MOCK TEST

Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt
all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from
the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or
any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.
 PHYSICS

SECTION – A

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each
question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A 120 𝑘𝑔 dolphin decelerates from 15 𝑚/𝑠 to 7.5 𝑚/𝑠 in 5 𝑠 to join another dolphin
in play. What average force was exerted to slow the first dolphin if it was moving
horizontally? (Assume that gravitational force is balanced by the buoyant force of the
water)
(1) 120 𝑁 (2) 18 𝑁 (3) 180 𝑁 (4) 60 𝑁
2. An object of mass 𝑚 is connected to a wire of length ′𝑙′, radius ′𝑟′ and Young’s
modulus ′𝑌′ as shown in figure. If the object is released from the horizontal position of
the wire, then find out the maximum increment in length of the wire.

5𝑚𝑔𝑙 2𝑚𝑔𝑙 3𝑚𝑔𝑙 5𝑚𝑔𝑙

(1) (2) (3) (4)
𝑟2𝑌 𝑟 2𝑌 𝜋𝑟 2 𝑌 𝜋𝑟 2 𝑌

3. A cannot engine works as a refrigerator between 250 𝐾 and 300 𝐾. It receives

500 𝑐𝑎𝑙 heat from the reservoir at the lower temperature. The amount of work done in
each cycle to operate the refrigerator is nearly
(1) 420 𝐽 (2) 2100 𝐽 (3) 772 𝐽 (4) 2520 𝐽
4. At which of the following temperatures does any gas have average molecular kinetic
energy double that of at 200 𝐶?
(1) 400 𝐶 (2) 800 𝐶 (3) 3130 𝐶 (4) 5860 𝐶
5. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet,
it is
(1) Attracted by bot the poles
(2) Repelled by both the poles
(3) Repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole
(4) Attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
6. A capacitor is of capacity 𝐶 and reactance 𝑋. If capacitance and frequency become
triple then reactance will be
𝑋 𝑋
(1) 4𝑋 (2) 3𝑋 (3) (4)
9 4

7. The temperature of the black body as calculated from the graph is (Wien’s constant
=2.89 × 10−3 )

(1) 1156 𝐾 (2) 1200 𝐾 (3) 1348 𝐾 (4) 1500 𝐾

8. Which of the following combination of properties would be desirable for handling a
cooking pan?
(1) Low thermal conductivity and low specific heat
(2) Low thermal conductivity and high specific heat
(3) High thermal conductivity and high specific heat
(4) High thermal conductivity and low specific heat
9. The correct expression in accordance with Gauss’s law for magnetism is
𝑞 −𝑑ΦB 𝑞
(1) ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠 = 𝑖𝑛 (2) ∮ 𝐵
⃗ . 𝑑𝑠 = 0 (3) ∮ 𝐸. 𝑑𝑙 = (4) ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑙 = 𝑖𝑛
𝜀0 𝑑𝑡 𝜀0
10.The superposition of waves can result in
(1) Interference (2) Polarisation
(3) Both Interference and polarization (4) Neither Interference nor polarization
11.A rectangular coil of wire of 500 turns of area 10 × 5 𝑐𝑚2 carries a current of 2𝐴 in a
magnetic field of induction 2 × 10−3 𝑇. If the plane of the coil is parallel to the field.
The torque on the coil is (𝑖𝑛 𝑁𝑚)
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.01 (3) 0.001 (4) 1
12.A source of frequency ′𝑋′ gives 5 beats/s when sounded with a source of frequency
95 𝐻𝑧. The third harmonic of source (𝑋) gives 10 beats/s when sound with a source of
frequency 290 𝐻𝑧. The value of 𝑋 is
(1) 200 𝐻𝑧 (2) 300 𝐻𝑧 (3) 100 𝐻𝑧 (4) 90 𝐻𝑧
13.A stretched wire vibrates with a frequency of 80 𝐻𝑧 when the tension is 𝑇1 and
frequency of 150 𝐻𝑧 when the tension is 𝑇2 . When the tension is (𝑇1 + 𝑇2 ), its
frequency of vibration is (in Hz)
(1) 170 (2) 230 (3) 240 (4) 210
14.In a measurement, a choice change of different units
(1) Does not change the number of significant figures.
(2) Increases the number of significant figures
(3) Decreases the number of significant figures
(4) May increases or may decreases
15.Match the following.
(a) Temperature (p) Light Year
(b) Mass (q) Shake
(c) Length (r) Fahrenheit
(d) Time (s) Atomic mass unit

(1) a(s), b(p), c(q), d(r) (2) a(s), b(p), c(r), d(q)
(3) a(r), b(s), c(p), d(q) (4) a(p), b(q), c(s), d(r)
16.An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of
(a) NOT gate (b) OR gate (c) NAND gate (d) NOR gate

(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) correct (4) All re correct
17.Statement A: In intrinsic semiconductors, conductivity is mainly due to the breakage
of covalent bonds.
Statement B: In extrinsic semiconductors, the conductivity is mainly due to the
addition of impurities.
(1) A is true, B is false (2) A is false, B is true
(3) Both A and B are true (4) Both A and B are false
18.Which of the following is true?
(1) The Lyman series has a continuous spectrum
(2) The Balmer series is a line spectrum in the UV region
(3) The Paschan series is a line spectrum in the infrared region
(4) Spectral series formula is derived from Rutherford’s model of the hydrogen atom
19.The missing particles or nuclides in the reactions? (𝑝, 𝛼)16
8 𝑂 and 7𝑁(? , 𝑝)6 𝐶 ,
14 14

respectively, are (𝑝 stands for proton and 𝛼 for alpha particle)

(1) 199𝐹 𝑎𝑛𝑑 10𝑛 (2) 189𝐹 𝑎𝑛𝑑 21𝐻 (3) 189𝐹 𝑎𝑛𝑑 01𝑒 (4) 147𝑁 𝑎𝑛𝑑 10𝑛
20.The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure.
Find the distance travelled by the body in 6 seconds.

