AIEEE 2003

PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY

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1. A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with velocity v describe a circular path of radius R when

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subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic field of induction B. The work done by the field when the particle
completes one full circle is

 Mv2 
(a)   2πR (c) BQ2 π R (d) BQ v2 π R

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(b) Zero
 R 
2. A particle of charge - 16 × 10-18 coulomb moving with velocity 10ms-1 along the x-axis enters a region where
a magnetic field of induction B is along the y-axis, and an electric field of magnitude 104V/m is along the
negative z-axis. If the charged particle continues moving along the x-axis, the magnitude of B is

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(a) 103Wb/m2 (b) 105Wb/m2 (c) 1016Wb/m2 (d) 10-3Wb/m2
3. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation equal to T. Now it is broken into two
equal halves (each having half of the original length) and one piece is made to oscillate freely in the same
T′

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field. If its period of oscillation is T′ , the ratio is
T
1 1 1

4.
(a)
2 2
(b)
2
(c) 2
ss. (d)
4
A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through 600. The
torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be
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3
(a) 3W (b) W (c) W (d) 2W
2
5. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
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(a) are from north-pole to south-pole of the magnet

(b) do not exist
(c) depend upon the area of cross-section of the bar magnet
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(d) are from south-pole to north-pole of the magnet

6. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic (b) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
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(c) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic (d) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic
7. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and the spring reads 49
N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an acceleration of 5m/s2, the reading of the
spring balance will be
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(a) 24 N (b) 74 N (c) 15 N (d) 49 N

8. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm, and the e.m.f. of its standard cell is E volt. It is employed
to measure the e.m.f of a battery whose internal resistance is 0.5 Ω . If the balance point is obtained at l = 30
cm from the positive end, the e.m.f. of the battery is
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30 E 30 E 30 ( E − 0.5i) 30 E
(a) (b) (c) , where i is the current in the potentiometer wire (d)
100.5 (100 − 0.5) 100 100
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9. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of
(a) each of these decreases (b) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(c) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases (d) each of these increases
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10. Consider telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index
(b) Optical fibres are subjective to electromagnetic interference from outside
(c) Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss

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(d) Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding.
11. The thermo e.m.f. of a thermo-couple is 25 µ V/ 0C at room temperature. A galvanometer of 40 ohm resis-
tance, capable of detecting current as low as 10-5 A, is connected with the thermo couple. The smallest
temperature difference that can be detected by this sytem is

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(a) 160C (b) 120C (c) 80C (d) 200C
12. The negative Zn pole of a Daniell cell, sending a constant current through a circuit, decreases in mass by
0.13 g in 30 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of Zn and Cu are 32.5 and 31.5 respectively, the
increase in the mass of the positive Cu pole in this time is

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(a) 0.180 g (b) 0.141 g (c) 0.126 g (d) 0.242 g
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13. Dimension of µ ε , where symbols have their usual meaning, are
0 0

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(a) [L-1 T] (b) [L-2 T2] (c) [L2 T-2] (d) [LT-1]
14. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron plate of thickness t, and another disc Y of radius 4R is
t
made from an iron plate of thickness

(a) IY = 32 IX (b) IY = 16 IX
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(c) IY = IX
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. Then the relation between the moment of inertia IX and IY is

(d) IY = 64 IX
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15. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is
increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become
(a) 10 hours (b) 80 hours (c) 40 hours (d) 20 hours
16. A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular frequency is doubled & its kinetic energy halved,
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then the new angular momentum is

L L
(a) (b) 2L (c) 4 L (d)
4 2
17. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength?
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(a) γ -rays (b) β -rays (c) α -rays (d) X-rays

18. When a U238 nucleus originally at rest, decays by emitting an alpha particle having a speed ‘u’, the recoil
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speed of the residual nucleus is

4u 4u 4u 4u
(a) (b) − (c) (d) −
238 234 234 238
19. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M & radii R & 2R respectively are released in free space with initial
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separation between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then
the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision is
(a) 2.5 R (b) 4.5 R (c) 7.5 R (d) 1.5 R
20. The difference in the variation of resistance with temperature in a metal and a semiconductor arises essen-
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tially due to the difference in the

(a) crystal structure (b) variation of the number of charge carriers with temperature
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(c) type of bonding (d) variation of scattering mechanism with temperature

21. A car, moving with a speed of 50 km/hr, can be stopped by brakes after at least 6 m. If the same car is moving
at a speed of 100 km/hr, the minimum stopping distance is
(a) 12 m (b) 18 m (c) 24 m (D) 6 m
2
22. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building throws a ball with a speed of 10m/s at an angle of 300 with
the horizontal. How far from the throwing point will the ball be at the height of 10 m from the ground?

1 3
[g = 10m/s2, sin300 = , cos300 = ]
2 2

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(a) 5.20m (b) 4.33m (c) 2.60m (d) 8.66m
23. An ammeter reads up to 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range to 10 A the value
of the required shunt is

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(a) 0.03 Ω (b) 0.3 Ω (c) 0.9 Ω (d) 0.09 Ω
24. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are
(a) torque and work (b) momentum and Planck’s constant
(d) speed and (µ 0 ε 0 )−1/ 2

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(c) stress and Young’s modulus
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25. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a particle moving with velocity, v . These forces are represented
in magnitude and direction by the three sides of a triangle ABC. The particle will now move with velocity

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C

A
ss. B
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r r r
(a) less than v (b) greater than v (c) v in the direction of the largest force BC (d) v , remaining unchanged

26. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is φ1 and φ2 , the electric charge
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inside the surface will be

(a) (φ2 − φ1 )ε 0 (b) (φ1 + φ2 ) / ε 0 (c) (φ2 − φ1 )/ ε 0 (d) (φ1 + φ2 )ε 0
27. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The co-efficient of
friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is
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10N

(a) 20 N (b) 50 N (c) 100 N (d) 2 N

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28. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s. Then
the coefficient of friction is
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.01
29. Consider the following two statements:
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(A) Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero

(B) Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero
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Then (a) A does not imply B and B does not imply A

(b) A implies B but B does not imply A
(c) A does not imply B but B implies A (d) A implies B and B implies A
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30. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends upon
(a) the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils
(b) relative position and orientation of the two coils (c) the materials of the wires of the coils.
(d) the currents in the two coils

