Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET – 2022

OPEN MOCK TEST - 2 (Code-A)

Test Date : 19/06/2022

ANSWERS
1. (1) 41. (1) 81. (3) 121. (3) 161. (4)
2. (3) 42. (3) 82. (4) 122. (4) 162. (4)
3. (2) 43. (2) 83. (4) 123. (3) 163. (3)
4. (4) 44. (2) 84. (3) 124. (2) 164. (4)
5. (1) 45. (1) 85. (1) 125. (2) 165. (3)
6. (2) 46. (1) 86. (4) 126. (3) 166. (2)
7. (2) 47. (3) 87. (3) 127. (3) 167. (3)
8. (3) 48. (4) 88. (3) 128. (4) 168. (4)
9. (4) 49. (2) 89. (4) 129. (2) 169. (3)
10. (1) 50. (1) 90. (2) 130. (2) 170. (2)
11. (4) 51. (3) 91. (2) 131. (3) 171. (3)
12. (3) 52. (2) 92. (3) 132. (4) 172. (2)
13. (1) 53. (2) 93. (2) 133. (3) 173. (4)
14. (3) 54. (1) 94. (3) 134. (2) 174. (2)
15. (4) 55. (1) 95. (2) 135. (4) 175. (3)
16. (2) 56. (3) 96. (2) 136. (3) 176. (3)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (2) 137. (2) 177. (3)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (3) 138. (4) 178. (1)
19. (4) 59. (3) 99. (1) 139. (1) 179. (2)
20. (1) 60. (3) 100. (1) 140. (2) 180. (3)
21. (2) 61. (1) 101. (3) 141. (2) 181. (2)
22. (4) 62. (3) 102. (1) 142. (4) 182. (2)
23. (1) 63. (3) 103. (3) 143. (3) 183. (2)
24. (1) 64. (2) 104. (3) 144. (1) 184. (1)
25. (4) 65. (4) 105. (4) 145. (2) 185. (4)
26. (2) 66. (3) 106. (2) 146. (2) 186. (3)
27. (2) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (2) 187. (4)
28. (4) 68. (2) 108. (3) 148. (1) 188. (2)
29. (3) 69. (1) 109. (4) 149. (2) 189. (3)
30. (4) 70. (2) 110. (2) 150. (4) 190. (3)
31. (2) 71. (4) 111. (2) 151. (2) 191. (1)
32. (1) 72. (2) 112. (3) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33. (4) 73. (4) 113. (1) 153. (4) 193. (2)
34. (1) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (1) 194. (2)
35. (3) 75. (3) 115. (3) 155. (2) 195. (3)
36. (1) 76. (2) 116. (3) 156. (3) 196. (3)
37. (2) 77. (1) 117. (2) 157. (3) 197. (1)
38. (4) 78. (4) 118. (1) 158. (3) 198. (3)
39. (3) 79. (3) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (1)
40. (2) 80. (3) 120. (2) 160. (2) 200. (2)
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION-A 2 2
∴ T ′= T= × 6= 4 3 s
1. Answer (1) 3 3
∆V ∆r = 6.93 s
Hint: = 3×
V r 6. Answer (2)
4 3 Hint: At centre of mass, moment of inertia is
Sol.: V= πr minimum.
3
Sol.: I = 8x2 – 4x + 2
∆V ∆r
=3 For minimum moment of inertia,
V r
dI
∆V = 16=x–4 0
× 100 =3 × 1.5 =4.5% dx
V
1
2. Answer (3) ⇒ x= = 0.25 m
4
Hint: Galileo law of old numbers.
7. Answer (2)
Sol.: h1 : h2 : h3 = 1 : 3 : 5
Hint: Parallel and series combination of capacitors.
⇒ h1 = x, h2 = 3x, h3 = 5x Sol.: Three 3 µF capacitors are in series and their
h equivalent combination is in parallel to 1 µF
Given, h1 + h2 = h ⇒ 4x = h ⇒ x =
4 capacitor
5h 3
Cnet = + 1 = 2 µF
⇒ 3 5=
h= x = 1.25h 3
4
3. Answer (2) 8. Answer (3)
Hint: Use current division rule in parallel
d 2x d 2y combination of resistors
=
Hint: ax = and ay
dt 2 dt 2 Sol.: Simplified circuit diagram.
d 2 (4t 2 ) d  d (4t 2 )  2
Sol.:
= ax = =  8 m/s
dt 2 dt  dt 
 

d 2 (8t ) d  d (8t ) 
=ay = =  0
dt 2 dt  dt 
So, a = 8 m/s2
inet = 2 A + 2 A = 4 A
4. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol: A vector can be resolved into infinite 3
Rnet = 2 + 1 + = 4.5 Ω
number of components. 2
5. Answer (1) V = inet Rnet = 4 × 4.5 = 18 V
9. Answer (4)
l
Hint: T = 2π 13.6 nh
geff Hint: En =
− eV and L =
2 2π
n
l –13.6
Sol.: Case 1: T = 2π Sol.: −3.4 = ⇒ n2 = 4 ⇒ n = 2
g n 2

