Jainendra Public School

Pre Board Examination 2023-24

General Instructions:
i. The Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All
questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each
question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 60 words
v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b
from Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
x. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency –Based Questions”. 50% weightage allocated for competency based questions.

Section-A 20 marks
1. Match the followings:-
Column I Column II
(a) Abanindranath Tagore (i) Jana Gana Mana
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (ii) The Folklore of Southern Indian
(c) Rabindranath Tagore (iii) Bharat Mata image
(d) Natesa Sastri (iv) Vande Mataram
Options:-
A) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-b B) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-a
C) (i)-d, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c D) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-d
2. Study the picture and answer the questions that follow:-
Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of the ship “Alexandra”?
A) Irish emigrants waiting to board the ship.
B) Meat being loaded on the ship.
C) Emigrants leaving for the US.
D) Transport to the gold mines.

3. Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct
options:
(i) It is form by the deposition brought down by the rivers.
(ii) It is highly fertile.
(iii) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay
(iv) It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime.
Options:-
A) Main features of alluvial soil B) Main features of black soil
C) Main features of arid soil D) Main features of laterite soil
4. The species whose population has declined to a level from where it is likely to move into the endangered category
in the near future of the negative factors continue to operate are called:
A) Endemic species B) Extinct species C) Vulnerable species D) Normal species
5. The ethnic composition of Belgium is very complex.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the ethnic composition of Belgium?
(A) 59% of people live in the Flemish region and speak the Dutch language
(B) 30% of people living in the Wallonia region speak French
(C) 10% of Belgians speak German
(D) 1% Belgian speaks Russian
6. The practice of taking power away from the union and state governments and giving it to local governments is
called decentralization.
Pick the major steps that were taken towards decentralization in 1992.
(A) To hold regular elections of Local Government Bodies.
(B) At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
(C) State Election Commission has been created in each State.
(D) All of the above.
7. Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
‘However for comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have
different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people
in one countries better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is
the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita
income’.
(A) Comparison between countries (B) Comparison of total population
(C) Comparison of average income (D) Per capita income
8. Which of the following professions belongs to the tertiary sector of economy?
(A) Fisherman (B) Farmer (C) Factory Worker (D) Teacher
9. A _____ forest is land that is reserved forest, and over which the government has property rights.
(A) Reserved (B) Protected (C) Unclassed (D) None of the Above
10. Study the given graph and answer the following:
About how much percent of land area is plains?
(A) 27% (B) 72%
(C) 30% (D) 43%
11. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the
ever increasing demand for books.
Reason (R): Chinese paper reached Europe via the silk route.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
12. Which one of the following Italian states was ruled by an Italian princely house?
(A) Papal State (B) Lombardy (C) Venetia (D) Sardinia-Piedmont
13. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer:
Statement (i): Dams are built just for electricity generation.
Statement (ii): Dams were traditionally built to impound rivers and rainwater that could be used later to irrigate
agricultural fields.
 (A) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
(C) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(D) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
14. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided
below:
Assertion (A): We are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and the
people will have control over the rulers.
Reason (R): The most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a Government that is accountable
to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and the expectations of the citizens.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
15. Created in 1980, it champions the socio-religious values of India.
Choose the philosophy of Bhartiya Janta Party.
(A) Cultural nationalism (B) Religion above all
(C) NO discrimination on the basis of caste (D) Equal opportunity for all
16. Find the incorrect option from the following:
(A) For development, people look at a mix of goals.
(B) It is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society decreases.
(C) However, it is also the case that if there is respect for women there would be more sharing of housework and
a greater acceptance of working women.
(D) A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business.
17. Underemployment is the underuse of a worker because a job does not use the worker’s skills.
Which one of the following occupations suffers from underemployment?
(A) Teacher (B) Casual labour (C) Bank employee (D) Police constable
18. Scared Groves are:
(A) parts of large forests that have been left untouched by the local people.
(B) places for grazing animals
(C) forests earmarked for commercial felling of tress.
(D) forests used for planting trees with medicinal properties.
19. Which of the following conservation strategies do not directly involve community participation?
(A) Joint Forest Management (B) Beej Bachao Andolan
(C) Chipko Movement (D) Demarcation of Wildlife Sanctuaries
20. In terms of _____, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.
(A) population (B) languages (C) forests (D) religions

SECTION-B (2 x 4 =8)
21. Bauxite is an ore from which aluminum is obtained.
Mention any two uses of Bauxite keeping the above statement in mind. (2)
OR
Copper metal is malleable, ductile and a good conductor. List down the names of the industries in which copper
is used because of its properties and the copper rich regions of India.
22. The unorganized sector is characterized by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the
government.
How can the workers in the unorganized sector be protected? Explain. (2)
23. Study the world map thoroughly and tell what it depicts about India. (2)

