DATE: _________________________

STUDENT NAME: _______________________________________________________________

TEACHER NAME: _______________________________________________________________

UNIT 4 BIOLOGY
Practice written examination
Duration: 15 minutes reading time, 1 hr 15 minutes writing time

QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOK

Structure of book
Section Number of Number of marks
questions
A 20 20
B 7 40
Total 60

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© Edrolo 2023
BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Instructions for Section A

Answer all questions in pencil on the answer sheet provided for multiple-choice questions.
Choose the response that is correct or that best answers the question.
A correct answer scores 1; an incorrect answer scores 0.
Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers.
No marks will be given if more than one answer is completed for any question.
Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this question book are not drawn to scale.

Question 1

In humans, the presence of cilia projections that line the airways is an example of
A a physical barrier.
B a chemical barrier.
C an adaptive barrier.
D a microbiological barrier.

Question 2

The following diagram is a representation of an antibody.

The variable region of the antibody is represented by

A J.
B K.
C L.
D both J and K.

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Use the following information to answer Questions 3 and 4.

Zika fever is a rapidly emerging viral disease. It is most commonly transferred from one person to
another by the Aedes genus of mosquito.
Zika fever in people was discovered in Uganda in 1947. It was thought that a bite from a mosquito
had transferred the virus from monkeys to humans.
The symptoms of Zika fever are usually mild, and 80% of infected humans do not show symptoms.
Infections of pregnant women, however, can cause severe defects in their babies.

Question 3

Which one of the following is likely to have contributed to Zika becoming an emerging disease?
A Environmental conditions that did not favour Aedes mosquitoes’ breeding habits.
B Increases in the effectiveness of chemical and physical strategies to repel or eradicate
mosquitoes.
C Increases in population density in urban settings and travel throughout areas where Zika fever is
present.
D Disruptions to the supply chain of the rollout of the Zika fever vaccination that has been
produced for some time.

Question 4

In 2015, a Zika fever outbreak started in Brazil and spread to neighbouring countries in the Americas.
How would screening individuals for Zika fever aid the control of disease transmission?
A Screening individuals involves a lockdown of people’s movements which lowers the chance of
the disease spreading.
B The screening process quarantines all individuals so that no individual can spread the disease
throughout the community.
C Screening involves administering the use of medications such as antivirals that target the
pathogen and combat the spread of the disease.
D Screening individuals for the presence of the disease would allow public health workers to
quickly see who in a population is affected so they can effectively target their response.

Question 5

As part of the second line of defence in the human immune system, cytokines released by virally
infected cells that act to increase viral resistance of neighbouring cells are known as
A histamine.
B interferons.
C dendritic cells.
D natural killer cells.

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 BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Use the following information to answer Questions 6 and 7.

Chickenpox (also called varicella) is a highly contagious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus
(VZV). A vaccine against the disease became commercially available in 1984. The following graph
shows the antibody concentration in a blood sample from a patient over a 120-day period after
receiving the VZV vaccine. The patient did not become ill over the course of the experiment.
concentration of antibodies to VZV (arbitrary units)

10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120
time (days)

Question 6

At what day did the concentration of antibodies to VZV peak during the experiment?
A 10
B 21
C 35
D 60

Question 7

What occurred on day 21?

A A second injection of the VZV vaccine was administered to produce sufficient B memory cells
for long-term immunity.
B The initial VZV vaccine took 21 days to produce enough B memory cells for the antibody
production to then increase drastically.
C VZV antibodies were administered at the day 21 mark in a form of artificial passive immunity in
order to confer long-term immunity.
D The patient came into contact with VZV and their immune system initiated a response resulting
in rapid production of antibodies and the symptoms associated with chickenpox.

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Use the following information to answer Questions 8 and 9.

The immunity that individuals can acquire can be classified as either active or passive depending on
the location of antibody production, as well as if they are natural or artificial depending on whether
there is medical intervention.

Question 8

Administering an antivenom containing antibodies to neutralise venom is an example of

A natural active immunity.
B artificial active immunity.
C natural passive immunity.
D artificial passive immunity.

Question 9

Becoming infected by a previously encountered variant of the influenza virus and mounting an
immune response against it is an example of
A natural active immunity.
B artificial active immunity.
C natural passive immunity.
D artificial passive immunity.

Use the following information to answer Questions 10 and 11.

