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 1

Most Probable Topics for UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 -

Current Affairs
1. Dharamshala Declaration
2. G20
3. Stockholm Conference
4. Namsai Declaration
5. Bhoota Kola
6. First Loan Default Guarantee (FLDG) Model
7. VPN
8. Social Stock Exchange
9. Vostro Account
10. 'Sagar Parikrama',
11. Unying Aran festival
12. SAMRIDH Programme
13. Retail Direct Scheme
14. Abhraham accord, Camp David Accords
15. Net Zero Asset Owner Alliance
16. Shoonya campaign
17. IMPAC 5
18. PM Swasthya Suraksha Nidhi
19. Plastigomere
20. Global Risk Report 2023
21. World Governance Indicators Index
22. ‘Three Percent Club’
23. Khongjom Parva
24. LiFE Lessons From India Report
25. Apretude
26. '123 pledge'
27. Great Blue Wall Initiative
28. Climate Performance Index (CPI)
29. Global Shield Financing Facility:
30. incovacc
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Q.1) With reference to Dharamshala Declaration, sometimes seen in news recently, consider the following
statements:
1. It aims to push India’s tourism sector to pre-pandemic level by 2024.
2. Digital tourism is one of the five focus areas as identified in the declaration.
3. It aims to achieve USD 1 trillion revenue by the end of Amrit Kaal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Dharamshala Declaration:
● The ‘Dharamshala Declaration 2022’ was released at a three-day national conference on tourism.
Objectives:
● It aims to pull India out of the pandemic’s adverse effects and push India’s tourism sector to the
pre-pandemic level by 2024 in the short term. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ The country is estimated to achieve a USD 150 billion GDP contribution, USD 30 billion foreign
exchange earnings and 15 million foreign tourist arrivals by 2024.
● In the medium term, by 2030, the Indian economy is expected to grow at 7-9% and thus tourism’s goal is
to achieve a USD 250 billion GDP contribution, 137 million jobs, 56 million foreign tourist arrivals and USD
56 billion in foreign exchange earnings.
● It also aims to position India as a major tourist destination in the upcoming G-20 meeting. It will
document India’s rich cultural heritage and scenic beauty.
● It also enumerates that the National Tourism Policy has been drafted with an aim to achieve the target
of USD1 trillion by 2047 (end of Amrit Kaal or when India turns 100). So, statement 3 is correct.
● It has enumerated that it will emphasise India’s cultural and architectural beauty and scenic
atmosphere in order to attract tourists to India.
● The declaration identifies five major areas of focus for the tourism industry for the next ten years.
○ They are:
■ Green tourism
■ Digital tourism. So, statement 2 is correct.
■ Destination management
■ Skilling the hospitality sector
■ Supporting tourism-related to MSMEs
Other Government initiatives to boost Tourism:
● Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
○ Launched by the Ministry of Tourism (MoT)
○ Central Sector Scheme
○ Aim: Integrated development of theme-based tourist circuits in the country in 2014-15.
● National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD)
Scheme:
○ Launched in 2015
○ Focus on identifying and developing pilgrim sites across the country to promote religious tourism.
● ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’:
○ Announced in 2015 on the occasion of the 140th birth anniversary of Sardar Patel.
○ Aim: To enhance the bonding between the states and strengthen the unity and integrity of India.
○ It showcases the rich heritage, culture, customs and traditions of the paired states.
○ Through student exchange programs, it enables people to have a better understanding and
appreciate the diversity of the nation.
● Dekho Apna Desh initiative:
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○ Organises webinars, quiz, pledge, discussions to keep people connected with the stakeholders and
to encourage citizens to travel within the country.
● Adopt Heritage Project:
○ Launched in 2017 as a collaborative effort by the Ministry of Tourism, Ministry of Culture and
Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), State/UTs Governments.
○ It envisages the development and maintenance of tourist amenities at heritage sites and making
them tourist-friendly.
● Destination North East-2020
○ It is an annual event of the Ministry of Development of the North Eastern Region.
○ The event highlights various potentials like eco-tourism, culture, heritage and business of the North
East Region.
● Gati Shakti Master Plan
○ It is a project for developing ‘holistic infrastructure’.
○ It will incorporate the infrastructure schemes of various Ministries and State Governments like
Bharatmala, Sagarmala, inland waterways, dry/land ports, UDAN etc.
○ Economic Zones like textile clusters, pharmaceutical clusters, defence corridors, electronic parks,
industrial corridors, fishing clusters, agri zones will be covered to improve connectivity & make
Indian businesses more competitive.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.2) With reference to G20, consider the following statements:

1. It was formed in the backdrop of the financial crisis of the late 1990s.
2. India will host the 18th summit of G20 in 2023.
3. The logo of the G20 summit 2023 bears the lotus and a message ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’.
4. Russia has been suspended from the group post-Ukraine crisis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

G-20:
● The G20 was formed in 1999 in the backdrop of the financial crisis of the late 1990s that hit East Asia
and Southeast Asia in particular. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It aims to secure global financial stability by involving middle-income countries.
● Together, the G20 countries include 60% of the world’s population, 80% of global GDP, and 75% of
global trade.
● Members:
○ Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan,
Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the
United States and the EU.
○ Russia is not suspended as a member of G-20 post Ukraine crisis. So, statement 4 is not
correct.
● The G20 Presidency steers the G20 agenda for one year and hosts the Summit.
○ India has assumed the charge of the G20 presidency and the 18th summit will be held in
India in 2023. So, statement 2 is correct.
● India holds the Presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022 to November 30, 2023.
● The G20 consists of two parallel tracks: the Finance Track and the Sherpa Track.
○ Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors lead the Finance Track, while Sherpas lead
the Sherpa Track.
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○ The Finance Track is led by Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of the member
countries.
● The G20 process from the Sherpa Track is coordinated by the Sherpas of member countries, who are
personal emissaries of the Leaders.
● In addition, there are Engagement Groups which bring together civil societies, parliamentarians, think
tanks, women, youth, labour, businesses and researchers of the G20 countries.
India’s G20 Presidency Logo

● The logo bears a lotus and the message of ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One
Future. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Lotus Symbol Meaning: The lotus is a symbol of hope. No matter how adverse the circumstances, the
lotus still blooms.
○ Seven Lotus Petals represent the seven continents.
○ Seven is also the number of notes in the universal language of music.
○ In music, when the seven notes come together, they create a perfect harmony. But each note has
its own uniqueness.
○ Similarly, the G20 aims to bring the world together in harmony while respecting diversity.
○ In Indian culture, both the Goddesses of knowledge and prosperity are seated on a lotus.
Shared knowledge that helps us overcome our circumstances.
○ Shared prosperity that reaches the last person at the last mile. This is why, in the G20 logo, the
Earth is placed on a lotus too.
● The logo reflects our idea of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (the whole earth is a family), because of which
India has always believed in global harmony.
● The lotus flower symbolises our Puranic heritage, our aastha (belief) and boddhikta (intellectualism).
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.3) With respect to stockholm conference, consider the following statements:

1. It was the first UN conference on Environment held on the sidelines of the Kyoto Protocol.
2. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) was one of the major outcomes of the Conference.
3. The idea of the Stockholm Conference was first proposed by Sweden.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 5

Answer: c

UNESCO is participating in the commemoration of the 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human
Environment in Stockholm and 50 years of global environmental action.
Stockholm conference:
● The UN Conference on the Human Environment, also known as the Stockholm Conference, was the first
UN conference on the environment and was held between 5 and 16 June 1972 in Stockholm.
Whereas, Kyoto Protocol was adopted in COP 3 of UNFCCC 1997. So, statement 1 is not correct.
○ This was the first global convergence on the planetary environment and natural resources.
● Also termed the “Swedish Initiative”, the idea of the Stockholm Conference was first proposed by
Sweden. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The participants adopted a series of principles for sound management of the environment including the
Stockholm Declaration and Action Plan for the Human Environment and several resolutions.
● The Stockholm Declaration, which contained 26 principles, placed environmental issues at the
forefront of international concerns and marked the start of a dialogue between industrialized and
developing countries on the link between economic growth, the pollution of the air, water, and oceans and
the well-being of people around the world.
● Three Dimensions of the Conference:
○ Countries agreed to not “harm each other’s environment or the areas beyond national
jurisdiction”.
○ An action plan to study the threat to Earth’s environment.
○ Establishment of an international body called the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) to bring
cooperation among countries. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.4) This declaration aims to reduce the inter-State border dispute affecting 123 villages in Assam and Arunachal
Pradesh. The Assam and Arunachal Pradesh interstate boundary will be realigned as the two states strive to resolve
their long-standing border issues. The boundary realignment will be based on a line drawn by a committee in 1960.
Which of the following declarations is mentioned in the above passage?

a) Pakke Declaration
b) Tawang Declaration
c) Guwahati Declaration
d) Namsai Declaration

Answer: (d)
Explanation:

Namsai Declaration:
● To settle boundary conflicts, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh signed the “Namsai Declaration.”
● The two states signed an agreement (Namsai Declaration) to end border issues between the two
states and decided to “restrict” the number of disputed villages to 86 instead of 123. So, option (d) is
correct.
● Key Highlights of Namsai declaration 2022
○ The declaration specified that both states would use the boundary line that was drawn and
signed on 29 toposheets by the High-Powered Tripartite Committee as the notified boundary
during the year 1960 as the foundation for realigning the border.
○ 28 villages that are part of Arunachal’s constitutional border would still be included.
○ Assam would retain possession of three villages for which Arunachal withdrew its claims
Pakke Declaration:
● The Pakke Declaration is also called the “Pakke Tiger Reserve 2047 Declaration on Climate Change
Resilient and Responsive Arunachal Pradesh”. So, option (a) is not correct.
 6

● The declaration focuses on low emission and climate resilient development. It is the first of its kind by any
state government in India.
● There are five main themes of the Pakke Declaration. They are also called “Panch Dharas”. They are as
follows:
○ Environment, Forest and Climate Change
○ Health and Well-being for all
○ Sustainable and Adaptive living
○ Livelihoods and opportunities
○ Evidence generation and collaborative actions
Tawang Declaration:
● The 'Tawang Declaration' was adopted by the key members of the North East Leaders Connect
(NELC) at the meeting in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh, held from October 31 to November 1, 2021. So,
option (b) is not correct.
● The Mission aims to: "Serve as a catalyst for the promotion of a thriving and robust economy, good
governance, environmental sustainability, and cultural identity preservation in order to involve our
young and communities in the North-East."
Guwahati declaration:
● The aim of the ‘Guwahati Declaration’ is to develop a robust ecosystem of innovation and
entrepreneurship across the northeast region and beyond. So, option (c) is not correct.
● intended to create a set of guidelines, through which individuals, as well as a collective responsibility to
promote and encourage innovation at the grass-root level and strive to stimulate and execute
indigenization and entrepreneurship, can be taken up.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.5) With reference to Bhoota Kola, consider the following statements:

1. It is celebrated in the Tulu speaking belt of karnataka.
2. It is a vedic ritual where Bhootas or Daivas are worshiped.
3. The person performing the ritual becomes God temporarily.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Bhoota Kola:
● Bhoota Kola is an annual ritual performance where local spirits or deities are worshipped.
● There are several ‘Bhootas’ who are worshipped in the Tulu-speaking belt of Karnataka and some parts
of Kerala. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It is usually performed in small local communities and rural areas.
● As per Tulu Adivasi tradition, Bhoota Kola or Daiva Kola is a “non-Vedic” ritual where Bhootas or Daivas
(guardians and ancestors) are worshipped. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Idols representing ‘bhoothas’ are taken out in a procession to the beating of drums and bursting of
firecrackers,
● As the procession ends, the idols are placed on a pedestal.Frantically pacing up and down, he enters
into a possessed state and acts as an oracle.
○ It is widely believed these spirits protect the village from unfortunate incidents.
○ A trained person performs this ritual. It is believed that a person performing the ritual has
temporarily become a god himself. So, statement 3 is correct.
■ This performer is both feared and respected in the community and is believed to give
answers to people’s problems, on behalf of the god.
 7

■ Conducting kola/nema has its own race and rules.

■ The face is painted, wrapped in a Siri made of coconut feathers, and danced
invoking the deity.
■ The performer carrying a sword and jingling bells imitates the ‘devil’.
● The dancing and pooja ritual is accompanied by drums and music. By praying together during Bhootada
Kola, the community seeks God’s blessing, prosperity and riddance of various problems the community is
challenged with.
● Popular Bhootas: Panjurli, Bobbarya, Pilipoota, Kalkuda, Kalburti, Pilichamundi, Koti Chennaya are some
of the popular gods (Bhootas) worshipped as part of Bhootada Kola.
● Bhootada Kola is said to have some influence from Yakshagana, a more popular and widely performed
folk dance in coastal Karnataka. Some of the Bhootada Kola rituals also involve walking on a bed of hot
coal.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer

Q.6) With reference to First Loss/Loan Default Guarantee (FLDG) Model, consider the following statements:
1. It is an agreement between fintech companies and RBI regulated entities including banks and NBFCs.
2. In case of customer defaults, a fintech company compensates the partners up to a predetermined
percentage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

First Loss/Loan Default Guarantee (FLDG) Model:

● FLDG is a lending model between a fintech and a regulated entity by RBI (for ex.Banks and NBFCs) in
which a third party guarantees to compensate up to a certain percentage of default in a loan portfolio of
the regulated entities (RE). so, statement 1 is correct.
● Under these agreements, the fintech originates a loan and promises to compensate the partners up to
a pre-decided percentage in case customers fail to repay. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The bank/NBFC partners lend through fintech but from their books.
● FLDG helps expand the customer base of traditional lenders but relies on the fintech's underwriting
capabilities.
● The Financial Stability Board (FSB) has defined FinTech as “technologically enabled innovation in
financial services that could result in new business models, applications, processes or products with an
associated material effect on financial markets and institutions and the provision of financial services”.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.7) With reference to New Virtual Private Network (VPN) regulations, consider the following statements:
1. It allows VPN firms to collect and store consumer data like email id, phone number and IP addresses for up
to five years.
2. VPN companies are allowed to store consumers’ Logs for up to 180 days.
3. Businesses must notify any cyber security incidents within 6 hours to the CERT-In.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 8

Answer: (d)

Virtual Private Network:

● A virtual private network (VPN) can establish a secure and encrypted connection over a less secure
network, such as the internet.
● A virtual private network (VPN) uses a public network, such as the internet, to extend a private
network.
○ The name solely alludes to the fact that it is a virtual “private network,” meaning that a user can
join a local network while seated at a distance. To provide a secure connection, tunneling
protocols are used.
New regulations:
● Maintenance of customer logs- India’s cybersecurity agency passed a rule mandating VPN providers to
record and keep their customers’ logs for 180 days. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Data storage- It also asked these firms to collect and store customer data for up to 5 years. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● Reporting cyber crimes- It further mandated that any cybercrime recorded must be reported to the
CERT within 6 hours of the crime. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The regulations would not apply to enterprise or corporate VPNs, only to individual VPN users.
○ Data centers, virtual private server (VPS) providers, cloud service providers, producers of virtual
assets, virtual asset exchange providers, custodial wallet providers, and government organizations
will all need to comply with them.
● VPN providers will be subject to penalties for breaking the rules. If everyone rejects to follow through, VPN
services would essentially be outlawed in India.
● Process for KYC verification is made necessary.
○ Along with the risk of having their private information disclosed to the government, users who sign
up for a VPN service must go through a rigorous know-your-customer verification process and
provide an explanation of why they need it.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.8) With respect to Social Stock Exchange, Consider the following statements:
1. Social Stock Exchange acts as a mechanism for enterprises to seek finance for their social initiatives.
2. Investment by companies in social enterprises will be considered as part of their Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR) initiatives.
3. Eradicating hunger, poverty, malnutrition, and promoting education are some eligible activities of social stock
exchange.
4. SEBI would be the regulator of the social stock exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

● SEBI gave final approval to the National Stock Exchange of India to establish the Social Stock Exchange
(SSE).
● The SSE would function as a separate segment within the existing stock exchange and help social
enterprises raise funds from the public through its mechanism.
○ It would serve as a medium for enterprises to seek finance for their social initiatives, acquire
visibility and provide increased transparency about fund mobilisation and utilisation. So, statement
1 is correct.
 9

● Retail investors can only invest in securities offered by for-profit social enterprises (FPSEs) under the
Main Board.
○ In all other cases, only institutional investors and non-institutional investors can invest in securities
issued by SEs.
● Eligibility:
○ Any non-profit organisation (NPO) or for-profit social enterprise (FPSEs) that establishes the
primacy of social intent would be recognised as a SE, which will make it eligible to be
registered or listed on the SSE.
○ The social enterprises will have to engage in a social activity out of 16 broad activities listed by the
regulator.
○ The eligible activities include-
■ eradicating hunger poverty, malnutrition and inequality
■ promoting healthcare, supporting education, employability and livelihoods
■ gender equality empowerment of women and LGBTQIA communities
■ supporting incubators of social enterprise. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Ineligibility:
○ Corporate foundations, political or religious organisations, professional or trade associations,
infrastructure and housing companies (except affordable housing) would not be identified as SE
○ NPOs would be deemed ineligible if dependent on corporations for more than 50% of its funding.
● Investment by companies in social enterprises will be considered as part of their Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR) initiatives. So, statement 2 is correct.
● SEBI will act as the regulator for the Social Stock Exchange (SSE). so, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.9) With reference to the Vostro accounts, consider the following statements:
1. A vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency.
2. It helps domestic banks gain wider access to foreign financial markets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

● In July 2022, the RBI had unveiled a mechanism to settle international transactions in rupee to
promote the growth of global trade, with emphasis on exports from India, as well as pushing rupee as an
international currency.
● It is also expected to enable trade with sanction-hit nations such as Russia.
● According to the mechanism finalized by the RBI, banks of partner countries can approach authorized
dealer banks in India for opening special rupee vostro accounts. The authorized dealer bank will then
have to seek approval from the central bank with details of such an arrangement.
● Vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic
currency, in Indian case, the rupee. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Domestic banks use it to provide international banking services to their clients who have global
banking needs.
● Domestic banks use it to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking
needs.
● It is an integral offshoot of correspondent banking that entails a bank (or an intermediary) to facilitate wire
transfer, conduct business transactions, accept deposits and gather documents on behalf of the other bank.
● It helps domestic banks gain wider access to foreign financial markets and serve international clients
without having to be physically present abroad. So, statement 2 is correct.
 10

● Government officials informed that 20 Russian banks, including Rosbank, Tinkoff Bank, Centro Credit Bank
and Credit Bank of Moscow have opened Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA) with partner banks in
India.
○ The Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) is an additional arrangement to the existing
system that uses Freely convertible currencies and works as a complimentary system.
○ It would act as an alternate payment mechanism in the situation of increasing sanctions on
Russia by European countries, cutting them off from the SWIFT messaging system that
connects banks across the globe.
○ This will help Russian companies to pay for their imports from India or invest in the country.
○ It is also expected to enable trade with sanction-hit nations such as Russia.
■ The existing systems require maintaining balances and position in such currencies like US
dollar and pound to facilitate trade.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.10) It is an initiative to organize a sea voyage across all coastal states and union territories to support fishermen,
fish farmers, and other stakeholders. It aims to address their concerns and facilitate their economic development by
implementing various fisheries schemes and programs like PM Matsya Sampada Yojana.
Identify the initiative?

a) Sagarmala
b) Sagar Parikrama
c) Blue flag certifications
d) Palk Bay scheme

Answer: (b)