l 2  l  nh h 3h
Case 2: T ′ =
2π =  2π  ⇒ L= = =
g – g /4 3 g  2π π 3 π

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

10. Answer (1) 16. Answer (2)

1  1 1  V
Hint & Sol.: P = = (µ − 1)  −  Hint: irms = rms
f  R1 R2  Z
• R1 and R2 remains unchanged when cut along Sol.:
= Z R 2 + ( X L – XC )2
principal axis.
• When biconvex lens is cut perpendicular to Z=22 + (4 – 2)2 =
2 2Ω
principal axis radius of curvature becomes
infinity on the surface which is cut. 220/ 2 220
⇒ i=
rms = = 55 A
11. Answer (4) 2 2 4
Hint & Sol.: In case of motion of charged particle 17. Answer (3)
in magnetic field, kinetic energy remain same. The
1
velocity and linear momentum, however keeps on Hint: < u >= ε E2
changing. 2 0 rms
12. Answer (3) 2
1  20 
Sol.: < u >= ε0  
g 2  2
Hint: g ′ =
(1 + h /R )2
8.85 × 10 –12
Sol.: At height h = R = × 200
2
g g = 8.85 × 10–10 J/m3
=g′ =
2 4
(1 + R /R ) 18. Answer (2)
mg ′ 1 Hint: a = µg
= ⇒ mg =4 × mg ′
mg 4
Sol.: a = µg = 0.2 × g = 2 m/s2
= 960 N Final speed of block = 10 m/s
13. Answer (1)
10 = 2 × t ⇒ t = 5 s
Hint & Sol.: For each degree of freedom, average
Distance travelled w.r.t. ground
1
thermal kinetic energy is equal to kBT
2 1 2 1
= at = × (2)(5)2 =
25 m
(irrespective of atomicity) 2 2
14. Answer (3) 19. Answer (4)
B Hint & Sol.: Inside a uniformly charged spherical
Hint: tanδ = V
BH shell, the electric field is zero in electrostatic
condition.
BV 3
Sol.: tan(37°) = ⇒ Bv = 0.2 × 20. Answer (1)
0.2 4
3
 A + δm 
sin  
⇒ B=
v = 0.15 G  2 
20 Hint: µ =
A
15. Answer (4) sin  
2
Hint & Sol.: This is an OR gate
 60° + δm 
A B Y sin  
 2 
Sol.: 2=
0 0 0 sin (60°/2)
0 1 1 On solving, δm = 30°
1 0 1 Also, δm = 2i – A = 2i – 60° = 30°
1 1 1 ⇒ i = 45°
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

21. Answer (2) 26. Answer (2)

nλD Hint: As per Kepler’s law T2 ∝ R3
Hint: ymax =
d Sol.: T2 ∝ R3
λD T′2 ∝ (2R)3
ymin = (n – 1/2)
d T ′  3/2
⇒ =
T  (=
2) 2 2
λD  
Sol.: yI max =
d 27. Answer (2)
 1  λ D 5λ D Hint & Sol.: For adiabatic compression
=
yIII min =3– 
 2  d 2d ∆Q = 0, ∆W < 0
5λ D λ D 3λ D Also ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
=∆y = –
2d d 2d ⇒ ∆U = – ∆W > 0
3 × λ (2D )  3λ D  28. Answer (4)
∆y ′ = =4   = 4 ∆y
2(d /2)  2d  ∆Q kA∆T
Hint: =
22. Answer (4) ∆t L

dW  ∆Q   ∆Q 
Hint: Power = Sol.:   = 
dt  ∆t C → A  ∆t B → C

dW d (4t 2 ) kA (TC – 20) kA (100 – TC )

Sol.:=
P = ⇒ =
dt dt 3L L
⇒ P = 8t ⇒ TC = 80°C
At t = 2 s, P = 16 W 29. Answer (3)
23. Answer (1) (F /A)
Hint: Y =
P P ( ∆l /l )
=
Hint: I =
area 4πr 2 1
Energy = stress × strain × volume
16π 2
Sol.: I =
4π(100)2 Stress Stress Mg
Sol.:
= Y ⇒ Strain = =
= 4 × 10–4 W/m2 Strain Y AY
24. Answer (1) 1 Mg Mg
⇒ Energy = × × × Al
2 A AY
Z2
Hint: T.E. = −13.6
n2 M 2g 2l
=
Sol.: For 1st excited state of singly ionised He- 2 AY
atom 30. Answer (4)
(n = 2, Z = 2) Hint & Sol.: 29.68 → as digit to be dropped is
⇒ T.E. = –13.6 eV = E greater than five. Thus the preceding digit is
U increased by one.
Also T.E. = = −K.E.
2 3.762 → as digit to be dropped is less than five.
Thus the preceding digit is left unchanged.
⇒ K.E. = –E and U = 2E
So numbers are reported as 29.7 and 3.76
25. Answer (4)
31. Answer (2)
Hint: Use equation of continuity  
Sol.: A1v1 + A2v2 = A3v3 Hint: | A ⋅ =
B | AB cos θ
 
⇒ 2A + 5 × (2A) = v(3A) | A × B=| AB sin θ
⇒ v = 4 m/s
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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

 
|A⋅B| Green → 5
Sol.: cos θ =
AB Blue → 6
  Silver → 10%
|A×B|
sin θ = So, R = 25 × 106 Ω ± 10%
AB
= 2.5 × 107 Ω ± 10%
So, given expression is
37. Answer (2)
sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
12.27
32. Answer (1) Hint: For electron λ = Å
V
Hint: For closed organ pipe
Sol.: Initial Energy of electron is 120 eV,
nv i.e. accelerated through a potential difference of
f =
nth harmonic 4l 120 V.
For open organ pipe 12.27 12.27
=λ =
nv 120 + 49 169
f =
nth harmonic 2l 12.27
= = 0.94 Å
Sol.: Second overtone of open pipe is equal to 13
third harmonic 38. Answer (4)
v 3v f
so, = Hint & Sol.: For a lens, m =
4l 2l0 f +u
⇒ l0 = 6l 10
⇒ −2 =
33. Answer (4) 10 + u
N ⇒ 10 + u = – 5 ⇒ u = – 15 cm
Hint: N = n0
2 39. Answer (3)
n : number of half lives Ldi
Hint: e =
N0 N0 dt
Sol.: =
N =
23 8 (6 – (–2))
Sol.: 2= L ×
10
N0 – N
Decayed fraction : 8
N0 ⇒ 2= L ×
10
N0 20
N0 – ⇒ =
L = 2.5 H
= 8 8
N0
40. Answer (2)
7 2πm
= Hint & Sol.: T =
8 qB
34. Answer (1) Thus T ∝ v0
Hint & Sol.: The band gap in germanium and 41. Answer (1)
silicon in eV are 0.7 and 1.1 respectively. Hint: Series and parallel combination of
35. Answer (3) resistances
Hint & Sol.: Power = Intensity × Area 2 × 6 12 3
Sol.: RAB= = = Ω
= 15 × 4 = 60 W 2+6 8 2
SECTION-B 4×4
36. Answer (1)
RAC= = 2Ω
4+4
Hint & Sol.: From color coding of carbon resistors
RAB 3
Red → 2 ∴ = = :2 3:4
RAC 2

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

42. Answer (3) 45. Answer (1)

kQ dx dv
Hint: E = 2 Hint:
= v = ,a
r dt dt
F = ma
9 × 109 × Q
Sol.: E = 4
= dx
0.42 Sol.: =
v = 3t 2 – 24
dt
⇒ Q = 7.11 × 10–11 C
dv
Now,=
a = 6t
43. Answer (2) dt
Hint & Sol. F = ma = 4 × 6t = 24t
• Diode and half wave rectifier will trim half of At t = 2 s
the current F = 24 × 2 = 48 N
46. Answer (1)
 
Hint: W
= ∫F ⋅d r

r dxiˆ + dyjˆ
Sol.: d=
(0, 2)
=W ∫ ( xy 2dx + yx 2dy )
 T I (1, 2)
Irms  0 to  = 0
 2 2 (0, 2) 0, 2
d(x2y 2 )  x2y 2 
T 
= = ∫ 2  
 2 1, 2
Irms  toT  = 0 (1, 2)
2 
=0–2=–2J
2
 I0  2 47. Answer (3)
  +0
 2 2
⇒ Irms (0 to T ) = Hint: I = mR 2
2 5
I0 2
= m1R12
I1 5
2 Sol.: =
I2 2
• Full wave rectifier and resistor will not trim the m R2
5 2 2
I
current so, Irms = 0 . m1R12
2 =
m2R22
44. Answer (2)
4 
Hint: Motion under gravity δ  π R13  R12
3
Sol.: =  
4 3 2
δ  πR2  R2
3 
5
R  1
⇒  1 =
R
 2 x5
48. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Vertical height of water column
remains same.
1 l sin37° = h = 6
dnet = d1 + d2 = g (0.72 + 0.32 )
2 5
⇒ I =6× =10 cm
= 2.9 m 3

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

49. Answer (2) 50. Answer (1)

Hint: P = σAT 4
Hint & Sol.: ∆v = area of a-t graph
4 4
P2  T2   273 + 273 
=
Sol.: =    1
P1  T1   273  v −0 = × 20 × 2
2
= 24 = 16
v = 20 m/s
⇒ P2 = 16P

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A 57. Answer (3)
51. Answer (3) Hint & Sol: Terrestrial hydrogen contains
Hint: Ratio of number of atoms in closed packed 0.0156% of deuterium in the form of HD
lattice to tetrahedral voids = 1 : 2.
58. Answer (2)
Sol.: Each HCP unit cell contains 6 atoms
therefore, number of tetrahedral voids will be 12. Hint: Alkanes on heating with a regulated supply
52. Answer (2) of dioxygen at high pressure and in presence of
suitable catalyst gives various oxidation products.
Hint: Mn+ has 4s13d5 outer electronic
configuration. Mo2O3
Sol: CH4 + O2  → HCHO+ H2O
∆ Methanal
Sol.: Conversion of Mn+ into Mn2+ involves
removal of electron from 4s1 therefore exchange 59. Answer (3)
energy remains same in Mn+ and Mn2+ ions. Hint: At 1200 K, BeCl2 exists as a linear monomer.
53. Answer (2)
Sol.: In BeCl2, Hybridisation of Be is sp and
Hint: At constant pressure, V ∝ T number of electrons around Be is 4
Sol.: According to Charles’ law
Cl – Be – Cl
nR
V = KT where K is proportionality constant = 60. Answer (3)
P
Hint: Methyl ketones in presence of dilute alkali
Therefore lesser is the pressure, greater is the
slope of V-T graph undergoes aldol condensation.
54. Answer (1) Sol.:
Hint: Tyndall effect is shown by colloidal solutions.
Sol.: Among the given options except urea all are
colloidal solutions therefore urea solution being a
true solution does not show Tyndall effect.
55. Answer (1)
Hint: H = U + PV
Sol.:  H = U + PV

H = U + nRT [ PV = nRT]

∴ ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
56. Answer (3) 61. Answer (1)
Hint: B2H6.2NH3 can be written as Hint: Cheilosis is fissuring at corners of mouth and
[BH2(NH3)2] [BH4]
+ – lips.
Sol.: 3B2H6 + 6NH3 → 3[BH2(NH3)2]+[BH4]– Sol.: Cheilosis is caused due to deficiency of
Heat
 → 2B3N3H6 + 12H2 vitamin B2.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

62. Answer (3) Sol.: λ = 5800 Å = 5800 × 10–10 m

1 ° c 3 × 108 ms –1
Hint: Λ°mCH3COOH = Λm (CH3COO)2 Ca ν= = = 5.172 × 1014 s –1
2 λ 5800 × 10 –10 m
1 = 5.172 × 1014 Hz
– Λ°m (CaCl2 ) + Λ°m (HCl)
2 68. Answer (2)
Sol.: Using Kohlrausch’s Law Hint: For the salt of weak acid and weak base
200.8 271.6 pK b pK a
Λ°mCH3COOH= – + 426.16 =pH 7 – +
2 2 2 2
= 390.76 S cm2 mol–1 Sol.: pKa = 3.74, pKb = 4.75
63. Answer (3) 4.75 3.74
pH
= 7– + = 6.49
Hint: Lanthanoids and actinoids are metallic in 2 2
nature.
69. Answer (1)
Sol.:
Hint: ∆Tf = iKf.m
● Due to metallic nature, lanthanoid hydroxides
are basic in nature. 0.1 4
Sol.: ( ∆Tf )NaCl =2 × K f × × 1000 = K f
 Actinoids are highly reactive metals.
250 5
● Due to high reactivity, lanthanoids reacts 0.1 6
(∆Tf )CaCl2 =3 × K f × × 1000 = K f
rapidly in air. 250 5
 Ce4+/Ce3+ can oxidise water but the reaction 0.1
rate is very slow hence Ce(IV) is a good ( ∆Tf )Ca3 (PO4 )2 =5 × K f × × 1000 =2K f
250
analytical reagent.
64. Answer (2) 4
T1 =
(Tf )NaCl =
–( ∆Tf )NaCl =
– Kf
Hint: Cl2 water on standing forms HCl and HOCl 5
Sol.: –6
T2 =
(Tf )CaCl2 =
–( ∆Tf )CaCl2 = Kf
● Due to the conversion of Cl2 into HCl and 5
HOCl, it loses its yellow colour. T3 =
(Tf )Ca3 (PO4 )2 =
–( ∆Tf )Ca3 (PO4 )2 =
–2K f
 HOCl so formed gives nascent oxygen which
Freezing point order : T1 > T2 > T3
is responsible for bleaching properties of Cl2.
70. Answer (2)
65. Answer (4)
Hint: In end-centred unit cell, constituent particles
Hint: Numbering should be done in such a way
are present at all the corners and at centre of any
that double bond and substituents get lowest
two opposite faces.
number possible
Sol.: Orthorhombic and monoclinic systems
contain end-centred unit cells.
Sol.:
71. Answer (4)
Hint: Higher temperature range of blast furnace is
2,6- Dimethyldec -3-ene 900-1500 K.
66. Answer (3) Sol.:
Hint: Halogenation of alkanes is supposed to ● At 500-800 K (lower temperature range in the
proceed via free radical mechanism. blast furnace)
Sol.: Rate of reaction of alkanes with halogens is
3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3 O4 + CO2
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
67. Answer (1) Fe3 O4 + 4CO → 3Fe + 4CO2
c Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2
Hint: ν =
λ
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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

● At 900-1500 K (Higher temperature range in 76. Answer (2)

the blast furnace)
Hint & Sol: Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum
C + CO2 → 2CO antibiotic while penicillin G has a narrow spectrum.
FeO + CO → Fe + CO2 77. Answer (1)
72. Answer (2) Hint: SCN– ion is an ambidentate ligand
Hint: ∆H = (Ea)f – (Ea)b Sol.:
Sol.: ∆H = 4.2 – 6.4 = –2.2 kJ mol–1 ● SCN– ion can coordinate through either
 Given reaction is exothermic sulphur or nitrogen atom.
∴ In exothermic reaction, potential energy of
●
reactant will be greater than potential energy
of product

(EDTA) ion is hexadentate ligand

● NO2– can coordinate through nitrogen or
oxygen atom

73. Answer (4)

Hint: Alcohols and ethers are functional group ● , is didentate ligand.
isomers of each other
Sol.:
 CH4 O : CH3OH only 78. Answer (4)
 C4 H10 O : Hint: Zone refining is used when impurities are
more soluble in the melt than in the solid state of
C2H5 – O – C2H5, C4H9 – OH
the metal.
 C3H8 O :
Sol.:
C2H5 – O – CH3, C3H7 – OH
● Distillation is useful for low boiling metals like
 C2H6 O :
Zn and Hg
CH3 – O – CH3, C2H5 – OH ● Zone refining is useful for producing high
74. Answer (3) purity semiconductor and other metals
Hint: Alkoxides are strong bases along with strong
● Chromatography is very useful for purification
nucleophile.
of the elements which are available in minute
Sol.: The major product of the given reaction is 2-
Methylprop-1-ene. Elimination reaction quantities
predominates over substitution ● Electrolytic refining can be used for Zn and Cu
79. Answer (3)
Hint: Only primary amines give carbylamine
reaction
Sol.: Carbylamine reaction:
75. Answer (3)
Hint: Reduction and oxidation of same species ● R – NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH →
simultaneously is known as disproportionation R – NC + 3KCl + 3H2O
reaction.
● (CH3)3C – NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH →
–1 −2 0
Sol.: H2 O2 → H2 O + O2 (CH3)3C – NC + 3KCl + 3H2O
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

80. Answer (3) Sol.:

Hint: All alkaline earth metal nitrate decompose on ● PCl3
heating to give NO2 gas
Sol.:
∆
● 4LiNO3  → 2Li2O + 4NO2 + O2

● ∆
2Ca(NO3 )2  → 2CaO + 4NO2 + O2 P has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair in PCl3
therefore, shape of PCl3 molecule is pyramidal
∆
● 2Ba(NO3 )2  → 2BaO + 4NO2 + O2 ● SCl4
∆ 1
● KNO3  → KNO2 + O2
2
81. Answer (3)
Hint: Angle of rotation about C – C bond is known
as torsional or dihedral angle. S has 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair in SCl4
Sol.: Of all conformations of ethane, the staggered therefore, shape of SCl4 molecule is see-saw
form has maximum torsional angle and eclipsed ● BrF3
form has least torsional angle.
Order of torsional angle : Staggered > Skew >
Eclipsed
82. Answer (4)
Br has 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs in BrF3
n 1 (VCO2 )STP therefore, shape of BrF3 molecule is bent
Hint: C= ×
nH 2 (VH2O )STP T-shaped
● XeF4
nC 11.2 1
Sol.:  = ×
nH 16.8 2

1
=
3 Xe has 4 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs in XeF4
∴ Empirical formula of hydrocarbon is therefore, shape of XeF4 molecule is square
planar
C1H3 or CH3
SECTION-B
83. Answer (4)
86. Answer (4)
Hint: In XX3′ , the oxidation state of larger halogen
Hint: For spontaneous process ∆G should be
(i.e. X) is +3 while of smaller halogen (i.e. X′) is –1 negative.
Sol.: XX3′ + 2H2O → 3HX′ + HXO2 Sol.: If ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 then ∆G will be negative
Halous
acid
only at low temperature.
87. Answer (3)
84. Answer (3)
Hint: [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O is a hydrate isomer of
Hint: Tensile strength of fibres are very high [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
Sol.: Sol.:
● Polythene, polystyrene and polyvinyl chloride ● Square planar complexes of formula MX2L2 (X
are thermoplastic polymer and L are unidentate ligands) show cis and
● Polyester (terylene) is a fibre trans isomerism

85. Answer (1)

Hint: Shape of molecule depends on total number
of electron pairs present on central atom.
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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

● Octahedral complexes of formula [Ma3b3] can 92. Answer (3)

show facial and meridional isomerism Hint: Methemoglobinemia is blue baby syndrome
Sol.:
● Excessive sulphate (> 500 ppm) in drinking
water causes laxative effect
● Excess lead (> 500 ppb) in drinking water can
cause kidney damage
● Excess nitrate (> 50 ppm) in drinking water
can cause methemoglobinemia
● [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br are
ionisation isomers of each other ● Excess fluorides (> 2 ppm) in drinking water
88. Answer (3) can causes brown mottling of teeth
Hint: NaBH4 cannot reduce ester group to alcohol 93. Answer (2)
Sol.: 0.0591 [Mg2+ ]
Hint: Ecell = Eocell – log
2 [Cu2+ ]
0.0591 (0.001)
Sol.: Ecell = 2.7 – log = 2.729
2 (0.01)
89. Answer (4)
Hint: H-X bond dissociation enthalpy decreases J 2.73 V
down the group in hydrogen halide. 94. Answer (3)
Sol.: Weaker is the H-X bond, stronger is the Hint: pSO2 = PTotal .x SO2
acidic character.
Acidic character order : HF < HCl < HBr < HI w w
=
Sol.: nSO2 = , nCH4
90. Answer (2) 64 16
Hint: Given reaction is iodoform reaction w
nSO2 64 1
Sol.: x SO2
= = =
nSO2 + nCH4 w w 5
+
64 16
91. Answer (2)
1
1 pSO2 = PTotal .xSO2 = 10 × = 2atm
Hint: Bond order = (nBMO – nABMO ) 5
2
95. Answer (2)
Sol.:
o
 π2 p  π 2 p
2 * 1 Hint: PA = PA x A
● O2+ (15e− ) =
σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2 pz2  x2  * x0
 π2 py  π 2 py PB = PBo xB
1 Sol.: P= PAo x= P= PBo xB
BO = (10 – 5) = 2.5 A A B
2
x A PBo
=
● O2 16e( –
)= 2 2 2
σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s
* * 2
, σ2 pz2
 π2 px2  π* 2 p1x
 π2 p2  π* 2 p1
 y y
xB PAo

1 nA PBo 100 2
BO = (10 – 6) = 2 = = =
2 nB PAo 250 5

● O2– (17e− ) =  π2 p  π 2 p 2 * 2
96. Answer (2)
σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 ,σ* 2s 2 ,σ2 pz2  x2  * 1x
π 2 py π 2 py
  Hint: For isoelectronic ionic species, ionic radii
1 decreases with increase in atomic numbers.
BO = (10 – 7) = 1.5 Sol.: Ionic radii : O2− > F – > Mg2+ > Al3 +
2
 π2 p  π 2 p 2 * 2 Greater the negative charge, larger is the ionic
● O22– (18e− ) =
σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 ,σ* 2s 2 ,σ2 pz2  x2  * x2 radii.
π 2 py π 2 py
 
97. Answer (2)
1 Hint: Protection of -NH2 group is done by
BO = (10 – 8) = 1
2 acetylation reaction
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.: k = Ae –Ea /RT

Sol.: Ea  1 
Ink
= InA −
R  T 
Y = C + mX
–Ea 1
∴ slope m = for plot of In k vs
R T
100. Answer (1)
NaOH
Hint: RCOONa 
CaO
→R − H
∆
98. Answer (3)
Hint: In vigorous oxidation of alkyl benzene with Decarboxylation reaction
alkaline potassium permanganate, the entire chain Sol.:
is oxidised to the carboxylic group ● R – X + R′ONa → R – O – R′

Sol.: (Williamson synthesis)

99. Answer (1) ●

Hint: k = Ae –Ea /RT

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 105. Answer (4)
101. Answer (3) Hint: Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus
Hint: Constricted pod is a recessive trait. thuringiensis.
Sol.: Recessive traits express only in homozygous Sol.: B. thuringiensis is of insecticidal application.
condition. 106. Answer (2)
102. Answer (1) Hint: Habitat loss and fragmentation is the major
Hint: Topoisomerase is an enzyme, employed cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
during replication of DNA.
Sol.: Passenger pigeon became extinct mainly
Sol.: 5SrRNA is synthesied by RNA polymerase due to overexploitation.
III.
107. Answer (2)
103. Answer (3)
Hint: Diatoms are chief producers of oceans.
Hint: Mitochondria is double membrane bound
organelle and it is found in eukaryotes. Sol.: Cell wall of diatoms is impregnated with
silica.
Sol.: Oxysomes are present in mitochondria. SER
helps in steroid synthesis. 108. Answer (3)
104. Answer (3) Hint: Deuteromycetes are known as ‘imperfect
Hint: During Metaphase-I, bivalent chromosomes fungi’.
align themselves on the equatorial plates. Sol.: Puccinia and Ustilago belong to
Sol.: Double metaphasic plates are formed in basidiomycetes. Claviceps is a sac-fungi.
Metaphase-I. Trichoderma is a member of deuteromycetes.
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109. Answer (4) 119. Answer (3)

Hint: Sapindales is the order which includes the Hint: Facilitated diffusion requires special
members of family Anacardiaceae. membrane proteins.
Sol.: Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are Sol.: Facilitated diffusion occurs along the
included in order Polymoniales. concentration gradient.
110. Answer (2) 120. Answer (2)
Hint: Herbarium is used as quick referral system Hint: Breakdown of detritus by detritivores into
for plants. smaller particles is known as fragmentation.
Sol.: Museum has collection of preserved plants Sol.: Catabolism is carried out by saprotrophic
and animals. bacteria and fungi. They secrete digestive
enzymes over the fragmented detritus. The
111. Answer (2)
enzyme change complex organic compound into
Hint: Leaves in guava arise in pair at each node simple compound.
and lie opposite to each other.
121. Answer (3)
Sol.: China rose and mustard show alternate
Hint: Rhizobium is a nitrogen fixing bacteria.
phyllotaxy.
Sol.:
112. Answer (3)
• Nitrosomonas/Nitrococcus oxidises ammonia
Hint: Scutellum is a large, shield shaped to nitrites.
cotyledon.
• Nitrobacter/Nitrocystis oxidises nitrite to
Sol.: Scutellum is mainly seen in monocot seeds. nitrate.
113. Answer (1) 122. Answer (4)
Hint: Parenchyma helps in photosynthesis, Hint: Rhizobium forms nodules in leguminous
storage and secretion. plants
Sol.: Sclerenchyma consists of long and narrow Sol.: Frankia forms nodules in non-legume plants
cells with thick and lignified cell wall. such as Alnus.
114. Answer (3) 123. Answer (3)
Hint: Parenchyma forms major part of various Hint: NADH + H+ is formed during conversion of
organs in plants. isocitrate to oxalosuccinic acid.
Sol.: Companion cells are present in Sol.: GTP is formed during the conversion of
angiosperms. Succinyl-CoA to succinic acid.
115. Answer (3) 124. Answer (2)
Hint: Phellogen is called cork cambium. Hint: Cytochrome ‘C’ oxidase is complex IV.
Sol.: Secondary cortex is also known as Sol.: Oxygen receives the electrons from complex
phelloderm. IV and combines with protons to form metabolic
116. Answer (3) water.
Hint: Chlorophyceae has chl a and b as major 125. Answer (2)
pigments. Hint.: Jan Ingenhousz showed that in presence of
Sol.: Members of Rhodophyceae store food in the sunlight it is only the green parts of the plants that
form of floridean starch. could release oxygen.
117. Answer (2) Sol.: Jan Ingenhousz through his experiments
showed that sunlight is essential for the plant
Sol.: Selaginella is a member of class Lycopsida. process that helps to somehow purify the air fouled
118. Answer (1) by breathing mouse and burning candle.
Hint: Pollen grains are found in gymnosperms and 126. Answer (3)
angiosperms. Hint: 6 CO2 molecules are required to form 1
Sol.: All gymnosperms and angiosperms have glucose molecule.
diplontic life cycle. Fucus also shows diplontic life Sol.: For production of 6 glucose molecules, 36
cycle. CO2 molecules will be used.
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127. Answer (3) SECTION - B

Hint: OAA is a 4 carbon compound. 136. Answer (3)
Sol.: First stable product in C4 plant i.e., Hint: SER synthesizes the lipids and steroidal
sugarcane is OAA. hormones.
128. Answer (4) Sol.: Nucleolus is the main site for rRNA
Hint: ABA is also known as stress hormone. synthesis.
Sol.: ABA induces the closure of stomata. 137. Answer (2)
129. Answer (2)
Hint: Two bases are held together by hydrogen
Hint: In monoecious plants, ethylene may change bonds.
the sex of developing flowers.
Sol.: N-Glycosidic bond holds together the
Sol.: Ethylene promotes the female flowers in
pentose sugar and nitrogenous base.
cucumber.
138. Answer (4)
130. Answer (2)
Hint: Life span of crocodile is 60 years. Hint: Endomembrane system includes ER, Golgi
bodies, lysosomes and vacuole.
Sol.: Life span of crow is 15 years.
131. Answer (3) Sol.: Mitochondria is involved in ETS.
Hint: Hydra reproduces mainly through budding. 139. Answer (1)
Sol.: Penicillium reproduces through conidia Hint: Poly A tail is added to 3′ end of hnRNA
formation. during post-transcriptional modification in
132. Answer (4) eukaryotes.
Hint: Middle layers are ephemeral. Sol.: Poly A polymerase catalyses addition of
Sol.: Tapetum provides nourishment to adenylate residues at 3′ end of hnRNA.
developing pollen grains. 140. Answer (2)
133. Answer (3)
Hint: Streptokinase has been commercialised as
Hint: During eutrophication, DO level of water ‘clot buster’
decreases.
Sol.: Streptokinase is produced by Streptococcus.
Sol.: Due to nutrient enrichment in water, ageing
of lake occurs and process is called 141. Answer (2)
eutrophication. Hint: Karan Rai is a disease resistant variety of
134. Answer (2) Brassica.
Hint: Phenylketonuria, colourblindness and Sol.: Himgiri is a disease resistant variety of
thalassemia are Mendelian disorders. wheat.
Sol.: ABO blood group exemplifies multiple Pusa Shubhra and Pusa Komal are disease
allelism and co-dominance both. resistant varieties of cauliflower and cowpea,
135. Answer (4) respectively.
Hint: Colourblindness and haemophilia are X- 142. Answer (4)
linked recessive disorders.
Hint: Reproduction is not seen in sterile organisms
Sol.:
like worker bees.
Xh X Sol.: Reproduction is a characteristic feature of
X
c
XX
c h
XXc living organism.
Y XY
h
XY 143. Answer (3)

XcXh – Carrier female for both disorders Sol.: Thylacine got recently extinct from Australia.
XcX – Carrier female for colourblindness 144. Answer (1)
X Y – Haemophilic son
h Sol.: Mycoplasma is the smallest living cell known
XY – Normal son and they lack cell wall.

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145. Answer (2) Sol.:

Hint: Regulators are able to maintain homeostasis Producers → Grasshopper → Birds → man
by physiological as well as behavioural means
1000 kcal → 100 kcal → 10 kcal → 1 kcal
which ensure constant body temperature and
constant osmotic concentration 149. Answer (2)
Sol.: Rat, human and crow are regulators. Hint: Embryo sac of angiosperms is 7 celled and
146. Answer (2) 8 nucleate structure.

Hint: In competition, both of the interacting Sol.: Female gametophyte contains three celled
species are affected. egg apparatus and three antipodals at chalazal
end.
Sol.: In parasitism and Predation, one of the
interacting species is benefitted. 150. Answer (4)
147. Answer (2) Hint: Good ozone is present in upper part of the
Sol.: Iron activates the catalase enzyme. atmosphere.
148. Answer (1) Sol.: Ozone present in troposphere is a secondary
pollutant and is called bad ozone.
Hint: Plants trap 1% of solar energy and only 10%
of the energy of previous trophic level is received Snow-blindness is inflammation of cornea and it is
by next trophic level. caused due to high dose of UV-B.

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A Sol.:
151. Answer (2) First movements of foetus – Fifth month
Hint: It is a multi-layered structure. Foetus develops limbs – End of second
Sol.: During unfavorable conditions, Amoeba, and digits month
withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a three-
Embryo's heart is formed – End of first month
layered hard covering or cyst around itself. This
phenomenon is termed as encystation. Foetus’ body is covered – End of second
with fine hair, eye-lids trimester
152. Answer (3)
separate and eyelashes
Hint: In reptiles, males have copulatory organ. are formed
Sol.: Organisms that exhibit external fertilisation,
155. Answer (2)
show great synchrony between the sexes and
Hint: Hormone synthesized from both ovary and
release a large number of gametes into the
placenta.
surrounding medium (water) in order to enhance
the chances of syngamy, e.g., bony fishes and Sol.: The maximum concentration of estrogen is
during puberty. Later on it shows a cyclic rise and
frogs. Reptiles, birds and mammals exhibit internal
fall during menstrual cycle. It helps in growth and
fertilisation.
maturation of follicles. Prolactin is also released in
153. Answer (4) non-pregnant females. hCG, hPL and relaxin are
Hint: It is a non-reducing disaccharide. released only during pregnancy.
Sol.: The male sex accessory glands are: seminal 156. Answer (3)
vesicles, prostate gland and bulbourethral glands. Hint: LH and FSH are secreted by pituitary gland.
Secretions of these glands constitute seminal Sol.: During follicular phase of menstrual cycle,
plasma, which is rich in fructose, calcium and the granulosa cells of growing follicles secrete
certain enzymes. estrogen. Increased secretion of oestrogen
154. Answer (1) induces production of GnRH by hypothalamus.
This in turn induces secretion of LH from pituitary,
Hint: The first sign of a growing foetus may be leading to LH surge and rupture of Graafian follicle
noticed by listening to the heart sound. to release secondary oocyte (ovulation).
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157. