Physics p2 Summarised Notes
Physics p2 Summarised Notes
PHYSICS PAPER 2
TOPICS COVERED IN THIS PAPER / CONTENTS
Table of Contents
1. RECTILINEAR PROPAGATON OF LIGHT AND REFLECTION AT PLANE MIRRORS ....................... 2
4. MAGNETISM ...................................................................................................................... 47
7. SOUND .............................................................................................................................. 67
This is the property of light which suggests that light travels in a straight line
i) Formation of shadows
ii) Formation of images in a pin hole camera
SHADOWS
(c) Distance between the opaque object and the source of light
o If the object is relatively far from the light source, penumbra is lkely to be
formed
3
Worked Example 1
The figure below shows three point sources of light with an opaque object placed between
them and the screen. Explain the nature of the shadow formed long B and C
Opaque object
A
B
Light source
C
D
Answer
o The shadow formed along BC is a umbra (total shadow)
o All the rays of light from the point sources towards the region BC are blocked by the
opaque object and therefore cannot reach the screen
ECLIPSES
o An eclipse is formed whenever there is a partial or total disappearance of either the sun or the
moon
o This occurs when the moon is in between the earth and the sun. The moon’s shadow
then falls on earth
Moon’s shadow
C
B
A
MOON
SUN EARTH
4
o This is eclipse of the sun which occurs when the umbra of the moon is not long
enough to reach the earth.
o The sun then appears as a bright ring with a black spot at the centre
EARTH
Moon
SUN
o This occurs when the earth is between the moon and the sun
o The earth’s shadow then falls on the moon
Earth’s Shadow
Earth Moon
Sun
hi
h Imag
o e
Object Pin-hole
o The bigger the object distance, the smaller the image formed in the camera
2. The image distance (distance from the pin hole to the screen)
o The bigger the image distance, the bigger the image formed on the screen
o If the pin hole is made larger, the image formed becomes brighter but blurred (i.e.
not clear)
Reason: If the hole is enlarged, many overlapping images will be formed, thus giving a
blurred image.
MAGNIFICATION
o This is the ratio of the size of image to the size of the object
Worked Example 2
(a) A boy 1.4 m tall stands 4.0 m away from a pin-hole camera, 20 cm long. Work out the
height of the image formed on the screen.
Answer:
Image height = hi Image distance from pin hole = 20 cm
Object height = 1.4 m Object distance from pin hole = 4 m
= 140 cm = 400 cm
hi = (140 x 20)
400
hi = 7 cm
Practice Question
1. How far away from a building of height 10 m should a pin-hole camera be placed if an
image of height 5 cm is to be formed on the screen which is 12 cm from the pin hole?
(Answer: 24 m away from the building)
2. A luminous point object took 3 sec to move uniformly from P to Q in front of a pin hole
camera as shown in the figure below. Determine the speed of the image on the screen in
cm/s (Answer: 1 cm/s)
6 cm
Q 40 cm 20 cm
7
ADVANTAGE OF THE PINHOLE CAMERA
1. The exposure time is too long due to the small size of the pin hole. For this reason, the pinhole
camera cannot be used to take pictures of moving objects
A N B
io ro
Angle io = Angle ro
Practice Question
Two plane mirrors, M1 and M2 are inclined at an angle of 60o to each other as shown below. A
ray of light AB strikes mirror M1, making an angle of 60o with the mirror as shown in the
diagram. Complete the diagram by showing the path of ray AB from mirror M1 and after
reflection from mirror M2 and hence determine the angle of reflection from mirror M2?
(Answer: 30o)
M1
A
60o
60o
M2
8
(ii) The image is virtual (i.e. it is not formed by the actual intersection of the real rays)
Note: Lateral inversion is the sideways turning effect in which the left side appears right
and vice versa
Differences between the images formed by the pin-hole camera and the plane mirror
Pin-hole camera Plane mirror
o Image is real o Image is virtual
o Image is smaller than the object o Image is the same size as the object
o Image is upside-down (inverted) o Image is upright
o Image distance is shorter than the o Image distance is equal to the object
object distance distance
N = 360 – 1
θ
Where: N – Number of images formed θ – angle at which the two mirrors are inclined
9
Worked Example 3
Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 30o to each other. Determine the number of
images observed
Answer
N = 360 – 1
θ
= 360 – 1
30
= 12 – 1
N = 11 Images
Practice Question
1. At what angle must two plane mirrors be inclined for them to form 5 images?
(Answer: θ = 60 o)
2. The figure below shows two plane mirrors inclined at an angle x from each other. A
viewer counts a total of seven images by looking directly from the object O. Determine
value of x
x Object
3. The figure below shows the position of an image in a plane mirror. E represents the
eye of an observer. Complete the diagram to locate the position of the object
Image
Object
Image
2. ELECTROSTATICS 1 AND 2
(ii) Household mirrors and windows attract dust and other small particles when wiped with
dry duster
(iii) When a nylon dress is removed from the body, a cracking sound is heard
Worked Example 4
Inflammable liquids are not transported through plastic pipes. Give a reason for this.
Answer:
o When a liquid flows through a pipe, its molecules become charged due to rubbing on
the inner surface of the pipe.
O If the liquid is inflammable, it can cause sparks and explode.
11
Practice Question
a) Explain why a glass window when wiped with dry cloth on a dry day soon becomes
dusty.
b) It is not advisable to store highly inflammable liquids in plastic cans. Give a reason
for this.
The basic law of electrostatics states that unlike charges attract and like charges repel
each other
Insulator
Earth
o The cap acquires charge and spreads it through the rod to the leaf
o Presence of the charge makes the leaf to diverge. Absence of the charge makes the leaf to
fall.
o Earthing is important in that it allows excess charge to flow to and from the earth.
Worked Example 5
Fuel tankers have a loose chain hanging under them to touch the ground as they move.
Explain
Answer
O The loose chain is used to earth the charges produced by friction between the
moving parts of the vehicle.
12
o A charged rod is rubbed several times on the cap of the gold leaf electroscope
o Charges are transferred to or from the cap of the electroscope and the leaf rises
Note:
When an electroscope is charged by contact, it acquires the same charge as that on the
charging rod
Note:
When charging the electroscope by induction, the charge acquired is opposite to that on
the charging rod.
Procedure
o A positively charged rod is brought near the cap of the electroscope. Electrons flow
upwards from the brass plate and the leaf to the cap
o With the rod in that position, the electroscope is earthed by touching the cap.
Electrons flow from the earth to the leaf and the brass plate to neutralise the
positive charges there. The leaf then falls.
Positively charged rod Brief electron flow First break the earth connection
brought near the cap from the earth then remove the rod
e-
e-
Procedure
o A negatively charged rod is brought near the cap of the electroscope. Electrons flow
downwards from the cap to the brass plate and the leaf
o With the rod in that position, the electroscope earthed by touching the cap. Electrons
flow from leaf and the brass plate to the earth. The leaf falls.
o The finger is then first removed then the rod
e-
e-
Worked Example 10
1. State and explain the observation on the leaf of a positively charged electroscope when a
negatively charged rod is brought close its cap as shown in the below.
Answer
o Leaf collapses // falls (leaf divergence decreases)
o Negative charges on the cap are repelled down and move to the leaf where they neutralize
the positive charges there
15
Practice Question
1. When a highly positively charged rod is brought from a high position towards a
negatively charged electroscope, it is observed that the leaf divergence first
decreases and then increases, when the rod nears the cap. Explain.
2. A charged rod was brought close to the cap of a negatively charged electroscope as
shown below. It was observed that the leaf divergence increased as the rod was
moved closer to the cap. Identify the charges on the rod.
ELECTRIC FIELD
An electric field is a region around an electric charge where the forces of attraction or
repulsion are felt.
Repulsion
Attraction
Worked Example 12
Sketch the electric field patterns for a negative point charge placed near a positively charged
plate
Answer
+
+
+
+
+
+
16
o No charges are found inside a hollow conductor. For a hollow conductor, the charge resides
on the outside the conductor.
o Charge concentrations at sharp points make a conductor to gain or lose charges readily. This
is known as point action.
Observation
Explanation
o Burning flame contains positive and negative ions
o When the sharp point is brought close to the flame, negative ions are attracted to the
sharp point, while positive ions are repelled away from the rod
o As the positive ions are repelled, they create an “electric wind” which blows away the
flame.
NOTE: If the conductor is brought very close to the flame, the flame splits
17
Worked Example 13
A candle flame is placed near a sharp pointed pin connected to the cap of a negatively
charged electroscope. State and explain what is observed on the leaf of the electro scope.
Answer
o The leaf collapses /falls
o The sharp point ionizes the air molecules around it.
o The electrons move to the sharp point to neutralize the positive charged air ions which
attract the cap (or the positive air ions neutralize the negative charge on the sharp
point.)
o When a negatively charged cloud passes over the arrestor it induces positive charges on the
spikes and negative charges on the plate.
o The negative charges on the plate are immediately discharged to the surrounding ground.
o Negative ions are attracted to the spikes and are discharged by giving up their electrons
o At the same time positive ions are repelled upwards from the spikes
Worked Example 14
Practice Question
(a) It is not advisable to take a shelter under a tree when it is raining. Explain.
(b) What is the purpose of the spikes on the lightning arrestor?
CAPACITORS
Metal plates
CAPACITANCE
o This is a measure of the charge storage ability of a capacitor, and is defined as:
Capacitance = Charge OR C = Q
Voltage V
Worked Example 15
A p.d of 10V is applied across the plates of a 2µF capacitor. Calculate the total charge
stored in the capacitor
Answer: C = 2 µF
= 2 x 10-6F
V = 10V
Q = CV
= 2 x 10-6x 10
Q = 2 x 10-5C
Practice Question
A charge of 4 x 10-4 C was stored in a parallel plate capacitor when a p.d. of 5V was
applied across the capacitor. Work out the capacitance of the capacitor.
(Answer: 8 x 10-5F OR 80 µF)
o The greater the permittivity of the dielectric material used, the greater the
capacitance;
C = εA
d
Where:
C – Capacitance in farads (F) A – Area of overlap in metres squared (m2)
d – Distance of separation in metres (m) ε – A constant known as permittivity
Worked Example 16
Give any two ways of increasing the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
Answer
V1 V2 V3
Q Q Q
C1 C2 C3
o Potential difference across each capacitor is different, but the charge stored in
each is the same
o Effective capacitance is given by:
1 = 1 + 1 + 1
CT C1 C2 C3
Worked Example 17
The figure below shows two capacitors arranged in series. Find their effective capacitance
2 µF 3 µF
10 V
Answer 1 = 1 + 1
CT C1 C2
1 = 1 + 1
CT 2 3
1 = 3+2
CT 6
1 = 5
CT 6
CT = 6
5
CT = 1.2 µF
22
Practice Question
Work out the effective capacitance for the circuit below. (Answer: 0.9231 µF)
4 µF 2 µF 3 µF
10 V
o For two capacitors connected in series, their effective capacitance can be calculated as:
CT = Product of capacitance
Sum of capacitance
C2
C3
o The potential difference across each capacitor is the same, but the charge stored on
each is different
CT = C1 + C2 + C3
Worked Example 18
a) The figure below shows two capacitors arranged in parallel. Work out their effective
capacitance
4 µF
3 µF
Answer: CT = C 1 + C2
CT = 4 µF + 3 µF
CT = 7 µF
(a) Work out their effective capacitance for the circuit below
1 µF
6 µF
2 µF
Answer: For the two capacitors in parallel, the effective capacitance is given by:
CT = C1 + C 2
CT = 1µF + 2 µF
CT = 3 µF
This 3 µF capacitance is in series with the 6 µF capacitor, therefore, the effective circuit
capacitance is:
The figure below shows a capacitor network. Calculate the charge through the 1.5 F
capacitor
2 µF
1.5 µF
3 µF
20V
Since the 1.5 µF is in series with the other capacitors, the charge stored is the same
as the charge stored in the circuit = 2.3068 x 10-5 C.
Worked Example 20
Three capacitors of capacitance 3F, 4F and 5F are arranged as shown in the figure below with
a 10V battery across it. Calculate the charge stored in the 5F capacitor
4F
3F
5F
10 V
Answer
For the parallel capacitors, effective capacitance, CT = C1 + C2
CT = 4 F + 5 F
CT = 9 F
For the circuit, effective capacitance CT is given by:
CT = product
Sum
= (9 X 3)
(9+3)
CT = 27
12
CT = 2.25 µF = 2.25 x 10-6F
But Total charge Q = CV
= (2.25 x 10-6F x 10)
Q = 2.25 x 10-5C
P.d, V, across 3 F = Q
C
= (2.25 x 10-5)
3 x 10-6
P.d across 3 F = 7.5 V
Therefore, P.d. across the 5 µF capacitor = (10 – 7.5) V
= 2.5 V
Therefore, charges stored in 5µF capacitor Q = CV
= (5x10-6 x 2.5)
Q = 12.5 x 10-6C OR = 1.25 x 10-5 C
26
Practice Question
1) Three capacitors are arranged as shown below. The total capacitance between A and
B is 3.0 F. Find the capacitance of X. (Answer: X = 9.0 F OR 9 x 10-6 F)
2.0 F
A B
X
2.5 F
2) In the circuit below C1= 4 F, C2= 3 F and C3 = 1 F. Given that V= 12 V, calculate the
charge stored on the 3 F capacitor, C2 (Answer: 1.8 x 10-5 C)
C2= 3F
C1= 4F
C3= 1F
V = 12 V
E = 1 CV2
2
E – Energy in joules (J) C – Capacitance in farads (F) V – Potential difference in volts (V)
NOTE: If the capacitance is given in micro farads ( F), it must first be converted to
farads (F) by using the relation:
Worked Example 21
How much energy is stored by a 2.0 F capacitor connected to a 200 V supply?
Answer
1
E= CV2
2
V = 200 V
C = 2.0 F
= 2.0 x 10-6 F
1
= x 2 x 10-6 x (200)2
2
1
= x 2 x 10-6 x 40000
2
E = 4 x 10-2J
V
o For this graph:
(i) The gradient represents the capacitance; C
(ii) The area under the graph represents the energy stored in the capacitor
Practice Question
A capacitor was connected in a circuit and charged until it was full. The Potential difference
(Pd) across it was measured using a voltmeter. The corresponding values of the charge stored
was calculated and tabulated in the table below.
Worked Example 22
(a) Find the resultant potential difference when the capacitors are connected in parallel.
NOTE: By “isolated”, we mean that the capacitor is not connected to anything else. i.e.
it is just one and “alone”
10 µF
5 µF
V = 300V
V=V
Isolated capacitor
Capacitors connected in parallel
Q = CV
But for the isolated capacitor, C = 10 F
= 10 x 10-6 F
Therefore, the charge, Q = 10 x 10 -6 x 300
Q = 3.0 x 10-3 C
For the two capacitors connected in parallel capacitance, CT = 5 F + 10 F
= 15 F.