Sagarmala:
● The Sagarmala Project was initiated by the Government of India in 2015 to promote port-led
development in India.
● The project aims to harness the 7500 km long coastline of the country to unleash its economic
potential. So, option (a) is not correct.
● The project also seeks to boost infrastructure for transporting goods to and from ports quickly, efficiently, and
cost-effectively.
Sagar Parikrama:
● It is a navigation journey to be conducted in all coastal states/UTs through a pre-decided sea route to
demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers and concerned stakeholders. So, option (b) is
correct.
● It will focus on sustainable balance between the utilisation of marine fisheries resources for food security
of the nation and livelihoods of coastal fisher communities and protection of marine ecosystems.
Blue Flag certification:
● It is an internationally recognised eco-label that is accorded based on 33 criterias.
● These criterias are divided into 4 major heads namely,
○ Environmental education and information
○ Bathing water quality
○ Environmental management
○ Conservation and safety services in the beaches.
● Blue Flag beaches are considered the cleanest beaches of the world. So, option (c) is not correct.
● It is an eco-tourism model endeavouring to provide the tourists/beachgoers clean and hygienic bathing
water, facilities, a safe and healthy environment and sustainable development of the area.
Palk Bay Scheme:
● Launched in July 2017 under the Blue Revolution programme.
● The scheme is financed by the Union and the State Governments with beneficiary participation. So,
option (d) is not correct.
 11

● It had envisaged the provision of 2,000 vessels in three years to the fishermen of the State and motivate
them to abandon bottom trawling.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.11) It is one of the oldest festivals of the Adi community commemorating the arrival of spring season. It is a hunting
festival followed by the Adi tribesmen. It is the first festival of the Adi ‘new year’. It is the festival which unites all the
members of the Adi community. During this festival all male members of a family go hunting and stay in the jungles
for a week. This is one of the popular festivals of Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the following festivals is being referred
to in the above passage?

a) Saga Dawa
b) Unying Festival
c) Hornbill Festival
d) Losoong Festival

Answer: (b)

Context: Recently, the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Ayush attended the colourful Siang
Unying Festival in Arunachal Pradesh.

About Unying Festival of Arunachal Pradesh:

● The festival of Unying is celebrated to herald the season of cultivation, the beginning of the Adi
community’s New Year, arrival of spring seasons as well as a great way to strengthen the bond among
the community.
● Unying Aran is one of the oldest festivals of the Adi community commemorating the arrival of spring
season.
● Unying Aran is basically a hunting festival followed by the Adi tribesmen. It is the first festival of the Adi
‘new year’.
● It is the festival which unites all the members of the community and they all pray for the bumper harvest.
● In this festival, it is tradition for all male members of a family to go on a hunting and stay in the jungles for
a week. So, option (b) is correct.
Adi community
● They are believed to have come from southern China in the 16th century.
 12

● The Adi constitute a major group and inhabit the lower part of the Lower Dibang Valley district, especially
the Roing and Dambuk areas of Arunachal Pradesh.
● They are experts in making cane and bamboo items.
● The Adis are basically dependent on agriculture. Both wet rice cultivation and shifting cultivation are
practised.
● Solung (a harvesting festival where animal sacrifices and rituals are performed) and Aran ( a hunting
festival where all the male members of the family go hunting) are two major festivals of the Adi tribes.
About Saga Dawa
● Saga Dawa is celebrated with great enthusiasm and fervour every year. The festival is the most significant
and sacred for the followers of Mahayana Buddhism who on this auspicious occasion commemorate
Lord Buddha’s birth, his attainment of enlightenment and salvation from this corporeal world.
About Hornbill Festival
● To encourage inter-tribal interaction and to promote cultural heritage of Nagaland, the Government of
Nagaland organizes the Hornbill Festival every year in the first week of December. It is also called the
‘Festival of Festivals”. Organized by the State Tourism and Art & Culture Departments, Hornbill Festival
showcases a mélange of cultural displays under one roof. This festival usually takes place between the 1st
and the 10th of December every year in Kohima. The much popular Music festival is held alongside.

About Loosong Festival:

● Losoong festival was once only confined to the Bhutia community; gradually it spread to the Lepchas and
now, it is also celebrated across other minor tribes of not only Sikkim but also Darjeeling and Nepal. It
is one of the most significant festivals for the farmers, providing them an opportunity to rejoice and
celebrate their harvest. Though the merry-making happens privately among family members and friends,
there is still an aura of festivity all around with monasteries and monks gearing up for the celebrations
and various local sports competitions.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.12) With reference to the SAMRIDH Programme, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.
2. Creating self-sufficiency and boosting confidence of the startups is one of the priorities of the scheme.
3. Under the scheme, investment of up to Rs 4 Crores will be provided to startups based on their current
valuation and growth stage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

● Start-up Accelerators of MeitY for Product Innovation, Development and growth (SAMRIDH)”
programme was launched by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology. The mission
objective is to create a conducive platform to Indian Software Product start-ups to enhance their
products and secure investments for scaling their business. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The programme is being implemented by MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH).
● The SAMRIDH scheme will make our start-ups self-sufficient and build confidence in our start-up
community. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The SAMRIDH scheme for start-ups will focus on accelerating the 300 start-ups by providing customer
connect, investor connect, and international immersion in the next three years.
● An investment of up to ₹ 40 lakh to the start-up based on current valuation and growth stage of the
Start-Up will be provided through selected accelerators. So, statement 3 is not correct.
○ It will also facilitate equal matching investment by the accelerator / investor.
 13

● Significance of SAMRIDH initiative

○ SAMRIDH initiative will help in strengthening India’s health systems with sustainable business
innovations and solutions.
○ This collaboration will also share the commitment of Atal Innovation Mission and USAID for
leveraging innovative financing solutions in order to unlock greater investment in healthcare
services
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.13) With reference to Retail Direct Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme allows individuals to open and maintain a 'Retail Direct Gilt Account' to invest directly in
government securities (G-secs).
2. It will contribute to the financialization of a large pool of domestic savings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Retail Direct Scheme

● RBI suggested in February 2021 to allow the retail investors to open gilt accounts with the central
bank in order to invest directly in government securities (G-secs).
● Retail investors (individuals) will be able to open and maintain a 'Retail Direct Gilt Account' (RDG
Account) with the RBI under the scheme. So, statement 1 is correct.
● A retail investor is a non-professional investor who purchases and sells securities or funds that
invest in a diversified portfolio of securities, such as mutual funds and exchange-traded funds
(ETFs).
● A Gilt Account is similar to a bank account, except that it is debited or credited with Treasury bills or other
government securities rather than cash.
● Through this scheme, India joins a list of countries that offer such a provision.

Aim
● The move aims to diversify the market for government securities, which is currently dominated by
institutional investors such as banks, insurance firms, mutual funds etc.
● While foreign portfolio investors are permitted to invest in G-secs, their holdings in the total market are only
about 2-3%.