(1) 30 m (2) 20 m (3) 10 m (4) Zero

21.A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in a pond. If the man drink some water
from the pond, what will happen to the level of water in the pond?
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains same (4) Depends on weight of boat
22.For a region of constant electric potential, which of the following statements is
incorrect?
(1) The electric field may be uniform
(2) The electric field may be zero
(3) There can be no charge inside the region
(4) The electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region
23.Choose the correct statement for the circuit shown in figure

(1) Potential difference between points 𝐵 and 𝐸 is 10 𝑉.

(2) Potential difference between points 𝐴 and 𝐵 is 15 𝑉
(3) The current in the 4Ω resistor is 0.25𝐴
(4) The current in the 8Ω resistance is 0.25 𝐴
24.A uniform wire of resistance 20 Ω having resistance 1 Ω/𝑚 is bent in the form of a
circle as shown in figure. If the equivalent resistance between 𝐴 and 𝐵 is 1.8 Ω, then
length of the shorter section is

(1) 1.8 𝑚 (2) 2 𝑚

(3) 3.6 𝑚 (4) 4 𝑚
25.In a region of space, the electric field is given by 𝐸⃗ = 6𝑖̂ − 4𝑗̂ + 7𝑘̂. Electric flux
through a surface of area 200 unit in 𝑦 − 𝑧 plane will be
(1) 1200 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (2) 600 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡
(3) 200 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (4) 800 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡
26.In the diagram shown below, the block has charge 𝑄 and is attached at one end of the
light spring. The surface is smooth and horizontal and spring is in its natural length. If
the electric field 𝐸 is switched on, the maximum elongation in the spring will be

𝑄𝐸 2𝑄𝐸
(1) (2)
𝑘 𝑘
𝑄𝐸 3𝑄𝐸
(3) (4)
2𝑘 2𝑘

27.Two springs with spring constants 𝑘1 = 1200 𝑁/𝑚 and 𝑘2 = 500 𝑁/𝑚 are stretched
by the same force. The ratio of potential energy in the springs will be
25 12
(1) (2)
144 5
5 144
(3) (4)
10 25

28.A man who can swim with a speed of 2𝑘ℎ/ℎ wants to cross a river 200 𝑚 wide. If the
river is flowing with a speed of 3𝑘𝑚/ℎ then in what minimum time can the man cross
the river?
(1) 4 minute (2) 6 minute
(3) 12 minute (4) 8 minute
29.Consider the following two statements .
(A)The gravitational force on a particle inside a spherical shell is zero.
(B) Total mechanical energy of a body on earth’s surface may be positive.

Which of the following options is correct?

(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is incorrect.
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is incorrect.
(3) Statements A and B are correct
(4) Statements A and B are incorrect
30.Two conducting rods inclined at ′𝜃′ angle from horizontal are kept parallel at
separation ′𝑙′ to each other. A resistor of resistance 𝑅 joins the two rods at their
topmost point. A metal bar of length ′𝑙′ is free to slide on the rods as shown in figure.
on releasing from rest, the maximum speed that can be attained by the bar if a constant
magnetic field 𝐵 exists vertically downwards, is

𝑅𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 𝑅𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 𝑅𝑚𝑔 𝑅𝑚𝑔

(1) (2) (3) (4)
𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝐵2 𝑙 2 cos2 𝜃 𝐵2 𝑙 2 sin 𝜃 𝐵2 𝑙 2

31.The radius of circle, the period of revolution 𝑇, initial position and sense of revolution
are indicated in the figure. x-projection of the radius vector of rotating particle 𝑃 is

𝜋 𝜋
(1) 𝑥(𝑡) = 5 sin ( 𝑡) (2) 𝑥(𝑡) = −5 sin ( 𝑡)
5 5
𝜋 𝜋
(3) 𝑥(𝑡) = 5 − 5 sin ( 𝑡) (4) 𝑥(𝑡) = −5 + 5 sin ( 𝑡)
5 5

32.Deviation of light ray by a thin prism of refractive index 𝜇 and refracting angle 𝐴 is
𝐴
(1) 𝜇𝐴 (2) (𝜇−1)
𝐴
(3) (4) (𝜇 − 1)𝐴
𝜇
33.A telescope with objective of focal length 100 𝑐𝑚 and eyepiece of focal length 5 𝑐𝑚
is focused on a far object such that parallel rays emerge from eyepiece. If object
subtends an angle of 10 on objective, the angular size of image is
(1) 100 (2) 50
(3) 200 (4) 800
34.A car is skidding on an icy road with speed 𝑣 and tyres are rotating with angular speed
𝑣
, where 𝑅 is the radius of tyres. The distance travelled by car in one rotation of tyres
3𝑅

is
2𝜋𝑅
(1) 2𝜋𝑅 (2)
3
4𝜋𝑅
(3) (4) 6𝜋𝑅
3

35.The ratio of tensions 𝑇𝐴 : 𝑇𝐵 in two strings 𝐴 and 𝐵 supporting a log of mass 𝑀 as

shown in figure is

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

SECTION – B

36.A prism has refracting angle of 300 and it is made of glass of refractive index √2. At
what angle should a light ray be incident on a face of prism such that it passes
normally through the other face?
(1) 300 (2) 600
(3) 450 (4) 900
37.From a sprinkler of length 1 𝑚, water is throw out with 0.5 𝑚/𝑠 tangentially at the
rate of 0.6 𝑘𝑔/𝑚𝑖𝑛. If diameter of sprinkler is 8 𝑐𝑚 and moment of inertia is
500 𝑔 𝑐𝑚2 , the rate at which angular speed of sprinkler will increases is (assume there
in no resistance to motion)
(1) 10 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2 (2) 100 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2
(3) 1000 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2 (4) 10000 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2
38.A block of mass 2 𝑚 is moving with speed 𝑣 towards a spring block system as shown
in the figure. if collision of the two blocks is perfectly inelastic then maximum
compression in the spring will be

𝑣 3𝑚 𝑣 2𝑚
(1) √ (2) √
𝑘 9𝑘

𝑣 2𝑚 𝑣 4𝑚
(3) √ (4) √
3𝑘 3𝑘

39.Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the 𝑛𝑡ℎ power of distance. Then,
time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sum will be
proportional to
𝑛−1
(1) 𝑅𝑛 (2) 𝑅 2

𝑛+1
(3) 𝑅 2 (4) 𝑅𝑛/2
40.A uniform wire of resistance 𝑅 is stretched uniformly to 𝑛 times. It is then cut to form
five wires of equal length. These wires are arranged as shown in figure. the effective
resistance between 𝐴 and 𝐶 is

𝑛2 𝑅 𝑛2 𝑅
(1) (2)
3 5
𝑛𝑅 𝑛𝑅
(3) (4)
5 3
41.A 1𝜇𝐹 capacitor is charged by 100𝑉 supply. It is then disconnected from the supply
and is connected to another uncharged 1𝜇𝐹 capacitor. The percentage of energy lost in
form of heat and electromagnetic radiation is
(1) 25% (2) 30%
(3) 60% (4) 50%
42.An electron of mass ‘𝑚’ with an initial velocity 𝑣 = 𝑣0 𝑖̂ is in electric field 𝐸⃗ = 𝐸0 𝑗̂. If
ℎ
𝜆0 = , its de Broglie wavelength at time ‘𝑡’ is given by (Check the symbols for
𝑚𝑣0

vectors)
𝜆0 𝑒 2 𝐸02 𝑡 2
(1) 𝜆0 (2) √1 +
𝑚2 𝑣02

𝜆0 𝜆0
(3) (4)
𝑒2 𝐸2
0𝑡
2 𝑒2 𝐸2
0𝑡
2
√1+ √1−
𝑚2 𝑣20 𝑚2 𝑣20

43.A cube of mass ‘𝑚’ and density ‘𝐷’ is suspended from the point ‘𝑃’ by a spring of
stiffness 𝑘 as shown in figure. The system is kept inside a beaker filled with a liquid of
density ‘𝑑’, where 𝐷 > 𝑑. What is the elongation in the spring?

𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔𝑑
(1) (2)
𝑘 𝑘𝐷
𝑚𝑔 𝑑 𝑚𝑔 𝐷
(3) (1 − 𝐷) (4) (1 − 𝑑 )
𝑘 𝑘

44.In which of the following numerical values, all zeroes are significant?
(1) 0.04040 (2) 40.4 × 1030
(3) 40.40 (4) 0.0404
𝐼𝐶 𝐼𝐶 20 100
45.In a transistor if = 𝛼 and = 𝛽. If 𝛼 varies between and , then the value of 𝛽
𝐸𝐸 𝐼𝐵 21 101

lies between
(1) 1 − 10 (2) 0.95 − 0.99
(3) 200 − 300 (4) 20 − 100
46.Two long straight conductors carry currents 3𝐴 and 1𝐴 into the plane of paper. A
circular path is imagined to enclose these currents. The value of ∮ 𝐵 𝑑𝑙 is
⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗
(1) 6𝜇0 (2) 4𝜇0
(3) 𝜇0 (4) 3𝜇0
47.For the setup shown in figure, the distance between slits much smaller as compared to
the distance of slits from the screen. The total number of minimas on the screen are
(where 𝑑 = 4𝜆)

(1) 8 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 6
48.For a given system find out 𝑇1 ′ and 𝑇2 ′ (forces exerted by the pulley on the support)
respectively.

(1) 4√2, 6√2 (2) 72√2, 60√2

(3) 80√2, 36√3 (4) 40√2, 3√2
49.An ideal gas undergoes the process 1 → 2 as shown in the figure, the heat supplied
and work done in the process is ∆𝑄 and ∆𝑊 respectively. The ratio ∆𝑄: ∆𝑊 is

(1) 𝛾: (𝛾 − 1) (2) 𝛾
(3) (𝛾 − 1) (4) (𝛾 − 1): 𝛾
50.In a series 𝐶 − 𝑅 circuit shown in figure, the applied voltage is 10𝑉 and the voltage
across the capacitor is found to be 8𝑉. The voltage across 𝑅 and the phase difference
between current and the applied voltage will be respectively.

4 3
(1) 6𝑉, tan−1 ( ) (2) 3𝑉, tan−1 ( )
3 4
3 4
(3) 6𝑉, tan−1 ( ) (4) 6𝑉, sin−1 ( )
4 3
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A

51.Correct order of melting point is

(1) 𝐻𝐼 > 𝐻𝐹 > 𝐻𝐶𝑙 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 (2) 𝐻𝐼 > 𝐻𝐹 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 > 𝐻𝐶𝑙
(3) 𝐻𝐼 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 > 𝐻𝐶𝑙 > 𝐻𝐹 (4) 𝐻𝐹 > 𝐻𝐶𝑙 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 > 𝐻𝐼
52.Statement I : Sulphuric acid is used to manufacture nitric acid from sodium nitrate.
Statement II: Sulphuric acid is less volatile than nitric acid.
In the light of the above statements, identify the correct option.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct .
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
53.Consider the following reaction

The major product formed is

54.In which of the following alcohols, dehydration takes place most readily in acidic
medium?
55.Nitroethane when heated above 573 𝐾 yields
(1) Ethane (2) Ethene
(3) Ethyne (4) Ethylamine
56.Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Acrylonitrile is used in making acrilan.
(2) Zeigler Natta catalyst is triethylaluminium and titanium tetrachloride.
(3) Nylon 6, 6 is a fibre
(4) High density polythene is chemically reactive.
57.Consider the following statements
(I) Histamine is a potent vasodilator
(II) Brompheniramine is an antihistamine
(III) Tranquilizers and analgesics are neurologically active drugs

The correct statements among the following are

(1) I and III only (2) II and III only

(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III

58.When 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 is fused with potassium hydroxide in presence of 𝐾𝑁𝑂3 , the deep green
compound obtained is
(1) 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 (2) 𝐾2 𝑀𝑛𝑂4
(3) 𝑀𝑛(𝑂𝐻)2 (4) 𝑀𝑛2 𝑂3
59.Which of the following has lowest ionization enthalpy?
(1) 𝐶 (2) 𝐺𝑒
(3) 𝑆𝑛 (4) 𝑃𝑏
60.Beryllium hydroxide reacts with alkali to form
(1) [𝐵𝑒(𝑂𝐻)3 ]− (2) [𝐵𝑒(𝑂𝐻)4 ]2−
(3) [𝐵𝑒(𝐻2 𝑂)2 ]2+ (4) [𝐵𝑒(𝐻2 𝑂)4 ]2+
61.Which among the following elements is not a representative element?
(1) 𝑆𝑟 (2) 𝐶𝑙
(3) 𝑆𝑛 (4) 𝑍𝑛
62.Which among the following will boil at highest temperature?
(1) 𝐻𝐶𝑙 (2) 𝐻𝐵𝑟
(3) 𝐻𝐼 (4) 𝐻𝐹
63.Which of the following is not a common component of photochemical smog?
(1) 𝑆𝑂2 (2) 𝑁𝑂
(3) 𝑂3 (4) 𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂
64.The correct order of increasing energy of orbitals in a multi electron atom is
(1) 4𝑝 < 4𝑠 < 3𝑑 < 2𝑝 (2) 2𝑝 < 3𝑑 < 4𝑝 < 4𝑠
(3) 2𝑝 < 3𝑑 < 4𝑠 < 4𝑝 (4) 2𝑝 < 4𝑠 < 3𝑑 < 4𝑝
65.The compound which is most easily soluble in aqueous alkali is

66.Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product B is
67.Statement – I : Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with zinc dust.
Statement – II: Chromic acid oxidises phenol to benzoquinone.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is incorrect.
(2) Statement – I is incorrect but statement – II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect
68.Compound A having molecular formula 𝐶9 𝐻10 𝑂2 on reaction with dilute 𝐻𝐶𝑙 gives
compound 𝑋 and 𝑌. 𝑋 evolves 𝐶𝑂2 on reaction with aqueous 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 and 𝑌 gives
yellow precipitate on reaction with 𝐼2 /𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻. Structure of compound 𝐴 is

69.Low spin complex of 𝑑 4 cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy
(P is pairing energy)
(1) −2.4∆0 + 𝑃 (2) −01.2∆0 + 2𝑃
(3) −1.6∆0 + 𝑃 (4) −0.6∆0
70.Estimation of nitrogen using Kjeldahl’s method is applicable to
71.Correct IUPAC name of the following compounds is

(1) 3 − 𝐶𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑥𝑦𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎 − 1, 5 − 𝑑𝑖𝑜𝑖𝑐 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑

(2) 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑝 − 1, 2, 3 − 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑖𝑐 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑
(3) 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑎𝑛𝑒 − 1, 2, 3 − 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑥𝑦𝑙𝑖𝑐 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑
(4) 𝐻𝑒𝑥 − 2, 3, 4 − 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑥𝑦𝑙𝑖𝑐 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑
72.Oxidising behaviour of 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 is observed in
(1) 2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
(2) 2𝑃𝐶𝑙5 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 2𝑃𝑂𝐶𝑙3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2
(3) 2𝐻𝐼 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑆𝑂2 + 𝐼2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
(4) 𝑆𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝐻2 𝑆2 𝑂7
73.The 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙
0
for the cell reaction
𝐶𝑟 + 𝐹𝑒 2+ → 𝐶𝑟 3+ + 𝐹𝑒, will be (Given: ∆𝐺 0 = −170𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )
(1) 0.37 𝑉 (2) 0.29 𝑉
(3) 0.21 𝑉 (4) 0.16 𝑉
74.Statement – I : hcp and ccp structure are equally efficient.
Statement – II : Same number of atoms are present in a hcp and ccp unit cell.
In the light of above statement choose the correct option among the following.
(1) Statement – I is correct, but statement – II is incorrect.
(2) Statement – I is incorrect, but statement – II is correct.
(3) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct
(4) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect
75.The phenomenon of producing electrical signals in a crystal by applying pressure is
known as
(1) Piezoelectricity (2) Ferrielectricity
(3) Pyroelectricity (4) Ferroelectricity
76.Volume of 𝐶𝑂2 obtained at STP on heating 100 𝑔 of 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 sample (25 % 𝑝𝑢𝑟𝑖𝑡𝑦) is
(1) 22.4 𝐿 (2) 11.2 𝐿
(3) 7.6 𝐿 (4) 5.6 𝐿
77.Statement – I : Ellingham diagram explains the kinetics of reduction process.
Statement – II : Hydraulic washing, a method of concentration of ore is based on the
differences in gravities of the ore and the gangue.
In the light of above statements choose the correct option among the following.
(1) Both statement – I and statement – II are true
(2) Both statement – I and statement – II are false
(3) Statement – I is true but statement – II is false
(4) Statement – I is false but statement – II is true
78.Hydrolith on treatment with water gives
(1) 𝐻2 (𝑔) (2) 𝑂2 (𝑔)
(3) 𝐻2 𝑂2 (𝑙) (4) 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3
79.For the reaction, 2𝐶𝑙(𝑔) − ⊡ 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔), the sign of △ 𝐻 and △ 𝑆 respectively are
(1) + ve and + ve (2) – ve and – ve
(3) + ve and – ve (4) – ve and + ve
80.If 𝑝𝐻 of saturated solution of 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 is 12 then 𝐾𝑠𝑝 of 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 is
(1) 4 × 10−2 (2) 5 × 10−7
(3) 6 × 10−3 (4) 2 × 10−7
81.The shape of molecule when the central atom contains 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs is
(1) Trigonal planar (2) T – shape
(3) Pyramidal (4) Bent
82.Optimum 𝑝𝐻 range for the enzymatic activity is
(1) 1 – 3 (2) 3 – 5
(3) 5 – 7 (4) 7 – 9
83.How many half-lives will be required for 99.9% completion of 1st order reaction?
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 8 (4) 10
84.The mixture which shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law is
(1) Acetone + Chloroform (2) Acetone + Ethanol
(3) Acetone + Benzene (4) Ethanol + Water
85.Assuming 100% dissociation, the van’t Hoff factor of 𝐻𝑔2 𝐶𝑙2 is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
 SECTION – B

86.Consider the following sequence of reactions,

Major product 𝐶 is

87.By what factor does the root mean square speed of the gaseous molecules increases
when the temperature is tripled?
(1) 1.41 (2) 1.73
(3) 2.4 (4) 0.91
88.Identify the correct statement(s) regarding Solvay process.
(I) Sodium carbonate is generally prepared by this process.
(II) Ammonia is recovered when solution containing ammonium chloride is treated
with sodium chloride.
(III) It cannot be used to manufacture potassium hydrogencarbonate.

(1) I and II only (2) I and III only

(3) II and III only (4) I, II and III

89.A 662 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 300 nm. The number of
photons emitted per second by the bulb is (take ℎ = 6.62 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠)
(1) 1021 𝑠 −1 (2) 1020 𝑠 −1
(3) 1018 𝑠 −1 (4) 1019 𝑠 −1
90.Statement – I : 1 mol of 𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙3 . 5𝑁𝐻3 will give 2 mol of 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 on reaction with excess
𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 solution.
Statement – II : Secondary valency of 𝐶𝑜 in 𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙3 . 5𝑁𝐻3 is 5.
Properties in light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is incorrect
(2) Statement – I is incorrect but statement – II is correct
(3) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct
(4) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect.
91.Mesityl oxide is the aldol condensation product of
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetophenone
(3) Acetone (4) Propionaldehyde
92.For esters, prefix used in IUPAC nomenclature is
(1) Carboxy (2) Carbamoyl
(3) Formyl (4) Alkoxycarbonyl
93.Number of products (structural isomers only) formed by monochlorination of 3-
methylpentane is
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 3
94.Equivalent mass of 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 when it is titrated against 𝐻𝐶𝑙 in presence of
phenolphthalein indication is
(1) 53 (2) 79.5
(3) 35.33 (4) 106
95.Limiting equivalent conductivity of calcium phosphate is given by
(Λ0𝑚 )𝐶𝑎2+ (Λ0𝑚 )
𝑃𝑂3−
(1) + 4
(2) (Λ0𝑚 )𝐶𝑎2+ + (Λ0𝑚 )𝑃𝑂43−
2 3

(Λ0𝑒𝑞 ) (Λ0𝑒𝑞 ) (Λ0𝑒𝑞 ) (Λ0𝑒𝑞 )

𝐶𝑎2+ 𝑃𝑂3− 𝐶𝑎2+ 𝑃𝑂3−
(3) + 4
(4) + 4
3 2 2 3

96.If equilibrium constant 𝐾𝑐 for a reaction is 1010 at 270 𝐶, then △ 𝐺 0 of the reaction at
270 𝐶 will be
(1) −2303 𝑅 (2) −6909 𝑅
(3) −9212 𝑅 (4) 10133 𝑅
97.According to the classification based on the physical states of dispersed phase and
dispersion medium. There are how many types of colloidal sols possible?
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 8 (4) 9
98.Fraction of molecule having energy greater or equal to activation energy 𝐸𝑎 at
temperature 𝑇𝐾 is given by
−𝐸𝑎 −𝐸𝑎
(1) 1 − 𝑒 𝑅𝑇 (2) 𝑒 𝑅𝑇
𝐸𝑎 −𝑅𝑇
(3) 𝑒 𝑅𝑇 (4) 𝑒 𝐸𝑎
99.Hybridization of middle carbon in carbon suboxide is
(1) 𝑠𝑝 (2) 𝑠𝑝2
(3) 𝑠𝑝3 (4) 𝑑𝑠𝑝2
100. Heat required to raise the temperature of 5.4 g of aluminum from 350 𝐶 to 650 𝐶 is
(Molar heat capacity of 𝐴𝐼 = 24 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1 )
(1) 36 𝐽 (2) 72 𝐽
(3) 144 𝐽 (4) 288 𝐽
 BOTANY
SECTION - A

101. Which of the given is not true w.r.t. 𝐶𝐹0 of ATP synthase?
(1) It is embedded in the thylakoid membrane
(2) It forms a transmembrane channel
(3) It carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane
(4) It shows a conformation change in it, which makes the enzyme synthesis everal
molecules of energy – packed ATP
102. In DNA, hydrogen bond joins
(1) Nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
(2) Pentose sugar with phosphate group
(3) Two adjacent nitrogenous bases present on the complementary strands
(4) Pyrimidines with deoxyribose sugar
103. RNA dependent DNA synthesis is related to
(1) Replication (2) Transcription
(3) Translation (4) Reverse transcription
104. All of the following act as a substrate in DNA replication, except
(1) dATP (2) dUTP
(3) dCTP (4) dTTP
105. Mark incorrect statement w.r.t. anthropogenic extinction.
(1) It is extermination of species caused directly or indirectly by human activities
(2) It includes loss of biodiversity by habitat destruction
(3) It is causing sixth mass extinction of species
(4) It occurs at a very slow rate
106. All of the given practices lead to soil erosion, except
(1) Over cultivation (2) Unrestricted grazing
(3) Poor-irrigation practices (4) Restoring a forest
107. Mark the statement not true for chromosomal theory of inheritance.
(1) Both, chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs
(2) A gamete contains only one chromosome of a type
(3) Paired condition of both chromosomes as well as Mendelian factors is restored
during gametogenesis
(4) Chromosomes retain their number, structure and individuality throughout the
life.
108. Mark the odd one w.r.t. co-dominance.
(1) Both the alleles express themselves equally
(2) F1 progeny resembles both the parents
(3) There is no mixing of the effects of the alleles
(4) F1 phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 while genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1
109. Which of the following trait exemplifies polygenic inheritance?
(1) Human blood groups (2) Skin colour in humans
(3) Phenylketonuria disease (4) Starch synthesis in pea
110. Identify the incorrect match.
(1) Euglena – Photosynthetic protozoan
(2) Paramecium – Have two nuclei
(3) Trypanosoma – Pathogenic protozoan
(4) Nostoc – Symbiotic nitrogen fixer
111. Claviceps differs from Colletotrichum as the former
(1) Produces conidia
(2) Have septate hyphae
(3) Produces meiospores in sac like structure
(4) Lack asexual reproduction
112. An edible fruiting body is formed by all, except
(1) Agaricus (2) Morels
(3) Truffles (4) Yeast
113. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution,
(1) Solute molecules will move out of the cell
(2) It will become turgid
(3) It will undergo plasmolysis
(4) Water will move into the cell
114. A typical mature embryo sac in angiosperm is
(1) 7 – celled and 8 – nucleated (2) 4 – celled and 8 – nucleated
(3) 8 – celled and 4 – nucleated (4) 12 – celled and 6 – nucleated
115. Algin and Carrageen is obtained from
(1) Green algae (2) Brown and red algae, respectively
(3) Blue green algae (4) Green and red algae, respectively
116. Which among the following constitutes the ring structure of chlorophyll and helps to
maintain the ribosome structure?
(1) Iron (2) Nitrogen
(3) Magnesium (4) Boron
117. In cell division, crossing over happens during
(1) Diplotene (2) Leptotene
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene
118. The reduction in the number of chromosomes occurs during which phase of meiosis?
(1) Prophase I (2) Diakinesis
(3) Anaphase I (4) Metaphase I
119. Read the following statements about a taxonomical aid and identify it.
(a) Provides index to the plant species found in a particular area.
(b) Gives the actual account of habitat and distribution of various plants of a given
area

(1) Monograph (2) Catalogue

(3) Flora (4) Key

120. Which of the following is not a feature of all living organisms?

(1) Consciousness (2) Metabolism
(3) Reproduction (4) Growth
121. Select the incorrect statement about Krebs cycle.
(1) Takes place in cytosol of eukaryotes
(2) Also known as TCA cycle
(3) Enzymes for the cycle are found in mitochondrial matrix
(4) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs at a particular step
122. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
(A)The plant part which is used in tissue culture is called explant
(B) Pathogen free clones of plants can be obtained through meristem culture.

(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct

(3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
123. Many adaptations are seen in various organisms that help them to survive in
environment. Which one of the following is not true regarding such adaptations?
(1) Xerophytes have thick cuticle
(2) Scotoactive stomata in CAM plants
(3) Blubber in seals
(4) Increase in binding capacity of haemoglobin to oxygen in humans at high
altitude
124. In the given food chain, what will be the energy available to carnivore II?
Sunlight (100000 kcal)□ Producer □ Herbivore □ Carnivore I □ Carnivore II
(1) 10 kcal (2) 1 kcal
(3) 0.1 cal (4) 001 kcal
125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. asexual reproduction.
(1) It does not require the production of sex organs
(2) It involves both meiotic and mitotic divisions
(3) Individuals are genetically similar to the parent
(4) It has no evolutionary significance
126. Which of the following is binucleate cell in a mature embryo sac of angiosperm?
(1) Antipodal cell (2) Synergid
(3) Egg cell (4) Central cell
127. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Dragonfly - Use to get rid of mosquitoes
(2) Trichoderma - Free living bacteria to fix nitrogen
(3) Baculoviruses - Narrow spectrum insecticidal application
(4) Glomus - Form symbiotic association with plants
128. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: In rice, hypocotyl grows first and cotyledons comes out of the soil.
Statement B: Tobacco plants flower when they are exposed to a photoperiod shorter
than a critical period.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
129. Stilt roots in maize arise from
(1) Internodes of the stem (2) Lower nodes of the stem
(3) Fibrous adventitious roots (4) Elongated radicle
130. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column – I Column – II
A. Offset (i) Modified axillary bud
B. Thorn (ii) Swollen leaf base
C. Pneumatophore (iii) Respiratory root
D. Pulvinus (iv) Su-aerial weak stem

A B C D
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
131. Read the following statements.
(a) Annual rings are more distinct in plants growing in tropical regions.
(b) One annual ring has one circle of autumn wood and two circles of spring wood.
(c) Late wood is lighter in colour and has lower density.
(d) Dermatogen forms epidermis and epidermal tissue system.

The incorrect one(s) is / are

(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

132. All of the following are absent in monocot stem, except

(1) Hypodermis (2) Epidermis
(3) Endodermis (4) Vascular Bundles
133. Which structure in bacteria is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign
DNA?
(1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophore
(3) Plasmid (4) Polyribosome
134. One of the most important functions of plasma membrane is
(1) Maintenance of the shape of the cell
(2) To protect the cell from mechanical injury
(3) Transport of molecules across it
(4) Formation of glycoproteins
135. As per the position of centromere, chromosomes A and B shown below are (A-left,
B-right)

(1) Metacentric and sub-metacentric respectively

(2) Sub-metacentric and acrocentric respectively
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Sub-metacentric

SECTION – B

136. Chromosome 1 of human beings

(1) Has fewest gene
(2) Has 2968 genes
(3) Was the first chromosome get sequenced
(4) Was sequenced by the end of May 2003
137. What is the value of Z (slope of regression) for frugivorous birds and mammals in
tropical forests of different continents?
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.6
(3) 0.2 (4) 1.15
138. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. polyblend.
(1) It is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic
(2) It is mixed with bitumen that is used to lay roads
(3) The ray material for creating polyblend is any plastic film waste
(4) It was developed by Ramesh Chandra Dagar
139. Which of the following disorders in humans is caused by gene present on sex
chromosome?
140. Dinoflagellates are not
(1) Found in marine habitat (2) Eukaryotes
(3) Capable to reproduce sexually (4) Strictly heterotrophic in nature
141. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t. symplastic pathway?
(1) It consists of non-living parts of plant body
(2) It is faster way of transport
(3) It is directly affected by metabolic state of root
(4) Water can pass without crossing cytoplasm
142. In gymnosperms
(1) Male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence
(2) Roots are generally fibrous root
(3) Seeds and flowers are formed
(4) Double fertilization takes place
143. The factor that increases the rate of decomposition of detritus is
(1) Reduced moisture
(2) Low temperature
(3) Good aeration
(4) Low nitrogenous compound and water – soluble carbohydrates
144. A population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘-‘ symbols, refers to
(1) Parasitism (2) Amensalism
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism
145. Select the option with beverages produced by distillation of the fermented broth.
(1) Wine and whisky (2) Beer and brandy
(3) Brandy and rum (4) Wine and beer
146. Select the correct statement for pollen grains.
(a) They cannot be stored in liquid nitrogen.
(b) They can be used as food supplements.
(c) In majority of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage.
(d) Its outer layer is made up of organic material which can withstand high
temperature and strong alkali.

(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (d) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

147. The effect of auxin that promote apical dominance in plant, can be counteracted by
(1) Gibberllins (2) Abscisic acid
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
148. Staminodes are stamens that
(1) Develop on the calyx (2) Mature before the pistils
(3) Are sterile (4) Are united into a single bundle
149. Which of the following is not the function of pericycle?
(1) Storage of food material
(2) Controlling the quantity of solutes that reach the xylem
(3) Formation of a part of cambial ring
(4) Giving rise to the lateral roots
150. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(1) Centriole - Gives rise to spindle apparatus
(2) Microtubules - Form axoneme of cilia
(3) Flagella - 9+2 organisation of microtubules
(4) Spindle fibres - Made up of contractile proteins
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A

151. Consider the given statements and select the option with incorrect statement.
(1) In humans, lungs are enclosed in a double layered peritoneum formed by
connective tissue with a fluid between them that reduces friction.
(2) Alveoli are the main sites where actual diffusion of gases 𝑂2 and 𝐶𝑂2 takes
place between blood and atmospheric air.
(3) During expiration, diaphragm relaxes and arches upwards.
(4) Values of tidal volume is the lowest among all types of respiratory volumes.
152. Identify the protein produced by liver in inactive form whose activated form
stimulates adrenal cortex to release mineralocorticoid that increases the reabsorption
of the Na+ ions from the filtrate.
(1) ACE (2) ANF
(2) Angiotensinogen (4) Renin
153. Select the correct match.
(1) Verbetrostemal ribs - Dorsally attached to the sternum
(2) Vertebral ribs - Also know as floating ribs
(3) Sternum - Present on the dorsal midline of the thorax
(4) Pectoral girdle - Formed of three bones namely ilium, pubis and
ischium
154. Which of the following structures have saddle joint?
(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(2) Between atlas and axis
(3) Between tarsals
(4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
155. Select the incorrect statement regarding apiculture.
(1) Bee-keeping can be practiced in any area where there are sufficient pastures of
some wild shrubs, fruit orchards etc.
(2) Bee-keeping is very labour intensive
(3) Management of beehives is different in different seasons
(4) For successful bee-keeping, knowledge of the nature and habits of bees is very
important.
156. Which of the following processes / techniques are included under the umbrella of
biotechnology?
(a) In vitro fertilization leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby
(b) Synthesizing a gene and using it
(c) Developing a DNA vaccine
(d) Correcting a defective gene

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

157. The second two letters in the name of restriction enzymes come from the
(1) Genus of the prokaryotic cell (2) Species of the eukaryotic cell
(3) Strain of bacteria (4) Species of the prokaryotic cell
158. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) All plasmids replicate only when bacteria divides.
(2) Copy number of bacteriophages is more than that of plasmids.
(3) Ori sequence is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
(4) The normal E. coli cells do not carry resistance genes against tetracycline and
ampicillin antibiotics.
159. Which theory/hypothesis stated that formation of life was preceded by chemical
evolution?
(1) Panspermia theory (2) Spontaneous generation theory
(3) Oparin –Haldane hypothesis (4) Theory of biogenesis
160. The population in genetic equilibrium can be disturbed by
(a) Assortative mating
(b) Absence of mutation
(c) Gene migration
(d) Natural selection

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
161. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
(a) Australopithecines (i) 900 cc cranial capacity
(b) Homo habilis (ii) Not taller than 4 feet but walked upright
(c) Homo erectus (iii) Lived between 100000-40000 years ago
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) Cranial capacity 650-800 cc
neanderthalensis

(1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d (i) (2) a (i), b (ii), c (iv), d (iii)
(3) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii) (4) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)

162. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(a) Primary metabolites have identifiable functions and play known roles in normal
physiological processes.
(b) Scents and pigments are primary metabolites.
(c) Nicotine and strychnine are secondary metabolites produced by plants.

(1) (a) and (b) are correct while (c) is incorrect

(2) (a) and (c) are correct while (b) is incorrect.
(3) (b) and (c) are correct while (a) is incorrect.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

163. Select an enzyme among the following that is not proteinaceous in nature.
(1) Nitrogenase (2) Pectinase
(3) Trypsin (4) Ribozyme
164. Select the incorrect pair among the following w.r.t. given structures and
characteristics.
Structural component of cell
membrane of plants
(1) -

Fatty acids are esterified with it to

form glycerides
(2) -

It’s structure changes in solution of

(3) - different pH

It is a nucleoside present in RNA

and DNA
(4) -

165. The mucus present in the gastric juice protects the mucosal epithelium from the
excoriating action of 𝐻𝐶𝑙.
The mucosal lining is a ______ barrier of innate immunity.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(1) Physical (2) Physiological
(3) Cytokine (3) Cellular
166. Read the statements given below and select the incorrect one.
(1) Pollens and animal dander are examples of allergens.
(2) Allergy is due to release of histamine and serotonin from mast cells.
(3) Memory based acquired immunity evolved in higher vertebrates is based on
ability to differentiate foreign organisms from self cells.
(4) Vitiligo and psoriasis are auto-immune diseases of skin and respiratory passage
respectively.
167. Choose the incorrect option about the secretions of endocrine glands.
(1) Non-nutrient chemicals (2) Produced in minute amounts
(3) Carried by the blood (4) Does not show target – specificity
168. How many of the following parts given in the box below are associated with genital
chamber of male cockroach?
Dorsal anus, Collaterial glands, Ventral male genital pore, Gonapophysis,
Spermathecal pores

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Two (4) Five
169. Match column I with column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Diarrhoea (i) Protein-energy malnutrition
b. Constipation (ii) Abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased
liquidity of faecal discharge
c. Indigestion (iii) Faeces are retained within the colon
d. Kwashiorkar (iv) Caused due to inadequate enzyme secretion

(1) a (i), b (iii), c (ii), d (iv) (2) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d (iv)
(3) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i) (4) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i)
170. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate digesting enzyme?
(1) Ptyalin (2) Steapsin
(3) Maltase (4) Amylase
171. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits in
(1) Star fish (2) Devil fish
(3) Cuttle fish (4) Dog fish