Potential difference, V = total charge stored, Q
Total capacitance, C
= 3.0 x 10-3
15 x 10-6
V = 200 Volts
(b) The energy stored before connection of the two capacitors in parallel
E = ½ CV2
= (½ x 10x 10-6 x 300 x 300)
E = 0.45J
Practice Question
Two capacitors of capacitance 2 F and 1F are connected in parallel. A p.d. of 3V is applied
across them. Find the energy stored in the combination. (Answer: 1.35 x 10-5J)
C
mA
DC source
Voltage against time when charging Current against time when charging
V I
t t
Voltage against time when discharging Current against time when discharging
Time
I
(mA)
t
30
3. CURRENT ELECTRICITY 1 AND 2
SOURCES OF ELECTRICITY
1. Generators
2. Solar cells
3. chemical cells
CHEMICAL CELLS
1. Primary cells
2. Secondary cells
Primary cells are chemical cells which cannot be recharged / renewed once
they are exhausted
Secondary cells are chemical cells which can be recharged / renewed when
they are exhausted
o When the circuit is complete, electrons flow from Zinc to copper, while current flows
from copper to Zinc.
31
V
Flow of electrons Flow of Current
o Simple cell cannot supply current for a long time because it suffers from two defects while
in operation. These are:
(i) POLARISATION
(ii) LOCAL ACTION
REMEDY:
o Polarisation is minimised by adding a depolariser such as potassium dichromate
o The depolariser donates oxygen which combines with the hydrogen atoms to
form water
(2) – Local action occurs when the Zinc metal is “eaten” away by the acid, this wastes
Zinc
REMEDY:
o Local action is minimised by either using pure zinc or by coating zinc with
mercury (amalgamation)
o The mercury dissolves the Zinc metal leaving behind the impurities.
Worked Example 23
(a) A student using a simple cell to light a bulb observed that the bulb lit only for a short
time then went off. Explain why the bulb went off after only a short time
o The bulbs went off due to polarization effect, in which hydrogen bubbles were
formed on the copper electrode which formed insulation around the copper
electrode therefore blocking the easy flow of current
(b) State a way in which polarisation reduces the current in a simple cell
o The hydrogen layer insulates the copper plate increasing the resistance inside the
cell
32
o In this cell:
(i) Graphite rod is the positive terminal
(ii) Zinc metal is the negative terminal
(iii) Ammonium chloride jelly is the electrolyte
(iv) Polarisation is minimised by the manganese (IV) oxide
o In this cell:
(i) Lead (IV) oxide is the Anode (positive electrode)
(ii) Lead metal is the Cathode (negative electrode)
(iii) Dilute sulphuric acid is the electrolyte
(i) It is portable
(ii) It requires little attention to maintain as compared to the lead acid accumulator
(iii) Can be kept in a discharged state for a long time
Disadvantages
(i) It is more expensive
(ii) It has a lower E.M.F per cell
Potential difference is the work done in moving charge between two points in an
electric circuit
OHMS LAW
Ohm’s law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to
the potential difference across the conductor provided the temperature is kept constant
V = IR
Worked Example 24
The ammeters A1, A2, and A3 are connected in a circuit as shown below. Given that the cell
used has negligible internal resistance, work out the readings on the ammeters A 1 – A3
A1 0.6Ω
A
1.5V
A A
A2 A3
Answer V = IR
1.5 = I x 0.6
I = 1.5
0.6
I = 2.5 A
Since the three ammeters are all connected in series with the bulb and the battery, they will all
give the same reading i.e. 2.5 A
Gradient = resistance, R
Current
RESISTANCE
Worked Example 25
In the circuit below, the cell has negligible internal resistance. Given that the ammeter reads
0.5A and the voltmeter 1.2V, determine the resistance of the resistor R
A
R
Answer: V = IR
R = V
I
= 1.2
0.5
R = 2.4 Ω
36
1. Temperature
o Increase in temperature increases the resistance of a conductor
Reason: An increase in the temperature of a conductor causes its atoms to vibrate more
vigorously, thus making it difficult for electrons to move easily through the
conductor.
R α l
Reason: A conductor with a bigger cross-sectional area has more free electrons per unit
length therefore a better conductor.
R = ρl OR ρ= RA
A l
Worked Example 26
A wire of length 64.3 cm and diameter 0.64 mm allows a current of 3.0A when a p.d. of 6 V
is maintained at its ends. Calculate:
(a) Its resistance
(b) The resistivity of the wire
Answer
(a) V = IR
R = V
I
= 6V
3A
R = 2.0Ω
Practice Question
2. 22. A wire of diameter 0.42mm has a resistivity of 2.5 x10-8 , how many metres should be
cut to make a resistor of 10 ohms? (Answer: 55.44 metres)
ARRANGEMENT OF RESISTORS
1. Series arrangement
2. Parallel arrangement
I R1 R2 R3
V1 V2 V3
V
T
R
T
I = I1 = I2 = I3
VT = V1 + V2 + V 3
RT = R1 + R2 + R3
39
IT I2 R2
I3 R3
R
T
IT = I1 + I2 + I3
V = V1 = V2 = V3
1 = 1 + 1 + 1
RT R1 R2 R3
o For two resistors connected in parallel, their effective resistance, RT, can be calculated as:
RT = Product of resistance
Sum of resistance
Worked Example 27
4Ω
3Ω
Answer:
For the two resistors in parallel, total resistance R = Product
Sum
= (6 x 3)
(6 + 3)
= 18
9
R = 2Ω
This 2Ω resistance is in series with the 4 Ω resistor. Therefore total resistance in the
circuit, RT is calculated as:
RT = R1 + R2
RT = 2 Ω + 4 Ω
RT = 6 Ω
Practice Question
Work out the effective resistance for the circuits shown below
2Ω 3Ω
(a) 3Ω
(Answer: 5.222 Ω)
4Ω
2Ω
(b)
4Ω
3Ω (Answer: 5.2 Ω)
41
1. Electromotive force of a cell is the total work done in joules per coulomb of electricity
conveyed in a circuit in which the cell is connected
o The voltage across a cell when it is supplying current is called terminal potential
difference and is lower than the e.m.f.
o The difference between the e.m.f and the terminal potential difference is known as the
“lost volts” and is due to the internal resistance, r.
E = IR + Ir
OR
E = I(R + r) E = V + Ir
Where:
Ir – lost volts V – terminal potential difference
r – Internal resistance R – external resistance
ALSO
Worked Example 28
The figure below shows a high resistance voltmeter connected across the terminals of a
cell of e.m.f 1.5V and internal resistance 0.4 Ω
V
E = 1.5V, r =0.4 Ω
A 0.5A
Ω
(a) Explain why the voltmeter reading is less than the e.m.f of the cell
o Some voltage is lost in overcoming the internal resistance of the cell
(b) What would the voltmeter read if the cell drives a current of 0.5A
E = V + Ir
1.5 = V + 0.5 x0.4
1.5 = V + 0.2
V = 1.5 – 0.2
V = 1.3 Volts
Practice Question
1. In the circuit below, determine the current through the 3 Ω resistor
(Answer: = 0.127A)
2V 6Ω
3Ω
2.5 Ω
6Ω
Worked Example 29
A dry cell of e.m.f, E, and internal resistance, r, drives a current of 0.25A through a resistor of
5.5 Ω and a current of 0.3A through a current of 4.5 Ω as shown in the figures below.
E r E r
0.25A 0.3A
5.5 Ω 4.5 Ω
Determine:
a) The internal resistance of the cell
Answer
a) For the first diagram:
E = IR + Ir
E = I(R + r)
E = 0.25 (5.5 + r)
E = 1.375 + 0.25r ………………………………(1)
For the second diagram:
E = IR + Ir
E = I(R + r)
E = 0.3(4.5 + r)
E = 1.35 + 0.3r ………………………………(2)
Since E is the same for both equations, then the two equations can be equated as follows:
1.375 + 0.25r = 1.35 + 0.3r
1.375 – 1.35 = 0.3r – 0.25r
0.025 = 0.05r
R = 0.025
0.05
r = 0.5 Ω
b) The e.m.f of the cell
Substituting for, r, in equation (1)
E = 1.375 + 0.25r
E = 1.375 + 0.25 x .5
= 1.375 + 0.125
E = 1.5V
44
Practice Question
1. A cell supplies a current of 0.6A through a 2 Ω resistor and a current of 0.2A through a
7 Ω resistor. Calculate the e.m.f of the cell and the internal resistance
(Answer: E.M.F = 1.5 V, r = 0.5Ω)
2. The reading of the Ammeter in the figure below is 0.5A when the switch, S is closed.
Determine the internal resistance of the cell (Answer: 3.0Ω)
2.0 Ω
2.0V
2.0 Ω
S
A
(b) In the circuit shown below, the battery has an e.m.f of 6.6 V and internal
resistance of 0.3 ohms. Determine the reading of the ammeter. (Answer: 2.357A)
6.6V
3Ω
A
0.5 Ω
6Ω
V
The y – intercept give the
e.m.f (E) of the cell
The slope of the graph gives
the internal resistance, r.
I
45
Practice question
The graph below shows the Voltage current relationship for a certain battery.
10.0
9.0
8.0
VOLTAGE
7.0
6.0
5.0
4.0
3.0
2.0
1.0
0.0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 CURRENT (A)
(i) Draw the circuit that could be used to obtain the results shown on the graph.
(ii) From the graph determine the e.m.f of the battery.
(iii) From the graph, determine the internal resistance of the battery.
(Answer: 1.818 ohms)
ARRANGEMENT OF CELLS
(b) When cells of equal E.M.F’s and internal resistance are arranged is parallel:
o The resultant E.M.F is the same as the E.M.F of one cell only
o The total internal resistance is calculated using the formula for resistors in parallel
o There is less drain on the cells since they share the total current, whereas with series
connection the same main current is supplied by each cell
46
o If the E.M.F of one cell is slightly greater than that of another cell, current will circulate in the
battery itself and cells become exhausted. This cannot happen when the cells are in series
Worked Example 30
Two cells each having an e.m.f of 1.5 volts and an internal resistance of 2 Ω are connected (a) in
series and (b) in parallel. Find the current in each case when the cells are connected to an
external resistor of resistance 1 Ω
2Ω 2Ω
1.5 V 2Ω
1Ω
1Ω
Answer
For (b) Total E.M.F = 1.5 V
For (a) Total E.M.F = 1.5 + 1.5
Total internal resistance = product of resistance
= 3V Sum of resistance
Total resistance = 2 + 2 + 1 = (2x2)
= 5Ω (2+2)
Current = Total E.M.F = 4
Total resistance 4
= 3 Total internal resistance = 1 Ω
5 Therefore total circuit resistance = (1 +1)
Total current = 0.6A =2Ω
Current = Total E.M.F
Total resistance
Current = 1.5
2
Total current = 0.75 A
47
Practice Question
In the figure below, the lamps in the two circuits are identical and the cells have the same e.m.f.
Explain why the lamps in circuit B may be brighter than those in circuit A when the switches are
closed simultaneously.
S S
Circuit A Circuit B
Answer
In A, the resistance offered by the circuit is higher since the cells are in series In B, since the cells
are in parallel the effective resistance of the cells is less, therefore more current in drawn.
4. MAGNETISM
Worked Example 31
You are provided with two iron bars X and Y one is magnetized and the other is not. Explain how
you would identify the magnetized bar.
Answer
o Suspend each of them in the earth’s magnetic field.
o Change their rest position and record the final direction.
o Repeat the procedure and record the directions.
o The magnetized rod will rest in the earth N – S direction each time.
48
BASIC LAW OF MAGNETISM
The like poles of a magnet repel, while unlike poles attract each other
o The surest test for the polarity of a magnet is repulsion since attraction can also occur
between any pole of a magnet and a magnetic material, while repulsion can only occur
between two like poles.
Worked Example 32
Answer
All magnetic materials are attracted to the magnet but repulsion only occurs for polarities
that are similar
Practice Question
. You are provided with two iron bars X and Y one is magnetized and the other is not.
Explain how you would identify the magnetized bar
MAGNETIC FIELD
A magnetic field is the region around a magnet where the magnetic forces of repulsion
or attraction are strongly felt
o Magnetic field is a vector quantity, i.e. it has both magnitude and direction.
o The direction of a magnetic field is the direction in which a freely suspended north pole of
a magnet will tend to move if placed in that field
A magnetic line of force is the path along which the free north pole of a magnet
will move in a magnetic field. The direction is from north to south
N S
49
Worked Example 33
The diagram below shows the magnetic field patterns between two poles of magnet
A B A B
Identify the poles labelled A and B. Give a reason for your answer
Answer
o A: North Pole B: South Pole
o The direction of the magnetic field is from North Pole to South Pole
Practice Question
Sketch the magnetic field pattern around the arrangements shown below
(a) S N N S
(b) S N
Soft iron bar
MAGNETISATION
1. INDUCTION
o The polarity developed near the magnet is opposite that on the magnet
Example
S N S N
50
Worked Example 34
Two similar razor blades were placed one on a wooden block and the other on an iron block as
shown in the figure below.
N N
Razor blade not attracted Razor blade attracted
It was observed that the razor blade on the wooden block was attracted to the magnet while the
other on the iron block was not. Explain.
Answer
o In (a) the magnet induces magnetism into the razor blade which in turn induces the iron
block to acquire opposite polarity. This causes the razor blade to remain attracted to the iron
block.
o In (b) no magnetism is induced into the wooden block and so the razor blade is attracted;
Practice Question
Two steel pins were attracted by a magnet as shown below.
(a) Give a reason why the ends of the two pins move apart instead of being parallel
(b) What observation would be made if a south pole of another magnet is brought between
the two pins
51
S
S N
Worked Example 35
The figure below shows a method of magnetization of a ferromagnetic material.
S
A B
When viewing one end of the coil, it will be of N polarity if the current is flowing in an
aNticlockwise direction and of S polarity if the current is flowing in a clockwiSe direction
Worked Example 36
A permanent magnet was suspended next to a solenoid in which an electric current flows as
shown below
A B
S N
State and explain the observation made in this set up when the switch was closed
Answer
o The suspended magnet was repelled away from the solenoid
o Current flows through the solenoid in such a direction that the end A of the solenoid
close to the suspended magnet becomes a North Pole. This repels the N pole of the
magnet
DEMAGNETISATION
(ii) Passing an alternating current though a solenoid in which the magnet is placed (electrical
method)
(iii) Hammering while facing the East – West direction (hammering method)
Magnetic saturation
Worked Example 37
(a) Explain using the domain theory of magnetism how an iron bar can be magnetized to
saturation level by placing it in a magnetic field whose strength can be varied.