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31. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force P is applied
at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the block is
Pm Pm PM
(a) (b) (c) P (d)

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M+m M−m M+m
32. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block of mass M kg hangs
from the former one. Then the true statement about the scale reading is
(a) Both the scales read M kg each (b) The scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero

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(c) The reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading will be M kg
(d) Both the scales read M/2 kg each
33. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower end.
The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is

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(a) 0.2 J (b) 10 J (c) 20 J (d) 0.1 J
34. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of earth is 11 km/s. If the body
is projected at an angle of 450 with the vertical, the escape velocity will be

(a) 11 2 km/s (b) 22 km/s (c) 11 km/s ss. (d)

11
2
km/s
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35. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and then released so that
5T
the mass executes SHM of time period T. If the mass is increased by m, the time period becomes . Then
3
m
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the ratio of is
M
3 25 16 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 9 9 3
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36. “Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature” is a statement
or consequence of
(a) second law of thermodynamics (b) conservation of momentum
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(c) conservation of momentum (d) first law of thermodynamics

37. Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring constant k1 and k2,
respectively. If the maximum velocities, during oscillation, are equal, the ratio of amplitude of A and B is
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k1 k2 k2 k1
(a) k2 (b) k (c) k1 (d) k
1 2

38. The length of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic motion is increased by 21%. The percentage
increase in the time period of the pendulum of increased length is
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(a) 11% (b) 21% (c) 42% (d) 10%

 π
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−4
39. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x-direction is given by y = 10 sin  600t − 2x +  metres
 3
-1
where x is expressed in metres and t in seconds. The speed of the wave-motion, in ms , is
(a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 1200 (d) 200
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40. When the current changes from +2A to -2A in 0.05 second, an e.m.f. of 8V is induced in a coil. The
coefficient of self-induction of the coil is
(a) 0.2 H (b) 0.4 H (c) 0.8 H (d) 0.1 H
41. In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the capacitor when the
energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic field is

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Q Q Q
(a) (b) (c) (d) Q
2 3 2

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42. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to
(a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents (b) make it light weight
(c) make it robust and strong (d) increase the secondary voltage
r r r
43. Let F be the force acting on a particle having position vector r and T be the torque of this force about the

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origin. Then
rr r r rr r r
(a) r .T = 0 and F.T ≠ 0 (b) r .T ≠ 0 and F.T = 0
rr r r rr r r

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(c) r .T ≠ 0 and F.T ≠ 0 (d) r .T = 0 and F.T = 0
44. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per minute. After 5 min-
utes, the rate is 1250 disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay constant (per minute) is
(a) 0.4 ln 2 (b) 0.2 ln 2 (c) 0.1 ln 2
45. A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the following in a sequence: ss.
(d) 0.8 ln 2

α, β − , β − α, α, α, α, α, β − , β − , α, β + , β + , α . Then Z of the resulting nucleus is

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(a) 76 (b) 78 (c) 82 (d) 74
46. Two identical photocathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2. If the velocities of the photo electrons (of
mass m) coming out are respectively v1 and v2, then
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1/ 2
2h  2h 
(a) v − v = ( f1 − f2 ) (b) v1 + v 2 =  ( f1 + f2 )
2 2
1 2
m m 
1/ 2
2h  2h 
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(c) v + v = (f1 + f2 ) (d) v1 − v 2 =  (f1 − f2 )

2 2
1 2
m m 
47. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substances during their decay?
(a) Protons (b) Neutrinoes (c) Helium nuclei (d) Electrons
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48. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The
current I, in the circuit will be
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3Ω 3Ω
3V
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3Ω

(a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A (c) 2 A (d) 1/3 A

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49. A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is introduced between the plates of a capacitor. The capaci-
tance of the capacitor
(a) decreases (b) remains unchanged (c) becomes infinite (d) increases
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50. The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 4(cos π t + sin π t). The amplitude of the
particle is
(a) -4 (b) 4 (c) 4 2 (d) 8
51. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the centre of the

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R
shell. The electrostatic potential at a point P a distance from the centre of the shell is
2
(q + Q )2

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2Q 2Q 2q 2Q q
(a) 4πε R (b) 4πε R − 4πε R (c) 4πε R + 4πε R (d) 4πε R
0 0 0 0 0 0

52. The work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10-18 coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100 micro-farad is
(a) 16 × 10-32 joule (b) 3.1 × 10-26 joule (c) 4 × 10-10 joule (d) 32 × 10-32 joule

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53. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time ‘t’ are given by x = α t3 and y = β t3. The speed of the
particle at time ‘t’ is given by

(a) 3t α 2 + β 2 (b) 3t 2 α 2 + β 2 (c) t 2 α 2 + β 2 (d) α 2 + β2

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54. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute
temperature. The ratio CP/CV for the gas is
4 5 3
(a)
3
(b) 2 (c)
3 ss. (d)
2
55. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter?
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(a) temperature (b) Pressure (c) Work (b) Volume
56. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal. of heat from a reservoir at 6270C, and gives it to a sink at 270C. The work
done by the engine is
(a) 4.2 × 106 J (b) 8.4 × 106 J (c) 16.8 × 106 J (d) Zero
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57. A spring of spring constant 5 × 10 N/m is stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched position. Then the
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work required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is

(a) 12.50 N-m (b) 18.75 N-m (c) 25.00 N-m (d) 6.25 N-m
58. A metal wire of linear mass density of 9.8 g/m is stretched with a tension of 10 kg-wt between two rigid
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supports 1 metre apart. The wire passes at its middle point between the poles of a permanent magnet, and it
vibrates in resonance when carrying an alternating current of frequency n. The frequency n of the alternating
source is
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(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 200 Hz (d) 25 Hz

59. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes 5 beats per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The
beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The
frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was
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(a) 256 + 2 Hz (b) 256 - 2 Hz (c) 256 - 5 Hz (d) 256 + 5 Hz

60. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential energy (P.E), the kinetic energy (K.E) and total
energy (T.E) are measured as a function of displacement x. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) K.E. is maximum when x = 0 (b) T.E is zero when x = 0
(c) K.E is maximum when x is maximum (d) P.E. is maximum when x = 0
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61. In the nuclear fusion reaction 12 H +13 H →24 He + n given that the repulsive potential energy between the two
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nuclei is ~7.7 × 10-14 J, the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the reaction is nearly
[Boltzmann’s Constant k = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K]
(a) 107 K (b) 105 K (c) 103 K (d) 109 K
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62. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential?
14 133 40 16
(a) 7 N (b) 55 Cs (c) 18 Ar (d) 8 O

( )
63. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium 12 D are slightly different from that of hydrogen

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spectrum, because
(a) the size of the two nuclei are different (b) the nuclear forces are different in the two cases
(c) the masses of the two nuclei are different

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(d) the attraction between the electron and the nucleus is different in the two cases
64. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse biased p-n junction, the
(a) electric field is zero (b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum (d) potential is zero

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65. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6eV, the energy required to remove the
electron from the first excited state of Li++ is
(a) 30.6eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 122.4 eV
66. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The distance moved by the

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body in time ‘t’ is proportional to
(a) t3/4 (b) t3/2 (c) t1/4 (d) t1/2
67. A rocket with a lift-off mass 3.5 × 104 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 10m/s2. Then the
initial thrust of the blast is
(a) 3.5 × 105 N (b) 7.0 × 105 N (c) 14.0 × 105 N ss. (d) 1.75 × 105 N
68. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require two sources which emit radiation
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(a) of nearly the same frequency (b) of the same frequency
(c) of different wavelengths (d) of the same frequency and having a definite phase relationship
69. Three charges -q1, +q2 and -q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The x-component of the force on -q1 is
proportional to
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Y
-q 3
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a
θ b
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X
-q 1 +q2
q2 q3 q q q2 q3 q2 q3
(a) 2
− 2 cos θ (b) 22 + 23 sin θ (c) 2 + 2 cos θ (d) 2 − 2 sin θ
b a b a b a b a
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70. A 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across a 110 volt mains supply. The power consumed will be
(a) 750 watt (b) 500 watt (c) 250 watt (d) 1000 watt
71. The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
(a) virtual and diminished (b) real and diminished (c) real and enlarged (d) virtual and enlarged
72. The earth radiates in the infra-red region of the spectrum. The spectrum is correctly given by
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(a) Rayleigh Jeans law (b) Planck’s law of radiation

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(c) Stefan’s law of radiation (d) Wien’s law

73. To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of
(a) 600 (b) 900 (c) 1200 (d) 300

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74. According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to (∆θ) n , where ∆θ is
the difference of the temperature of the body and the surroundings, and n is equal to
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) one
75. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in diameter the

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change in the resistance of the wire will be
(a) 200% (b) 100% (c) 50% (d) 300%
76. Which of the following could act as apropellant for rockets?

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(a) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon (b) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen
(c) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen (d) Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen
77. The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and p-toluidine forms
(a) H3C N2Cl (b) H3C NHCHCl2 (c) H3C NC (d) H3C CN

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78. Nylon threads are made of
(a) polyester polymer (b) polyamide polymer (c) polyethylene polymer (d) polyvinyl polymer
79. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2 NH is

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(a) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2 (b) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
(c) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3 (d) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH
80. Bottles containing C6H5l and C6H5CH2I lost their original labels. They were labelled A and B for testing A

ss.
and B were separately taken in test tubes and boiled with NaOH solution. The end solution in each tube was
made acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3 solution was added. Substance B gave a yellow
precipitate. Which one of the following statements is true for this experiment?
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(a) A and C6H5CH2I (b) B and C6H5I
(c) Addition of HNO3 was unnecessary (d) A was C6H5I
81. The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mole. If the system goes from A
to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path what would be the net change in internal energy?
(a)> 40 kJ (b) < 40kJ (c) Zero (d) 40 kJ
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82. If at 298 K the bond energies of C-H, C-C, C = C and H-H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ
mol-1, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction H2C = CH2(g) + H2(g) → H3C - CH3(g) at 298 K will be
(a) -250 kJ (b) + 125 kJ (c) -125 kJ (d) + 250 kJ
83. The radionucleide 23490 Th undergoes two successive β -decays followed by one α -decay. The atomic num-
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ber and the mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are
(a) 94 and 230 (b) 90 and 230 (c) 92 and 230 (d) 92 and 234
84. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is three hours. If the initial mass of the isotope were 256 g, the mass of
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it remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be

(a) 8.0 g (b) 12.0 g (c) 16.0 g (d) 4.0 g
85. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution
(a) the entropy of mixing is zero (b) the free energy of mixing is zero
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(c) the free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero (d) the enthalpy of mixing is zero
86. The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La = 57) is 1.06Å. Which one of the following given values will be
closest to the radius of Lu3+ (Atomic number of Lu = 71) ?
(a) 1.40Å (b) 1.06Å (c) 0.85Å (d) 1.60Å
2+
87. Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu(NH3)4] with copper ions in alkaline solutions but not in acidic solu-
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tions. What is the reason for it?

(a) In acidic solutions protons coordinate with ammonia molecules forming NH+4 ions and NH3 molecules
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are not available

(b) In alkaline solutions insoluble Cu(OH)2 is precipitated which is soluble in excess of any alkali
(c) Copper hydroxide is an amphoteric substance
(d) In acidic solutions hydration protects copper ions.
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88. One mole of the complex compound Co(NH3)5Cl3, gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in water. One mole
of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3 solution to yield two moles of AgCl (s). The structure
of the complex is
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]. 2NH3 (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Cl. NH3 (c) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2 . NH3 (d) [Co(NH3)5Cl] Cl2

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89 In the coordination compound, K4[Ni(CN)4], the oxidation state of nickel is
(a) 0 (b) +1 (c) +2 (d) -1
90. In curing cement plasters water is sprinkled from time to time. This helps in

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(a) developing interlocking needle-like crystals of hydrated silicates
(b) hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement
(c) converting sand into silicic acid (d) keeping it cool
91. Which one of the following statements is not true?

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(a) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions (b) The pH of 1 × 10-8 M HCI is 8
(c) 96,500 coulombs of electricity when passed through a CuSO4 solution deposits 1 gram equivalent of
copper at the cathode
(d) The conjugate base of H2PO4- is HPO2-4

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92. On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultravioletlight, it forms only one
monochloroalkane. This alkane could be
(a) pentane (b) isopentane (c) neopentane (d) propane
93. Butene-1 may be converted to butane by reaction with
(a) Sn - HCI (b) Zn - Hg (c) Pd/H2 ss. (d) Zn - HCI
94. What may be expected to happen when phosphine gas is mixed with chlorine gas?
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(a) PCI3 and HCI are formed and the mixture warms up
(b) PCI5 and HCI are formed and the mixture cools down
(c) PH3.Cl2 is formed with warming up (d) The mixture only cools down
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2+
95. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe (At.no.of Fe = 26) ion is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
96. Concentrated hydrochloric acid when kept in open air sometimes produces a cloud of white fumes. The
explanation for it is that
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(a) oxygen in air reacts with the emitted HCI gas to form a cloud of chlorine gas
(b) strong affinity of HCI gas for miosture in air results in forming of droplets of liquid solution which appears
like a cloudy smoke.
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(c) due to strong affinity for water, concentrated hydrochloric acid pulls moisture of air towards it self. This
moisture forms droplets of water and hence the cloud.
(d) concentrated hydrochloric acid emits strongly smelling HCI gas all the time.
97. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to
.aim

(a) alcohols having resonance structures (b) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
(c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols (d) dipolar character of ethers
98. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that
graphite
w

(a) is an allotropic form of diamond (b) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers
(c) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds
ww

(d) is a non-crystalline substance

99. According to the Periodic Law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their
(a) nuclear masses (b) atomic numbers (c) nuclear neutron-proton number ratios (d) atomic masses
9
100. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI, ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl
(b) Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate on adding potassium ferrocyanide solution
(c) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ and HCO-3 ions we get a precipitate of K2Ca(CO3)2.

om
(d) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead test in the reducing flame
101. Glass is a
(a) super-cooled liquid (b) gel (c) polymeric mixture (d) micro-crystalline solid

ot.c
h
102. The orbital angular momentum for an electron revolving in an orbit is given by l(l + 1). 2π . This momentum
for an s-electron will be given by

gsp
h h 1 h
(a) zero (b) (c) 2. (d) + .
2π 2π 2 2π
103. How many unit cells are present in a cubeshaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g?
[Atomic masses: Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]

blo
(a) 5.14 × 1021 unit cells (b) 1.28 × 1021 unit cells
(c) 1.71 × 1021 unit cells (d) 2.57 × 1021 unit cells
104. In the anion HCOO- the two carbon-oxygen bonds are found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it?
(a) The C = O bond is weaker than the C-O bond
(b) The anion HCOO- has two resonating structures
ss.
(c) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from the acid molecule
cce
(d) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridised
105. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for physical adsorption?
(a) Adsorption increases with incresae in temperature
osu

(b) Adsorption is spontaneous (c) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative
(d) Adsorption on solids is reversible
106. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard e.m.f. of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at
250C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 250C will be
ret

(a) 29.5 × 10-2 (b) 10 (c) 1 × 1010 (d) 1 × 10-10

107. In an irreversible process taking place at constant T and P and in which only pressure-volume work is being
done, the change in Gibbs free energy (dG) and change in entropy (dS), satisfy the criteria
sda

(a) (dS)V,E > 0, (dG)T,P < 0 (b) (dS)V,E = 0, (dG)T.P = 0 (c) (dS)V,E = 0, (dG)T,P > 0 (d) (dS)V,E < 0, (dG)T,P < 0
108. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 is 1.0 × 10-5 mol L-1. Its solubility product number will be
(a) 4 × 10-10 (b) 1 × 10-15 (c) 1 × 10-10 (d) 4 × 10-15
109. What volume of hydrogen gas, at 273 K and 1 atm, pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of
.aim

elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reducti on of boron trichloride by hydrogen?
(a) 67.2 L (b) 44.8 L (c) 22.4 L (d) 89.6 L
110. For the reaction equilibrium N2O4 (g) 2 NO2(g) the concentrations of N2O4 and NO2 at equilibrium are
4.8 × 10 and 1.2 × 10 mol L respectively. The value of Kc for the reaction is
-2 -2 -1
w

(a) 3 × 10-1 mol L-1 (b) 3 × 10-3 mol L-1 (c) 3 × 103 mol L-1 (d) 3.3 × 102 mol L-1
111. Consider the reaction equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3 (g); ∆ H0 = -198 kJ. On the basis of Le Chatelier’s
ww

principle, the condition favourable for the forward reaction is

(a) increasing temperature as well as pressure (b) lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure
(c) any value of temperature and pressure (d) lowering of temperature as well as pressure
10
112. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
(a) Na2O (b) SO2 (c) B2O3 (d) ZnO
113. A red solid is insoluble in water. However it becomes soluble if some KI is added to water. Heating the red
solid in a test tube results in liberation of some violet coloured fumes and droplets of a metal appear on the
cooler parts of the test tube. The red solid is

om
(a) HgI2 (b) HgO (c) Pb3O4 (d) (NH4)2Cr2O7
114. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A,B&C are respectively +0.5 V, -3.0 V & -1.2 V. The
reducing, powers of these metals are

ot.c
(a) A > B > C (c) C > B > A (c) A > C > B (d) B > C > A
115. Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity?
(a) H2S (b) NH3 (c) PH3 (d) H2O
116. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX the degree of ionization is 0.3. Taking kf for water as 1.85,

gsp
the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to
(a) -0.3600C (b) -0.2600C (c) +0.4800C (d) -0.4800C
117. When during electrolysis of a solution of AgNO3 9650 coulombs of charge pass through the electroplating

blo
bath, the mass of silver deposited on the cathode will be
(a) 10.8 g (b) 21.6 g (c) 108 g (d) 1.08 g
118. For the redox reaction Zn(s) + Cu2+(0.1 M) → Zn2+(1M) + Cu(s) taking place in a cell, E 0cell is 1.10 volt. Ecell

(a) 1.80 volt


for the cell will be  2.303

RT
F
(b) 1.07 volt

= 0.0591

ss.
(c) 0.82 volt (d) 2.14 volt
cce
119. In respect of the equation k = Ae− Ea / RT in chemical kinetics, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) A is adsorption factor (b) Ea is energy of activation
(c) R is Rydberg’s constant (d) k is equilibrium constant
osu

120. A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic number is a characteristic of element of
(A) d-block (b) f-block (c) radioactive series (d) high atomic masses
121. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is
ret

(a) 2-methyl-3-butanone (b) 4-methylisopropyl ketone (c) 3-methyl-2-butanone (d) Isopropylmethyl ketone
122. When CH2 = CH - COOH is reduced with LiAlH4, the compound obtained will be
(a) CH2 = CH - CH2OH (b) CH3 - CH2 - CH2OH
sda

(c) CH3 - CH2 - CHO (d) CH3 - CH2 - COOH

123. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas, between two successive collisions a gas molecule
travels
(a) in a wavy path (b) in a straight line path (c) with an accelerated velocity (d) in a circular path
.aim

124. The general formula CnH2nO2 could be for open chain

(a) carboxylic acids (b) diols (c) dialdehydes (d) deketones
125. Among the following four structures I to IV.

H
CH3 O CH3 |⊕ CH3
w

H-C |
C2H5-CH - C3H7 CH3-C - CH-C2H5 | , C2H5-CH-C2H5
H . It is true that
ww

(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)

(a) only I and II are chiral compounds (b) only III i a chiral compound
(c) only II and IV are chiral compounds (d) all four are chiral compounds
11
126. What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric acid?
(a) Cr2O2-7 and H2O are formed (b) CrO2-4 is reduced to +3 state of Cr
(c) CrO2-4 is oxidized to +7 state of Cr (d) Cr3+ and Cr2O2-7 are formed
127. For making good quality mirrors, plates of float glass are used. These are obtained by floating molten glass

om
over a liquid metal which does not solidify before glass. The metal used can be
(a) tin (b) sodium (c) magnesium (d) mercury
128. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is

ot.c
(a) calcined gypsum (b) sea shells (c) dolomite (d) a marble statue
129. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
(a) D-ribose (b) D-glucose (c) L-glucose (d) D-fructose
130. Which one of the following nitrates will leave behind a metal on strong heating?

gsp
(a) Copper nitrate (b) Manganese nitrate (c) Silver nitrate (d) Ferric nitrate
131. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc. H2SO4 the initiation step is
(a) formation of carbocation (b) elimination of water
(c) formation of an ester (d) protonation of alcohol molecule

blo
132. The solubilities of carbonates decrease down the magnesium group due to a decrease in
(a) hydration energies of cations (b) inter-ionic attraction
(c) entropy of solution formation (d) lattice energies of solids
ss.
133. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value
(a) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there
cce
(b) uninfluenced by occurence of thunderstorm
(c) which depends on the amount of dust in air
(d) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm
134. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of
osu

(a) dipole-dipole interaction (b) hydrogen bonding (c) electrostatic attractions (d) van der Waals’ forces
135. 25 ml of a solution of barrium hydroxide on titration with a 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a
litre value of 35 ml. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was
(a) 0.14 (b) 0.28 (c) 0.35 (d) 0.07
ret

136. The correct relationship between free energy change in a reaction and the corresponding equilibrium con-
stant Kc is
(a) - ∆ G = RT ln Kc (b) ∆ G0 = RT ln Kc (c) - ∆ G0 = RT In Kc (d) ∆ G = RT ln Kc
sda

137. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by Rate = k[A]n [B]m On doubling the
concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the
reaction will be as
.aim

1
(a) (m + n) (b) ( n - m) (c) 2(n - m) (d) (m+ n)
2
138. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates
(a) propanoic acid and ammonium salt (b) ethanoic acid and ammonium salt
w

(c) methylamine salt and ethanoic acid (d) ethylamine salt and methanoic acid
139. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon
ww

(a) use of different reactants for the same product (b) the nature of intermediate reaction steps
(c) the differences in initial or final temperatures of involved substances
(d) the physical states of reactants and products

12
140. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because
(a) boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
(b) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
(c) cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature

om
(d) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
141. For the reaction system: 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) volume is suddenly reduce to half its value by increas-
ing the pressure on it. If the reaction is of first order with respect to O2 and second order with respect to NO,
the rate of reaction will

ot.c
(a) diminish to one-eighth of its initial value
(b) increase to eight times of its initial value
(c) increase to four times of its initial value

gsp
(d) diminish to one-fourth of its initial value
142. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship to
(a) make the ship lighter
(b) prevent action of water and salt

blo
(c) prevent puncturing by under-sea rocks
(d) keep away the sharks
143. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members?
(a) NO2 and CO2 (b) NO2 and O3
ss.
(c) SiF4 and CO2 (d) SiF4 and NO2
144. Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species? (At. nos,: 55, Br:35)
(a) N3-, F-, Na+ (b) Be, Al3+, Cl- (c) Ca2+, Cs+, Br (d) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+
cce
145. Which one of the following processes will produce hard water?
(a) Saturation of water with MgCO3
(b) Saturation of water with CaSO4
osu

(c) Addition of Na2SO4 to water

(d) Saturation of water with CaCO3
146. Which one of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule?
(a) OH2 (b) SH2 (c) NH3 (d) SO2
ret

147. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is
(a) XeF2, CO2 (b) BF3, PCl3
(c) PF5, IF5 (d) CF4, SF4
sda

148. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), Chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are respectively 23,
24, 25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second ionization enthalpy?
(a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Fe (d) V
.aim

149. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the
following inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen
(a) 5 → 2 (b) 4 → 1 (c) 2 → 5 (d) 3 → 2
150. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per second is
approximately
w

(a) 10-31 metres

(b) 10-16 metres
ww

(c) 10-25 metres

(d) 10-33 metres Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js.

