Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

9709 Mathematics March 2020

MATHEMATICS

Paper 9709/12
Pure Mathematics

Key messages

Candidates are advised to look for all the solutions to equations, especially negative square roots and
possible zeros.
The instructions for the examination clearly state that all necessary working must be shown. This applies to
the solution of equations and substitution of limits as well as questions involving arithmetic processes.
Questions 7 and 8(b) demonstrate the importance of using a higher level of accuracy in intermediate
calculations compared to the accuracy required in the final answer.

General comments

Problems involving trigonometric equations require all the solutions in a given range and candidates must be
careful not to include extra incorrect solutions in the given range to gain full marks.
When a question gives the answer, where candidates are commonly asked to ‘show’ this result it is important
all stages in the working must be clearly shown.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

The need to differentiate f ′(x) was well understood and many completely correct expressions for f ′(x) were
seen. It was sufficient to state that f ′(x) < 0 and that f ′(x) was a decreasing function to gain the third mark.

Question 2

In order to fully describe the two transformations, it was necessary to state the type of each of them and not
their effect on the coordinates of f(x). The best answers referred to the movement relative to the axes rather
than vague terms such as up and down or horizontal and vertical.

Question 3

The significance of rotation about the y-axis was appreciated by many candidates who successfully found
and integrated x2 with respect to y. The substitution of the limits was usually clearly shown and few answers
omitted π.

Question 4

There were many completely correct answers to this question. The use of the chain rule with the correct
interpretation of the given information was widely seen. The required algebra was mostly carried out very
efficiently.

Question 5

sin θ
When candidates correctly multiplied by the denominator as a first stage followed by the use of tan θ =
cos θ
fewer errors were observed in the working than when other attempts were made. Factorisation of the
resulting expression occasionally led to both answers. The majority of candidates found one solution
correctly but did not consider the solution from sinθ = 0.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Question 6

(a) Selection of the appropriate term without completing the whole expansion was often seen. Those
candidates who were careful in their use of brackets mostly went on to find the required answers.
Some candidates did not identify all ‘possible values’ as stated in the question and did not find the
negative solution.

(b) The selection of the required term proved to be more challenging in this part, however many
correct answers were seen. Although only the coefficient was required, answers which included the
correct power of x were able to gain the marks.

Question 7

This question was generally well answered with very few candidates confusing radians and degrees in their
use of trigonometry. The formulae for the area of a triangle and a sector area were well understood and
applied correctly. Many solutions featured intermediate answers to their calculations expressed to more than
four decimal places and these led to the correct three significant figure accuracy in the final answer. Most
answers were well set out with the required areas clearly described enabling ease in following the logic of the
solutions.

Question 8

(a) This part was almost always answered correctly.

(b) Candidates who identified that the nth terms of an arithmetic progression and a geometric
progression were required usually quoted and used the correct formulae. The final
percentage calculation was generally set up correctly. Correct rounding of the final
answer was a feature of the best answers.

Question 9

(a) For most candidates, completing the square was well understood and many gained full
marks on this part.

(b) The basic method to find an inverse was usually applied clearly with few algebraic errors.
Those candidates who realised the range of their inverse would have to be the given
domain, x ⩽ –4, were able to deduce that only the negative square root was valid in their
expression for the inverse. The correctly expressed domain was seen in some of the best
answers.

(c) The formation of the composite function was more straightforward for those who used
their completed square form rather than the original function in part (a). The correct
resulting quadratic equation was often seen. Only candidates who considered the original
domain were able to select the correct root of the equation.

(d) The use of 2k – 3 = –4 at the maximum value of k was occasionally seen.

Question 10

(a) Many candidates realised that the given expression for the gradient should be set to zero
and that the positive solution to the quadratic equation formed from this gave the required
value of a. To gain full credit it was essential that all steps in the working out were shown
and the required value was stated as a and not x.

(b) Almost all attempts involved finding the second derivative and its sign at the turning point.
1
It was noted that the differentiation of 2 ( x + 3 ) 2 was correct more often than the
differentiation of x. A few candidates produced a clearly justified conclusion based on the
use of the change of sign of the first derivative around the stationary point.

(c) There were many completely correct solutions to this part. The requirements to integrate
the gradient equation and use the point found in part (a) were well understood. The

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

1
integration of 2 ( x + 3 ) 2 and the integration of x led to similar numbers of errors. To gain
full marks it was necessary to fully state the final answer.
Question 11

(a) The majority of candidates realised the equation could be solved as a quadratic in tan x
and those who showed the appropriate working often went on to gain full marks. Some
answers did not include the solution from the negative value of tan x.

(b) The use of the discriminant set as less than zero was seen in the majority of responses
and was often followed by correct consideration of the negative terms to reach the
required inequality.

(c) Those candidates with a good understanding of the tangent graph realised that an extra
solution in the range could only come from the solution of tan x = 0. Most then selected
the appropriate value of k and went on to complete the solution.

Question 12

(a) The most successful answers to this part used the mid-point of the diameter and half the
diameter length in a general equation of the circle. Those who confused the diameter with
the radius were able to gain some credit when this error was repeated in part (b).

(b) Finding the centre of the translated circle and use of the radius from part (a) in a general
equation provided a quick route to the solution for many candidates.

(c) Two methods were used successfully in this part. Equating the answers from parts (a)
and (b) proved the most popular. Finding the gradient and mid-point of the line of centres
of the two circles then going on to find the equation of the perpendicular bisector was also
regularly seen.

(d) Substitution of the given result from part (c) into either of the answers to parts (a) or (b)
led quickly to the given result. Those who used this method were usually able to deal with
the required algebra. Those who chose to eliminate y from the two circle equations
needed to demonstrate very good algebraic skills to reach the given result.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

MATHEMATICS

Paper 9709/22
Pure Mathematics

Key messages

It is essential that candidates read each question carefully and ensure that they have fully met the demands
of that question. It is also essential that final answers are given to the correct level of accuracy, which is 3
significant figures as stated in the rubric, unless stated otherwise in the question itself.

General comments

In general candidates produced clear and well set out responses, most showing a good understanding of the
syllabus objectives. Techniques used were usually appropriate and applied correctly. There appeared to be
no issues with time and no issues arising from lack of space in which the responses were to be written.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

( )
Most candidates used a correct expression for sin θ + 30o and then went on to simplify the given equation
to obtain an expression for tanθ . Most candidates offered fully correct solutions to this question.

Question 2

(a) It was essential that candidates show the algebraic long division essential to this part of the
question as clearly as possible. A penultimate line of −3 x 2 − 15 x − 18 followed by a final line of 18,
was required to gain full marks. Most were able to gain these marks.

(b) Candidates should always take note of the word ‘Hence’. This implies that the work from the
previous part must be used. It was essential that candidates made the link between the equation to
solve and the work they had just completed in part (a). This could be implied by,
(x 2
)
+ 5 x + 6 ( 4 x − 3 ) + 18 − 18 =
0 , or equivalent. Marks were available if an error had been made
in the quotient from part (a). An answer giving just the solutions with no supporting work obtained
no marks. An answer left in terms of factors gained only one possible mark as the question
specified the solution of the given equation.

Question 3

Most candidates realised that the integral was in the form of a logarithm, the hint being that the integrand
was equated to ln 72 . Completely correct solutions were common, with candidates showing sufficient working
and well set out solutions.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Question 4

It was essential that candidates realise that implicit differentiation was involved before any marks could be
awarded. Correct implicit differentiation of both y 2 and 4ln ( 2y + 3 ) with respect to x was common. There
dy
were the occasional slips in the subsequent evaluation of at the given point, but most candidates were
dx
able to score reasonably well in this question.

Question 5

(a) A correctly shaped pair of modulus graphs were obtained by the majority of candidates. This is an
example of where candidates did not check the demands of the question. They were asked to give,
in terms of k, the coordinates of the points where each graph meets the axes. Some candidates did
not do this. Either four sets of coordinates or the four intercepts marked on the axes were
acceptable.

(b) Most candidates realised that they had to solve x + 2k = 2 x − 3k . Most chose to square each side
of the equation and solve the resulting quadratic equation. Solutions involving the formation of two
linear equations were less common. Some candidates did not obtain full marks as they omitted to
find the corresponding y values associated with the x values they had just found. Another example
of not checking that the demands of the question are met fully.

(c) A more challenging part of the question, candidates were expected to equate their larger value of x
from part (b) to 2t and then rearrange to obtain t in terms of k. Few completely correct solutions
were seen.

Question 6

(a) Differentiation using the product rule was attempted by most candidates. Most then equated this to
15 and attempted, with varying levels of success, to rearrange the resulting equation to the given
form. It is essential in questions of this type, that full working is shown to justify the given result.

75e−0.2 x
(b) Most candidates realised that they had to consider, for example, f ( x )= x − or
15 + x
equivalent, for the values x = 1.7 and x = 1.8 . Most candidates did this and evaluated these
expressions correctly, went on to make a correct conclusion.

(c) It was essential that candidates use the correct level of accuracy as required in this part of the
question. Most candidates were able to start the iteration process using an appropriate starting
value. Most gave their iterations to the required level of 6 significant figures. However, many
candidates did not write down their final iteration which would then lead to justify their answer.
Many candidates also did not give their final answer to 4 significant figures as required.

Question 7

(a) Having realised that they needed to solve the equation 4 sin2 x + 8 sin x + 3 = 0 , usually by
1
factorisation, some candidates, having obtained the correct result sin x = − , were unable to
2
obtain the correct value for x.

(b) Most made a correct attempt to differentiate the given equation. Use of either the chain rule or an
attempt at use of the double angle formula followed by differentiation was acceptable. Most
candidates recognised the need to give their answer in an exact form. Few decimal answers were
seen.

(c) Most candidates gave their final answer in an exact form. To gain any marks in this part of the
question, it was essential that an attempt at the use of the appropriate double angle formula be
made. Provided this was done, most candidates made a reasonable attempt at the integration of
each term and attempted to apply the limits of 0 and their value from part (a). In some cases errors
in substitution, evaluation or an incorrect upper limit, meant that few correct final answers were
seen.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

MATHEMATICS

Paper 9709/32
Pure Mathematics

Key messages

• Candidates should ensure that they know what is expected when asked to sketch of a graph, which was
needed for Question 1(a) and Question 3(a).
• Candidates are also expected to understand what is meant by tangent parallel to an axis, which was
seen in Question 7(b).
• It is important for candidates to use correct mathematical notation for the vector equation of a line, as
required in Question 8(b).
• It is essential for candidates to present all detailed working, especially when the answer can also be
obtained using a calculator. This was particularly notable for Question 10(a).
• Candidates should also be reminded that that scales on an Argand diagram must always be the same,
essential for Question 10(b)(i).

General comments

Many candidates produced excellent solutions to Question 9 on partial fractions and Question 7(a) on
implicit differentiation. However, few good attempts at finding the perpendicular vector in Question 8(c) and
the complex solutions of the equations in Question 10(a) were seen.

Questions that candidates answered most successfully were Question 1(b), 2, 3(b), 3(c), the initial part of
Question 4 involving integration, Question 7(a), 8(a) and 10(b)(i). The questions that candidates generally
found more challenging were Question 1, 3(a), 5, 6(a), 8(b), 8(c), 10(a), 10(b)(ii).

Candidates should be reminded to ensure that their work is clearly presented and, in particular, should avoid
changing signs by writing over the top of their original working. Where corrections or replacements have
been made candidates must ensure that what is their final solution is clearly identifiable and legible. Greater
care is also required when removing brackets when there is both a negative sign inside and outside the
bracket. Candidates should also be reminded to work systematically down the page to demonstrate a clear
order to their method.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

(a) There were some excellent solutions to this question, however, there were also many incorrect
solutions, for example a single straight line was very common. Some candidates did not show the
crucial point x = 2 on the x-axis. Simply plotting points and joining them all up is not the best
approach to adopt, as often, unless done extremely carefully it leads to something that is not an
exact straight line. Many graphs stopped at the y-axis, or likewise at x = 2. Others had scales on
both axes, but with their graph clearly cutting the y-axis at a value other than y = 2. A correct graph
should have been a symmetrical V shape with its base at (2, 0), the coordinates of the intercepts
on each axis stated, together with a domain of at least –1 ⩽ x ⩽ 5.

3
(b) Many candidates correctly established the critical points, however few continued to show x >
2
was their final answer. There were several incorrect quadratic equations amongst those candidates
that adopted this approach, some due to not squaring the linear terms correctly. Many others who
took this approach made the error of only squaring the modulus side of the equation.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Question 2

A common error seen in this question was for candidates not to reject the negative root. The other common
error amongst candidates that established the correct quadratic equation was that they did not give their
answer in exact form, as stated in the question. Many candidates did not deal with the power ln law correctly,
with the addition of ln terms resulting in 3 + (2x + 5) instead of 3(2x + 5).

Question 3

(a) In many cases, candidates found the sketching of y = sec x challenging. Few candidates were able
to produce a sketch representing the function, and amongst candidates who sketched a nearly
π  π
correct graph most either stopped at  ,2  or continued beyond x = . The most straightforward
 3  2
way to produce a good sketch is to sketch the well-known graph of y = cos x and then reciprocate
π
this graph. The final graph should show (0, 1), together with the asymptote at x = . The straight-
2
line graph is more straightforward to sketch; however, this was often seen to cross the x-axis in the
π π
region of x = . Although as only the region 0  x  was requested, if the candidate opts to
2 2
show a greater region than this then the line must not be seen to cross the x-axis at an incorrect
value in order to gain the accuracy mark.

(b) Most candidates answered this question part well.

(c) Most candidates found this part very straight forward, although some candidates incorrectly worked
with their calculator in degrees mode.

Question 4

Several different errors were seen in candidate responses to this question. Some candidates were able to
correctly establish just the first integration by parts before making subsequent errors. A common error for
these candidates was to include ln(sin x) instead of ln(cos x). Other candidates who managed both
integrations by parts often made errors with their limits, including working in decimals. Some other
candidates were able to complete the first parts successfully including substituting their limits, however then
made errors in combining terms. Of the candidates who made these errors, the most common was the
incorrect removal of brackets which often made it difficult to establish whether the required ln law had been
applied correctly. It is important for candidates to keep their values exact, as stated in the question, and
show clear application of their limits when completing the integration. For candidates who established the
correct decimal answer of 0.962 a special case B1 mark was available.

Question 5

(a) The candidates who commenced with a single fraction usually gained all the marks efficiently.
Those who expanded cos 3x and sin 3x found that more algebra was needed, especially if they
continued their working for a few steps before opting for a single fraction. Typically, candidates who
did more working prior to finding a common denominator found it challenging to be able to establish
the stated result.

(b) Most candidates identified the need to use the result from (a), and successfully established at least
one of the answers. Candidates who opted to use the double angle and then solve the resulting
quadratic equation were usually more successful than those who remained in tan 2x. There were
two main reasons for this; candidates had no need to divide by 2 at the appropriate place and
further to this they did not have the problem of needing to understand the difference of inverse
trigonometrical functions and the reciprocal of trigonometrical functions. Another error made was to
use degrees instead of radians and another being to not give answers to 3 significant figures.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Question 6

(a) Whilst most candidates could separate variables correctly, few were able to make much progress
other than possibly the correct integration of e − x . Candidates who did manage to establish
1
a tan−1 ( by ) rarely obtained b = 2 and almost never a = .
2

(b) This solution was a follow through from (a), however there was the necessity that their expression
from (a) contained an e − x term and tended to a finite limit. Most candidates found this challenging
as a result of errors in (a), for the few candidates who had made a reasonable attempt at (a) this
mark was often successfully gained.

Question 7

(a) Most candidates performed their implicit differentiation correctly and it was usually only a sign error
in the manipulation to the answer given. Candidates who made errors often did not show their
dy
factorising of the terms or sometimes lacked detail of the derivative on the right side of the
dx
equation within an equation structure.

dy
(b) Many candidates incorrectly interpreted that the ‘tangent parallel to the y-axis’ meant was
dx
dx
either zero or one. Candidates that did realise this required the use of to be zero then often
dy
omitted to consider the solution arising from the equation y = 0.

Question 8
 
(a) Most candidates identified what was required to establish the vectors OM and MN , but several

candidates either introduced the incorrect sign from vector FN or more commonly omitted to
1 2
include the actual lengths of AM, MB and FG within their calculations. Hence AM = , MB = and
3 3
1
FN = were usually seen instead of AM = 1, MB = 2 and FN = 1, respectively.
2

(b) The main errors here resulted from candidates using their incorrect vectors from (a) or having the
 
parameter λ attached to the vector OM instead of the vector MN . Candidates should be reminded
to give their answer as a vector equation, as required by the question. Candidates were not
awarded the accuracy mark unless the left side of the equation was the vector r, stating that this

vector was the line MN was insufficient.

(c) Most candidates found this part to be particularly challenging, mainly since they did not identify that

it was necessary to find the vector DP , where point P is a general point on the line found in (b).
  
Most candidates only considered vector OP or vector OD . Candidates who realised it was DP
  
that was required often combined OP and OD incorrectly. Having obtained vector DP the two
methods available were to either find the minimum distance of DP, which only very few candidates
 
opted for, or the more common approach of taking the scalar product of vectors DP and MN and
 
equating the result to zero. In many cases a variety of other vectors, such as vectors OM and ON

were chosen instead of the vector MN . Amongst those that did reach a correct parameter value,

and obtained the correct point on the line, some took vector DP to be their final answer instead of

vector OP .

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Question 9

(a) Most candidates achieved full marks for this question. Candidates who opted for the more
algebraic approach of solving three equations in three unknowns, which is typically more
challenging, almost always produced a correct solution.

(b) Most candidates scored at least three marks in this question, with the most common error usually
1 1
1 2
occurring in the term , where candidates obtained and 2
instead of 2 x .
2+ x 1 + 2x 1+ x 1+ 2

Question 10

(a) Candidates found this question to be challenging with many confusing their ideas and approaches,
for example, many candidates opted to substitute x + iy for both v and w. Many other candidates
having solved the linear equations to reach an equation in v or in w, for example –w + iw = 5 + 7i,
treated w as real and took real and imaginary parts, resulting in w = –5 or 7. Such solutions were
produced by the majority of the candidates. The correct approach was to either solve to obtain
5 + 7i
w= , or the equivalent expression for v, then multiply the numerator and the denominator by
i −1
(i + 1) or substitute w = a + ib and then take real and imaginary parts. An alternative approach was
to substitute v = x + iy and w = a + ib into the original equations and to take real and imaginary parts
prior to any elimination of variables, resulting in four equations in four unknowns. From here these
equations were easy to solve. Some candidates were successful in following either of these
approaches.

(b) (i) Many fully correct solutions were seen. However the centre of the circle was often at (–2, 3),
( –2, –3) or ( 2, –3). As mentioned in Key Messages it is essential that the scales of an Argand
diagram are equal on both axes. It was often unclear that the radius was 1, this needs to be clearly
shown with scales on both the axes so that the points (2, 2), (2, 4), (1, 3) and (3, 3) can be clearly
identified.

(ii) Candidates found this question to be challenging, with few candidates using the correct method.
Most candidates obtained the arg of the centre of the circle but did not continue to answer the
question fully. A common error noted was the confusion of where the right angle was in the triangle
involving the tangent, the radius and the line from the origin to the centre of the circle saw tan of
1
the angle at the origin in this triangle taken as instead of this value being the sine of the
13
angle.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

MATHEMATICS

Paper 9709/42
Mechanics

Key messages

• Non-exact numerical answers are required correct to 3 significant figures as stated on the front of the
question paper. Cases where this was not adhered to were seen in Question 5(a) and Question 5(b).
Candidates would be advised to carry out all working to at least 4 significant figures if a final answer is
required to 3 significant figures.

• When answering questions involving any system of forces, a well annotated force diagram could help
candidates to make sure that they include all relevant terms when forming an equilibrium situation, a
Newton’s Law equation or a work-energy equation. Such a diagram would be particularly useful in
Question 1(b), Question 2(b), and parts (a) and (b) of Question 6.

• In questions such as Question 7 in this paper, where displacement is given as a function of time
implying that acceleration is not constant, it is important to realise that calculus must be used and that it
is not possible to apply the equations of constant acceleration.

General comments

The paper was generally very well answered by many candidates although a wide range of marks were
seen.

The presentation of the work was good in most cases; however candidates are reminded to write answers
clearly using black or dark blue pen.

3
In Question 2, the angle α was given exactly as tan α = . In cases like this there is no need to evaluate the
4
angle and problems such as this can often lead to exact answers and so any approximation of the angle can
lead to a loss of accuracy.

The examination allowed candidates at all levels to show their knowledge of the subject, whilst differentiating
well between even the stronger candidates. Questions 1(a), 2(a) and 3(a) were found to be the most
accessible questions whilst Questions 4, 6 and 7 proved to be the most challenging.

One of the points on the front of the question paper tells candidates to take g = 10 and it has been noted that
nearly all candidates are following this instruction. In some cases, it is impossible to achieve a correct given
answer unless this value is used.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

(a) This question was completed successfully by almost all candidates. The definition of Power as rate
Work Done
of doing work must to be used and in this case, it takes the form ‘ Power = ’ to give the
Time
750 000
answer. In this problem, the power is expressed as P = . A common error that was seen
10
was when candidates multiplied the work done by 10 rather than dividing. A few candidates gave
their final answer using incorrect units.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

(b) Most candidates made a good attempt at this question. The driving force is obtained using the
P
relationship DF = where P is the power found in Question 1(a). Newton’s second law can then
v
be used with the forces acting; the driving force, DF and the resistance force, 2400 N. The required
acceleration, a, can then be found using the equation DF – 2400 = 16 000a. Some errors seen were
to forget to include the resistance force or to have the incorrect sign on this resistance force.

Question 2

(a) Most candidates made a very good attempt at this question. Almost all used the equation
1
s ut + at 2 with u = 0, a = 2 and s = 1.44 to find the required time. An alternative method used by
=
2
some was to find the velocity, v, when the particle had moved through a displacement s = 1.44
using the equation v2 = u2 + 2as which gives v = 2.4, from which the required time can be found.
Very few candidates did not find this time correctly.

(b) The best approach to this question is to resolve forces vertically which enables the normal reaction,
R, to be found and then to resolve forces in the direction of motion which gives the value of the
friction force, F. Once these two values are found then the coefficient of friction, µ, is found using
F
µ = . This was the approach taken by most candidates. However, a common error seen was to
R
take the normal reaction as R = 4g, not taking into account the component of the 3 N force. Sign
errors and trigonometric errors in the two equations also lead to some incorrect answers.

Question 3

(a) This question was well answered by most candidates. The initial kinetic energy must be evaluated
and an expression formed for the gain in potential energy. As there is no resistance to motion the
energy equation takes the form, loss in kinetic energy is equal to the gain in potential energy. This
leads to the required result. However, some candidates incorrectly assumed that it was possible to
use the equation v2 = u2 + 2as to find the height. Since the motion is not in a straight line it is not
possible to use constant acceleration equations. Whilst a few candidates chose this incorrect
method, the majority of candidates found the required value of h correctly.

(b) This question proved to be challenging for a large number of candidates. Many issues occurred
because candidates incorrectly assumed that the speed of the particle at B was 3 ms–1 as it was in
part (a). However, this value only applied in part (a). As with all energy problems it must first be
decided from which point to measure the zero level of potential energy. If this zero level of PE is
1
taken as the level of point C, then the total initial energy is × 0.2 × 52 + 0.2 × 10 × 0.5 . If v is the
2
speed of the particle at C then the work-energy equation states that the total initial energy must be
1
equated to × 0.2 × v 2 + 3.1. Some candidates incorrectly tried to use the given 3.1 to enable a
2
friction force to be found. Others assumed that the particle reached B with the same speed as in
part (a) and then used the 3.1 only on the section BC. Another error was to not include all of the
relevant terms in the work-energy equation.

Question 4

(a) This question was challenging for many candidates. One method of approach is to find expressions
for the distances AB and BC in terms of the required acceleration, a. Although it was
1
s ut + at 2 , it was clear that many
straightforward to find the distance BC by using the equation =
2
1 2
candidates were unfamiliar with the equation s= vt − at which was the most straightforward
2
method of finding the distance AB. Once the values of AB and BC were found, use of the given

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

4
information that AB = BC enabled the required acceleration to be found. Many different
5
approaches were seen. These often included use of the speed, u, at A, such that AB = 2u + 2a and
the equation u = 4.5 – 2a. This is a perfectly acceptable method and also leads to the correct value
of a. However, a significant number of candidates incorrectly thought that u = 0.

(b) In this part of the question use of the acceleration found in part (a) enabled the required distance to
be found. A number of candidates had already found the value of AB and/or BC in their calculations
for part (a) and so merely had to combine these answers to produce their result in this part. Most
candidates attempted to use their acceleration value found in part (a).

Question 5

(a) This question states that the resultant of the four forces is in the direction of the 3 N force. This
means that the resultant force acting perpendicular to the 3 N force is zero. By resolving forces in
this direction and setting this to zero gives the required value of F. Most candidates solved the
problem correctly. However, some candidates incorrectly resolved forces parallel to the 3 N force
and set this to zero which gave an incorrect value for F. Another error seen was where candidates
incorrectly resolved in both directions, found two values of F and combined them using Pythagoras.
There were also some sign errors seen and a mix up of sine and cosine when resolving.

(b) The standard method of solution to this problem is to resolve forces vertically and horizontally; this
method was used by the majority of candidates. These two equations can be rearranged to give
expressions for F sin α and F cos α. There are various methods for solving these equations for
F and α. One method is to square and add the two expressions which leads to a value of F and
then α is found by substitution. Alternatively, dividing the two expressions leads to a value of tan α,
from which α can be found and substitution leads to the value of F. Most candidates made a good
attempt at this question. One common error seen was to attempt to use Lami’s theorem, but this
only applies to a system of three forces. Some sign and trigonometric errors were seen in some of
the calculations. Some candidates did not retain enough significant figures in their working and so
lost accuracy in their final answers.

Question 6

(a) In order to determine the force in the tow-bar, the best approach is to consider the motion of the
trailer. The only forces acting on the trailer are the force in the tow-bar and the given resistance of
200 N. By applying Newton’s second law to the trailer and using the given acceleration of –12 ms–2
then the value of the force T N in the tow-bar can be found. Many candidates used this approach
but made sign errors when finding the value of T. It is clear from the result that the force in the
tow-bar is a thrust. The question asked for the magnitude of this force and several candidates gave
their answer as a negative number. Another common error seen was to apply Newton’s second law
to the system of car and trailer but the force in the tow-bar does not appear in this equation. One
more common error was to apply Newton’s second law to the car, but there is an unknown braking
force also acting on the car and so it is not possible to find T directly by this method. A longer
method of approach is to use the equation for the system and also the equation for the car. Both of
these equations involve the braking force which could be eliminated between these two equations
giving a value for T.

(b) In this part of the question the braking force is required and there are two possible methods of
approach. Newton’s second law can be applied either to the system of car and trailer or it can be
applied to the car. If it is applied to the car, then the value of T found in part (a) must be used. If it
is applied to the system then the only forces acting are the given resistance of (600 + 200) N and
the required braking force. There were several cases seen where terms were missing depending
on which method was used and many candidates made errors in the sign of the forces. Candidates
would be advised to draw a simple diagram showing all of the forces acting on whichever body is
being considered.

(c) In this part of question the initial speed u = 22 is given, as well as the displacement s = 17.5 and the
acceleration a = –12. By using the equation v2 = u2 + 2as, the speed, v, of the car as it hits the van
can be found. Almost all candidates found the required speed correctly. It must be remembered
that as this is a given answer, care must be taken to show all of the working in such a case.

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 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

(d) This question involves the use of the principle of conservation of momentum. Before the collision
the total momentum of the system is (1600 + 700) × 8 by using the result from part (c). If M kg is the
mass of the van then the total momentum after the collision is (1600 + 700) × 2 + 5 M. Equating
momentum before the collision to momentum after the collision enables the value of M to be found.
Some common errors seen were to only include the car and not the trailer in the calculations.
Another common error was to only consider the momentum after the collision. Some candidates
incorrectly used the initial speed as u = 22 rather than u = 8.

Question 7

(a) This part refers only to the time up to t = 6. This requires differentiation of the given expression for s
in order to find the velocity during this time and then setting this velocity to zero to determine the
time at which the particle is at instantaneous rest. Almost all candidates correctly found this time
although some candidates found the times when s = 0, rather than when v = 0.

(b) In order to find the velocity as the particle arrives at the point P, the value of t = 6 must be used in
the expression found for velocity in part (a). In order to find the velocity with which the particle
leaves P, the expression for s given for the period t ⩾ 6 must be differentiated and this expression
must be evaluated at t = 6. Most candidates found the velocity with which the particle arrives at P
correctly. Some errors were seen in the differentiation of s for t ⩾ 6 and since the velocity was
required, the final answer must be given with a negative sign to indicate the direction of motion but
some candidates gave the answer as positive.

(c) Candidates found this question to be quite challenging. A sketch of the displacement-time graph for
the period 0 ⩽ t ⩽ 6 shows that the particle returns to the origin O at t = 1, comes to instantaneous
rest at t = 1.5 and is again at O at time t = 2. This means that in order to find the distance travelled
the journey must be divided into three time periods, namely, 0 ⩽ t ⩽ 1.5, 1.5 ⩽ t ⩽ 6 and t ⩾ 6,
otherwise there will be a confusion between distance travelled and displacement. Using the given
expression for s in the period 0 ⩽ t ⩽ 6 it can be seen that at t = 0, s = 2 and that at t = 1.5, s = –0.25.
Hence the distance travelled by the particle between the times t = 0 and t = 1.5 is 2.25 m. Since
s = 20 at t = 6, the distance travelled between t = 1.5 and t = 6 is 20.25 m. Finally using the
expression for s in the period t ⩾ 6 it can be seen that at t = 10, s = 2.4 and so the distance travelled
between t = 6 and t = 10 is 20 – 2.4 = 17.6 m. Adding these three distances together gives the total
distance travelled. Many candidates did not consider the fact that the particle came to rest at a
negative value of s and considered the region from t = 0 to t = 6 without reference to the time t = 1.5.
This meant that they were not correctly finding the distance travelled during this time. Some
candidates incorrectly integrated the expression for s in their attempt to find the distance.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

MATHEMATICS

Paper 9709/52
Probability and Statistics

Key messages

Candidates should be aware of the need to communicate their method clearly. Simply stating values often
does not provide sufficient evidence of the calculation undertaken, especially when there are errors earlier in
the solution.

Candidates should state only non-exact answers to 3 significant figures and exact answers should be stated
in their exact form. It is important that candidates work to at least 4 significant figures throughout to justify a
3 significant figure value. The only exception is if a value is stated within the question. It is an inefficient use
of time to convert an exact fractional value to an inexact decimal equivalent. There is no requirement for
probabilities to be stated as a decimal.

General comments

Although many well-structured responses were seen, some candidates did not use the response space in a
clear manner which made it difficult to follow their thinking within their solution. Where a solution is deleted,
the use of the Additional Page was the most effective process to provide the replacement solution if there is
insufficient space remaining, however a significant number of candidates used the space either side of their
original attempt resulting in poor clarity.

The use of simple sketches and diagrams can help clarify both context and conditions. These were
frequently present in good solutions.

Many good solutions were seen for Questions 1, 5 and 6. The context in Questions 4 and 7 was found
challenging by many. Sufficient time seems to have been available for candidates to complete all the work
they were able to, although a few candidates did not appear to have prepared well for all topic areas of the
syllabus.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Almost all candidates recognised this as a selection question and used combinations within their solutions.
The best solutions had a simple narrative to clarify the context and identify how many members needed to be
considered for travelling in the coach. The most common errors were using either 40 or 39 as the number of
members who were available to travel on the coach which ignored the travel requirements for Ranuf and
Saed. A significant proportion of solutions combined their value for coach travel selections with a value for
travelling in the car, some correctly identified that there was only one possible selection once the coach had
been filled whereas many calculated an alternative value using a further combination approach. Although the
majority then multiplied their values as anticipated, a few summed their values. It was noted that almost all
candidates did not round their exact value answer in accordance with the general paper instructions.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Question 2

Almost all solutions used methods appropriate for Discrete Random Variables in this question. A small
number of solutions worked with decimals, which is less efficient and less accurate than using the fractional
approach.

(a) The majority of candidates recognised that a geometric distribution was appropriate for this context.
The most successful solutions simply calculated the probability for the required outcomes and
summed the results. A few candidates used 16 as the success probability, which does not allow
that either 1 or 6 would finish the activity. Some candidates used the alternative approach of finding
the difference between needing at least 3 and at least 6 throws, however many of these candidates
confused the power value that was required within their formula. Weaker responses assumed that
this was a binomial distribution and gained no credit.

(b) Almost all candidates who attempted this question presented their solution as a probability
distribution table. Weaker responses were not always successful in identifying the correct
outcomes, often omitting 0 and sometimes including 4 etc in their table. Better solutions included
separate workings to justify the table values, clearly indicating the binomial nature of the
distribution. Weaker solutions did not apply fully the binomial distribution for outcomes 1 and 2,
leading to a probability distribution table which did not total to 1. Some candidates used decimal
equivalents within the table, where rounding to 3 significant figures resulted in a probability of less
than 1. It is good practice to use exact values whenever possible.

(c) Almost all solutions used the appropriate approach with the values in the probability distribution
table in part (b). Better responses clearly stated the calculations that were necessary and then
efficiently evaluated with no further working. Some weaker responses showed attempted use of
E(x) = np.

Question 3

All but the weakest solutions used the normal standardisation formula appropriately, although there were
inaccuracies noted in finding the z-value associated with the probability within the context. The majority of
candidates correctly identified that as weight is a continuous variable, no continuity correct was required.

(a) Better solutions often included a simple diagram to clarify the context. There was usually a clear
statement of an equation involving the normal standardisation formula and a z-value, although
different probabilities were noted and the z-value was not always accurate. Candidates should be
aware that stating a final answer as 6.5 is not acceptable, since non-exact answers must be stated
to 3 significant figures.

(b) The most successful solutions often included a simple diagram to clarify the context. It was
anticipated that candidates would realise that the information provided in the question was the
value required for the numerator in the normal standardisation formula. However, the majority of
candidates calculated appropriate values of 86 grams and/or 78 grams and then substituted into
the formula. A number of arithmetical errors were noted at this stage. A small number of candidates
did not use the mean stated in the question or used a numerator of 8 in their standardisation
formula.

Better solutions recognised the symmetrical nature of the context and having worked out one
probability use this symmetry to state the other required probability. Weaker solutions simply
worked out the probability that the apple weighed more than 78 grams.

Question 4

The majority of candidates recognised that as the candles were identical, repeats needed to be removed and
there was some process to undertake this in most solutions.

(a) Although this was a simple context, many candidates misinterpreted the information and assumed
that the red candles were not identical. Better solutions included a simple diagrammatic
representation of the context for clarity and included simple explanations. Weaker responses often
only removed the repeats for one colour candle or calculated the number of arrangements if all
candles were different.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

(b) Although many candidates appeared to find the context of this question challenging, a large
number of good solutions were seen and a number of different approaches were taken. Many
solutions included a simple diagram to represent the blue and green candles to identify where the
red candles could be placed. The most efficient solution was to consider that there were seven
items which were not red candles and then determining that there were 8C2 ways of placing the two
red candles, although 8P2 was seen frequently. A significant number of candidates did not apply the
fact that the green candles were identical and so the repeated arrangements needed to be
eliminated.

A large number of candidates attempted to calculate from the total number of arrangements with
just the blue candles together and subtract the number of arrangements of blue candles together
and red candles together. This approach tended to be less successful largely due to the blue
candles not being kept as a block in calculations. In this approach, almost all candidates did
eliminate the repeated arrangements for the green candles in every term.

Question 5

Almost all candidates identified that the question related to probability using the binomial distribution.
Candidates were often unsure in their interpretation of the condition requirements within the contexts and the
appropriate boundaries were not often used.

(a) The most common, and efficient, approach was to subtract the probabilities of the outcomes not
required from 1. Better solutions clearly stated an unsimplified expression using binomials terms
and appropriate use of brackets or operations before using the calculator efficiently to state the
answer. Many candidates evaluated individual terms initially, which is not expected at this level.
This also resulted in some loss of accuracy with premature approximation or inaccurate rounding
being noted. A significant number of solutions included 6 as a required outcome, which is excluded
by the requirement of ‘less than 6’.

A few candidates used the less efficient approach of adding the 6 outcomes that fulfilled the
requirement.

(b) Nearly all candidates identified that the normal distribution was an appropriate approximation for
the context. Better solutions included a formal check initially to confirm before proceeding with the
question. Most candidates recognised that a continuity correction was required in the
standardisation formula because the variable was discrete. Good solutions stated unsimplified
calculations for the mean and variance before substituting into the standardisation formula and
evaluating the z-value. The inclusion of a simple sketch helped to clarify the required probability
area. There was some evidence of premature approximation of the z-value and candidates should
be reminded that working to at least 4 significant figures is the expectation until the final answer, if
not exact.

Question 6

Many candidates found this probability question accessible and provided good evidence of their calculations
throughout.

(a) Although many full correct tree diagrams were seen, a significant proportion did not include placing
the ball that was picked from Box A into Box B before picking the ball from that box. Almost all
solutions used fractions for probabilities, those that converted to decimals usually stated to 3
significant figures which is acceptable here but led to premature approximation errors later in the
question. A number of solutions had branch pairs which did not total to 1.

(b) The best solutions stated the colour combinations that were required and then stated an
unsimplified expression using the values from their tree diagram, which was evaluated efficiently.
Weaker solutions simply stated the two outcome probabilities which did not provide sufficient
evidence of process if the tree diagram was inaccurate. Candidates should be reminded that their
workings need to communicate clearly their planned process even if their final answer is correct.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

(c) Most solutions clearly communicated the use of the standard conditional probability formula. Better
solutions also included a general statement of the formula before values were substituted. Weaker
solutions only considered one branch using 18 in the numerator.
Question 7

Many candidates found this question on representation of data challenging. The question was in a real-life
context, so some standard processes needed to be adapted to ensure that fish did not have a negative
length, which is impossible.

(a) Almost all candidates attempted to draw a cumulative frequency graph, although histograms and
frequency polygons were also noted. Good solutions stated the cumulative frequency before
drawing the graph. Many candidates efficiently used the data table, with the best extending the
table with an appropriate narrative. The best solutions used a vertical scale that allowed the values
to be plotted accurately, identified the correct boundaries of the classes for plotting the cumulative
frequencies, fully labelled both axes and drew a smooth curve. Candidates should be reminded
that axes involving variables should include units when labelled. Although only a small number of
candidates plotted at mid-values, there was inconsistency in interpreting the upper boundary of the
classes, with many not allowing for the discrete nature of the data and plotting at the stated values.
This was particularly noticeable with the final class which was often plotted incorrectly even after
previous correct plots at 29.5 or 30. As real-life data was used, it was anticipated that the curve
would start at (0,0) rather than (–0.5, 0) which is an invalid length for a fish.

(b) Many candidates misinterpreted this question and used their graph to estimate the length which at
least 40 per cent of the fish have. Good solutions identified that 60 per cent of the fish would have
a length of less than d cm, calculated the value and drew lines on their graph to show how the
estimate was achieved. Weaker solutions simply provided a value with little evidence that it had
been read off the graph. Where a question specifies a technique must be used, candidates would
be well advised to ensure that this is communicated clearly within their work. A number of solutions
were seen which used a sample size of 160 in this question. It was noted that candidates that had
used a more complex scale in part (a) were less successful in stating their value accurately.

(c) While the majority of attempted solutions used the correct variance formula, many did not apply the
real-life context appropriately and found the theoretical mid-value of the first class rather than
realising that fish could not have a negative length. The best solution provided a variance formula
with all the values substituted which was then evaluated with no further working shown. Many good
candidates included an expanded data table and included all the necessary values within this
structure efficiently. The most common error was using 4.5 as the mid-value for the first class. A
number of candidates recalculated the mean length of the 150 fish, not always achieving the value
given.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

MATHEMATICS

Paper 9709/62
Probability and Statistics

Key messages

• If candidates use the Additional Page for working, it is important that the question number is clearly
indicated.
• It is important that candidates recognise the need to round answers to the required number of significant
figures, this was particularly apparent in Question 1.
• Candidates are always reminded to provide full and clear method to support their answers. Instances
where candidates were not doing this was in Questions 1 and 7.
• When carrying out a significance test the conclusion must be in context and not definite, this was
particularly important for Question 3(b).

General comments

Candidates appeared to find this paper reasonably accessible, with some responses being to a very high
standard.
Questions 3(a) and 4(a) were particularly well attempted, as was Question 6. Questions that proved to be
more challenging were Questions 5 and 7.
It is important that candidates can round correctly to three significant figures. There were instances in
candidate responses where only two, or even one significant figures were given with no indication of more
accurate figures; this would result in a loss of accuracy.
There did not appear to be any time issues for candidates on this paper, and presentation was generally
good.
The comments below indicate common errors and misconceptions, however, there were also many full and
correct solutions presented too.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

A large number of candidates used the correct method to find the required probability, though rounding and
premature approximation errors were common. The value for λ was 5/12; many candidates used 0.417 or
0.4166 (both acceptable) but a value of 0.42 or 0.416 was not. The final answer of 0.0661 or 0.0662 was
often given to only 2sf (0.066), this was not acceptable unless more accurate figures were seen before
rounding. This error in rounding is probably due to a confusion between significant figures and decimal
places; it is important that candidates distinguish between these two ways of rounding. The accuracy
required on this paper is to at least 3sf, so an answer here of 0.066, alone, is insufficient.
A few candidates attempted to use a Binomial distribution, rather than a Poisson, which was often
unsuccessful and was not as required by the question. It was important that candidates gave full method to
support their final answer of 0.0661 by using a Poisson distribution which was the ‘suitable distribution’ as
required by the question.

Question 2

Many candidates were able to find the correct equation connecting the width of the confidence interval to the
z value, although there were occasional missing factors of 2. Most candidates then went on to find the
correct z value of 1.953 and then successfully looked this up in the tables to find 0.9746. However, at this
point many candidates were unable to then find the correct value for α and either thought it was 97.46%, or
attempted an incorrect method to find α. It was again important that clear working was shown from finding
the z value of 1.953 to reaching the final value for α.

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Question 3

Part (a) was particularly well attempted. Most candidates correctly found estimates for the population mean
and variance with very few candidates calculating the biased variance rather than the unbiased. There were
only a few cases seen where candidates confused the two formulae for the unbiased variance.
Part (b) was also well attempted; though some candidates omitted to give hypotheses or did not give them
precisely enough. The comparison of z values, or area, needed to be fully shown, and the final conclusion
needed to be in context, and not definite. Many errors were made when attempting the comparison and in
some cases it was omitted completely. Concluding statements such as ‘the mean time has decreased’ or
‘there is evidence to reject Ho’ would not be acceptable; the first statement being definite as it is saying that
we know for certain that the mean time has decreased and the second is without context.

Question 4

Part (a) was very well attempted. Many candidates found a correct value for λ, and used it to find the
required probability. Errors included calculation of P(0, 1, 2, 3) rather than P(0, 1, 2) and use of an incorrect
λ.
In part (b), a good attempt was made by some candidates to find n. Many realised that the inequality they
found could be solved by taking log (base e). Reaching 6.411 was often successfully done, but many
candidates then left this as their final answer, or incorrectly concluded that n was 7. Other errors included
premature approximations, using –0.05 instead of –0.05129 for ln 0.95 as well as unsuccessful attempts at a
trial and improvement method seen.

Question 5

Candidates generally found this to be a challenging question; part (c) indicated lack of understanding and
interpretation of the context given in the question in some cases.
In part (a), many candidates successfully integrated f(x), but many did not use correct limits. Some
candidates tried to find E(X) and Var(X) and some went on to use an invalid normal distribution.
In part (b), many candidates attempted to set up a correct equation involving 0.25 (or 0.75) but the limits
used were not always correct, and some candidates did not declare any limits at all. Those who used a
correct equation and correct limits were, on the whole, able to use correct algebra to reach the answer given.
Part (c) was poorly attempted with some candidates omitting this part completely. Many candidates
incorrectly thought that q would be twice the value of p, and some attempted to integrate f(x) between –q and
+q and equate to 0.5, although few candidates were successful in doing so. This led to the equation found in
(b) but in q rather than p thus a clear deduction that q=p could be made. A quicker and more straightforward
method was to use the symmetry of the curve to deduce that q=p; use of a diagram could have helped
candidates here.

Question 6

This question was well attempted with many candidates using the correct method to find the probabilities
required. However, not all were successful in finding the correct values for the mean or, more often, for the
variance. Standardising and use of tables was generally done well in both parts. Candidates should however
be reminded that working should be fully shown. Common errors included the inclusion of an unrequired
continuity correction, and use of the wrong area when finding the required probability; candidates would be
advised to sketch a diagram.

Question 7

This proved to be a demanding question for a large number of candidates. In part (a) some candidates
found the rejection region from invalid methods (for example, finding individual probabilities and not a tail
probability), and some gave unsupported answers for the probabilities needed to justify the rejection region.
Working out must be shown so that it is clear that B(20, 0.95) was used to find P(X ⩽ 17) and P(X ⩽ 16);
merely quoting B(20, 0.95) was not sufficient. These probabilities should have been worked out to three
significant figure accuracy but often were only given to two significant figures. Some candidates only found
P(X ⩽ 16), which was not sufficient to fully justify the rejection region. Weaker responses attempted incorrect
solutions using a Normal distribution.
In part (b) many candidates incorrectly thought that the probability was 0.02 (from the level of significance).

© 2020
 Cambridge International Advanced Level
9709 Mathematics March 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Some candidates correctly used B(20.0.7) in part (c) to find the probability of a type II error, but there was
often confusion over which region related to the type II error. As in part (a) incorrect use of a Normal
Distribution was often seen.

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