Answer
o In an unmagnetised bar, the magnetic dipoles are facing in different direction hence
the resultant magnetism of all the domains in this state is zero.
o When the bar is placed in a magnetic field whose strength can be varied during
magnetization, most of the domains are aligned in one direction until all of them face
in one direction .At this state the material is said to be magnetically saturated
(b) Explain in terms of domain theory what happens when a bar magnet is placed in a
solenoid in which an alternating current flows
Answer:
Altering current disarranges the dipoles; in the domain making them face in random
direction, thus demagnetizing the magnet.
Practice Question
Using the domain theory, explain why a magnet may lose its magnetism on heating
Example: Steel
Strength of magnet
A A – Soft magnetic material
B B – Hard magnetic material
Magnetising force
Worked Example 38
The figure below shows a simple experiment using a permanent magnet and two metal
bars X and Y. State with reason, which bar is a soft magnetic material
N
X Y
S
X Y After attraction
During attraction
Answer
o None
o Each one of them retains its magnetism
Practice Question
The figure below shows iron and steel rods placed in contact with a magnet. State with a
reason what is observed when this magnet is removed from the rods.
S
Magnet
N
S S
Iron Steel
N N
Iron fillings
55
MAGNETIC SHIELDING
o This is done by using a soft iron ring, which concentrates the magnetic field lines such that
inside the ring there is no magnetic field / force
USES OF MAGNETS
Reflecting surfaces
c) Aperture
o This is the arc of the sphere which makes the mirror
d) Pole (P)
o This is a point on the mirror surface, midway on the mirror
e) Principal axis
o This is the line joining the centre of curvature to the pole of the mirror
(ii) For a convex mirror, principal focus is the point on the principal axis where all rays
originally parallel to the principal axis appear to come from after reflection
F
57
g) The focal length (f)
o This is the distance between the principal focus (F) and the pole of the mirror
f = 1r
2
Image is:
– At C
– Real
Image is: – Inverted
– Same size as the object
– Behind the mirror
– Virtual
– Upright
– Magnified i.e. larger than the object
2. Object at principal focus, F. 5. Object beyond C
Image is:
– Between C and F
– Real
– Inverted
Image is at infinity
– Smaller than the object
Image is:
Image is:
– At F
– Beyond C
– Real
– Real
– Inverted
– Inverted
– Smaller than the object
– Magnified i.e. larger than the object
58
Note:
(i) Real images are formed by the actual intersection of the reflected rays and they can be
focussed on the screen.
(ii) Virtual images are formed by an apparent intersection of the reflected rays and they
cannot be focussed o the screen
Worked Example 39
(a) State the condition under which a concave mirror forms:
(i) A virtual image
Answer
o When the object is placed between the principal focus and the pole of the mirror
o When the object is placed at the principal focus (F) of the mirror
(b) An object 5 cm tall is placed 34 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. By
means of an accurate graphical construction, determine the position, size and the
nature of the image formed.
Practice Question
And object 5 cm tall is placed 12 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm.
By means of accurate graphical construction, determine the position and nature of the
image formed.
(Answer: The image formed is virtual and is formed 7.5 cm from the mirror)
1 = 1 + 1.
f v u
MAGNIFICATION
And
Magnification, m = v – 1
f
60
Worked Example 40
(a) An object is placed 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm. Find the
position and the nature of the image formed
Answer u = 20 cm f = 12 cm v= v
1 = 1 + 1.
f v u
1 = 1 + 1
12 v 20
1 = 1 – 1
v 12 20
1 = 5–3
v 60
1 = 2
v 60
1 = 1
v 30
v = 30 cm
o A positive value of v means a real image is formed. Hence a real image is formed 30
cm away from the mirror on the same side as the object
(b) A convex mirror of focal length 18 cm produces an image on its axis, 6 cm away
from the mirror. Determine the position of the object
NOTE: For a convex mirror:
1. The image formed is always virtual, therefore the image distance, v, is
always assigned a negative value
2. The focal length, f, is always a negative value
u=u f = –18 cm v = –6 cm
1 = 1 + 1.
f v u
1 = 1 + 1
-18 -6 u
1 = 1 – 1
u 6 18
1 = 3–1
u 18
1 = 2
v 18
1 = 1
u 9
u = 9 cm
2. A concave mirror has a focal length of 8cm. A real object of length 2cm is placed 12cm
from the mirror. Calculate the distance of the image from the mirror. If the length of the
image formed is 4cm. (Answer: v = 24 cm)
1. DRIVING MIRRORS
o The driving mirrors of motor vehicles e.t.c are made of convex mirrors
Reasons
(i) They have a wide field of view unlike plane mirrors
(ii) They always give upright images
Disadvantage
o The images formed are very small (diminished) in size
OTHER APPLICATIONS:
2. Shaving mirrors
3. By dentists when examining teeth
4. As reflector behind lamps
62
If a right-handed screw is driven forward in the direction of the current, then the
direction of rotation of the screw is the direction of the field lines.
If a conductor carrying current is grasped in the right hand with the thumb pointing
along the wire in the direction of the current, the fingers will point in the direction of
the magnetic field.
CURENT
“Thumb – current,
Fingers field”
Current down (repulsion exists between the two Attraction exists between the two
conductors) conductors
63
Worked Example 41
When viewed from the front the electric motor can be represented by the figure below.
Draw the magnetic field pattern between the two poles of the magnet, showing the direction
of the force on both ends of the coil
N S
Answer F
ELECTROMAGNETS
o An electromagnet is a temporary magnet made by passing a direct current through soft iron core
o Soft iron is used because it is easy to magnetise and demagnetise. The soft iron concentrates the
magnetic lines of force // magnetic field within the coils
o The North Pole of the electromagnet can be predicted by using The Right Hand Grip Rule
If a coil carrying current is held in the right hand such that the fingers encircle the loops
while pointing in the direction of the current flow, then the thumb will point in the
direction of the North Pole.
Worked Example 42
A small electromagnet for lifting and releasing a small steel ball is made in the laboratory
as shown below
S
Steel ball
(a) Explain why soft iron is better material to be used for the core than steel.
o Iron can be easily magnetized and demagnetized
o Iron forms stronger electromagnet than steel under the same conditions
APPLICATIONS OF ELECTROMAGNETS
1. ELECTRIC BELL
Adjusting screw
o When current flows through the solenoids, magnetisation of the iron bar occurs which attracts
the soft iron armature. This in turn causes the hammer to strike the gong and the bell rings.
o The contact is broken and current stops flowing through solenoid. The soft iron core loses its
magnetism and the spring pulls back the armature to its position. The contact is made once
more and the process is repeated.
o The core and the armature are made of soft iron and not steel:
Reasons:
1. Steel forms a permanent magnet,
2. Steel is not easily magnetised and demagnetised
65
Worked Example 43
In the electric bell, explain what would happen if the armature is made of steel
o If the armature is made of steel the hammer hits the gong and remains there / the bell
rings once this is because steel acquires permanent magnetism
o Since this current is varying, the diaphragm made of magnetic alloy vibrates. This in turn
produces sound.
If the left hand is held with the thumb, the first finger and the second fingers mutually at right
angles so that the first finger points in the direction of the magnetic field and the second finger
in the direction of the current, the thumb will point in the direction of motion
First Fiel
finger N d S
(Filed)
SeCond finger
(Current) Current
66
o The size of the force produced depends on:
(i) Strength of the magnetic field
(ii) Magnitude of the current flowing
(iii) Angle between the conductor and the field. No force is produced when the
conductor is parallel to the field
Worked Example 44
The figure below shows a wire in a magnetic field. A current is switched on to flow
through the wire in the direction shown. State the direction of motion of the wire.
S N S N
Answer
o The wire moves downwards
Practice Question
The figure below shows a conductor placed in a magnetic field. The current direction is
shown. In which direction will the wire move?
N S N S
Wire
APPLICATION
Electric motor
Carbon brush
Split ring
(commut
ator)
67
o When current is passed through the coil a force is created on side AB in the upward
direction and on side CD, in the downward direction. These cause the coil to turn in the
anticlockwise direction.
o When the coil passes through the vertical position, no force acts on it, since the sides AB
and CD are moving along the lines of force and are not cutting the lines. However, Due to
its momentum, the coil continues with its motion.
Worked Example 45
State five ways by which the electric motor can be made to rotate faster
7. SOUND
o The human ear can hear sound whose frequencies are in the range of 20 Hz to 20 000Hz. This
is known as the audible frequency range.
TRANSMISSION OF SOUND
o Sound waves do not travel through a vacuum. They always require a material medium for
transmission
Experiment
68
o The bell is set ringing and the air is gradually pumped out of the bell jar using the vacuum
pump
o As the air is pumped out, the sound becomes fainter and fainter until a point is reached
whereby no sound is heard
Worked Example 46
(a) The figure below represents a set up used to study sound waves.
Cork
Bottle Wire
Metal plates
(ii) Explain the observation that would be made if a little hot water is poured into the
bottle then cork is replaced and the bottle is shaken
Answer: A very faint sound is produced. Air is expelled by steam from hot water
creating partial vacuum
(iii) What conclusion would you make from the above observations?
Answer: Sound needs material medium for transmission
(b) A person watching a miner sees the miner strike the rock and hears the sound 2
seconds later. Determine the distance between the person and the miner. Speed of
sound = 340m/s)
Answer:
Distance = Speed x time;
= 340 x 2
= 680m
69
Practice Question
1. In a 100 meter race, the time keeper started the watch immediately after hearing
the sound from the starter’s pistol. Taking the speed of sound in air to be 320 m/s,
determine:
(i) The error in his timing (Answer: 0.3125 seconds)
(ii) The actual time taken by the first runner if by the end of the race the time
keeper recorded a time of 11.60 seconds (Answer: 11.9125 seconds)
(iii) The distance already covered by the first runner by the time the time keeper
started the watch assuming that he was running at a speed of 8 m/s
(Answer: 2.5 m)
Worked Example 48
(a) In determining the depth of an ocean an echo sounder produces ultrasonic sound.
Practice
GiveQuestion
reasons why ultra sound is preferred for this purpose.
Answer:
o Ultra sound Penetrates deepest
o Ultra sound is reflected easily by tiny grains of sand
(b) An echo sounder produces a pulse and an echo is received from the sea- bed after
0.4 seconds. If the speed of sound in water is 1500 ms-1, calculate the depth of the
sea- bed
Answer
o Echoes can be reduced by using soft materials on the walls
v = 2xs (s – depth of the sea)
t
o Example: soft boards and curtains are hung on the walls of theatres / musical halls and studios
1500
o Reason : these is done = to
so as 2 xreduce
s echoes in the halls or studios
0.4
2s = (1500 x 0.4)
s = 600
2
s = 300 m
(c) A fathometer produces sound in a ship and receives two echoes’ where there is a
raised sea bed one after 2.5 seconds and the other after 3.0 seconds. Find the
height of the raised sea bed (Take speed of sound in water = 1460 m/s)
d1 = s x t1
= 1460 x 1.5
d1 = 2190 m
1.25 s 1.25 s 1.5 s 1.5 s d2 = s x t2
d2 = 1.25 x 1460
d1
d2 = 1825m
height = (d1 – d2)
height = (2190 – 1825)
height = 365m
Practice Question
(1) A girl standing 200m from the foot of a high wall claps her hands and the echo reaches
her 1.16 seconds later. Calculate the velocity of sound in air using this observation.
(Answer: 344.8 m/s)
(2) A gun is fired and an echo heard at the same place 0.6s later. How far is the barrier,
which reflected the sound from the gun? Take Speed of sound in air = 330 ms -1
(Answer: 99 metres)
71
2. TEMPERATURE
o The higher the temperature, the higher the speed of sound in air
Reason: If temperature increases, the density of air decreases hence the speed increases
3. WIND
o If wind blows in the direction of the sound, then the speed of sound increases and vice versa
4. HUMIDITY
o Speed increases with humidity of air
Reason: If humidity increases, the density of air decreases hence speed of sound increases
5. PRESSURE
o Pressure change has no effect on speed of sound in air, provided the temperature is kept
constant
Worked Example 49
Student carried out an experiment to measure the speed of sound in air very early in the
morning and found the speed to be 320 m/s. She repeated the same experiment at noon and
found the speed to be 335 m/s. Give a possible explanation for the differences
Answer
o Very early the morning the temperature was low therefore the speed of sound in air
was low
o At noon, the temperature of the air had increased, leading to the increase in the speed
of sound in air
Practice Question
A student stands between two halls and 400m from the nearest hall. The halls are x metres
apart. Every time the student claps, two echoes are heard by the student such that the first
echo comes after 2.5 seconds while the second follows 2 seconds later. From this information
calculate;
(a) The speed of sound in air (Answer: 320 m/s)
(b) The value of x (Answer: X = 1120m)
(c) Explain the effect of pressure on the speed of sound in gases at a constant temperature.
(Answer: No effect because temperature is constant hence vibration of molecules
is constant therefore transmission speed is constant)
72
8. WAVES 1 AND 2
o A wave is a disturbance that transmits energy from one point to another
o Waves which require material medium for transmission are known as mechanical
waves
o Waves which don’t require material medium for transmission are known as
electromagnetic waves
Examples of electromagnetic waves:
(i) Light waves
(ii) X – rays
(iii) Radio waves
T
Displacement (m)
λ Crest I
I a
a I
f
I f f a
f a Time
c
c Distance a
a (m) o
o Trough i
c
c i o l
o l i c
o Transverse
i waves
c are characterised by crests and troughs
l
l a
a r
c
c Examples
r of transverse waves a r
a r r y
r i)y Water waves r
r y
i
y ii)i Light waves i n
i n n g
n g g
g c
c u
c
c u u r
73
(b) LONGITUDINAL WAVES
λ λ
C C
R λ R λ
C – Compression; R – Rarefaction
i) Sound waves
Worked Example 50
State two differences between sound waves and light waves
Answer
o Sound waves requires materials medium while light waves don’t require any
o Sound waves are longitudinal while light waves are transverse
DEFINITION OF TERMS
1. Amplitude (a)
o This is the maximum displacement of a particle from its rest position
2. Wavelength (λ)
o This is the distance between two successive particles which are in phase
o For a transverse wave, wavelength can be defined as the distance between two successive
crests or troughs
3. Frequency ( f )
o Frequency is the number of complete cycles or oscillation s in one second
o Frequency is measured in hertz (Hz)
74
4. Periodic time (T)
o This is the time taken to complete one complete oscillation
T = 1
f
Worked Example 51
Sound waves have a frequency of 16 kHz. What is the periodic time for the waves?
Answer
f = 16 kHz
= (16 x 1000) Hz
= 16 000Hz
T = 1
f
=. 1 .