The following phylogenetic tree shows the evolutionary relationship between wild cat species.
Panthera tigris
Panthera zdanskyi

Panthera onca

Panthera leo
Panthera pardus

Panthera uncia
Neofelis nebulosa
time

Question 10

P. onca is the least closely related to

A P. tigris.
B P. uncia.
C P. pardus.
D N. nebulosa.

Question 11

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A P. leo and P. pardus diverged to form two distinct species before P. tigris and P. zdanskyi diverged
to form two distinct species.
B P. uncia and P. zdanskyi do not share a common ancestor.
C N. nebulosa is the oldest species of wild cat.
D P. tigris is most closely related to P. leo.

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Question 12

Which of the following statements is an example of selective breeding?

A The dominant silverback gorilla mating with all the females within the group as they are the
most dominant.
B Genetically engineering tomato plants to create transgenic tomatoes that are more drought
tolerant.
C Establishing wildlife crossings over highways that allow animals to safely travel over roads.
D Inseminating a mare with horse semen purchased from a thoroughbred stallion.

Use the following information to answer Questions 13 and 14.

Northern elephant seals, Mirounga angustirostris, were nearly hunted to extinction in the 1890s, with
only about 20 individuals left at the end of the century. The population has now grown to more than
120 000. In the 1890s, southern elephant seals, Mirounga leonina, were not as severely hunted and
currently there are estimated to be 600 000 southern elephant seals.

Question 13

It is likely that the northern elephant seals are an example of

A the bottleneck effect.
B the founder effect.
C emigration.
D gene flow.

Question 14

Compared to the modern-day northern elephant seals, you would expect that modern-day southern
elephant seals have a
A lower adaptive potential and are less vulnerable to new selection pressures.
B higher adaptive potential and are less vulnerable to new selection pressures.
C lower adaptive potential and are more vulnerable to new selection pressures.
D higher adaptive potential and are more vulnerable to new selection pressures.

Question 15

Radiocarbon dating is a form of dating used to determine the age of a fossil. Which statement about
radiocarbon dating is true?
A The method is suitable for organic materials, igneous rocks and uranium-containing materials.
B Radiocarbon dating is a specific type of radioactive dating that utilises the radioisotope series
potassium-40 to argon-40.
C Radiocarbon dating is a relative dating technique that compares the age of a fossil to the position
of other fossils in rock strata.
D The dating method functions because all living organisms contain carbon, allowing for a
comparison of carbon-14 to nitrogen-14 produced as the matter decays.

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Question 16

The American Trichocereus macrogonus and the South African Euphorbia pentagono are plants
belonging to different families. Both plants live in dry regions. The plants possess analogous
structures when comparing the structural morphology.

Trichocereus macrogonus Euphorbia pentagona

What are analogous structures?

A Features that have lost most or all of their function as a result of natural selection.
B Features that look and function differently between species but arose from a common ancestor.
C Features that play the same function between species but do not originate from the same
ancestor.
D Features arising from conserved genes that have remained largely unchanged throughout evolution.

Question 17

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between genetic diversity and a newly
introduced environmental selection pressure in a population?
A The introduction of one new selection pressure would not impact the genetic diversity of a
population as the population all possess an equal chance of survival.
B A new selection pressure will always increase the genetic diversity of a population as the most
dominant alleles and phenotypes are harmed by the new pressure, driving them out.
C Genetic diversity will decrease with the arrival of a new selection pressure as advantageous traits are
more likely to be selected for and passed on, pushing the entire population toward one phenotype.
D The introduction of a new selection pressure would most likely reduce the genetic diversity of a
population by giving rise to a new advantageous trait, however, the pressure could act to increase
genetic diversity if it were more impactful on a previously dominant allele or phenotype within a
population.

Question 18

Consider the classification of hominins. Which one of the following statements about hominin
classification is true?
A Hominins are a subfamily of hominoids.
B There is only one species of modern-day hominins.
C Hominins contain the great apes and the lesser apes which are further classified into families
and genera.
D Hominins are members of the taxonomic tribe Hominini which contains the human genus along
with our most closely related genus, the chimpanzees.

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Question 19

The geographical separation of a population from a parent population resulting in the formation of a
new species is known as
A sympatric speciation.
B allopatric speciation.
C natural selection.
D genetic drift.

Question 20

A fossil that shows traits that are common to both its ancestral group and its descendent group is
known as a
A trace fossil.
B mould fossil.
C relative fossil.
D transitional fossil.

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION B

SECTION B

Instructions for Section B

Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Write using blue or black pen.
Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this question book are not drawn to scale.