Scope
● It acts as a conduit for investors to purchase central government assets, treasury bills, state
development loans, and sovereign gold bonds.
● They have the option of investing in both primary and secondary market government securities.
● The Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching Segment (NDS-OM) is the RBI's screen-based,
anonymous electronic order matching system for secondary market trading in Government securities.
● Allowing direct retail engagement in the G-Sec market will contribute to the financialization of a large
pool of domestic savings and may transform India's investment market. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.14) Abraham accord, Camp David Accords, often seen in the news, is seen in the context of ?

a) Peace in Middle East

b) Russia-Ukraine war
 14

c) Climate change negotiations

d) Oil spillage in Arctic Ocean

Answer: (a)

● The Abraham Accords refer to the collective agreement between the United States (US), the United
Arab Emirates (UAE) and Israel, and was signed in September 2020 to work for peace in the Middle
east.
● These Accords were later extended to the countries of Sudan, Bahrain and Morocco and marks the first
normalisation of ties between Israel and an Arab country since Jordan normalised its relation with Israel
in 1994. So, option (a) is correct.
● The Accords were called ‘the Abraham Accords’ as the three major monotheistic religions of the world,
Islam, Christianity and Judaism, all find their roots in Abraham.
● Thus, the designation of the “Abraham Accords” was not a random or an arbitrary act, but a well-designed
feat to remind people of their common ancestry and inculcate the mentality of fraternity and
brotherhood in their minds.
● The Accords were named ‘the Abraham Accords’ to reiterate that though the history of the three faiths is
rife with war, animosity and conflict, their broad beliefs and faith are shared and they are children of
the same God.
● The Camp David Accords were a pair of political agreements signed by Egyptian President Anwar
Sadat and Israeli Prime Minister Menachem Begin on 17 September 1978.
● The Camp David Accords established the framework for peace in the Middle East and brought about the
end of simmering conflict between Egypt and Israel.
 15

● They also called for the creation of Palestinian state in the area known as Gaza and on the West Bank of
river Jordan.
● However, since the Palestinians were not represented at the talks, the resulting agreement was not
formally recognized by the United Nations.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.15) With reference to the Net zero asset owner alliance (NZAOA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a group of the world’s largest institutional investors committing to fully decarbonise their portfolios
2. It is convened under the aegis of the Asian Development bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
● The UN-convened Net Zero Asset Owner Alliance (NZAOA) is a member-led initiative of institutional
investors committed to transitioning their investment portfolios to net-zero GHG emissions by 2050
– consistent with a maximum temperature rise of 1.5°C. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Alliance members are the finance industry’s first to set intermediate targets, which include CO2
reduction ranges for 2025 (22 – 32%) and for 2030 (40% – 60%).
● Convened by UNEP’s Finance Initiative and the Principles for Responsible Investment, the Alliance is
supported by WWF and is part of the Mission 2020 campaign, which aims to drive urgent action to
limit the effects of climate change. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.16) Shoonya campaign, an initiative to promote zero-pollution delivery vehicles by working with consumers and
industry has been launched by which of the following organizations/institutions?

a) NITI Aayog
b) Ministry of Transport
c) Central Pollution Control Board
d) National Green Tribunal

Answer: (a)

Shoonya Campaign
● Shoonya is a consumer awareness campaign to reduce air pollution by promoting the use of electric
vehicles (EVs) for ride-hailing and deliveries. The campaign has 130 industry partners, including
ride-hailing, delivery and EV companies.
● NITI Aayog and Rocky Mountain Institute (RMI) and RMI India’s have launched the Shoonya Campaign.
So, option (a) is correct.
● It is an initiative to promote zero-pollution delivery vehicles by working with consumers and industry.
● Electric Deliveries: The campaign aims to accelerate adoption of Electric Vehicles (EVs) in the urban
deliveries segment and create consumer awareness about the benefits of zero-pollution delivery.
● Shoonya Brand: A corporate branding and certification programme is being launched to recognise and
promote industry’s efforts towards transitioning to EVs for final-mile deliveries.
● It will help e-commerce companies to distinguish their offerings from those of their competitors.
● Online Tracking Platform : An online tracking platform will share the campaign’s impact through data such
as vehicle kilometers electrified, carbon savings, criteria pollutant savings and other benefits from clean
delivery vehicles.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
 16

Q.17) With respect to the International Marine Protected Areas Congress 5, consider the following statements
1. It is a global forum that brings together ocean conservation professionals to act on marine protected areas.
2. It is organized under the aegis of the World Bank and UNEP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)
Explanation:

● The International Marine Protected Areas Congress 5 will bring together ocean conservation
professionals to chart a course toward protecting 30% of the global ocean by 2030. It is an opportunity
for the global community of marine conservation managers, practitioners, and decision-makers to exchange
knowledge, experience, and best practices to strengthen marine biodiversity conservation and protect the
ocean's natural and cultural heritage. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Fifth International Marine Protected Areas Congress will be jointly hosted by the Government of
Canada, the Province of British Columbia, the Canadian Parks and Wilderness Society (CPAWS) and
the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN). So, statement 2 is not correct.
● International Marine Protected Areas Congresses (IMPAC) provide an opportunity for marine protected area
professionals, officials and leaders from around the world to gather and take a stand to protect the ocean.
IMPAC participants included:
○ Indigenous groups and ocean guardians
○ Government officials
○ Civil society organisations
○ Marine protection specialists
○ Young professionals
○ Members of the IUCN.
○ Members of ocean-focused environmental non-governmental organisations
○ Marine recreation community groups
○ Businesses working in the blue economy
○ Media
○ Marine scientists
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.18) With respect to PM Swasthya Suraksha Nidhi, consider the following statements:
1. It is a single non-lapsable reserve fund for Health set up from the proceeds of Health and Education Cess.
2. Funds from it can be utilized to realize the targets set out in the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017.
3. Administration and maintenance of the PMSSN is entrusted to the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 17

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Nidhi (PMSSN) is a single non-lapsable reserve fund for Health set up from
the proceeds of Health and Education Cess levied under Section 136-b of Finance Act, 2007. So, statement 1 is
correct.

Salient features of the PMSSN

● A non-lapsable reserve fund for Health in the Public Account;

● Proceeds of share of health in the Health and Education Cess will be credited into PMSSN;
● Accruals into the PMSSN will be utilized for the flagship schemes of the Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare namely,
○ Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
○ Ayushman Bharat - Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs)
○ National Health Mission
○ Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)
○ Emergency & disaster preparedness and responses during health emergencies
○ Any future programme/scheme that targets to achieve progress towards SDGs and the targets set
out in the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Administration and maintenance of the PMSSN is entrusted to the Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare. So, statement 3 is correct.
● In any financial year, the expenditure on such schemes of the MoHFW would be initially incurred from the
PMSSN and thereafter, from Gross Budgetary Support (GBS).

Targets set under the NHP 2017:

● Increasing life expectancy to 70 years from 67.5

● Reduce fertility rate to 2.1 (Replacement levels) by 2025.
● Reduce infant mortality rate to 28 by 2019.
● Reduce Under Five Mortality to 23 by 2025.
● Reducing premature mortality from cardiovascular diseases, cancer, diabetes or chronic respiratory
diseases by 25% by 2025
● The policy seeks to achieve ’90:90:90′ global target by 2020 – implying that 90% of all people living with
HIV know their HIV status, 90% of those diagnosed with HIV infection receive sustained anti-retroviral
therapy and 90% of those receiving anti-retroviral therapy will have viral suppression.
● Reducing the prevalence of blindness to 0.25 per 1000 persons by 2025 and
● The disease burden to be reduced by one third from the current levels.
● Elimination of leprosy by 2018, kala-azar by 2017 and lymphatic filariasis in endemic pockets by
2017.