16 000
T = 0.0000625 seconds
Practice Question
Work out the frequency of water waves if their periodic time is 0.2 seconds (Answer: = 5Hz)
o Wave speed (v), frequency (f) and wavelength (λ) of a wave are related by the formula:
v = fλ
Worked Example 51
A radio station transmits waves at a frequency of 95.6 MHz. What is the wavelength of the
waves transmitted? (c = 3.0 x 108 m/s)
Answer: v = fλ
v = 3.0 x 108m/s
f = 95.6 MHz
= 95.6 x 106 Hz
3.0 x 108 m/s = 95.6 x 106 x λ
λ = 3.0 x 108 m/s
95.6 x 106 Hz
λ = 3.14 m
Practice Questions
1. Calculate the wavelength of red light in air if the frequency of red light is 4.3 x 10 14Hz
(c = 3.0 x 108 m/s) (Answer: 6.98 x 10-7 m)
0
2 4 6 8 10 12 14 Time x 10-2 seconds
Determine:
(a) The period, T, of the wave (Answer: 8 x 10-2 seconds)
(b) The frequency of the wave (Answer: 12.5 Hz)
(c) The wavelength of the wave (Wavelength = 20m)
76
PROPERTIES OF WAVES
(i) REFLECTION
(ii) REFRACTION
(iii) DIFFRACTION
(iv) INTERFERENCE
1. REFLECTION
Examples:
A. PLANE REFLECTORS
B. CONVEX REFLECTORS
77
2. REFRACTION
o Refraction is the bending of waves as they pass from one medium to another
o Refraction of waves occurs due to change in speed of waves as they pass from one
medium to another.
o The wave length of water waves in shallow water is usually shorter than in deep water
Reason: During the day sound waves are refracted upwards from the hot earth, while at night,
sound waves are refracted downwards, hence are much louder.
Worked Example 53
The figure below shows the displacement of a particle in progressive wave incident on a
boundary between deep and shallow regions.
Boundary
λ2
λ1
End A End B
(a) Which of the two ends of the pond labelled A and B is shallow. Give a reason for your
answer
Answer
o End B
o The wavelength of the wave in end B (λ2) is shorter than in end A (λ1)
(c) Give a reason why the amplitude of the wave does not change as it crosses the
boundary
Answer
o There is no loss of energy therefore amplitude does not change.
79
3. DIFFRACTION
o Diffraction is the spreading out of waves as they pass through obstacles or small openings
o The extent of diffraction depends on two factors:
o The smaller the openings in relation to the wavelength, the greater the diffraction
o The longer the wavelength of the waves, the greater the diffraction. The shorter the
wavelengths, the les the diffraction
It is possible to hear sound round obstacles but not possible to see light
Reason
Sound waves have longer wavelengths therefore are more readily diffracted unlike
light waves, which have very short wavelengths therefore not readily diffracted
80
Worked Example 54
(a) The figure shows a transmitter producing both TV and radio waves. Briefly explain why
radio reception will be better than TV beyond the hill.
Transmitter
HILL
House
Answer:
Radio waves have longer wavelengths than TV waves and therefore are diffracted
(spread) more than the TV waves which have shorter wavelength, leading to better
reception of radio than TV.
(b) The figure below shows wavefront before and after passing through an opening as
shown
State what would be observed on the pattern after passing the opening if
4. INTERFERENCE
o Constructive interference occurs when the waves are in phase and the overall effect is that
they add up to bigger waves
+ = Resultant
o Destructive interference occurs when the waves are out of phase and the overall effect is that
they cancel each other
+ =
Resultant
Waves which have the same frequency and the same amplitude are said to be coherent
Worked Example 55
Two sets of transverse waves arrive at the same point at the same time. Under what
conditions do they:
(i) Soft sound occurs in regions where sound waves interfere destructively
Loudspeaker A
A.C. O
C
generator
Loudspeaker B
o An observer moving along the line AB hears loud sound at some point and soft sound at
other points
Reason
o Regions where sound is loud are regions where constructive interference of sound
waves occurs.
o Regions where sound is soft are regions where destructive interference of sound
waves occurs.
S1
A A1
S2
B1
(a) Explain how the loud and low sounds are produced along BB1
Answer:
o At some points along BB1 waves from S1 and S 2 meet in phase causing constructive
interference and so a loud sound is formed.
o At the other points, waves meet out of phase causing destructive interference and so
a low sound is formed
(b) State why the observation made in (a) above along BB1 , may not be observed if the
speakers are connected to different sources of sounds
Answer:
o If the sources of sound are different, they may be not coherent (i.e. the sounds may
not have the same frequency and same wavelength)and so interference may not
be observed
(c) State and explain the effects on the sound heard along AA1 and on the sound heard along
BB1 one speaker is switched off
Answer:
o When one speaker is switched off the loudness would decrease as the observer
moves further away from sources because the sounds along AA1 and BB1 are the
same. There is no interference this time since there is no second wave to
superimpose on the firsts
84
b) Interference In Light Produces Bright And Dark Fringes If a Monochromatic Light Is Used
o If white light is used, a central bright fringe is obtained at the centre and coloured bands
on either side
Worked Example 57
In an experiment to observe interference of light waves, a double slit is placed close to the
source as shown below.
Screen
S d
Monochromatic light
x
½λ
A A A A
N N N N N
½λ
Worked Example 59
Answer
o Stationary waves do not transfer energy away from source while progressive do
o Vibrations of particles at points between successive nodes in a stationary wave are in
phase while in progressive phases of particles near each other out of phase
o In stationary waves distance between successive nodes or antinodes is λ/2 while in
progressive distance between successive troughs or crest is λ
o Harmonics are sounds whose frequencies are whole number multiples of the fundamental
HARMONIC
o The first harmonic is when the string produces the fundamental i.e. sound of the lowest
possible frequency
A
N N
First harmonic
86
o The number of loops on a vibrating string is equal to the harmonic number
A A
N N
Second harmonic
Worked Example 59
Explain what is meant by the terms: overtone and a harmonic in stationary waves.
o Overtone is sound or note of different frequencies produced after fundamentals. i.e. is
any sound or note whose frequency higher than the fundamental frequency
o Harmonic is a note whose frequency is a whole number multiple of the fundamental
frequency
o The simplest mode of vibration for air in a pipe closed on one end is shown below. This is the
fundamental
l = λ
4
λ = 4l
but, v = f λ
therefore, f = v
λ
fo = v
4l
o Overtones are produced when air is blown strongly over the pipe
o When an open pipe is used, the simplest mode of vibration producing the fundamental
frequency is as shown below
l
87
9. REFRACTION OF LIGHT
LAWS OF REFRACTION
1. The incident ray and the refracted ray are in the opposite sides of the normal and
they lie in the same plane as the normal
2. Snell’s law states that for a given pair of medium, the ratio of the sine of angle of
incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant
o Therefore:
Sine io = n
Sine ro
Where:
i – Angle of incidence; r – angle of refraction; n – refractive index
Refractive index can be defined as being the ratio of sine of angle of incidence
to sine of angle of refraction for a given pair of medium
o A graph of sine i against sine r is a straight line through the origin whose gradient gives
the refractive index, n.
Sin i
Sin r
88
o The principle of reversibility of light states that the paths of light rays can be reversed
o If the refractive index for a ray of light moving from air (a) to glass (g) is represented as
ang and the refractive index for a ray moving from glass to air is represented as gna, then
by principle of reversibility of light:
gna = 1
ang
Worked Example 60
a) The refractive index for a ray of light travelling from air to water is 1.33. what is the
refractive index for a ray travelling from water to air
Answer: wna = 1
anw
wn a = 1
1.333
wn a = 0.750
b) The refractive index for a ray of light travelling from air to water ( anw) is 4/3, while
that for a ray travelling from air to glass (ang) is 3/2 . What is the refractive index for a
ray travelling from glass to water
Therefore, gn w = 1 x anw
ang
= 1 x 4/3
3
2
= 1÷3 x 4
2 3
gnw = 2 x 4
3 3
gnw = 8/9
89
Practice Question
1. The refractive index for a ray of light travelling from air to oil (ano) is 5/3, while that for a
ray travelling from air to glass (ang) is 3/2. What is the refractive index for a ray
travelling from glass to oil? (Answer: 10/9)
2. A ray of light is incident on a glass oil interface as shown in the figure Determine the value of r.
Take refractive index of glass and oil as 3/2 and 6/3 respectively (Answer: r = 41.80)
Glass
300
Oil
ro
Worked Example 59
The figure below represents a ray of light falling normally on the curved surface of a
semicircular glass block A, at an angle of 32o at O and emerging into the air at an angle of
48o. Calculate the absolute refractive index of the glass of which the block is made
48o
O
32o A
Answer
Method 1: ang = sin i Method 2: gna = sin i
sin r sin r
= Sin 48 = sin 32
Sin 32 sin 48
ang = 1.402 gna = 0.7131 ;
Now ang = 1
gna
= 1
0.7131
ang = 1.402
90
Practice Question
Calculate the angle of refraction in glass for a ray travelling from air to glass as shown in the
figure below. Take refractive index of glass = 1.5 (Answer: 20.69o)
52o
AIR
GLASS
o Refractive index can also be defined as the ratio of real depth to apparent depth
Worked Example 62
A coin is placed at the bottom of a tall gas jar. When the jar is filled with paraffin to a
depth of 32.4 cm, the coin is apparently seen displaced 9.9 cm from the bottom. What is
the refractive index of paraffin?
Answer
Apparent depth = (32.4 – 9. 9) cm
= 22.5 cm
Refractive index = Real depth
Apparent depth
= 32.4 cm
22.5 cm
n = 1.44
Practice Question
A beaker of height 10 cm is filled with water. An optical pin which is at the bottom of the
beaker is then viewed from the top of the beaker. How far does the pin appear from the
surface, if the refractive index of water is 4/3? (Answer: 7.5 cm)
91
o A graph of real depth against apparent depth is a straight line through the origin whose gradient
gives the refractive index, n.
Real depth
Apparent depth
o For a ray of light travelling from medium 1 to medium 2, refractive index is the ratio of
velocity of light in medium 1 to velocity of light in medium 2
Refractive index can therefore be defined as being the ratio of the speed of
light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium under consideration.
Worked Example 63
The speed of light in air is 3.0 x 108 m/s. What is the speed of light in glass? Take
refractive index of glass = 1.5
Answer
ang = velocity of light in air
velocity of light in glass
1.5 = 3.0 x 108
v in glass
v in glass = 3.0 x 108
1.5
v in glass = 2 x 108 m/s
92
Practice Question
The refractive index of water is 4/3. Find the speed of light in water given that the speed
of light in air is 3.0 x 108 m/s (Answer: 2.25 x 108 m/s)
CRITICAL ANGLE – C
Critical angle is the angle of incidence in the optically dense medium when the
angle of refraction in the optically less dense medium is 90o
NOTE: If the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, total internal reflection occurs.
Refracted ray
n = 1__
Sine C
Worked Example 64
The figure below shows the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass block
placed in air.
42o
Answer n = 1
Sin C
= 1
Sin 42
= 1
0.6691
n = 1.5
Practice Question
1. A certain glass material has a refractive index of 2.5. What is its critical angle?
(Answer: 23.57o)
2. The critical angle of paraffin is 45 0. What is the refractive index of paraffin?
(Answer: 1. 414)
3. The critical angle for crown glass is 42 0 using this information complete the figure
below to show the passage of the ray shown through the glass block.
Air
50o
Glass Block
Ray Box
1. Optical fibres
o An optical fibre is a flexible glass rod whose inside is made of a material of high refractive
index than the outside.
2. Prism binoculars
o These are used to view distant objects
o Prism binoculars make use of two prisms arranged as shown below
Object
Image Observer
3. Prism periscope
o This is used to observe objects over obstacles
o Dispersion is the separation of white light into its component colours when it passes through a
prism
o Dispersion occurs because lights of different colours have different velocities in glass therefore
they are refracted to different extents.
Red light is refracted the least while violet light is refracted most
Reason: In glass, velocity of red light is higher than velocity of violet light.
o The colours of the spectrum can be recombined by using a second inverted prism.
1. E = VIt
2. E = I2Rt
3. E = V2t
R
Worked Example 65
An electric iron box has resistance of 30Ω and it takes a current of 10A. Calculate the heat
in kJ developed in 1 minute
Answer
R = 30 Ω; I = 10 A; t = 60 seconds
Therefore,
E = I2Rt
= 102 x 30 x 60
= 180000 J
E = 180 kJ
97
Practice Question
An electric cooker has a coil of resistance 5000Ω. If it is operated on a 250V mains supply
for 1 hour, hour much heat energy does it produce. (Answer: E = 45 kJ)
1. P = VI
2. P = I2R
3. P = V2
R
Worked Example 66
An electric bulb is rated 60W, 240V. Determine:
a) The resistance of the filament
b) The current flowing through the bulb when it is connected to the mains supply
Answer
P = V2
R
P = 60W V = 240V R =?
60 = 240 x 240
R
R = 240 x 240
60
R = 960Ω
Practice Question
(b) Method 1 (b) Method 2
From ohms law: Using the formula: P = VI
V = IR P = 60W V = 240V I =?
240 = I x 960 Substituting these in the equation:
I = 240 60 = 240x I
960
I = 60
I = 0.25A 240
I = 0.25A
98
Practice Question
An electric motor powered by a 240V mains supply requires a current of 30A to lift a load
of mass 3 tonnes at the rate of 5 m per minute. Calculate:
a) The power input (Answer: 7 200W)
b) The power output (Answer:2500 W)
c) The overall efficiency of the machine (Answer: 34.72%)
Worked Example 67
What is the maximum number of 100 W bulbs which can be safely connected from a 240V
source supplying a current of 5A?
Answers
Total power supply is given by: P = VI
= 240 x 5
P = 1200 W
Let the total number of bulbs which can be connected be n
Therefore, total power consumed by the bulbs = 100 x n
= 100n
Therefore, 100n = 1200
n = (1200)
10
n = 12 bulbs
Practice question
1. How many 100 W bulbs can be safely connected from a 240V source supplying a
current of 4A? (Answer: 9 bulbs)
2. The circuit diagram below was used to light 3V 0.5A bulb from 12.0V D.C supply.
Determine the rate at which electrical energy is converted into heat energy in
appliance R. (Answer: 4.5 joules/ second or 4.5 watts)
12 V
R
99
f f
100
o This is the centre of the sphere from which the lens forms a part
2. Principal axis
o This is the line which passes through the middle of the lens, joining the respective centres
of curvature
o This is the point on the principal axis, midway between the lens surfaces
o This is the point on the principal axis at which rays of light which are parallel to
the principal axis meet / converge after refraction.
o This is the point on the principal axis from which incident parallel rays of light
diverge or appear to diverge from after refraction.
o This is the length between the principal focus (F) and the optical centre (O)
o Note: Focal length of a lens (f) is half the radius of curvature (R), i.e.
f = R R = 2f
Or
2
101
IMAGES FORMED BY CONVEX LENSES
Image is:
– At C
Image is: – Real
– Behind the mirror – Inverted
– Virtual – Same size as the object
– Upright
– Magnified i.e. larger than the object
2. Object at principal focus, F. 5. Object beyond C
Image is:
– Between C and F
– Real
Image is at infinity – Inverted
– Smaller than the object
Image is:
Image is: – At F
– Real
– Beyond C
– Inverted
– Real
– Smaller than the object
– Inverted
– Magnified i.e. larger than the
object
i) When Object is between principal of focus (F) and centre of curvature (C)
In all cases of images formed by concave lenses, the images will always be:
(a) Smaller than the object (diminished)
(b) Upright
(c) Virtual (not real)
Worked Example 68
An object 10 cm tall stands vertically on the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 10
cm and at a distance of 17 cm from the lens. By means of accurate graphical construction find
the position, size and nature of the image formed
Answer
Practice Question
An object 8 cm tall is placed 20 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 16 cm. By means
of accurate graphical construction, determine the position, size and nature of the image
formed. (Position = 60 cm, Size: = 24 cm, Nature: Real image)
103
THE LENS EQUATION
1 = 1 + 1
f u v
Where:
f – focal length u – distance from the object to the lens v – distance from the image to the lens
i) Distances of real objects, real images and focal lengths are positive values
ii) Distances of virtual images and objects are negative values
iii) The focal length of a diverging (concave) lens is a negative value.
Worked Example 69
An object is placed 20 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. Find the position
and the nature of the image formed
Answer u = 20 cm f = 12 cm v= v
1 = 1 + 1.
f v u
1 = 1 + 1
12 v 20
1 = 1 – 1
v 12 20
1 = 5–3
v 60
1 = 2
v 60
1 = 1
v 30
v = 30 cm
o A positive value of v means a real image is formed. Hence a real image is formed 30
cm away from the lens.
Practice Question
An object is placed 10 cm from a diverging lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the position of the
image formed. State the nature of the image formed.
(Answer: 6 cm. The image is virtual)
104
MAGNIFICATION
o This is the ratio of image height to object height
And
Magnification, m = v – 1
f
Worked Example 70
A four times magnified virtual image is formed of an object placed 12 cm from a converging
lens. Calculate the position of the image and the focal length of the lens.
1 = 1 + 1.
f v u
1 = 1 + 1
f –48 12
1 = –1+4
f 48
1 = 3
f 48
1 = 1
f 16
f = 16 cm
Practice Question
An object is placed, (a) 20 cm (b) 5 cm, from a converging lens of focal length 15 cm. Find
the nature, position and magnification of the image formed in each case
Answer
(a) A real image is formed 60 cm from the lens on the side opposite to the object, of magnification 3
(b) A virtual image is formed 7.5 cm from lens on the same side as the object of magnification 1.5
105
APPLICATIONS OF THIN LENSES
i) Short sightedness
ii) Long sightedness
1. SHORT SIGHTEDNESS
o This is a vision defect in which the eyeball is too long. The image formed by distant objects is
focussed in front of the retina, and not on the retina.
SHORT SIGHTEDNESS
Rays from a very far object I o Eyeball too long
o Lens has a short focal length
o A short sighted person can see objects which are near more clearly, but not objects which
are far.
o Concave (diverging) lens is used. This diverges the light rays before they reach the retina.
CORRECTION
o Diverging lens causes rays to
F diverge as though coming from F
2. LONG SIGHTEDNESS
o This is a vision defect in which the eyeball is short. The image of near objects is focussed
behind the retina, and not on the retina.
LONG SIGHTEDNESS
O I o Eyeball too short
o Lens has a long focal length
o A long sighted person can only see objects which are far more clearly, but not objects which
are near.
106
o A converging lens is used. This lens converges the light before it enters the eye
CORRECTION
O I Converging lens reduces
divergence of the rays
CAMERA EYE
1. − Uses a convex lens − Uses a convex lens
2. − Diaphragm controls light − Iris control light
3. − Shutter keeps out light − Eye lid keeps out light
4. − Image formed on the film − Image formed on the retina
5. − Black paint stops internal − Black layer (choroids) stops
reflection of light internal reflection of light
7. − Image formed is small and inverted − Image formed is small and inverted
CAMERA EYE
1. − Lens is hard glass − Lens is soft and elastic
2. − Thickness of lens does not change − Thickness of lens changes
3. − Image is focussed by moving the − Image is focussed by changing the
lens thickness of the lens
4. − Only the lens refracts the light − Aqueous and vitreous humour
refract the light
5. − Diaphragm can be altered − Iris alters itself
o The waves have different frequencies and wavelengths, but the same velocity (i.e. 3.0 x 108 m/s)
o When the waves are arranged in order of their frequencies they form the electromagnetic
spectrum
1. They are not charged therefore are not deflected by either electric or magnetic fields
2. They travel in straight lines at the speed of light (3.0 x 10 8 m/s)
3. They travel through a vacuum
Worked Example 71
Answer
o Sound waves requires materials medium while electromagnetic waves don’t
o Sound waves are longitudinal while electromagnetic waves are transverse
108
c = fλ
Where:
c – speed of light; f – frequency in Hz λ – wavelength in meters
Worked Example 72
What is the wavelength of radio waves of frequency 95.6 MHz? (c = 3.0 x 10 8 m/s)
Answer
v = fλ
v = 3.0 x 108m/s
f = 95.6 MHz
= 95.6 x 106 Hz
3.0 x 108 m/s = 95.6 x 106 x λ
λ = 3.0 x 108 m/s
95.6 x 106 Hz
λ = 3.14 m
Practice Question
The wavelength of red light in air is 6.98 x 10-7 m. Calculate the frequency of the red light. c = 3.0 x 108 m/s
(Answer: 4.3 x 1014Hz)
E = hf
Where:
E – Energy of the E.M waves in J h – Plank’s constant in Js f – frequency in Hz
109
Worked Example 73
The energy of X-ray is 1.989 x 10 -14 joules. Given that the speed of light is 3.0 x 108m/s and
plank's constant is 6.6 x 10 -34Js, find the wavelength of the x-rays
Answer
E = hf
1.989 x 10-14 = 6.6 x 10-34 x f
f = 1.989 x 10-14
6.6 x 10-34
f = 3.01 x 1019 Hz
But c = fλ
3.0 x 108 = 3.01 x 1019 Hz x λ
λ = 3.0 x 108
3.01 x 1019
λ = 9.967 x 10-12m
Practice Question
1. The following form part of the electromagnetic spectrum. Visible light, gamma rays,
radio waves, X-rays and microwaves. Arrange them in the order of increasing
wavelength
2. A radioactive element emits gamma rays of energy 3.6 x 10-12 joules. Given that the
speed of light is 3.0 x 108m/s and plank's constant is 6.6 x 10 -34Js, find:
a) the frequency of the gamma rays (Answer: 5.454 x 1021 Hz)
b) the wavelength of the gamma rays (Answer: 5.501 x 10 – 14 m)
110
o An E.M.F is only induced in a conductor when there is relative motion between the conductor
and the magnetic field.
3. THE SPEED AT WHICH THE WIRE OR THE MAGNET IS MOVED (rate of change in magnetic
flux linkage)
o Induced E.M.F. increases with the speed of relative motion of the conductor in the field
Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction states that the magnitude of induced E.M.F is
directly proportional to the rate of change in the magnetic flux linkage
LENZ’S LAW
Lenz’s law states that the direction of induced current is such that it tends to oppose the
change producing it
112
A B
S N
o When the magnet is pushed towards the coil, a N – pole is developed at end A which will
oppose the motion of the magnet by repelling it.
o When the magnet is pulled away from the coil, a S – pole is developed at end A which will
oppose the motion of the magnet by attracting it.
Worked Example 74
When a magnet is pushed into the solenoid in the figure below, the ammeter record a brief
current
S N
(b) State the magnetic pole produced at the left-hand end of the solenoid
Answer: North pole
(c) State the rule you have used to determine the polarity above
Answer: Lenz’s law
(d) State three ways by which the magnitude of the induced current can be increased
Answer:
If the right hand is held with the thumb, the first finger and the second fingers
mutually at right angles so that the first finger points in the direction of the magnetic
field and the thumb in the direction of the motion of the conductor, then the second
finger will point in the direction of the induced current
Conductor is moved up
(motion is upwards)
Field (N to S)
N S N S
Current
Worked Example 75
The figure below shows a conductor AB moving in a region of uniform magnetic field.
A
Motion
Take Note: Any time the symbol: is used, it means that the direction of the magnetic field
is into the paper, and if the symbol is used it means that the direction of the
magnetic field is from the paper outward.
a) In the figure above, state the direction of the flow of the induced current
Answer:
o The induced current flows in the conductor from the end B to A i.e. upwards
b) State three ways in which the magnitude of the induced current can be increased
Answer:
o By increasing the strength of the magnetic field
o By increasing the speed at which the rod is moved
o By increasing the length of the conductor
114
MUTUAL INDUCTION
o Mutual induction occurs when a changing electric current in one coil induces a current in
another coil placed close to it.
Example
G
Switch
o When the switch in the primary coil is closed and opened rapidly, the galvanometer in the
secondary coil shows some deflection. This is because current is induced in the secondary coil.
TRANSFORMER
o A transformer is a device which transfers electric energy from one circuit to another by
electromagnetic induction.
Primary: Secondary:
input output
o Transformers work on alternating current, A.C. and not direct current, D.C.
Reason: Alternating current changes both in magnitude and direction therefore produces
a changing magnetic field, unlike the direct current which does not produce a
changing magnetic field
o In this transformer:
(i) The primary turns are less than the secondary turns (NP < Ns )
(ii) The secondary voltage is greater than the primary voltage (VS > VP)
(iii) The current in the primary coils is higher than the current in the secondary
coils. (IP > IS)
TURNS RATIO
This is the ratio of the number of turns in the secondary coil to the number of turns in
the primary coil
o For a transformer:
Vs = Ns = turns ratio
Vp Np
116
Vp x I p = Vs x Is
EFFICIENCY OF A TRANSFORMER
The efficiency of a transformer in the ratio of power output to power input expressed as
a percentage.
OR
Efficiency = Vs x Is x 100
Vp x I p
Worked Example 76
A transformer with primary coil of 400 turns and secondary coil 200 turns is connected to
240 V ac mains. Calculate the secondary voltage.
Vp Np
=
Vs Ns
240 400
=
Vs 200
Vs = 120 V
117
Worked Example 77
A transformer with primary coil of 1200 turns and secondary coil 600 turns is connected to 240
V ac mains. If the primary current is 3.0A and secondary is 5.0A. What is its efficiency?
Vp Np
=
Vs Ns
240 1200
=
Vs 600
Vs = 120 V
= Vs x Is x 100
V p x Ip
= 120 x5 x 100
240 x 3
Efficiency = 83%
(a) A transformer has 1000 turns in its primary coil, which is connected to a 250V a.c
supply. The secondary coil is connected to an ammeter via a 100 Ohm resistor.
Determine the number of turns in the secondary coil if the ammeter reads 1.5A
A
NP = 1000 turns NS
1.5 A
Vp= 250 V VS
100Ω
Pout x 100 = E
Pin
Pout = VsIs
= 60 x 10
= 600 W
600 x 100 = E
Pin
600 x 100 = 80
Pin
Pin = 600 x 100
80
Pin = 750 W
Practice Question
The figure below shows a step – down transformer connected to a 240 V mains socket.
The primary coil, P, has 4000 turns while the secondary coil, S, has 200 turns. The
efficiency of the transformer is 60% and a current of 50A flows through P. Calculate
the current through S. (Answer: 600A)
5 kΩ
240 V P S
119
o There are four main causes of energy / power loss in a transformer. These are:
2. FLUX LEAKAGE
o This leads to energy loss as a result of magnetic flux produced by the primary coils failing
to link up with the secondary coils
Remedy: Flux leakage minimised by winding the secondary coils over the primary coil
3. HYSTERESIS LOSSES
o This is energy lost due to continuous magnetisation and demagnetisation of the core
Remedy: Hysteresis loss is minimised by use of soft iron core which is easily magnetised
and demagnetised
4. EDDY CURRENTS
o Eddy currents circulating through the core produces a lot of heat
Practice Question
A transformer is used on a 240 V a.c supply to deliver 12A at 120 V to a heating coil. If 20%
of energy taken from the supply is dissipated in the transformer
Ip = I p
Is = 12 A
Vp= 240 V Vs = 120 V
Small
alternating
Sound waves current OR
Coil
Diaphragm
To
amplifier
o When a person speaks on the microphone, sound waves cause the diaphragm to vibrate
o This causes the coil to move to and fro between the poles of the magnet.
o A small electric current is induced in the coils. This flows to the loudspeaker where it is
converted to sound.
2. INDUCTION COIL
o When the switch is closed, current flows through the primary coil and the soft iron core
becomes magnetized.
o The magnetised soft iron rods then attract the soft iron a mature.
o As the armature moves towards the soft iron rods, the contacts open and the primary current
cut off. This rapidly reduces the magnetic field to Zero.
o This in turn induces a large e.m.f in the secondary coil by mutual induction. Meanwhile the
spring pulls the armature back to make the contacts once again. Then the process repeats
itself.
121
Function of the capacitor
Worked Example 75
(b) State one difference between a step-up transformer and an induction coil.
o Step up transformer uses A.C only while induction coil uses D.C
Rotation
o Starting with the coil in the horizontal position, sides AB and CD are cutting the magnetic lines
of force. An E.M.F is therefore induced in the coil. Current flows from A to B and from C to D.
o When the coil is in the vertical position, sides AB and CD are moving along the magnetic lines
of force. The induced E.M.F drops to zero and current stops flowing
o During the second quarter rotation, the coils start cutting the lines of force and induced E.M.F
increases from zero to a maximum value when the coil is in a horizontal position again.
Current flows from B to A and from D to C, i.e. is reversed.
o The direction and magnitude of the induced e.m.f changes with time depending on the
position of the coil
122
4. THE D.C GENERATOR
Rotation
Graphite brush
Induced current
Split
ring
Load (e.g C.R.O)
o The D.C. generator has the same features as an AC generator except that instead of the slip
ring, a split ring (known as a commutator) is used.
o Starting with the coil in the horizontal position, sides AB and CD are cutting the magnetic lines
of force. An E.M.F is therefore induced in the coil. Current flows from A to B and from C to D.
o When the coil is in the vertical position, sides AB and CD are moving along the magnetic lines
of force. The induced E.M.F drops to zero and current stops flowing
o During the second quarter rotation, the commutator exchanges contacts at the brushes. The
coils start cutting the lines of force and induced E.M.F increases from zero to a maximum
value when the coil is horizontal again. Current in the coil flows from B to A and from D to C,
i.e. is reversed. However, because the commutator exchanges contacts at the brushes,
current in the external circuit flows in the same direction
o The commutator exchanges the brushes after every half cycle. This ensures that the direction
of induced E.M.F does not change.
NOTE
Worked Example 80
(a) A student designed an a.c generator which produces a current of 10A at a p.d
of 340V. State three ways by which he can improve his generator to increase its
output.
1. Using stronger magnet
2. Increasing the number of turns of the coil
3. Increasing the speed of rotation of the coil
4. Winding the coil on a soft iron core
(b) What is the difference in energy transformation between a D.C motor and a D.C
generator?
o In a D.C motor Electrical energy is converted to Mechanical energy while
o In a D.C generator mechanical energy is converted to electrical energy
(c) What is the main structural difference between the D.C. generator and the A.C.
generator?
o In the D.C. generator a split ring (commutator) is used, while in an A.C.
generator, a set of slip rings are used.
1. HYDROELECTRIC POWER STATIONS: In these water falling from great heights is used
to turn the turbines
2. GEOTHERMAL POWER STATIONS: These use steam from underground to turn the
turbine
3. NUCLEAR POWER STATIONS: These use steam produced when water is heated by the
energy given out as a result of nuclear reactions to turn
the turbines
4. FOSSIL FUEL: These use steam produced when water is heated by the energy given
out as a result of burning of fossil fuels e.g. diesel, coal e.t.c to turn the
turbines
o Electricity generated at the power stations is usually at low voltage and high current.
o Before transmission, the voltage is first stepped up to very high voltages then transmitted
over a network of transmission cables known as the national grid system.
ANSWER: The national grid system is a network of transmission cables connecting all
power stations in a country to each other and to the consumers
o This ensures that the power is available to consumers even when one of the
stations fails.
o Transmission of power over long distance is usually done at very high voltage and
low current as opposed to low voltage and high current.
Reason: High voltage transmission of electricity minimises power loss during the
transmission
Worked Example 81
o The national grid helps to ensure if one power station breaks down there
would still be power everywhere (no black out)
(b) Why is the electricity transmitted at very high voltage and low current?
o Transmission of electricity at high voltage and low current ensures that there
is low power / energy loss during the transmission
Lower voltage
SUB STATION
POWER STATION
Generator Step up
transformer
P = I2R
Where:
P – Power lost during transmission; I – current in the cables; R- resistance of the cables
Worked Example 82
(a) Explain why long distance power transmission is done at a very high voltage.
o This reduces the heating effect in the cables and reduces energy losses in the form
of heat
(b) A power line from a power substation to a town some distance away, has a
resistance of 0.10 ohms per kilometre. Determine the rate of energy loss in the
transmission of power over 50km at a current of 60 Amperes
Total resistance over the 50 km distance, R = 0.1 x 50
= 5
Power loss = I2R
= 602 x 5
= 3600 x 5
Power loss = 18000 watts
126
Practice Question
(a) The resistance of a length of power transmitting cables is 10 Ω and is used to transmit
11 kV at a current of 1.0A. Determine the power loss. (Answer: 10W)
(b) If this voltage is stepped up to 160 kV by a transformer, determine the power loss
(assume the transformer is 100 % efficient) (Answer: 0.048 W)
(c) By what factor is the power loss reduced when the power is transmitted at 16 kV as
opposed to 11 kV. (Answer: 208.33 times)
Precautions
o To minimise the dangers of high voltage transmission, the cables are supported high above the
ground
Practice Question
A power line from a power substation to a town some distance away, has a resistance of
0.40 Ω per kilometre. Determine current flowing through the power lines if the rate of
energy loss in the transmission of power over 100 km is 100 000 watts
(Answer: 50 amperes)
127
Worked Example 83
During the transmission of electricity over long distances, an alternating current is passed
over aluminium cables at high voltages and low current.
(a) Why is alternating current (a.c) used in preference to direct current (d.c)?
Answer
o Alternating current can be easily stepped up and down since transformers work
only on alternating current a.c. and not direct current.
o Direct current requires thick overhead cables which will be expensive to buy and
support
(b) Why are aluminium cables preferred to copper for long distance transmission of
electricity
Answer
(i) Aluminium is lighter than copper, therefore easy to support. Use of copper
wires will require very strong poles to support since copper wires are
fairly heavy
(ii) Aluminium is a better conductor of electricity than copper
(iii) Aluminium does not corrode easily, unlike copper
DOMESTIC WIRING
3. Earth wire (E): This is usually coloured either yellow or yellow and green
The earth wire is usually connected to the metal casing of the appliance
and it prevents risks of electric shocks in case of short circuiting.
4. Switches: Switches are fitted to the live wire so that when the switches are off, no
appliance is at full potential / voltage.
128
5. Circuit breakers: Circuit breaker is a magnetic devices that breaks the circuit through
an electromagnet when a certain amount of current is exceeded
6. Bulbs: In the lighting circuit bulbs are placed in parallel and not in series
Reasons: (1) This is done so that if one of the bulbs fails, the rest will
continue working
(2) This ensures that all the bulbs operate at the same mains
voltage
7. Fuses: These are fitted to the live wire. They protect appliances from excess current.
When the current flowing exceeds the required value, the fuse wire melts and
breaks the circuit
Fuse Symbol:
Worked Example 84
The following circuit connection was made from a.c mains.
Live
Neutral
Identify the faults in the wiring and suggest away of connecting them
FUSE RATING
o Fuse rating means the maximum current that can flow through a fuse before the fuse wire
blows off. This is usually calculated by dividing the power of the appliance with the mains
voltage / operating voltage
Worked Example 85
(a) Briefly explain how the fuse works and state the importance of a fuse in a circuit.
Answer
o A fuse has a wire which melts and cuts off the current in case of an excess
current.
o It safeguards the circuit and the appliances against being burnt off
(b) An electric kettle is rated 3 KW 240V mains. What size of fuse should be used in the
plug?
Answer :
P = VI
I = P
V
I = 3000
240
I = 12.5 A
A 13 A fuse is adequate
Practice Questions
1. A room has a lighting circuit operated from the 240 V. mains. Seven bulbs rated at
150 w, 240 V are switched on at the same time. What is the most suitable fuse for
this circuit? (Answer 5 A)
2. A three pin mains plug is fitted to the lead for a 1kW electric iron box to be used on
a 250 V AC supply. What value of the fuse can be safely used in the plug?
(Answer: 4A)
3. Select the most appropriate value of the fuse to be used from the available fuses of
5A, 10A, 13A, and 15A for an electric heater rated 240V, 3 000W when connected to
a 240V mains supply. (Answer: 13A fuse)
130
8. The three pin plug: This has three pins (Earth, Neutral, and Live) which fit into the socket
The Earth pin is longer than the Live and the Neutral
Reason: The Earth pin is the first to enter and open the socket.
Earth pin
Live
Earth wire (Green yellow colour) pin
9. Socket : Has three holes for Earth, Neutral and Live pins of the plug
N L
Reasons: (1) This ensures that if one of the bulbs fails, the rest will continue
working
(2) This ensures that all the bulbs operate at the same mains voltage
o The switches are on the live wire and not the neutral wire
Reason: This is so that when the switches are off, no appliance is at full potential /
voltage.
o The lighting circuit does not require the earth connection unless florescent tubes are
used for lighting purposes
o The wires used in the lighting circuit are relatively thinner than for other circuits
Reason: The lighting circuit carries smaller current
131
11. The ring mains circuit
o In this circuit, a cable containing three wires (Live, Earth and Neutral) form a loop
o Power sockets in the various rooms are connected at convenient points
Key:
Live
Neutral
Earth
o Cooker and water heater circuits are earthed and their wires are relatively thicker than
those for lighting circuits.
Worked Example 86
The figure below shows a flex to the 13 A – 3 pin plug which has been incorrectly fitted.
o Blue (neutral) is connected to the live pin / fuse. Should be connected to the
neutral pin
o Green / yellow (earth) is connected to the neutral pin. Should be connected to the
earth pin
(b) What would happen if the plug was connected to the mains socket?
o The fuse would blow out
(c) In a three pin plug, why is the earth pin normally longer than the other two pins?
o The longer earth pin opens the blinder which covers the live and the neutral holes of
sockets
(d) Distinguish between a fuse and a circuit breaker
o Fuse is a wire of low melting point which melts when a certain amount of current is
exceeded
COST OF ELECTRICITY
o 1 kilowatt hour is the energy supplied by the rate of working of 1000W for 1 hour (3 600
seconds)
1 kWh = 1 kW x 1 hr
= (1000 W x 3600) J
1 kWh = 3 6000 000 J
Worked Example 87
(b) Find the cost of using a 3 kW immersion heater and five 75 W electric bulbs for a
day if the price per unit (kWh) is 80 cts
Answer
Total power consumed = 3 kW + (75 W x 5)
= 3000 + 375
= 3375 W
= 3.375 kW
1 day = 24 hrs
Power used in 1 day = 3.375 x 24
= 81 kWh
1 kWh = 80 cts
81 kWh = (81 x 80)
= 6480 cents
Cost = 64.80 shillings
134
Worked Example 88
Mrs Rono has an electric iron rated 2.5 kW an electric fan rated 500 W and a 1.5 kW
electric stove. She bought a T.V rated 250 W and a radio cassette with 500 W speakers.
Her power supply has a voltage of 240 V.
(a) Determine the current drawn from the mains if she connected all the appliances at
the same time.
Total power consumed = 2500 W + 500 W + 1500W + 250W + 500W
= 5250 W
I = P
V
= 5250
240
I = 21.88 A
(b) Give a reason why she may not use all the appliances at the same time if her power
supply has main fuse rated 15A.
o The fuse will blow off
o Reason: Current drawn is higher than fuse current OR power required (5250 W)
is higher than power supplied
(c) Determine:
(i) The resistance of the heating element in the electric stove
P = V2
R
Therefore, R = V2
P
= 240 x 240
1500
R = 38.4 Ω
(ii) The cost of using the electric iron and stove for 17 hours a week at the cost of
sh. 2.50 per unit
Total power = 2.5 + 1.5
= 4.0 kW
No. of units = power (kW) x time (hours)
= 4 x 17
= 68 kWh
Total Cost = number of units x cost per unit
= 68 x 2.5
Total cost = 170 shillings
135
Practice Question
A house has five rooms, each with a 240V 60W bulb. If the bulbs are switched on from 7:00p.m to
10.30p.m, calculate the cost per week for lighting these rooms at Ksh. 6.70 per unit.
(Answer: 49.245 shillings)
Cathode Rays are fast moving electrons emitted from the cathode moving to the
anode in a cathode ray tube
E.H.T
Cathode Rays
o Current flows through the cathode which is then heated up and electrons are
produced by the process of thermionic emission.
o These electrons are then accelerated towards the fluorescent screen by the anode.
Answer: The tube is evacuated so as to prevent the electrons from losing their energy as
a result of interacting with air particles before reaching the screen.
136
PROPERTIES OF CATHODE RAYS
Example:
2. Cathode rays are negatively charged therefore are deflected by both electric and magnetic
fields.
(i) In the electric field, cathode rays are deflected towards the positive plate
Cathode rays
(ii) The direction of deflection in the magnetic field can be determined using the
Flemings left hand rule, but with the second finger pointing in the
opposite direction to the one the cathode rays are moving
137
Worked Example 89
The figure below shows a stream of cathode rays entering a magnetic field. Complete the
diagram to show the path of the cathode rays in the magnetic field. (NOTE: done using the
bold curve)
Cathode Rays
Take Note:
o – Means the direction of the field is towards / into the paper. And If is used, it
would mean the direction of the field is from the paper outward
o The direction of the current is in the opposite direction to that of the cathode rays
3. Cathode rays possess kinetic energy. A paddle wheel placed on their path is therefore
rotated.
4. When cathode rays are stopped by metallic targets, X – rays are produced
6. Cathode rays can ionise gas molecules through which they travel
Worked Example 90
Worked example 91
The figure below shows a circuit of a special type of a cathode ray tube
P Q
L
C
LOW VOLTAGE
A B M
(iii) State one other property of cathode rays not mentioned above.
c) Cylindrical Anodes, which are maintained at a high positive potential relative to the
cathode. These therefore attract the emitted electrons and cause them to accelerate
towards the screen.
b) The grid
o This controls the brightness (intensity) of the beam by controlling the number of electrons
screen.
c) Cylindrical anodes
o These are used to accelerate and focus the electrons so that the beam converges into a
fine spot on the screen.
1. When an input voltage is applied at the X – plates, the spot moves along the X –
axis
2. When an input voltage is applied at the Y – plates, the spot moves along the Y –
axis
3. Simultaneous application of the input voltage at the X – plates and the Y – plates
leads to the movement of the spot on the screen in two dimensions, producing a
waveform on the screen.
X – Plate sweep only Y – Plate a.c. signal only X – Plate sweep and Y –
(Time Base) plate signal combined
o The screen consists of a glass material coated with a fluorescent substance. When the
accelerated electrons hit the screen, it glows
o The inside of the glass tube is coated with graphite. This graphite has three main functions:
a) AS A VOLTMETER
Note: Sensitivity means volts per division and is sometimes known as the Y – gain
141
Worked Example 92
A D.C voltage of 50V when applied to the Y-plates of a C.R.O causes a deflection of the spot
on the screen as shown below.
f=1
T
o A signal applied on the X – plates is known as the time base and it displaces the
electron spot along the X – axis (i.e. along the horizontal direction)
142
Worked Example 93
The figure below shows the trace on the screen of an a.c. signal connected to the Y plates
of a C.R.O with the time base on.
Given that the time base control is 5 ms/div. and the Y gain is at 100 V/div, determine:
a) The frequency of the a.c. signal
Answer
Time base control = 5 ms/div
Number of divisions covered = 8
Therefore total time = (5 x 8)
= 40 ms
= (40 x 10-3s) seconds
Total number of complete cycles = 2
Therefore, periodic time (time for one cycle) = (40 x 10-3s)
2
T = 20 x 10-3seconds
But, f = 1
T
Frequency, f, = 1
20 x 10-3
f = 50 Hz
Practice Questions
1. The figure below shows the trace on the screen of an A.C signal connected to the y-plates
of a C.R.O with time base on. Given that the time base control is 100 ms/div and the y-
gain is at 120 V/div
(a) Determine:
(i) The frequency of the A.C signal (Answer: 5Hz)
2. In a CRO, a waveform given below was displayed on the screen when the Y-shift of the
CRO was set at 85 V/cm
0.5 cm
0.5 cm
Determine:
(a) The peak voltage (Answer: 170 V)
(b) The peak to peak voltage (Answer: 340 V)
144
16. X – RAYS
o X – Rays are electromagnetic waves with very high frequencies and short wavelengths
o X – Rays are produced whenever fast moving electrons are stopped suddenly by metallic
targets
HOW IT WORKS
o Current flows through the filament, which then becomes hot and electrons are then emitted
by the process of thermionic emission.
o The emitted electrons are then accelerated towards the target (anode) by the high potential
difference between the anode and the cathode.
o When the electrons hit the tungsten target, they are stopped and X – Rays are produced
o Only 0.5% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted to X – Rays. The rest is converted
to heat.
Energy changes occurring in the X- ray tube during the production of x - rays:
1. The cathode is concave shaped so that it can focus the electrons onto the target
2. The anode is made of a good conductor of heat such as copper This is used to ensure that the
heat generated when electron hits the target is quickly conducted away from the target
3. The target is made of tungsten because tungsten has a high melting point therefore can
withstand the heat generated without melting
145
6. The X – Ray tube is surrounded by lead shield. This is used to absorb any stray X – Rays
PROPERTIES OF X – RAYS
1. X – Rays are not charged therefore are not deflected by either magnetic or electric fields
2. X – Rays travel at the speed of light (3.0 x 108 m/s)
3. X – Rays can penetrate matter
4. X – Rays can cause florescence in certain substances e.g zinc sulphide
5. X – Rays can cause photoelectric emission
6. X – Rays can ionize air particles
7. X – Rays affect photographic film
Worked Example 94
o X – Rays are not deflected by either magnetic or electric fields since they are not
charged while cathode rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields since they are
negatively charged
o X – Rays are highly penetrative while cathode rays are not highly penetrative
K.E = eV Or 1mv2 = eV
2
Where:
m – mass of the electron in kg e – charge on the electron (1.6 x 10-19C)
v – Velocity of the electron in m/s V – accelerating voltage
146
Worked Example 95
(a) A potential difference of 50kV is applied across an X-ray tube. Given that the
charge of an electron e = 1.6 x 10-19coulombs and the mass of an electron, me =
9.1 x 10-31 kg. Calculate the kinetic energy of the electrons.
(b) An accelerating potential of 25 kV is applied to an X-ray tube. Given that take the
charge on an electron to be 1.6 x 10-19C and the mass of an electron to be 9.0 x 10 -31
kg, Calculate the velocity of these electrons
Answer
Kinetic energy = Electron energy
1mv2 = eV
2
e = 1.6 x 10 –19 C
V = 25 kV
= 25 000 V
½ x 9.0 x 10-31 x v2 = 1.6 x 10-19 x 25 000
4.5 x 10-31 v2 = 1.6 x 10-19 x 25 000
v2 = 1.6 x 10-19 x 25 000
4.5 x 10-31
v2 = 1.6 x 1012 x 25 000
4.5
v2 = 3.556 x 1011 x 25 000
v2 = 8.89 x 1015
v = (8.89 x 1015)
v = 9.43 x 107 m/s
Practice Question
An accelerating voltage of 100 kV is applied in an X-ray tube. Calculate the Kinetic energy of
the electrons arriving at the target (e = 1.6 x 10 -19 C) (Answer: 1.6 x 10-14 J)
147
ENERGY OF X – RAYS
E = hf OR E = hc
λ
Where
E – Energy of the X – Rays in joules; h – Plank’s constant in Js c – speed of light in m/s
λ – Wavelength of the X – Ray’s in m f – frequency of the X – Rays in Hz
Worked Example 96
1. The energy of x-ray is 1.989 x 10-14 joules. Given that the speed of light is 3.0 x 10 8m/s and
plank's constant is 6.6 x 10 -34Js, find the wavelength of the X-rays
Answer
E = hf
But for an electromagnetic wave, c = fλ
Therefore, f = c
λ
Consequently, E = hc
1.989 x 10-14 = 6.6 x 10-34 x 3.0 x 108
= 6.6 x 10-34 x 3.0 x 108
1.989 x 10-14
= 9.955 x 10-12m
Question 2
2. (a) In the X-ray tube, an accelerating voltage of 100 kV is used. Calculate Kinetic energy of
the electrons arriving at the target (e = 1.6 x 10 -19 C)
Answer
V = 100,000V e = 1.6 X10-19 C
K.E = eV
= 1.6 x 10-19 x 100 000
K.E = 1.6 x 10-14 J
Continued.....
148
......Continuation
(b) If 0.5 % of the electron energy in 2(a) above is converted into X – rays determine the
frequency of the emitted X- rays ( h = 6.63 x 10 -34 JS, and C = 3.0 x 10 8 ms -1)
Answer
X – Rays = 0.5% of the kinetic energy
= 0.5 x 1.6 x 10-14
100
= 8.0 x 10-17J
E = hf
8.0 x 10-17 = 6.63 x 10-34 x f
f = 8.0 x 10-17
6.63 x 10-34
= 8 x 1017Hz
6.63
f = 1.206 x 1017Hz
Question 3
The potential difference between the electron gun and the target of x-ray tube is 30 kV. 15%
of the energy of electrons is converted to X-rays. Given that charge of an electron is
1.6 x 10-19C; Plank’s constant is 6.6x10-34Js and velocity of light, c = 3.0 x 108 m/s,
.........continuation
Answer: c = f
3.0 x 108 = 1.091 x 1017 x
= 3.0 x 108
1.091 x 1017
= 2.75 x 10-9 m
Practice Questions
1. Calculate the maximum velocity of electrons that would produce X-rays of
frequency 8.0 x 1016 Hz if only 20% of their kinetic energy is converted to X-rays.
(Answer: 1.21 x 107 m/s)
2. The energy of x-ray is 1.989 x 10 -14 joules. Given that the speed of light is 3.0 x
108m/s and plank's constant is 6.6 x 10 -34Js, find the wavelength of the x-rays.
(Answer: 9.955 x 10 –12 m)
TYPES OF X – RAYS
o There are two types of X – Rays
1. Hard X – Rays
2. Soft X – Rays
o These are X – Rays which have very short wavelengths, high frequency and high
penetrating powers
o Hard X – Rays are produced by a high accelerating voltage which produces fast moving
electrons
o These are X – Rays which have relatively longer wavelengths’ lower frequencies and low
penetrating powers
o Soft X – Rays are produced by low accelerating voltage which produces electrons moving
at lower speed
150
NOTE:
2. The intensity (amount) of X – Rays produced is controlled by the heating current. The
higher the heating current, the more the electrons emitted and hence the higher the
intensity of the X – Rays
USES OF X – RAYS
A. IN MEDICINE
1. To detect fractured bones and dislocations
2. To locate foreign objects in the body
3. To detect growths inside the body
4. To treat cancer
B. IN INDUSTRIES
1. To detect flaws in metal castings and welding. Hard X-rays are used because they have
high penetrating powers
4. X – Rays are used to inspect baggage at airports for any dangerous weapons.
DANGERS OF X – RAYS
o Excessive exposure to X – Rays can lead to:
1. Cancer
2. Cell mutation
3. Skin burns
Precautions
(i) Exposure to X – Rays should be limited to short time intervals
(ii) X – Rays tubes should be surrounded by lead shield to protect operators from stray
X – Rays
(iii) Concrete walls should be used for rooms that store X – Ray tubes
151
Worked Example 97
The figure below shows an X – ray tube
HIGH
VOLTAGE
A
LOW AC
VOLTAGE
X – Rays
C
B
(d) What are the purposes of the high and low voltages in the tube
o Low voltage heats up the cathode filament to emit electrons
o High voltage accelerates electrons towards the metal target
(e) With a reason, state the most appropriate metal to be used to make part B
o Tungsten or molybdenum
o It has a high melting point
Practice Questions
1. State one property of X-rays which makes it possible to detect fractured bones
2. The penetrating power of x-rays is normally varied depending on the intended use.
Explain briefly how this is done.
3. X-rays are passed through the air surrounding a charged electroscope. State what is
observed.
Photoelectric effect is the process of removing electrons from the surface of a metal by
using electromagnetic radiation of sufficient energy.
Demonstration
U.V. radiation
B A
Metal Plates
o Ultra violet radiations are directed towards plate A and the galvanometer observed
o A barrier is then placed between the source and plate A
Observation
o When ultra violet radiations are allowed to fall on metal plate A, the galvanometer gave a
deflection
o When a barrier is introduced so that the radiation is cut off, the galvanometer shows no
deflection
Explanation
o When ultraviolet radiation energy falls on a metal surface, some electrons absorb this energy
and are removed / dislodged from the surface.
o The electrons emitted at plate A are then attracted to plate B, causing a current to flow, hence
causing the galvanometer to deflect.
Worked Example 98
Threshold frequency (fo) is the minimum frequency of the radiation that would
cause emission of electron from a metal surface
NOTE: (i) If the frequency of the radiation falling on a metal surface is lower than the threshold
frequency, electrons will not be emitted from the metal surface.
(ii) The wavelength corresponding to the threshold frequency is known as the threshold
wavelength (λo)
Worked Example 99
The Figure below shows a set up used to demonstrate photoelectric effect using a photo
cell U.V
light A
A
Vacuum
(a) Explain why current flows when U.V light is shone on the part labelled A
o The electrons on the surface of the cathode absorb the U.V light and are
dislodges from the metal surface. The emitted electrons are then attracted to the
Anode, causing a flow of current
(b) Explain why U.V and not infra red radiation is used
o Infra-red has lower frequency (longer wavelength) than U.V- radiation
This is the minimum energy needed to completely remove an electron from the surface
of a metal
Wo = hfo
NOTE: If the energy of the radiation falling on a metal surface is lower than the work function of
the metal , electrons will not be emitted from the metal surface.
(b) Light of frequency 5.7 x 1014 Hz is irradiated on a surface of a metal whose work function
is 2.6 eV. Explain whether photoelectric emission will take place or not.
Answer:
Wo = hfo
Therefore, fo = Wo
h
= 2.6 x 1.6 x 10-19
6.63 x 10-34
fo = 6.3 x 1014Hz
CONCLUSION: Photoelectric emission will not take place because the frequency of the light
used (5.7 x 1014 Hz) is lower than the threshold frequency (6.3 x 1014Hz).
Practice Question
The work function of caesium is 1.93 eV. Given that 1eV = 1.6 x 10-19J, c = 3.0 x 108 m/s and
Planks constant h = 6.63 x 10 34Js, determine:
(i) The threshold frequency of caesium (Answer: fo = 4.66 x 1014Hz)
(ii) The threshold wavelength of caesium (Answer: λo = 6.44 x 10-7m)
155
EINSTEIN’S PHOTOELECTRIC EQUATION
o When a photon strikes an electron, the energy of the photon (hf) will be used in two ways:
(a) Some of the energy will be used to remove the electron from the metal surface
(Wo)
(b) The rest of the energy will provide the ejected electron with kinetic energy,
( ½ mv2max) That is:
E = ½ mv2
E = hf
E = Wo
Photon with energy = hf, Electron absorbs part of that The “excess” energy gives the
falls on the surface of a energy and moves to the electron enough kinetic energy
metal surface. This energy is the work to move away from the metal
function of the metal Wo surface
o The kinetic energy (hence the velocity) of the electron emitted depends on three factors:
3. The potential difference between the anode and the cathode (applied voltage), V
o The higher the potential difference, the higher the kinetic energy / velocity of emitted
electrons
156
Light of wavelength 2.0 x 10-7m is incident on a metal surface of work function 4.0 eV.
Find the velocity of the photoelectrons emitted.
(Take: c = 3.0 x 108 m/s, h = 6.6 x 10-34Js, mass of electron me = 9.1 x 10-31kg)
Answer:
c = f
3.0 x 108 = f x 2.0 x 10-7
f = 3.0 x 108
2.0 x 10-7
Therefore, frequency, f = 1.5 x 1015Hz
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19J
4.0 eV = 4 x 1.6 x 10-19
Therefore, Wo = 6.4 x 10-19J
But, hf = Wo + ½ mv2max
6.6 x 10-34 x 1.5 x 1015 = 6.4 x 10-19 + ½ mv2
9.9 x 10-19 = 6.4 x 10-19 + ½ x 9.1 x 10-31 x v2
(9.9 – 6.4) x 10-19 = 4.05 x 10-31 x v2
3.5 x 10 – 19 = 4.05 x 10-31 x v2
v2 = 3.5 x 10-19
4.05 x 10-31
v2 = 0 .8642 x 1012
v = (8.642 x 1011)
vmax = 9.296 x 105 m/s
Practice Question
c) The maximum velocity of the emitted electron if light of frequency 9.0 x 1015 Hz falls
on the metal (mass of electron me = 9.1 x 10 – 31 kg) (Answer: 3.51 x 106 m/s)
157
Worked Example 102
Answer:
c = foλo
λo = 0.45µm
= 0.45 x 10-6
3.0 x 108 = fo x 0.45 x 10-6
fo = 3.0 x 108
0.45 x 10-6
fo = 6.67 x 1014 Hz
Wo = 2.76 eV
Answer:
hf = Wo + ½ mv2max
½ mv2max = hf – Wo
½ mv2max = [hf - Wo]
= [(6.63 x 10-34 x 7.5 x 1014) – 4.42 x 10-19]
½ mv2 = (4.97 x 10-19 – 4.42 x 10-19)
½ mv2max = 5.53 x 10-20
Therefore, v2max = 2 x 5.53 x 10-20
m
vmax = 2 x 5.53 x 10-20
9.11 x 10-31
vmax = 3.48 x 105 m/s
158
Practice Question
Electrons emitted from a metal when light of a certain frequency is shone on the metal
are found to have a maximum kinetic energy of 8.0 x 10-19 J. If the work function of the
metal is 2.0 eV, determine the wavelength of the light used.
(c = 3.0 x 108 m/s; e = 1.6 x 10-19C, h = 6.6 3x 10-34) (Answer: 1.776 x 10-7m)
o There are three main factors which affect photoelectric emissions. These are:
o The higher the intensity of the radiation used the higher number of electrons emitted and
hence the current produced.
Reason: When radiation of high intensity is used, more electrons are ejected, leading to
increased current.
o The frequency of the radiation used affects the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons
emitted but does not affect the number of the electrons emitted.
o Radiations of high frequency emit electrons with higher kinetic energy while radiations of low
frequency emit electrons with low kinetic energy
o A graph of stopping potential Vs, against frequency f, is a straight line cutting through the
frequency axis (x – axis).
Stopping potential Vs
h
Gradient =
e
Frequency
Threshold frequency, fo
–W
e
159
o For this graph:
(i) The point at which the line cuts the frequency axis (x – axis) is the threshold
frequency fo.
𝒉
(ii) The slope of the graph represents the quantity
𝒆
–𝑾𝒐
(iii) The point at which the line cuts the y – axis represents the quantity
𝑒
o N/B: If the graph plotted is of Kinetic Energy of electrons against frequency, f, then the
gradient of the graph will represents planks constant h, while the Y - intercept
value will represent the work function
Worked Example
(a) Give a condition necessary for electrons to be emitted from the cathode of a
photocell
o The energy of the incident radiation should be equal to or greater than the work
function of the cathode
(b) The graph below shows how the maximum kinetic energy varies with the
frequency, f. Use the graph to determine Planck’s constant, h
K.EMAX (x 10–19J)
Frequency x 1015 Hz
From K.E = hf - wo
Planck’s constant = Gradient of the graph
(8.2 − 0) x 10 −19
h=
(2.5 −1.0) x 1015
8.2
h= x 10 −34 JS
1.5
h = 5.5 x 10 −34 JS
Frequency (x 1014)
Given that the charge on the electron e = 1.6 x 10-19, use the graph to determine:
(a) The threshold frequency of the metal
Answer: Threshold frequency fo = the frequency reading at the x – intercept
fo = 4.5 x 1014Hz
(b) the plank constant
Answer: Gradient = ΔVs
Δf
= (0.6 – 0) .
(6.0 – 4.5) x 1014
= 4.0 x 10-15
But h = gradient
e
Therefore, h = gradient x e
= 4.0 x 10-15 x 1.6 x 10-19
h = 6.4 x 10-34Js
Practice Question
A light was radiated onto a metal surface and the results obtained were used to plot a graph of
stopping potential (Vs) against the frequency (f) of radiation. Shown below
1.6
1.2
0.8
0.4
Frequency f (x1014Hz)
(1) In an experiment to observe photo-electric emission from a clean caesium surface the
following readings were obtained
mA
Photocell
(a) Explain why the milliameter shows a reading when light is shone on the photocell as in
the diagram
o When light falls on the negative plate, electrons are emitted. The electrons are
attracted by the positive plate hence current flows causing the milliameter to deflect
(b) What will be the effect of increasing the light intensity on the milliameter reading?
o More electrons will be emitted, causing the current to increase and the
milliameter reading increases
(c) State two factors which determine the speed of the photo electrons emitted by the
metal surface C
o Frequency of the ultra violet rays
o Work function of the metal
(d) When the experiment was carried out using violet light, the milliameter gave a reading,
but when the experiment was repeated using red light, the milliameter gave no
deflection. Explain this observation.
o Ultra violet light has high frequency (higher than the threshold frequency of the
metal) therefore enough energy to dislodge the electrons from the metal. Red
light on the other hand has lower frequency and therefore does not have enough
energy to remove the electrons from the metal, hence no current flows in the
circuit
1. Photoemissive cells
2. Photovoltaic cells
3. Photoconductive cells (also known as light dependent resistors)
163
18. ELECTRONICS
1. SEMICONDUCTORS
o This theory assumes that when two or more atoms are brought closer to each other, the
energy levels split into smaller energy levels known as bands
o A gap exists between these two bands. This gap is known as forbidden energy gap or simply,
the forbidden gap
1. INSULATORS
o These are materials which are generally poor conductors of electricity and heat
o Insulators have a very large forbidden gap between an empty conduction band and a
completely filled valence band
Empty Conduction
Band
Large forbidden gap
Conduction Band
Small forbidden
gap
Valence Band
3. CONDUCTORS
o These are materials which conduct electricity and heat at all times
o In conductors, the valence band and the conduction band overlapp such that
electrons move freely from partially filled valence band to the conduction band
Conduction Band
Overlap e –
e –
e –
e
Valence Band
2. DOPING
o Doping of pure semi conductors can result into two types of semi conductors, namely:
a) N – type semiconductor and
b) P – type semi conductor
165
a) The N – type semiconductor
b) P – Type semiconductor
P – Type semiconductor is one in which the majority charge carriers are holes
(a) State two differences between conductors and semi conductors in terms of their
electrical conductivities
Answer
(b) Explain how you can obtain an N-type extrinsic semi – conductor
Answer
Practice Question
(a) Define the term doping
(b) Explain briefly how a P-type semiconductor may be made from a pure
semiconductor material
166
P – N JUNCTION DIODE
o P–N junction diodes are formed when a P– type semiconductor and an N– type
semiconductor of the same material are joined together
Example symbol
P–type N–type
o P–N junction diode is reverse biased when the P-type region is connected to the negative
terminal of a cell and the N-type region is connected to the positive terminal of a cell
P N
o When a P– N junction diode is reverse biased it does NOT allow current to flow, i.e. it
does NOT conducts electricity
o The characteristic for a diode in the reverse bias mode is as shown below
Current
Voltage
168
P N P N
A A
Circuit X Circuit Y
Answer
o Y is forward biased and therefore the resistance at the P-N junction is greatly
reduced and current therefore flows through the circuit
o X is reverse based and so resistance at the P-N junction is increased. Current
therefore does not flow through the circuit
(b) In the circuit below, when the switch is closed, the bulb lights. However, when the
cell terminals are reversed and the switch is closed the bulb does not light. Explain
this observation
Switch
Cell
R
Answer
o The bulb lights in the first case because the diode is forward biased therefore
current flows through the circuit. When the cell terminals are however reversed,
the diode is reversed biased therefore current does not flow through the circuit and
the bulb does not light.
Practice Question
The diagram below shows a circuit with two diodes D1 and D2, two lamps, L1 and L2,
and a battery. State and explain the observation that would be made when switch S is
closed
S
D1 L1
D2 L2
169
o Rectification of alternating current is done by using rectifier circuits, in which P-N junction
diodes are connected.
How it works
o During the first half cycle (positive) the diode is forward biased, therefore it conducts
electricity. The current flows through RL, building a voltage across it which then decreases
to zero.
o During the second half cycle (negative) the diode is reverse biased and so it does not
conduct electricity. Current does not flow then.
Time
170
(b) State two disadvantage of half – wave rectification using a junction diode
Answer
o The two diodes are connected in such a way that each conducts a current through the
resistor during a particular half- cycle as shown below
A D1
B
D
D2
o During the first half- cycle D1 is forward bias while D2 is reversed biased hence current
flows through AD1 BCA.
o During the next half –cycle, D2 is forward biased while D1 is reversed biased and the
path of the current in DD2 BCD. Current flows through the resistor in the same
direction in both cycles.
171
The voltage output signal is of the form:
Voltage
Time
D1
A B
C
F G
D2 C.R.O
E D
(b) Identify the diode that is reverse biased when point E is positive with respect to point
A.
o D1
(c) State the direction of electric current when part A is positive with respect to point E.
o A B G F
(e) Sketch the waveform of the output current as seen in the C.R.O.
Current
Time
172
A
1 D2
D1
D B
2 D4 D3
RL
How it works
o During the first half cycle, point A is positive with respect to point C. the diodes D1 and
D3 are forward biased, while D2 and D4 are reversed biased. Current therefore flows
along the path ABRLDCA
o During the second half cycle, point A becomes negative with respect to C and diodes D2
and D4 become forward biased while D1 and D3 are reversed biased. Current therefore
flows along the path CBRLDC
1. During both half cycles, current flows through the load resistor RL in the same
direction.
Voltage
Time
State two advantage of the four diode rectifier over a two diode one
o Alpha particles ionize air particles more strongly than beta particles and gamma rays. This
is because alpha particles have bigger mass than beta particles and gamma rays.
o Alpha particles have low penetrating powers and can be stopped by a thin piece of paper
o Alpha particles are heavy and move at low speeds.
When an element decays by emitting an alpha particle, its mass number decreases by
4 and its atomic number decreases by 2
o In general
𝐀 𝐀−𝟒 𝟒
𝐙𝐗 𝐙−𝟐 𝐗 + 𝟐𝐇𝐞
Answer:
𝟐𝟏𝟎 𝟐𝟎𝟔 𝟒
𝟖𝟒𝐏𝐨 𝟖𝟐 𝐏𝐛 + 𝟐𝐇𝐞
174
Practice Question
Uranium 238
92 U emits an alpha particle to become another element X, as shown in
o A beta particle is an electron emitted from the nucleus of an atom and is represented as :
𝟎
−𝟏𝒆
o Beta particles are negatively charged therefore they are deflected by both electric and
magnetic fields.
(i) In the electric field, they are deflected towards the positive plate.
(ii) In a magnetic field the direction of their deflection can be predicted by using the
Fleming’s left hand rule. The direction of the current (second finger) is opposite to
the direction that the beta particles are moving
o Beta particles have less ionizing powers compared to alpha particles. This is because
beta particles have smaller mass than alpha particles.
o Beta particles have fairly high penetrating powers. They can penetrate through paper but
can be stopped by a thin aluminium
o Beta particles are lighter compared to alpha particles, and they move at fairly high speed
When an element decays by emitting a beta particle, its mass number remains the
same, but its atomic number increases by 1.
o In general
𝐴 𝐴 𝟎
𝑍𝑋 𝑍+1𝑌 + −𝟏𝒆
175
Answer:
234 234 0
Th Pa + e
90 91 -1
Practice Question
The following reaction is part of a radioactive series. Identify the radiation x and determine
the values b and c
210 210 𝑐
83𝐴 𝑥 84𝐵 𝛼 𝑧𝑄
(i) Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves with very short wavelengths and high frequencies
(ii) Gamma rays have no mass
(iii) They are not charged therefore are not deflected by either magnetic or electric fields
(iv) Gamma rays cause little ionization
(v) Gamma rays have very high penetrating powers and the can pass through paper and
aluminium but can be stopped by thick block of lead metal.
When an element decays by emitting gamma rays its mass number and atomic
number remain the same.
Example
60 60
Co γ Co + γ
27 27
176
SUMMARY
A) PENETRATING POWERS
Half life is the time taken for half the number of nuclide initially present in a
radioactive sample to decay
LINEAR METHOD
o This involves dividing the initial mass / percentage / fraction by two after each half life.
o In general, if N0 is the initial mass, and t1/2 the half life, then:
Practice Question
What is the half-life of a radioactive material if its activity falls to 1/8 of its initial value in
3360 seconds? (Answer: 1120 seconds)
USING FORMULA
t
t1/2
N = 1
N0 2
Where:
If a radioactive isotope has a half-life of 2.5 hours how long will it take for 256 grams of the
isotope to decay to 32 grams?
Answer t
t1/2
N = 1
N0 2
t = 3
2.5
t = (2.5 x 3)
t = 7.5 hours
Practice Question
A radioactive isotope M decays by emitting two alpha and beta particles to form
214
What is the atomic number of M . After 224 days, 1/16 of mass of M remained.
83𝑌 .
Determine the half life of M.
(Answer: Atomic number of m = 87, half life = 56 days)
179
Example
t1 t2
o In Natural radioactivity the nucleus of the elements disintegrate on their own accord
Time (seconds)
t1 = 0 seconds t2 = 6.6 seconds
Practice Questions
The figure below shows the decay of a certain element M. From the graph find the half life
of element M (Answer: 50 seconds)
100
ACTIVITY (COUNTS PER MINUTE)
75
50
25
181
DETECTORS OF RADIATIONS
1. PHOTOGRAPHIC EMULSION
2. LEAF ELECTROSCOPE
This method is not suitable for beta and gamma radiations because they have low ionizing
powers
Sponge
o The air inside chamber is ionized by the radiation in its path. This leads to the formation of air ions
o Alcohol vapour condenses on these air ions forming droplets along the path i.e. forms some tracks
o Each radiation forms a definite pattern. The radiation is identified by analyzing the nature of the
patterns formed.
Tracks formed by alpha particles Tracks formed by beta particles Tracks formed by gamma rays
182
Note:
1. The Alcohol produces alcohol vapour which condenses on air ions to show trails of
radiation path
2. Dry ice (Solid carbon dioxide) cools the alcohol vapour below condensation
temperature
Anode Cathode
Pulse counter: A
scalar or ratemeter
2. The argon gas in the tube should be at low pressure so that it can be easily ionized by
the radiations.
4. The mica window is made thin so that it can allow penetration of radiation
183
APPLICATIONS OF RADIOACTIVITY
(a) IN MEDICINE:
1. Radioactive iodine 131 is used to monitor the function of thyroid gland
2. Radioactive sodium is used to monitor blood circulation
3. Gamma rays from cobalt 60 are used to sterilize surgical equipment
OTHER USES
HAZARDS OF RADIOACTIVITY
1. Cancer
2. Cell mutation
3. Skin burns
Precautions
(i) Radioactive elements should not be handled with bare hands. Forceps should be used instead
(ii) Radioactive materials should be stored in thick lead containers
(iii) Concrete walls should be used for rooms that store radioactive elements
184
Explain why long half life of nuclear waste products presents a health hazard
Answer
o If the half – life is long /large, the activity remains at a very high level for a very long
time resulting in a health hazard;
Nuclear fission is the splitting of a heavy nucleus to give smaller lighter nuclei
o Nuclear fission happens when a nuclei absorbs a neutron, and is usually accompanied by the
evolution of energy
Examples
235 1 147 87 1
U + n La + Br + 2 n + Energy
92 0 57 35 0
235 1 141 92 1
U + n Ba + Kr + 3 n + Energy
92 0 56 36 0
Nuclear fusion is the process in which light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus
o Nuclear fusion occurs when nuclei are made to collide at very high velocity, and is also
accompanied by the evolution of energy
Example
2 2 3 1
H + H He + n + Energy
1 1 2 0
BACKGROUND RADIATION
This is radiation due to a source other than that of a radioactive material under
consideration
185
Sources of background radiation
o Cosmic rays from outer space
o Radiations from the sun
o Some rocks which contain traces of a radioactive material e.g. granite
o Natural and artificial radioisotopes
NOTE: Background radiation count must be subtracted from the total count registered by a
detector to obtain the actual / correct count of the source
The activity of a radioactive element when measured using the Geiger Muller tube was found
to be 63 counts per minute. Given that the background radiation was 8 counts per minute,
determine:
Answer
(b) The half life of the element If the activity dropped from 128 counts/minute to 23
counts per minute in 6 hours
Answer
Actual Initial activity = (128 – 8)
= 120 counts per minute
Actual final activity = (23 – 8)
= 15 counts per minute
Using the linear method:
t1/2 t1/2 t1/2
120 60 30 15
3 t1/2 = 6 hour
t1/2 = 6
3
t1/2 = 2 hour
186
Practice Question
In an experiment to determine the half – life of the radioactive element, the following
data was obtained.
(a) Given that the background radiation is 10 counts per minute, Plot a decay curve
for the element.