Question 1 (6 MARKS)

Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disease involving the production of antibodies against gluten,
which is found in foods such as wheat, barley, and rye. Individuals with coeliac disease are unable to
consume any products containing gluten, such as wheat, breads and pasta. Coeliac disease primarily
affects the small intestines, which is where most nutrients are normally absorbed by the body.

a Briefly outline the humoral autoimmune response to gluten that would occur in a patient with
coeliac disease. 3 MARKS

b Describe two likely inflammatory consequences of coeliac disease within the small intestine. 2 MARKS

c Many autoimmune conditions can often predispose individuals to the formation of cancer.
While the formation of cancer in response to coeliac disease is relatively rare, it is possible.
Describe how monoclonal antibodies could be used in the treatment of cancer. 1 MARK

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION B

Question 2 (7 MARKS)

Hepatitis B is a DNA virus transmitted between individuals through bodily fluids, infecting the liver
and causing liver dysfunction and destruction. There are three antigens crucial to the structure of the
hepatitis B viral particle. These include the hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), the hepatitis B core
antigen (HBcAg), and the hepatitis B e-antigen (HBeAg).

HBeAg

HBsAg

HBcAg

a What is an antigen? 1 MARK

b Vaccination is a key component of public health responses in their ability to decrease the
severity of infection and help reduce mortality rate within a community.
i Describe the mechanism behind a vaccination against the hepatitis B virus. 2 MARKS

ii 
Which of the three hepatitis B antigens would be most effective in the creation of a vaccine
against hepatitis B virus? Justify your response. 1 MARK

iii 
Explain why vaccination is a key component of public health responses to limit the spread
of hepatitis B. 2 MARKS

c Suggest how doctors could determine whether an individual has been infected with the
hepatitis B virus. 1 MARK

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 BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION B

Question 3 (7 MARKS)

The soapberry bug (Jadera haematoloma) uses its long beak to penetrate the fleshy fruit of plants to
feed on the seeds at the centre. The bug feeds on the native soapberry tree. The bug also feeds on
the fruit of the introduced golden rain tree. Investigators measured the average beak length of the
soapberry bug over ninety years. The results are shown in the following graph.

9.0

8.5

8.0
beak length (mm)

7.5

7.0

6.5

6.0

5.5

1880 1900 1920 1940 1960 1980

year

a Summarise the results shown in the graph. 2 MARKS

b What can be concluded about beak length and the advantageous traits of the soapberry bug? 2 MARKS

c Investigators found differing results when comparing soapberry bugs from different locations.
A second location showed bugs with far less genetic diversity and the investigators hypothesised
that this was the result of the founder effect.
i What is the founder effect? 2 MARKS

ii  o these soapberry bugs from the second location have an increased or decreased adaptive
D
potential when compared to the initial investigation? Explain your choice. 1 MARK

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION B

Question 4 (4 MARKS)

Under the right set of conditions, prehistoric remains can be preserved and form a fossil.

a Briefly explain the conditions required for permineralised fossils to form. 3 MARKS

b What is the difference between mould and cast fossils? 1 MARK

Question 5 (3 MARKS)

There are two major hypotheses that propose how Homo sapiens migrated around the world leading
to the modern-day spread of humans. The Out of Africa hypothesis proposes that H. sapiens first
evolved in Africa, before migrating out of Africa to populate the rest of the world, commencing
approximately 150,000 years ago.

a Describe two types of evidence that support the Out of Africa hypothesis. 2 MARKS

b Aboriginal Australians are the longest-continuous population on earth having lived in Australia
for over 50,000 years. How could the Out of Africa hypothesis explain the arrival of Aboriginal
Australians to the island of Australia? 1 MARK

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION B

Question 6 (7 MARKS)

Why can you still get influenza if you’ve had your flu shot?
Restrictions surrounding COVID-19 have eased in Australia, and with international borders being
open influenza is back in Australia after a two-year absence. Influenza is a common viral infection
known to attack the lungs, nose, and throat. It is partly preventable by vaccines and can spread in a
variety of ways. It is also more commonly referred to as the flu.
Four types of influenza exist in nature. Of these, two cause significant contagious diseases in
humans: influenza A and influenza B. Flu vaccinations aim to protect against these types of
influenza that cause disease in humans, however, there are many different variants of each type
and they are constantly changing between each “flu season”. Vaccine-mediated protection
varies each year depending on how well the vaccine matches the disease-causing variants of
the influenza virus that are circulating at any one time. The 2022 Australian influenza vaccine is
quadrivalent (targets four distinct virus variants): two influenza A viruses (subtypes H3N2 and
H1N1) and two influenza B viruses from distinct lineages.
Within each flu A subtype, further genetic variation can arise with mutations (known as antigenic
drift) generating many viral variants that are classified into “clades” and “subclades”. H3N2 is
particularly good at generating lots of diversity via mutations. So, predicting exactly which H3N2
virus to target in a vaccine is especially difficult. Additionally, the decisions need to be made far in
advance to allow time for rollout and there is also a lack of data on which viruses were dominant in
preceding flu seasons. Still, flu shots are important. If you’ve been vaccinated and still get the flu,
you’re less likely to get as sick and experience the more severe symptoms. This means that the flu
shot could make the difference between recovering at home versus recovering in the hospital.
Source: adapted from ‘Why can you still get influenza if you’ve had a flu shot?’. By Nathan Bartlett. Published in The Conversation June 20th 2022 <[Link]

a What is meant by the term ‘contagious disease’? 1 MARK

b Is influenza an emerging or re-emerging disease in Australia? Justify your response. 1 MARK

c What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift? Which mechanism is more
likely to develop into an epidemic? 2 MARKS

d Using information from the article, provide three reasons why producing an effective vaccination
against influenza is difficult. 3 MARKS

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM – SECTION B

Question 7 (6 MARKS)

Measles is a highly infectious and dangerous disease. Young children and individuals with impaired
immunity are especially susceptible to measles. It is caused by the measles virus and is spread via
airborne droplets. The following graphs show the number of people in the United States of America
(USA) who were infected with measles during the period 1954–2000 and the number of people who
died as a result of having measles during the same period.
no. of Reported measles cases by year no. of Reported measles deaths by year
cases deaths
800k 600

700k
500
600k
400
500k

400k 300

300k
200
200k
100
100k

0 0
1954
1956
1958
1960
1962
1964
1966
1968
1970
1972
1974
1976
1978
1980
1982
1984
1986
1988
1990
1992
1994
1996
1998
2000

1954
1956
1958
1960
1962
1964
1966
1968
1970
1972
1974
1976
1978
1980
1982
1984
1986
1988
1990
1992
1994
1996
1998
2000
year year
Source: ProCon, adapted from VCAA 2018 Section B Q5

a Summarise the results shown in the graphs. 2 MARKS

b Over the course of the period in the USA, how many instances were there of greater than
350 measles deaths in a year? 1 MARK

c Since 2000, when was the last time in the USA that there were more than 400,000 measles
cases in a year? 1 MARK

d In the 1960s, a measles vaccine was created for the first time. In 2019, measles cases in the
USA reached 1000 for the first time since the early 1990s, something that is attributed to
misunderstanding or scepticism of public health and epidemiology. In the context of diseases,
what is the difference between epidemic, pandemic, and endemic? 2 MARKS

END OF QUESTION BOOK

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 How to check your answers
CHECKLISTS AND EXEMPLAR ANSWERS
This answer section includes exemplar responses with checklists to help students work towards a full mark answer.
These checklists and answers are similarly structured to the ones found in our textbooks.

Exemplar answers
Exemplar answers provide an example of how a student could respond to get full marks.
The depth of the answer is derived from the task word, the number of marks, and analysis of examiners’ reports from
previous VCAA examinations.
The answers are written in full sentences to model strong literacy and aid learning, although students may distill
their responses into briefer phrases or dot points and still receive full marks.

Other acceptable responses

Sometimes, there is more than one way to get full marks. Where applicable, Edrolo points students in the right
direction by briefly listing some alternative correct responses.

Checklists
Checklists break answers down into the smallest components required to get full marks. This is especially important
when questions might be worth two marks, but you actually need to include two ideas plus a key term or expression.
For example, if the VCAA examiner’s report for similar questions clearly states that students would not receive full
marks without using comparative language, a checklist item for the use of comparative language will be included.
If students prefer writing answers as brief dot points, the checklist can be used to ensure they have still provided a
complete and correct answer.
When used with Edrolo’s digital platform, students can use the checklist to self–mark short answer questions,
and teachers can view this data to track class progress.

Question 6 (9 MARKS)
Aphids are small insects which consume nutrients from growing plants, thereby killing them. A method of controlling populations of
aphids is by introducing another insect called aphidoletes, which can feed on more than 60 species of aphids. They achieve this by
laying eggs near colonies of aphids, and when they hatch, aphidoletes larvae inject toxins into the legs of the aphids, paralysing them
and subsequently eating them. Often, aphidoletes can consume aphids which are much larger than themselves, and more than 60
aphids per day.
d Describe two possible dangers of introducing aphidoletes into populations of aphids.

Exemplar responses show [One possible danger could include the development of
6 d 
students what a full mark aphidoletes as a pest species if their numbers become
answer could look like uncontrolled. Additionally, aphidoletes may be toxic to species
that prey upon them, negatively impacting the ecosystem.1]
Other acceptable responses include:
Numbers help students
• The reduction in aphid populations may adversely affect identify which part of the
other organisms which prey upon them due to the removal exemplar relates to which
of a food source. checklist item
If their answer is different
to the exemplar, other I have suggested two possible dangers of introducing
acceptable responses help aphidoletes into populations of aphids.1
students know if they are on
the right track

Checklist items can help students identify

‘hidden’ marks or develop skills that make
their responses more coherent

© Edrolo 2023
BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM Answers – SECTION BA

SECTION A – ANSWERS
1 A 2 A 3 C 4 D 5 B

6 C 7 A 8 D 9 A 10 D

11 C 12 D 13 A 14 B 15 D

16 C 17 D 18 B 19 B 20 D

SECTION B – ANSWERS
[Gluten antigens interact with B cells with complementary antigen-binding sites, selecting them.1][Helper T cells will bind to a complementary B cell
1 a 
and then secrete cytokines to activate the B cell. This will lead to the clonal expansion and differentiation of the selected B cell into antibody-producing
plasma B cells and memory B cells.2][The antibodies produced will be complementary to gluten, facilitating the adaptive immune response.3]

I have described the initiation of the humoral immune response.1

I have described the clonal expansion and differentiation of B cells.2

I have described the production of antibodies against gluten.3

[The immune response against gluten can lead to inflammatory reactions within the small intestine such as vasodilation, which involves increased
b 
blood flow to the site of damage, and1][the release of cytokines, which can attract a greater number of immune cells to the site to attack the gluten.2]
Other acceptable responses include:

• Increased permeability of blood vessels to cells of the immune system.

I have described one inflammatory consequence of coeliac disease.1

I have described a second inflammatory consequence of coeliac disease.2

[Monoclonal antibodies can be created to have an antigen-binding site specific to antigens present on the cancer cells, with potential conjugation
c 
with cytotoxic substances facilitating the targeted destruction of the cancer cells.1]

I have described how monoclonal antibodies could be used to treat cancer.1

I have used key biological terminology such as: antigen-binding site, specific, antigens.

2 a [An antigen is a molecule that stimulates an immune response.1]

I have identified what an antigen is.1

[A hepatitis B vaccine would involve the administration of a weakened or inactive form of the hepatitis B virus, thereby stimulating an adaptive
b i 
immune response in the recipient.1][By stimulating the immune system, memory B cells can be created, which upon exposure to live hepatitis B,
would be able to rapidly differentiate into plasma B cells and secrete antibodies to neutralise the hepatitis B virus.2]

I have described what a vaccine against hepatitis B would contain.1

I have described the consequence of using a vaccine in relation to the immune system.2

ii [The hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)1][as it is the outer antigen that antibodies would be able to target more easily.2]
I have identified HBsAg as the ideal vaccination target.1

I have justified why HBsAg is the most effective vaccination target.2

[Vaccination is crucial to the formation of herd immunity, which involves the vaccination of a large proportion of individuals1][thereby reducing
iii 
the number of susceptible hosts and conveying protection upon vulnerable populations (e.g. individuals with anaphylaxis to the vaccine or
those with deficient immune systems).2]

I have identified the relevance to herd immunity.1

I have described the purpose of herd immunity.2

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM Answers – SECTION B

[Doctors can measure the level of antibodies present in the patient’s bloodstream against the antigens of the hepatitis B virus (e.g. HBsAg, HBcAg),
c 
which if present will indicate infection.1]

I have suggested a possible way doctors can determine infection.1

[The general trend in the graph shows that as time progresses, the beak length of the soapberry bugs has increased.1][Worth noting is that In the
3 a 
year 1900 there was one major outlier with a long beak, as well as the more recent survey times such as 1960 have produced results that are quite
split between long and short beaks.2]

I have summarised the major trend of the graph that beaks are increasing in length over time.1

I have noted any outliers or discussed notable data points to demonstrate my understanding.2