Benefits:
● The major benefit will be: enhanced access to universal & affordable health care through availability of
earmarked resources, while ensuring that the amount does not lapse at the end of the financial year.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.19) With reference to Plastiglomerate, consider the following statements:

1. It is formed when plastic debris is exposed to freezing temperatures.
2. It is non biodegradable and can persist in the environment for a longer time period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 18

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

● Plastiglomerate is a relatively new type of rock-like material that was first discovered in 2013 by a
geologist named Patricia Corcoran.
● Plastiglomerate is made up of a mixture of melted plastic debris, volcanic rock, and other materials
that have been fused together by high temperatures.
● Plastiglomerate is formed through a natural process that occurs when plastic debris is exposed to
high temperatures, such as those produced by wildfires or volcanic eruptions. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
● Plastiglomerate is often found on beaches and other coastal areas where plastic debris accumulates and
is exposed to high temperatures.
● Plastiglomerate is a concern because it is an indication of the growing problem of plastic pollution in our
oceans and other natural environments.
● Plastiglomerate is not biodegradable, meaning that it can persist in the environment for hundreds or
even thousands of years. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Plastiglomerate can have negative impacts on wildlife and marine ecosystems, as animals can ingest
the plastic particles and suffer from digestive problems or other health issues.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.20) Consider the following statements with respect to Global Risk report 2023:
1. The Global Risks Report 2023 is released by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
2. As per the report, atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide have all reached record
highs in 2022.
3. Failure to mitigate climate change will be a major global risk in the next 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
● Global risk is defined as the likelihood of an event or situation occurring that, if it occurs, will have a
large negative impact on a considerable proportion of global GDP, population, or natural resources.
● The World Economic Forum just published the Global Risks Report 2023. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide levels in the atmosphere have all reached new highs in
2022. Emission trends make it exceedingly unlikely that global goals of limiting warming to 1.5°C will be met.
So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Most Severe Risks: ‘Failure to Mitigate Climate Change’ and ‘Failure of Climate Change
Adaptation’ are the two most severe risks facing the world in the next decade, followed by ‘natural
disasters and extreme weather events’ and ‘Biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse’.
● Apprehensions and Threats:
○ Over the next 10 years or by 2033, the interconnections between biodiversity loss, pollution,
natural resource consumption, climate change and socioeconomic drivers will make for a
dangerous mix.
○ In the meantime, the current global pandemic and war in Europe has been held responsible
for the energy, inflation and food crises. In fact, ‘cost of living’ ranks as the top most serious
global risk in the short term (over the next two years).
 19

○ Failure to curb climate change will be a serious worldwide risk in the next ten years. So,
statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.21) With reference to World Governance Indicators (WGI) Index, consider the following statements:
1. It has been released by the World Bank.
2. Political Stability and Absence of Violence is one of the criteria to assess the Index.
3. The findings of the report affect the Investment in the country's debt market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

World Governance Indicators (WGI)

● The World Governance Indicators (WGI) are a research dataset that aggregates the opinions of a
substantial number of corporate, citizen, and experts survey respondents from both developed and
developing nations on the quality of governance.
● It is released by the World Bank. So, statement 1 is correct.
● World Bank's World Governance Indicators: It assesses 215 countries and territories based on a certain
set of criteria.
○ Voice and Accountability
○ Political Stability and Absence of Violence. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Government Effectiveness
○ Regulatory Quality
○ Rule of Law
○ Control of Corruption
● Various reports on which India’s WGI ranking based on:
○ Economist Intelligence Unit
○ Varieties of Democracy Project
○ Heritage Foundation Index of Economic Freedom
○ Freedom House Report
Important Outcomes Associated With the WGI
● Worsening of Sovereign Credit Rating of India deteriorating its creditworthiness.
● Investment in India’s Debt market will be risky. So, statement 3 is correct.
● It also includes political risk and provides insight to the Investor about the economic and political
stability.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.22) Which of the following best describes the ‘Three Percent Club”, recently seen in the news?

a) It is a coalition of countries and businesses that will work to drive a three percent annual global increase in
the use of electric vehicles.
b) It is a coalition of countries and businesses that will work to drive a three percent annual global decrease in
the use of fossil fuels.
c) It is a coalition of countries and businesses that will work to drive a three percent annual global increase in
energy efficiency.
d) It is a coalition of developed countries that will work to increase their global funding by three percent to
mitigate the risk of climate change.
 20

Answer: (c)

Context: Governments and private sector leaders have unveiled initiatives aimed at reducing planet-warming
emissions at the UN Climate Action Summit in New York.
UN Climate Action Summit in New York: Key pledges
● The Climate Investment Platform was officially announced. It will seek to directly mobilize US$ 1 trillion
in clean energy investment by 2025 in 20 Least Developed Countries in its first year.
● The “Three Percent Club”, a coalition of countries and businesses will work to drive a three percent
annual global increase in energy efficiency. So, option (c) is correct.
● The Cool Coalition will set ambitious national cooling targets for its members with the potential to avoid 1
degree of warming by 2050.
● 65 countries and major sub-national economies such as California committed to cut greenhouse gas
emissions to net zero by 2050.
● France announced that it would not enter into any trade agreement with countries that have policies
counter to the Paris Agreement.
● India pledged to increase renewable energy capacity to 175 gw by 2022 and committed to further
increasing to 450GW, and announced that 80 countries have joined the International Solar Alliance.
● Russia announced that they will ratify the Paris Agreement, bringing the total number of countries that
have joined the Agreement to 187.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.23) Consider the following pairs:

S. No. Tradition State

1. Mohiniattam Kerala

2. Chindu Yakshaganam Karnataka

3. Chapchar Kut Festival Manipur

4. Khongjom Parba ballad Mizoram

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a) Only one pair

b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All the four above

Answer: a

Mohiniattam
 21

● It originated in the state of Kerala. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.

● The dance is performed by women in honor of the Hindu god Vishnu in his incarnation as the
enchantress Mohini. Mohiniattam is exclusively danced by women.
● It is also softer than the very vigorous Kathakali.The dance projects the essence of feminine grace. It is
also noted for the Shringara (erotic) depictions of divine love.
● Traditionally, the dance was performed solo, but in the 21st century it may also be performed in groups.

Khongjom Parva

● It is a ballad singing tradition that has been existing over the past one hundred and twenty two years in
Manipur. It emerged just after the Anglo-Manipuri War of 1891. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
● The ballad started in praise of the great heroes of the War who sacrificed their lives for Manipur.
● The founder of this singing style was one Dhobi Leinou who witnessed the war, as he led the British force.
● Khonjom Parva is performance-based and its sessions are intended to give repast, recreation to the people
in villages.
● On a broader level, the development of the modern form of Khongjom Parva song embodies and reflects
interlocking dialectics - tradition and/versus modernity. And the corporate manipulation versus grass-roots
spontaneity is able to negotiate with changes brought by time.

Chindu Yakshaganam
 22

● It is an age-old art form popular in Telangana. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● The art form dates back to the second century BC. It is similar to Yakshaganam, a traditional theatre
form particular to Karnataka.
● It is a theater art form that combines dance, music, dialogue, costume, make-up, and stage techniques
with a unique style and form.
● The word ‘Chindu’ in Telugu means ‘jump’. As their presentation is interspersed with leaps and jumps, it
gained the name of Chindu Yakshaganam.
● Chindu is also derived from the artistes’ caste Chindu Madiga, a sub-caste of Madiga among SCs.
● The Chindu Yakshaganam is also called Chindu Bhagavatam as most of the stories narrated are from
‘Bhagavatam’.
● Bhagavatam refers to the Bhagavata Purana which can be translated as 'the history of the devotees of
Vishnu'.

Chapchar Kut

● It is a popular spring festival celebrated by the Mizo people of Mizoram. So, pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
● It is celebrated in early March, every year.
● It is one of the 3 festivals that marks the various stages of the agricultural cycle, the other two being Mim
Kut and Pawl Kut.
 23

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.24) Recently, a report titled ‘LiFE lessons from India’ was released. Which of the following organizations released
this report?

a) World Bank
b) International Energy Agency
c) World Economic Forum
d) UNESCO

Answer: (b)

● The International Energy Agency recently published a research titled "LiFE Lessons from India." So,
option (b) is correct.
● According to the paper, India's 'Lifestyle for Environment' or LiFE effort for adopting energy-efficient
behavior can save the globe USD 440 billion by 2030.
● According to the analysis, the savings would be comparable to about 5% of all fuel spending in the
worldwide economy that year.
● About LiFE program:
○ The Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative aims to encourage the adoption of sustainable
lifestyles in India and internationally to tackle the challenges of environmental degradation and
climate change.
○ It seeks to leverage the strength of social networks to influence social norms surrounding
climate.
○ The Mission plans to create and nurture a global network of individuals, namely ‘Pro-Planet
People’ (P3).
● Approach
○ Focus on Individual Behaviours: Make life a mass movement (Jan Andolan) by focusing on
behaviours and attitudes of individuals and communities
○ Co-create Globally: Crowdsource empirical and scalable ideas from the best minds of the world,
through top universities, think tanks and international organisations
○ Leverage Local Cultures: Leverage climate-friendly social norms, beliefs and daily household
practices of different cultures worldwide to drive the campaign
● Objectives
○ It aims to promote an environmentally conscious lifestyle that focuses on ‘mindful and
deliberate utilisation’ instead of ‘mindless and wasteful consumption’.
○ It aims to utilise the power of collective action and nudge individuals across the world to
undertake simple climate-friendly actions in their daily lives.
○ It aims to create and nurture a global network of individuals, namely ‘Pro-Planet People’ (P3),
who will have a shared commitment to adopt and promote environmentally friendly lifestyles.
○ It seeks to leverage the strength of social networks to influence social norms surrounding
climate.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.25) ‘Apretude’, an injectable drug recently approved by Food and Drug Administration (FDA) will be used to treat
which of the following diseases?

a) HIV
b) Lung Cancer
c) Tuberculosis
d) Alzheimer

Answer: (a)
 24

Context: In December 2021, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved the world's first injectable medication
for reducing the risk of acquiring HIV.
Apretude
● Apretude is an injectable drug. Its generic name is “cabotegravir extended-release injectable
suspension”.
● The drug provides an alternative to daily pills for HIV prevention, like Truvada and Descovy. So, option
(a) is correct.
● According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDS), these pills are effective up to 99% at
preventing the sexual transmission of HIV. However, it must be taken every day to be effective.
● But to start Apretude, people initially receive two shots, one month apart. Following this, they receive an
injection every two months thereafter.
● This injection will be critical in addressing the HIV epidemic in the U.S. It will also help high-risk
individuals and certain groups where daily medication is a major challenge or not a realistic option.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.26) With reference to the ‘123 Pledge’, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is hosted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), FAO and the World Resources Institute
(WRI).
2. It aims to halve food waste by 2030 and reduce food losses by at least 25 percent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

'123 pledge'
● At COP27, the ‘123 Pledge’ kicked off to accelerate action to reduce food loss and waste worldwide.
● The new Pledge challenges governments, businesses, chefs and other important actors in the food
system to commit to concrete steps that will make reducing food loss and waste a part of their action
agendas on greenhouse gas emissions.
● The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) launched a call for governments,
companies, institutions and individuals to pledge to align their action agendas to halve food waste by
2030 and reduce food losses by at least 25 percent, toward accelerating actions to achieving SDG target
12.3. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The #123 Pledge is hosted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), FAO, the World
Resources Institute (WRI), Champions 12.3 and the Food is Never Waste Coalition. The #123 Pledge is
also supported by CGF, Rabobank, and partners of the Cool Coalition. So, statement 1 is correct.
● A total of 123, #123 pledges from governments, companies and institutions in one of the five impact
areas for reducing food loss waste (FLW) results in a substantial reduction of greenhouse gas emissions
(GHG).
Impact areas for the Pledge
● Integrate food loss and waste reduction into country and company climate strategies.
● Reduce food loss and waste along supply chains.
● Stimulate action at the national and subnational (city) level.
● Measure, report and create policy and regulatory frameworks for FLW reduction.
● Support reduced waste at the consumer level through raising awareness, education and enabling the
conditions for change.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
 25

Q.27) Which among the following is not correct with respect to the Great Blue Wall Initiative?

a) It is an initiative of the African countries to create the world's largest marine protected area
b) It aims to protect the entire Atlantic Ocean coastline by 2050 through the creation of a network of Marine
Protected Areas.
c) It aims to support the livelihoods of millions of people who depend on the ocean for their food.
d) It is a critical part of the African Union's Agenda 2063.