24. Why is it necessary to increase the number of banks mainly in rural areas? Explain. (2)

Section-C (3 x 5 =15)
25. Simon Commission was greeted with slogan ‘Go back Simon’ at arrival in India.
Support this reaction of Indians with arguments. (3)
26. “A wide ranging choice of goods are available in the Indian markets.” Support the statement with examples in
context of Globalization. (3)
27. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. Give two broad measures for it. As
concerned citizens, how can you help to conserve energy? (3)
OR
What is soil erosion? Mention any two methods which can help in reducing soil erosion.
28. Describe three advantages of the political expression of caste differences. (3)
29. Study the graph given below and answer the questions. (3)
The graph shows the number of people who find democracy as a suitable form of government for their nation.
Why is democracy preferred over other types of governments?
 Section- D (5 x 4 =20)
30. ‘Public sector contributes to the economic development of India.’ Justify the statement. (5)
OR
‘Public welfare is primarily the responsibility of the public sector’. In view of the given statement, list down the
reasons that limit the role of the private sector in public welfare.
31. “The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe.” Support the statement with arguments.
(5)
OR
What happened during the year following 1815 when the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists
underground? Explain.
32. “Complaints are treated as testimony to the success of Democracy.” Justify this statement. (5)
OR
“Democracy is very important for promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens.” Support this statement with
arguments.
33. Name the two major beverage crops grown in India. Describe their growing areas. (5)
OR
Name any two major fibre crops grown in India. Describe the conditions required to grow these two crops.

Section-E (4 x 3 =12)
34. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The failure of the Cripps Mission and the effects of World War II created widespread discontentment in India.
This led Gandhiji to launch a movement calling for complete withdrawal of the British from India. The Congress
Working Committee, in its meeting in Wardha on 14 July, 1942, passed the historic ‘Quit India’ resolution demanding
the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India. On 8 August, 1942, in Bombay, the All India Congress
Committee endorsed the resolution which called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale
throughout the country. It was on this occasion that Gandhiji delivered the famous ‘Do or Die’ speech. The call of
‘Quit India’ almost brought the state machinery to a standstill in large parts of the country as people voluntarily
threw themselves into the thick of the movement. People observed hartals, and demonstratins and processions were
accompanied by national songs and slogans. The movement was truly a mass movement which brought into its
ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of
leaders, namely, Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini
Hazra in Bengal, Karnataka Burua in Assam and Rama Devi in Odisha. The British responded with much force, yet it
took more than a year to suppress the movement.

34.1 What factors led Gandhiji to launch Quit India Movement? (1)
34.2 What was the main demand of the Quit India Movement? (1)
34.3 When and where was the Quit India Resolution passed? (2)

35. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow.
The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural
diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement
that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. The arrangement they worked out is different
from any other country and is very innovative. Here are some of the elements of the Belgian model.
 Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central
government. Some special laws require the support of majority of members from each linguistic group. Thus,
no single community can make decisions unilaterally.
  Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments of the two regions of the
country. The state governments are not subordinate to the Central Government.
 Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation. The French-
speaking people accepted equal representation in Brussels because the Dutch speaking community accepted
equal representation in the Central Government.
 Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government. This ‘community
government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community- Dutch, French and German-
speaking-no matter where they live. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and
language-related issues.
You might find the Belgian model very complicated. It indeed is very complicated, even for people living in
Belgium. But these arrangements have worked well so far. They helped to avoid civic strife between the two
major communities and a possible division of the country on linguistic lines. When many countries of Europe
came together to form the European Union, Brussels was chosen as its headquarters.

35.1 When and why was the Belgian Constitution amended by its leaders? (1)
35.2 How is power distributed among governments in Belgium? (1)
35.3 Which is the kind of government in Belgium, and who elects it? (2)

36. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
How do we count the various goods and services and know the total production in each sector?
With so many thousands of goods and services produces, you might think this is an impossible task! Not only would
the task be enormous, you might also wonder how we can add up cars and computers and nails and furniture. It
won’t make sense!
You are right in thinking so. To get around this problem, economists suggest that the values of goods and services
should be used rather than adding up the actual numbers. For example, if 10,000 kgs of wheat is sold at Rs. 8 per kg,
the value of wheat will be Rs. 80,000. The value of 5000 coconuts at Rs. 10 per coconut will be Rs. 50,000. Similarly,
the value of goods and services in the three sectors are calculated, and then added up.
Remember, there is one precaution one has to take. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to
be counted. It makes sense only to include the final goods and services. Take, for instance, a farmer who sells wheat
to a flour mill for Rs. 8 per kg. The mill grinds the wheat and sells the flour to a biscuit company for Rs 10 per kg. The
biscuit company uses the flour and things such as sugar and oil to make four packets of biscuits. It sells biscuits in the
market to the consumers for Rs. 60 (Rs. 15 per packet). Biscuits are the final goods, i.e., goods that reach the
consumers. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted? In contrast to final goods, goods such as wheat and the
wheat flour in this example are intermediate goods. Intermediate goods are used up in producing final goods and
services. The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods that are used in making the
final good. Hence, the value of Rs. 60 for the biscuits (final good) already includes the value of flour (Rs. 10). Similarly,
the value of all other intermediate goods would have been included. To count the value of the flour and wheat
separately is therefore not correct because then we would be counting the value of the same things a number of
times. First as wheat, then as flour and finally as biscuits.
The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total population
of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular
year. GDP shows how big the economy is.
In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with
the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information
relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.
36.1 What method do the economists suggest in counting the various goods and services? (1)
36.2 What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? (1)
36.3 What is the role of Central Government Ministry in measuring GDP? (2)
 Section- F (2+3=5)

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.
(B) The place where mass massacre tool place in Amritsar on 13 April 1919.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols.
(i) Haldia-Major sea port
(ii) Nuclear Power Plant in UP
(iii) Tehri-Dam
(iv) Thiruvananthapuram- International Airport