13
AIEEE 2003
MATHEMATICS
d  esinx  4
3
=  , x > 0 . If
∫ xe
sinx3
dx = F(k) − F(1) then one of the possible values of k, is

om
1. Let dx F(x)
 x  1

(a) 64 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 63

2. The median of a set of 9 distinct observations is 20.5. If each of the largest 4 observations of the set is

ot.c
increased by 2, then median of the new set
(a) remains the same as that of the original set (b) is increased by 2
(c) is decreased by 2 (d) is two times the original median

gsp
1 + 2 4 + 34 + ...n 4 1 + 2 3 + 33 + ...n 3
3. lim
n →∞ 5
− lim
n →∞
n n5

1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) Zero (d)
5 30 4

blo
4. The normal at the point (bt12, 2bt1) on a parabola meets the parabola again in the point (bt22, 2bt2), then
2 2 2 2
(a) t 2 = t1 + (b) t 2 = − t1 − (c) t 2 = − t1 + (d) t 2 = t1 −
t1 t1 t1 t1

5.
(a) r > 2 (b) 2 < r < 8 (c) r < 2 (d) r = 2.
ss.
If the two circles (x-1)2 + (y-3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 - 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct point, then
cce
6. The degree and order of the differential equation of the family of all parabolas whose axis is X-axis, are
respectively.
(a) 2, 3 (b) 2, 1 (c) 1, 2 (d) 3, 2
x2 y2 x2 y2 1
osu

7. The foci of the ellipse + =1 and the hyperbola − = coincide. Then the value of b2 is
16 b 2 144 81 25
(a) 9 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 7
t

If f(y) = ey, g(y) = y; y > 0 and F( t) = ∫ f ( t − y) g(y) , then

ret

8.
0

(a) F(t) = te-t (b) F(t) = 1 - te-t (1 + t) (c) F(t) = et - (1 + t) (d) F(t) = tet.
 
sda

The function f (x) = log  x + x + 1  , is

2
9.

(a) neither an even nor an odd function (b) an even function

(c) an odd function (d) a periodic function
.aim

10. If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their
a b c
reciprocals, then , and are in
c a b
(a) Arithmetic - Geometric Progression (b) Arithmetic Progression
w

(c) Geometric Progression (d) Harmonic Progression

11. If the system of linear equations
ww

x + 2ay + az = 0 x + 3by + bz = 0 x + 4cy + cz = 0

has a non-zero solution, then a, b, c
(a) satisfy a + 2b + 3c = 0 (b) are in A.P. (c) are in G.P. (d) are in H.P.

14
12. A square of side a lies above the x-axis and has one vertex at the origin. The side passing through the origin
π
makes an angle α 0 < α <  with the positive direction of x-axis. The equation of its diagonal not passing
 4
through the origin is

om
(a) y(cos α + sin α ) + x(cos α -sin α ) = a (b) y(cos α - sin α ) - x(sin α - cos α ) = a
(c) y(cos α + sin α ) + x(sin α - cos α ) = a (d) y(cos α + sin α ) + x(sin α + cos α ) = a.
13. If the pair of straight lines x2 - 2pxy - y2 = 0 and x2 - 2pxy - y2 = 0 be such that each pair bisects the angle
between the other pair, then

ot.c
(a) pq = -1 (b) p = q (c) p = -q (d) pq = 1
14. Locus of a centriod of the triangle whose vertices are (a cos t, a sin t), (b sin t, -b cost) and (1, 0), where t is a
parameter, is

gsp
(a) (3x + 1)2 + (3y)2 = a2 - b2 (b) (3x - 1)2 + (3y)2 = a2 - b2
(c) (3x - 1)2 + (3y)2 = a2 + b2 (d) (3x + 1)2 + (3y)2 = a2 + b2
log(3 + x) − log(3 − x)
15. If lim
x→0 = k , the value of k is
x

blo
2 1 2
(a) − (b) 0 (c) − (d)
3 3 3
r r r
16. A couple is of moment G and the force forming the couple is P . If turned through a right angle the P is

moment of couple becomes

r r r
r

(a) H sin α − G cos α (b) G sin α − H cos α

r
r

r
ss.
moment of the couple thus formed is H . If instead, the force P are turned through an angle α , then the

r
(c) H sin α + G cos α
r r
(d) G sin α + H cos α
cce
r r r r r r
17. The resultant of forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled then R is doubled. If the direction of Q is reversed, then
r
R is again doubled. Then P2 : Q2 : R2 is
(a) 2 : 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 3
osu

18. The mean and variance of a random variable X having binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then P
(X = 1) is
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ret

4 32 16 8

f′(1) f′′(1) f′′′(1) (−1)n f n (1)

19. If f(x) = xn, then the value of f(1) − + − + ................. is
1! 2! 3! n!
sda

(a) 1 (b) 2n (c) 2n - 1 (d) 0

r r r
20. Let ur = î + ĵ, vr = î − ĵ and wr = î + 2 ĵ + 3k̂ . If n̂ is a unit vector such that u.n̂ = 0 and v.n̂ = 0 , then w.n̂ is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
.aim

21. A particle acted on by constant forces 4 î + ĵ − 3k̂ and 3î + ĵ − k̂ to the point 5 î + 4 ĵ − k̂ . The total work done by
the forces is
(a) 50 units (b) 20 units (c) 30 units (d) 40 units
22. The vectors AB = 3î + 4 k̂ & AC = 5î − 2 ĵ + 4 k̂ are the sides of a triangle ABC. The length of the median through
w

A is
ww

(a) 288 (b) 18 (c) 72 (d) 33

23. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = x − 1 and y = 3 − x is
(a) 6 sq. units (b) 2 sq. units (c) 3 sq. units (d) 4 sq. units
15
24. The shortest distance from the plane 12x + 4y + 3z = 327 to the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 + 4x - 2y - 6z = 155 is
4
(a) 39 (b) 26 (c) 11 (d) 13
13
25. The two lines x = ay + b, z = cy + d and x = a′ y + b′ z = c′ y + d′ will be perpendicular, if and only if

om
(a) a a′ + c c′ + 1 = 0 (b) a a′ + b b′ + c c′ + 1= 0
(c) a a′ + b b′ + c c′ = 0 (d) (a + a′ ) (b + b′ ) + (c + c′ ) = 0

ot.c
x−2 y−3 z−4 x −1 y − 4 z − 5
26. The lines = = and = = are coplanar if
1 1 −k k 1 1
(a) k = 3 or -2 (b) k = 0 or -1 (c) k = 1 or -1 (d) k = 0 or -3
b

gsp
27. If f (a + b - x) = f(x) then ∫ xf (x)dx is equal to
a

a+b a+b a+b b−a

b b b b

∫ f (a + b − x)dx (b) ∫ f ( b − x)dx (c) ∫ f (x)dx (d)

2 ∫a
f (x)dx

blo
(a)
2 a 2 a 2 a
28. A body travels a distance s in t seconds. It starts from rest and ends at rest. In the first part of the journey, it
moves with constant acceleration f and in the second part with constant retardation r. The value of t is given by

(a)
 1 1
2s + 
f r
 1 1
(b) 2s + 
f r
2s
(c) 1 1
+
ss. (d) 2s (f + r )
cce
f r
29. Two stones are projected from the top of a cliff h metres high, with the same speed u, so as to hit the ground
at the same spot. If one of the stones is projected at an angle θ to the horizontal then the θ equals
osu

2 2u u u
(a) u (b) (c) 2g (d) 2h
gh gh h g

1 ωn ω2 n
30. If 1, ω, ω are the cube roots of unity, then ∆ = ω ω2 n
ret

2 n
1 is equal to
ω2 n 1 ωn

(a) ω2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) ω

sda

31. The sum of the radii of inscribed and circumscribed circles for an n sided regular polygon of side a, is
a  π  π a  π   π
(a) 4 cot  2n  (b) a cot   (c) cot   (d) a cot  
  n 2  2n   2n 
.aim

32. If x1, x2, x3 and y1, y2, y3 are both in G.P. with the same common ratio, then the points (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3,
y3)
(a) are vertices of a triangle (b) lie on a straight line (c) lie on an ellipse (d) lie on a circle
π
33. If z and ω are two non-zero complex numbers such that zω = 1 and Arg(z) - Arg( ω ) = , then zω is equal to
w

2
(a) -i (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) i.
ww

2
34. Let Z1 and Z2 be two roots of the equation x + aZ + b = 0 being complex. Further, assume that the origin, Z1
and Z2 form an equilateral triangle. Then
(a) a2 = 4b (b) a2 = b (c) a2 = 2b (d) a2 = 3b
16
35. The solution of the differential equation (1+ y ) + x − e
2 tan
( −1
y
)dy
dx
= 0 , is

−1 −1 −1 −1
= e2tan y + k (d) xetan
−1 −1
(a) xe2 tan y
= e tan y
+k (b) (x − 2) = ke 2 tan y
(c) 2xetan y y
= tan−1 y + k
36. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f′ (x) = f(x) with f(0) = 1 and g(x) be a function that satisfies f(x) + g(x) = x2.

om
1

Then the value of the integral ∫ f (x) g(x) dx , is

0

ot.c
e2 5 e2 5 e2 3 e2 3
(a) e + + (b) e − − (c) e + − (d) e − −
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
37. The lines 2x - 3y = 5 and 3x - 4y = 7 are diameters of a circle having area as 154 sq. units. Then the equation

gsp
of the circle is
(a) x2 + y2 - 2x + 2y = 62 (b) x2 + y2 + 2x - 2y =62
(c) x2 + y2 + 2x - 2y = 47 (d) x2 + y2 - 2x + 2y = 47
3x + 1 x −1 1 − 2x

blo
38. Events A, B, C are mutually exclusive events such that P( A) = , P( B) = and P(C) = . The
3 4 4
set of possible values of x are in the interval.

1 1 1 2  1 13 
(a) [0, 1] (b)  ,
3 2 
(c)  ,
3 3  ss.
39. Five horses are in a race. Mr. A selects two of the horses at random and bets on them. The probability that Mr.
(d)  , 
3 3 
cce
A selected the winning horse is
2 4 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5
40. The value of ‘a’ for which one root of the quadratic equation (a - 5a + 3)x3 + (3a - 1)x + 2 = 0 is twice as large
2
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as the other is
1 2 2 1
(a) − (b) (c) − (d)
3 3 3 3
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27/5
41. If x is positive, the first negative term in the expansion of (1 + x) is
(a) 6th term (b) 7th term (c) 5th term (d) 8th term

42. The number of integral terms in the expansion of ( 3+8 5 )

256
is
sda

(a) 35 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34

43. If Cr denotes the number of combination of n things taken r at a time, then the expression nCr+1 + nCr-1 +2xnCr
n

equals
(a) n+1Cr+1 (b) n+2Cr (c) n+2Cr+1 (d) n+1Cr
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44. Two particles start simultaneously from the same point and move along two straight lines, one with uniform
r
velocity ur and the other from rest with uniform acceleration f . Let α be the angle between their directions
of motion. The relative velocity of the second particle w.r.t. the first is least after a time.
ucosα usinα f cosα
(d) u sin α .
w

(a) (b) (c)

f f u
ww

3 3
45. The upper th portion of a vertical pole subtends an angle tan −1 at a point in the horizontal plane through
4 5
its foot and at a distance 40 m from the foot.
(a) 80 m (b) 20 m (c) 40 m (d) 60 m
17
 π π
46. In a triangle ABC, medians AD and BE are drawn. If AD = 4, ∠DAB = and ∠ABE = , then the area of
6 3
the ∆ABC is
64 8 16 32
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3

om
47. If in a triangle ABC a cos2   +c cos2   = , then the sides a, b and c
C A 3b
2 2 2

ot.c
(a) satisfy a+ b = c (b) are in A.P. (c) are in G.P. (d) are in H.P.
r r r r r r r r r rr rr rr
48. a, b, c are 3 vectors, such that a + b + c = 0 , a = 1, b = 2, c then a.b + b.c + c.a is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) -7 (d) 7

gsp
1
49. The value of the integral I = ∫ x(1 − x) n dx is
0

1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) + (b) (c) (d) −

blo
n +1 n + 2 n +1 n+2 n +1 n + 2

x2

∫ sec
2
t dt
50. The value of

(a) 0 (b) 3
lim 0
x→0
x sin x

(c) 2
is

(d) 1
ss.
cce
51. The radius of the circle in which the sphere
x2 + y2 + z2 + 2x - 2y - 4z - 19 = 0 is cut by the plane x + 2y + 2z + 7 = 0 is
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
52. A tetrahedron has vertices at O(0, 0, 0), A(1, 2, 1) B(2, 1, 3) and C(-1, 1, 2). Then the angle between the
osu

faces OAB and ABC will be

−1  19   17 
(a) 900 (b) cos   (c) cos −1   (d) 300
 35   31 
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53. Let f(a) = g(a) = k and their nth derivatives fn(a), gn(a) exist and are not equal for some n. Further if
f (a ) g(x) − f (a ) − g(a )f (x) + f (a )
lim
x →a =4 then the value of k is
g(x) − f (x)
sda

(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1

  x 
1 − tan 2  [1 − sin x]
lim   

[ ] is
π
54. x→   x 
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1 + tan 2  π − 2x
2 3

  

1 1
(a) ∞ (b) (c) 0 (d)
8 32
55. If the equation of the locus of a point equidistant from the point (a1, b1) and
w

(a2, b2) is (a1 - b2)x + (a1 - b2)y + c = 0, then the value of ‘c’ is
ww

1 2
(a) a 12 + b12 − a 22 − b 22 (b) a 2 + b22 − a12 − b12
2

(c) a12 − a 22 + b12 − b22 (d)

1 2
2
(
a 1 + a 22 + b12 + b 22 )
18
 a a2 1+ a3
56. If b b 2 1 + b 3 = 0 and vectors (1, a, a2), (a, b, b2) and (a, c, c2) are non-coplanar, then the product abc equals
c c2 1 + c3

(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) -1 (d) 1

om
57. The number of real solutions of the equation x2 - 3|x| + 2 = 0 is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 1
2 2 2
58. If the function f(x) = 2x - 9ax + 12a x + 1, where a > 0, attains its maximum and minimum at p and q

ot.c
respectively such that p2 = q, then a equals
1
(a) (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2
2

 − 1 + 1 

gsp
 x x
, x ≠ 0 then f(x) is
59. If f ( x) = xe 
0 , x=0

(a) discontinuous every where (b) continuous as well as differentiable for all x

blo
(c) continuous for all x but not differentiable at x = 0 (d) neither differentiable nor continuous at x = 0
3
60. Domain of definition of the function f ( x) = + log10 ( x 3 − x) , is
4 − x2
(a) (-1, 0) ∪ (1, 2) ∪ (2, ∞ ) (b) (0, 2) ss.(c) (-1, 0) ∪ (0, 2)
n
(d) (1, 2) ∪ (2, ∞ )

61. If f: R → R satisfies f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), for all x, y ∈ R and f(1) = 7, then ∑ f (r ) is
cce
r =1

7n( n + 1) 7n 7( n + 1)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 7n+(n+1)
2 2 2
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62. The real number x when added to its inverse gives the minimum value of the sum at x equal to
(a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) -1
63. Let R1 and R2 respectively be the maximum ranges up and down an inclined plane and R be the maximum
range on the horizontal plane. Then R1, R, R2 are in
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(a) H.P (b) A.G.P (c) A.P (d) G.P.

64. In an experiment with 15 observations on x, the following results were available: Σx 2 = 2830, Σx = 170
sda

One observation that was 20 was found to be wrong and was replaced by the correct value 30. The corrected
variance is
(a) 8.33 (b) 78.00 (c) 188.66 (d) 177.33
65. A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination such that he must choose at least 4 from the
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first five questions. The number of choices available to him is

(a) 346 (b) 140 (c) 196 (d) 280

 a b α β 
66. If A =   and A 2 =   , then
b a  β α
w

(a) α = 2ab,β = a 2 + b 2 (b) α = a 2 + b2 , β = ab (c) α = a 2 + b2 , β = 2ab (d) α = a 2 + b2 , β = a 2 − b2

ww

67. The number of ways in which 6 men and 5 women can dine at a found table if no two women are to sit
together is given by
(a) 7× 5 (b) 6× 5 (c) 30 (d) 5× 4

19
68. Consider points A, B, C and D with position vectors 7 î − 4 ĵ + 7k̂, î − 6 ĵ + 10 k̂, − î − 3ˆj + 4 k̂ and 5î − ˆj + 5k̂
respectively. Then ABCD is a
(a) parallelogram but not a rhombus (b) square (c) rhombus (d) rectangle
r r r r r r r r r r
69. If u, v and w are three non-coplanar vectors, then (u + v − w). (u − v)× (v − w) equals

om
rr r
(a) 3u.v × w (b) 0
rr r
(c) u.v × w
rr r
(d) u.w × v
70. The trigonometric equation sin-1 x = 2sin-1 a has a solution for

ot.c
1 1 1 1
(a) a ≥ (b) < a< (c) all real values of a (d) a <
2 2 2 2
71. Two system of rectangular axes have the same origin. If a plane cuts them at distances a,b,c and a′,b′, c′ from
the origin then

gsp
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) + 2 + 2 − 2 − 2 − 2 =0 (b) + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 =0
2
a b c a′ b′ c′ a 2
b c a′ b′ c′
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
+ 2 − 2 + 2 + 2 − 2 =0 − 2 − 2 + 2 − 2 − 2 =0

blo
(c) (d)
a 2
b c a′ b′ c′ a 2
b c a ′ b′ c′
x
1+ i 
72. If   = 1 then
 1− i 
(a) x = 2n+1, where n is any positive integer
(c) x = 2n, where n is any positive integer
ss. (b) x = 4n, where n is any positive integer
(d) x = 4n+1, where n is any positive integer
cce
n −1
 , when n is odd
73. A function f from the set of natural numbers to integers defined by f (n) =  2 is
n
 , when n is even
osu

2
(a) neither one-one nor onto (b) one-one but not onto
(c) onto but not one-one (d) one-one and onto both.
74. Let f(x) be a polynomial function of second degree. If f(1) = f(-1) and a, b, c are in A.P, then f′ (a), f′ (c) are
ret

in
(a) Arithmetic-Geometric Progression (b) A.P. (c) G.P. (d) H.P.
sda

1 1 1
75. The sum of the series − + ..................... up to ∞ is equal to
1.2 2.3 3.4

4
(a) loge   (b) 2 loge 2 (c) loge 2-1 (d) loge 2
e
w .aim
ww

20