Answer: (b)

● The Great Blue Wall Initiative is an ambitious plan by several African countries to create the world's largest
marine protected area (MPA) and address the challenges of climate change and overfishing in the region.
So, option (a) is correct.
● The Great Blue Wall Initiative involves 10 African countries along the continent's western coast: Angola,
Benin, Gabon, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Ivory Coast, Mauritania, Sao Tome and Principe, Senegal, and Togo.
● Africa’s Great Blue Wall initiative aims to establish a network of seascapes that benefit both people and
nature more sustainably. The initiative sets out to help countries reach the following targets:
○ Protect 30% of the ocean by 2030;
○ Achieve net gain of critical blue ecosystems – such as mangroves, corals, seagrasses – by 2030;
○ Develop a regenerative blue economy and
○ Create millions of jobs by supporting local communities through funding, training and technical
assistance. So, option (b) is not correct.
● The Great Blue Wall Initiative aims to support the livelihoods of millions of people who depend on the
ocean for their food and income by promoting sustainable fishing practices and reducing the impact of
climate change on the region. So, option (c) is correct.
 26

● The initiative is being led by the African Union in partnership with several international organizations,
including the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the World Wildlife Fund (WWF), and the
Pew Charitable Trusts.
● The Great Blue Wall Initiative is expected to have significant benefits for marine biodiversity by protecting
critical habitats, such as coral reefs, and reducing the impact of overfishing.
● The initiative also aims to improve ocean governance and strengthen the capacity of local
communities to manage and protect their marine resources.
● The Great Blue Wall Initiative has received significant support from several governments, including France,
the United States, and Norway, as well as private sector actors.
● The Great Blue Wall Initiative is a critical part of the African Union's Agenda 2063, which seeks to
promote sustainable development across the continent. So, option (d) is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.28) Consider the following statements with reference to Climate Performance Index (CPI):
1. It is published by the World Economic Forum in partnership with the Climate Action Network.
2. The report places India and China as the only G-20 countries in the top 10 rank.
3. The first, second and third ranks were not awarded to any country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

● Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI, 2023) is published by German Watch, New Climate Institute
and Climate Action Network International based in Germany. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The CCPI aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of
climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
● Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent
monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU.
● Every year, the CCPI sets off important public and political debates within the countries assessed.
● The climate protection performance of these 59 countries, which together account for 92% of global
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions (40% of overall
score), Renewable Energy (20% of overall score), Energy Use (20% of overall score) and Climate
Policy (20% of overall score).
Climate Change Performance Index 2023
● The Climate Change Performance Index 2023 was released on November 14th 2022.
● It shows Denmark, Sweden, Chile and Morocco as the only four small countries that were ranked above
India as 4th, 5th, 6th and 7th respectively.
● The first, second and third ranks were not awarded to any country. In effect therefore, India’s rank is
the best amongst all large economies. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The ranking given by CCPI places India as the only G-20 country in the top 10 rank. So, statement 2 is
not correct.
● India has been ranked amongst top 5 countries in the world, and the best among the G20 countries,
based on its Climate Change performance. India jumps 2 spots higher, and is now ranked 8th as per
Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI, 2023)
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.29) With reference to Global Shield Financing Facility, consider the following
statements:
1. It will support Global Shield Against Climate Risks which is a joint initiative of G7 and G20.
2. It will channel grants to developing countries through World Bank projects.
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Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

About Global Shield Financing Facility

● This facility will support the Global Shield Against Climate Risks, a joint initiative launched at COP27
by the G7 and V20 to better protect poor and vulnerable people from disasters by pre-arranging more
financing before disasters strike.
○ Vulnerable Twenty(V20) is a dedicated cooperation initiative of countries systematically
vulnerable to climate change. It was established in 2015 in Lima, Peru. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
● The Global Shield Financing Facility will channel grants to developing countries through World Bank
projects or through projects prepared by other participating partners, including UN agencies and multilateral
development banks. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It will also work closely with key stakeholders, such as civil society organizations, risk pools, private sector
and humanitarian partners.
● The Global Shield Financing Facility will finance integrated financial protection packages that offer
coordinated and consolidated financial support to those vulnerable to climate shocks and disasters.
● These financial packages will complement investments in climate adaptation and disaster risk
reduction. Such packages will also enable and mobilize private capital for improved financial resilience,
by offering private financial solutions, including insurance and other risk transfer instruments such as
catastrophe bonds.
● The World Bank has been a longstanding partner to Germany and the U.K. in risk finance and has
brought strong experience to the development of the Global Shield Against Climate Risks.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.30) With respect to the iNCOVVAC, consider the following statements:

1. It is developed by Bharat Biotech.
2. It is an oral vaccine using a recombinant replication-deficient adenovirus vectored vaccine
3. It is ineffective for Omicron variants that replicate in the upper respiratory tract before entering the lungs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

iNCOVACC: First Intranasal COVID-19 Vaccine

● Bharat Biotech recently launched an intranasal vaccine to treat COVID-19. It is called iNCOVACC.
Intranasal means the vaccine is administered through the nose. India has approved the vaccine and it
is to be administered as a booster dose. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The nasal vaccine is a recombinant replication-deficient adenovirus vectored vaccine with a
pre-fusion stabilized spike protein. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● As the vaccine is given nasally, it triggers an immune response in the mucosal membrane. BBV154
may produce local antibodies in the upper respiratory tract which may provide the potential to reduce
infection and transmission.
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● It will also reduce dependence on personnel trained to give shots.

● Incovacc is effective for Omicron variants that replicate in the upper respiratory tract before entering the
lungs. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Working of the nasal vaccine
● Vaccines generally invoke an immune response in the body through the B cells and T cells which
produce immunoglobulins or antibodies like IgG to fight the disease-causing foreign bodies.
● The T cells help the B cells by memorizing the foreign bodies for future response.
● Nasal vaccines will activate the B cells residing near the mucosal lining tissues.
● These B cells will produce IgA antibodies which specialize in destroying airway pathogens.
● The T cells in the area will memorize the pathogens for future response.
Advantages:
● The nasal route has excellent potential for vaccination due to the organized immune systems of the nasal
mucosa.
● It is non-invasive and needle-free.
● It is easy to administer as it does not require trained health care workers.
● This can eliminate needle-associated risks (injuries and infections).
● It is ideally suited for children and adults.
● The possibility of scalable manufacturing will be able to meet global demand.
● Intranasal vaccines may be most beneficial for special populations:
○ Children (easy to use, non-invasive)
○ Elderly patients (easy to use, non-invasive)
○ HIV-infected patients (no fear for needle stick injuries)
○ Multi-morbid patients (exhausted with injections)
● From a manufacturing and transportation point of view, nasal vaccines still have a better edge over
intramuscular vaccines.
○ A clear advantage of the intranasal route is that liquids and dry powder formulations may be
used.
○ This gives advantages to transportation and wastage issues, because a cold chain may not
be required.
● Longer shelf life can be achieved.
Concerns:
● There is very little evidence to back the effectiveness of this route of delivery so far and, except for some
flu vaccines, attempts to deliver vaccines like this have not been successful.
● Though they are primarily safe, their efficacy is tough to achieve as it depends on multiple bioengineering
approaches.
● It still lacks sufficient data on human trials hence mass administration may provide false outcomes.
● Single dose devices will give the best protection for the vaccine, but require highly sophisticated filling
technology.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.