[The data shows that over time the average beak length has increased.1][Therefore, we can suggest that the longer beaks are advantageous
b 
among soapberry bugs and thus have been selected for and passed on more frequently over the course of many generations.2]

I have mentioned the key results.1

I have related this to the longer beaks being advantageous among the bugs.2

c [The founder effect is a phenomenon that refers to the reduction in genetic diversity when a population has grown from a small sample of
i 
the original population.1][Consequently, this small sample is likely unrepresentative of the original population and of much lower genetic
diversity.2]

I have described the founder effect.1

I have mentioned the impact on representation and genetic diversity.2

ii [A decreased adaptive potential as they are more vulnerable to new selection pressures due to less genetic diversity.1]
I have explained the decreased adaptive potential.1

[For a permineralised fossil to form, an organism first needs to die and the remains must be rapidly buried in sediment.1][The area where the
4 a 
organism is buried requires low oxygen exposure to slow the decomposition of the remains.2][Over time, minerals from water replace hard tissue
of the remains and sedimentary rock forms around the remains producing a permineralised fossil.3]

I have described how remains are quickly covered in sediment.1

I have explained how disturbances do not lead to much decomposition of the remains.2

I have described how minerals transported by water replace tissue and fossilise.3

[Mould fossils form when an organism decomposes underneath sediment, leaving behind a cavity of the organism’s shape. On the other hand,
b 
cast fossils are a type of mould fossil that forms a cavity and then becomes filled with minerals.1]

I have compared mould and cast fossils.1

I have used comparative language such as: on the other hand.

[Genetic evidence can be seen in mitochondrial DNA of humans that all trace back to a common ancestor in Africa.1][The dating of cultural
5 a 
artifacts such as tools and carvings spread around the world also supports the proposed spread in the Out of Africa hypothesis.2]
Other acceptable responses include:

• The relatively little genetic diversity in modern humans suggests we originated from a small population.
• Dated fossilised remains in Africa and later in other parts of the world support the proposed spread.

I have described one type of evidence that supports the Out of Africa hypothesis.1

I have described a second type of evidence.2

[At the time of their arrival, Australia was connected to the rest of the world in a giant supercontinent before it separated and geographically
b 
isolated the populations.1]

I have explained how Australia was connected to the world allowing for migration before separating.1

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BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM Answers – SECTION B

6 a [A contagious disease refers to an illness that is caused by a pathogen and can be passed on and spread between different people.1]
I have defined contagious disease.1

b [Re-emerging as we are told influenza is back in Australia following a two-year absence.1]

I have justified why it is re-emerging.1

[Both antigenic drift and shift involve mutations in the genes encoding for surface antigens on viruses, the difference between the two is the speed
c 
at which the mutations occur.1][Antigenic drift involves small and gradual changes in genes, whereas antigenic shift involves sudden and significant
changes in genes.2][Consequently, antigenic shift is more likely to lead to the development of an epidemic.3]

I have discussed how both mechanisms involve mutations in viral genes for surface antigens however the difference is the speed at which
they arise.1

I have explained that antigenic drift involves smaller and slower changes whereas antigenic shift involves large rapid changes.2

I have justified that antigenic shift is more likely to cause an epidemic.3

I have used key biological terminology such as: mutations, surface antigens, genes, epidemic.

[Influenza viruses are known to mutate via antigenic drift,1][there are many different subtypes and variants of influenza2][and vaccines need to be
d 
made well in advance to allow time for a rollout.3]
Other acceptable responses include:

• There is a lack of data on dominant viruses from past flu seasons.

• Influenza can spread in a variety of ways.

I have provided one reason from the article.1

I have provided a second reason.2

I have provided a third reason.3

[Both the number of reported measles cases and deaths per year were consistently high over the first ten years of the period,1][before both cases
7 a 
and deaths entered a period of rapid decline which culminated in very low levels that continued towards the end of the time period in 2000.2]

I have described how both cases and deaths started high for the first 10 years of the period.1

I have discussed how there was then a dropoff and the more recent statistics are extremely low.2

b [9.1]
I have stated 9.1

c [1964.1]
I have stated 1964.1

[A sudden disease outbreak in a particular population and location is an epidemic. When an epidemic spreads across countries or continents
d 
around the world it is known as a pandemic.1][Endemic diseases do not involve outbreaks, rather they are when a disease is present in a
population at a constant baseline level over time.2]

I have described how epidemics and pandemics are disease outbreaks with different spreads.1

I have explained that endemic diseases are constant in a given population.2

in your exams!

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