to release hydrogen ions / to Accept M2 for correct equation
form the oxonium ion [Cr(H2O)6]3+ + H2O ⇌ [Cr(H2O)5OH]2+ + H3O+
or Allow [Cr(H2O)6]3+ ⇌ [Cr(H2O)5OH]2+ + H+
water molecule (from the solution) deprotonates (one of) the
Allow equations forming [Cr(H2O)4(OH)2]+
water ligands (1)
Allow just ‘deprotonation of water ligand occurs’
Allow H+ ions released / donated from water ligands

Ignore formation of Cr(H2O)3(OH)3 and any

chromium anions
Ignore an acid-base reaction occurs
Ignore chromium(III) hydroxide is amphoteric
Ignore reference to sulfate ions forming sulfuric acid

Do not award reference to ligand exchange

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
7(d) An answer that makes reference to the following points: (4)

• Eocell = −0.03V and so reaction / oxidation of chloride Allow Eocell = +0.03V for the reduction of chlorine (so
ions is not feasible (under standard conditions) (1) oxidation of chloride not feasible)
Allow Eqm 1 Eo is more negative / less positive
Allow proof using anti-clockwise rule

• (this is small so) changing the conditions may make Allow Eocell is close to 0V / only just negative (so some Cl−
Eocell positive so the oxidation reaction becomes feasible ions are oxidised)
(1)

• (it is possible under non-standard conditions if you) Allow increase the concentration of H+ / Cl−
increase the concentration of HCl / H+ / Cl‒ (1) Ignore increasing the concentration of Cr2O72− ions
Allow changing / increasing / decreasing the temperature

• so equilibrium 1 moves to RHS Allow so eqm 1 Eo becomes more positive / better at

or accepting electrons
equilibrium 2 moves to LHS Allow eqm 2 Eo becomes more negative / better at donating
(so oxidation of Cl− ions is more likely / feasible) (1) electrons
Allow Cl2 that forms escapes driving eqm 2 to LHS
Allow increasing the concentration of Cr2O72−ions moves
equilibrium 1 to RHS (so oxidation of Cl− ions is more likely
/ feasible)

(Total for Question 7 = 13 marks)

 Question
Acceptable Answers Additional Guidance Mark
Number
8 This question assesses the student’s ability to show a coherent and logically Guidance on how the mark scheme (6)
structured answer with linkages and fully sustained reasoning. should be applied:
The mark for indicative content
Marks are awarded for indicative content and for how the answer is structured and should be added to the mark for
shows lines of reasoning. lines of reasoning. For example, a
response with four indicative
The following table shows how the marks should be awarded for indicative content. marking points that is partially
Number of indicative marking Number of marks awarded for structured with some linkages and
points seen in answer indicative marking points lines of reasoning scores 4 marks
6 4 (3 marks for indicative content and
5-4 3 1 mark for partial structure and
3-2 2 some linkages and lines of
1 1 reasoning).
0 0 If there were no linkages between
the points, then the same indicative
The following table shows how the marks should be awarded for structure and lines marking points would yield and
of reasoning overall score of 3 marks (3 marks
Number of marks awarded for for indicative content and zero
structure of answer and sustained marks for linkages).
lines of reasoning
Answer shows a coherent logical structure 2 In general it would be expected
with linkages and fully sustained lines of that 5 or 6 indicative points would
reasoning demonstrated throughout get 2 reasoning marks, and 3 or 4
Answer is partially structured with some 1 indicative points would get 1 mark
linkages and lines of reasoning for reasoning, and 0, 1 or 2
indicative points would score zero
Answer has no linkages between points 0
and is unstructured marks for reasoning
Indicative Points

IP1 Similarity
both (increase the rate of a reaction) by providing an alternative mechanism / route
with lower activation energy (and are chemically unchanged at the end of the
reaction)

IP2 Heterogeneous / homogeneous

platinum is heterogenous / different physical state to reactants Allow specific states mentioned –
and Pt is a solid and the reactants are
gases and Mn2+ and the reactants
Mn2+ is homogenous / same physical state to reactants
are all in aqueous solution
Platinum Allow names / formulae of specific
IP3 reactants adsorb onto platinum (surface) reactants (CO and NO / NO2 /NOx)
and products (CO2 and N2)
IP4 the reactant bonds are weakened and the products are desorbed Allow active sites for platinum
surface
Allow broken for weakened
Mn2+
IP5 the negative ions repel so the reaction starts slowly Allow just MnO4– and C2O42–ions
repel (each other)
IP6 Mn2+ acts as an autocatalyst
Allow Mn2+ reduces MnO4– then
or
the Mn species / Mn3+ formed
the reaction then speeds up as Mn2+ catalyst forms oxidises the C2O42– ions
or
the reaction is faster between positive ions / Mn2+ and negative ions Allow Mn2+ acts as a catalyst as
Mn has a (wide range of) variable
oxidation states
(Total for Question 8 = 6 marks)
 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
9(a)(i) (2)
Allow O1−(g)

Ignore + ½O2(g) in left hand box

Penalise missing state symbols once only

Penalise incorrect / missing charges in each
species
Penalise addition of electrons once only

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
9(a)(ii) An explanation that makes reference to the following points: Reference to removing electron(s) scores (3)
(0) overall
• (first electron affinity is exothermic / negative) due to attraction between
(positive) nucleus (in neutral atom) and (incoming) electron (1)

• (second electron affinity is endothermic / positive) due to repulsion (1)

• between negative ion and (incoming) electron (1) Ignore just ‘negative species’
 Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
9(a)(iii) (3)
• expression based on Hess cycle (1) 2ΔatHo + (1462 +249.2 – 141.1 + 798 – 2969) = −31
This can be subsumed in M2

• calculation of missing value from cycle (1) 2ΔatHo = −31 − (1462 +249.2 – 141.1 + 798 – 2969) = 569.9
No TE on incorrect expression in M1

• calculation of ΔatHo (1) 569.9 ÷ 2 = (+) 284.95 (kJ mol−1)

TE on M2

Correct answer, with or without working, scores (3)

Ignore SF except 1 SF
Ignore units
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
9(b)(i) An answer that makes reference to two of the following points: Penalise use of atom / molecule / compound (2)
instead of ion once only
Ignore reference to standard conditions

• model assumes bonding is 100% / completely / purely ionic (1) Allow there is no covalent bonding / character
Allow no polarisation of ions / electron cloud
Allow electrons are fully transferred
Ignore almost 100% ionic

• the ions are (perfect) spheres (1) Allow no distortion of ions / electron cloud
Ignore circular
• the charge is distributed evenly across the ions / the ions are
Allow charge dispersed equally
point charges (1) Ignore ions with fixed charges

• ions are in contact with one another (1)

Question
Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
9(b)(ii) Penalise use of incorrect ions in M1 only (3)
An answer that makes reference to the following points Ignore reference to electronegativity

Ignore silver chloride is a polar molecule

• as the silver ion polarises / distorts the chloride ion / electron cloud Do not award if incorrect charges on ions
(1) Do not award if silver ion is larger than chloride ion

• so the bonding (is ionic and) has some covalent character (1) Ignore just ‘bonding is not purely ionic’
Do not award covalent with ionic character

• which is stronger (than ionic alone so experimental value is more Allow ‘releases more energy when bond forms’ (than
exothermic / more negative) (1) ionic alone so experimental value is more exothermic /
more negative)

(Total for Question 9 = 13 marks)

Question
Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
10(a) An answer that makes reference to the following points (1)

• dot-and-cross diagram for oxygen

Allow diagram without circles

Allow all dots or all crosses
Allow bond pairs shown axially X X
OO
If circles are drawn, allow electrons anywhere in the overlap
region / on the lines in the overlap region
Ignore inner shells
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
10(b) An answer that makes reference to the following points Allow abbreviations such as LDF / VDW as (4)
this has been penalised in q4
Allow H-bonds for hydrogen bonds

• the oxygen is only sparingly soluble (in water) (1) Allow not very soluble / slightly soluble /
low solubility / doesn’t dissolve very well

• oxygen has (only weak) London forces (between molecules) (1) Do not award any additional forces / bonds
between O2 molecules
• water has (London forces, dipole- dipole attractions and strong)
Allow this shown on a diagram
hydrogen bonds (between molecules) (1)

• the (intermolecular) forces between oxygen and water would be Allow the resultant forces between them
London forces would be London forces, which are not
and strong enough to overcome the hydrogen
which are weaker than the hydrogen bonds (in water) (1) bonds (in water)

Allow oxygen molecules are not able to

disrupt the hydrogen bonds between water
molecules

Allow dispersion / temporary dipole-induced

dipole / instantaneous dipole / van der Waals
as alternatives to London forces throughout

Ignore just ‘results in fewer hydrogen bonds

between water molecules’

Ignore hydrogen bonds between oxygen and

water
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
10(c)(i) Example of calculation (5)

• calculation of amount of Na2S2O3(aq) (1) (34.2 ÷ 1000) × 0.00518 = 1.7716 × 10−4 (mol)

• calculation of amount of I2(aq) (1) = (1.7716 × 10−4) ÷ 2 = 8.8578 × 10−5 (mol)

• calculation of amount of O2(aq) (1) = (8.8578 × 10−5) ÷ 2 = 4.4289 × 10−5 (mol)

• calculation of concentration of O2 in mol dm−3 (aq) (1) = 4.4289 × 10−5 × (1000/150) = 2.9526 × 10−4 (mol dm−3)

• calculation of concentration of O2 in g dm−3 (aq) (1) = 2.9526 10−4 × 32 = 9.4483 × 10−3 / 0.0094483 (g dm−3)
Allow steps in different orders
Allow TE throughout
Allow intermediate values quoted as fractions
Ignore SF except 1 SF
Ignore units even if incorrect
Correct answer, with or without working, scores (5)
Penalise incorrect rounding / truncation once only

Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
10(c)(ii) Example of calculation (1)

• calculation of concentration of O2 in ppm 9.4483 × 10−3 × (1000000 ÷ 1000)

= 9.4483 (ppm)
Allow TE from (i)
Ignore SF except 1 SF
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
10(d) An answer that makes reference to the following points Allow use of oxidation numbers instead of (4)
formulae of ions / molecules
Allow Mn4+ to represent manganese(IV) in
MnO2

• (some) Mn3+ (ions from half-cell B) will oxidise (other) Mn3+ (ions Allow Mn3+ is oxidised in one (half) equation
from half-cell A) and reduced in the other
and Allow Mn3+ is an oxidising agent in one (half)
(some) Mn3+ (ions) will reduce (other) Mn3+ ions (1) equation and a reducing agent in the other

• as Eo for half-cell B is more positive / higher than Eo for half-cell A M2 can be shown by anti-clockwise rule, eg
in table
or Ignore just Eocell is positive so reaction is
as Eocell = (+)0.56 V (1) feasible

• 2Mn3+(aq) + 2H2O(l) → Mn2+(aq) + MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) (1) Allow reversible arrow

Ignore state symbols

Ignore just redox

• disproportionation (reaction) (1)

(Total for Question 10 = 15 marks)

TOTAL FOR PAPER = 90 MARKS

Pearson Education Limited. Registered company number 872828
with its registered office at 80 Strand, London, WC2R 0RL, United Kingdom