172. Complete the analogy w.r.t locomotory structures and select the correct option.
Nereis : Parapodia : : Ctenoplana : _______
(1) Tentacles (2) Flagellated comb plates
(3) Ciliated comb plates (4) Jointed legs
173. Match items in column I with those in column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Pleurobrachia (i) Oral sucker
b. Fasciola (ii) Collar
c. Spongilla (iii) Paired tentacles
d. Saccoglossus (iv) Collar cells
(1) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv) (2) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii)
(3) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii) (4) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i)
174. Assertion (A) : No individual is immortal, except single-celled organisms like
Planaria.
Reason (R) : There is no natural death in single – celled organisms.
In the light of above statements. Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
175. During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact with the ____ layer of the ovum and
induces changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms.
Select the option that correctly fills the blank.
(1) Corona radiata (2) Perivitelline
(3) Zona pellucida (4) Granulosa
176. Read the following statements A and B. Choose the correct answer from the option
given below.
Statement A : The motile sperms pass through cervix and uterus after insemination
and reach at the junction of uterus and fallopian tubes where fertilization takes
place.
Statement B : The secretions of acrosome help the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm
of the ovum through the zona pellucida and the plasma membrane.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Only statement B is correct
177. The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by
(1) Formation of digits in embryo
(2) Implantation of blastocyst within endometrium
(3) Listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope
(4) The first movements of the foetus
178. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Oviduct (i) Ampulla and areola
b. Uterus (ii) Isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum
c. Mammary gland (iii) Head, neck and tail
d. Sperm (iv) Fundus and cervix

(1) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv) (2) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii)
(3) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i) (4) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
179. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) In reptiles, limbs are either absent or present
(2) All reptiles are oviparous and have internal fertilization and indirect
development.
(3) Some of the mammals are adapted to fly or live in water.
(4) In cartilaginous fishes, teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly
directed.
180. Read the given statements w.r.t. cardiac cycle and select the incorrect one.
(1) SAN generates an action potential which stimulates both the atria to undergo a
simultaneous contraction.
(2) The action potential is conducted to the ventricular side by the AVN and AV
bundle from where the bundle of His transmits it through the entire ventricular
musculature.
(3) During joint diastole, semilunar valves are closed and the tricuspid and bicuspid
valves are open; blood from pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the right
and the left ventricles respectively.
(4) In ventricular diastole, the ventricular pressure falls causing the closure of
semilunar valves which presents the backflow of blood into the ventricles.
181. Complete the analogy and select the correct option.
B Blood group : Anti A : : O blood group : ____
(1) Anti – A only (2) Nil
(3) Anti – B only (4) Anti – A, B
182. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from _____.
Select the option that correctly fills the blank.
(1) Oesophagus (2) Instestine
(3) Heart (4) Kidneys
183. Priya is pregnant with her first child, but due to unforeseen circumstances she does
not with to continue with her pregnancy. After a sonography the foetus was
observed to have developed limbs, digits etc.
She needs the opinion of how many medical practitioners to get an MTP?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
184. All of the following are applicable for ‘Nirodh’, except
(1) Disposable (2) Protect from STIs
(3) Can be used by both males and females (4) Prevents fertilization
185. Which was the first human hormone to be produced by recombinant DNA
technology?
(1) Insulin (2) GH
(3) Oxytocin (4) ADH

SECTION – B

186. All of the following peculiar features of Platyhelminthes can differentiate between
free – living and parasitic forms except
(1) Dorsoventrally flattened body
(2) Presence of hooks
(3) Presence of suckers
(4) Absorption of nutrients from the host directly through their body surface
187. Veins are best defined as the vessels which
(1) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
(2) Collect deoxygenated blood from different organs
(3) Carry blood from different organs to the heart
(4) Break up into capillaries which reunite to form an artery
188. Which of the following parasite feeds upon erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of
colon?
(1) Wuchereria (2) Ascaris
(3) Entamoeba (4) Plasmodium
189. Which of the following is the blood concentration of monomer of maltose in a
normal healthy human?
Which of the following is the blood concentration of monomer of maltose in a
normal healthy human?
(1) 2.4 mmol/L – 6.1 mmol/L (2) 0.0042 mol/L – 0.0061 mol/L
(2) 0.42 mmol/L – 0.61 mmol/L (4) 0.042 mol/L – 0.061 mol/L
190. If cloning vector pBR322 has desired gene in one of the selectable marker, then in
this case, one antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting the __A__, whereas the
other antibiotic resistance gene which gets ‘inactivated due to insertion’ of alien
DNA helps in selection of __B__.
Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks A and B.
A B
(1) Non-recombinants - Non- transformants
(2) Transformants - Recombinants
(3) Non- transformants - Transformants
(4) Recombinants - Non-recombinants

191. Select the correct match w.r.t. enzymes and their functions.
(1) Exonuclease - Breaks sugar phosphate backbones of DNA
(2) Restriction enzyme - Removes nucleotides from 5’ end of DNA
(3) DNA ligase - Breaks phosphodiester bond
(4) Methylase - Adds hydroxyl methyl groups to DNA

192. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated
geographical area, one can call this
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Parallel evolution
(3) Divergent evolution only (3) Co-evolution
193. Removal of loop of Henle from the nephron will result in
(1) No urine formation
(2) More diluted urine
(3) More concentrated urine
(4) No change in quality and quantity of urine
194. Which part of brain contains neural central to moderate the cardiac function through
ANS as well as to maintain the respiratory rhythm?
(1) Pons (2) Cerebellum
(3) Cerebrum (4) Medulla oblongata
195. Which one of the given options is a correct difference between implant
contraceptives and oral contraceptive pills?
(1) Effect on ovulation (2) Effect on implantation
(3) Effective period (4) Mode of action
196. Choose the mismatch from the following
(1) Mosquito - Dipteran
(2) Golden rice - Insecticidal crop
(3) cry IAb - Corn borer
(4) Oil spills - Pseudomonas putida
197. How many of the following are not included in the human hindbrain?
Medulla oblongata, Thalamus, Corpora qudrigemina, Pons, Cerebrum, Cerebellum
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
198. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t nodes of Ranvier.
(1) Present on dendrites (2) Interruptions between myelin sheaths
(3) Seen n nerve cells (4) Help in impulse transmission
199. Assertion (A) : Fallopian tubes help in transport of ovum from ovary to the uterus.
Reason (R) : Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface of hollow organs like
fallopian tubes.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
200. Complete the analogy w.r.t. adrenal cortex by choosing the correct option.
Middle layer : Zona Fasciculata : : Inner layer : _____
(1) Zona reticularis (2) Zona pellucida
(3) Zona glomerulosa (4) Zonula occludens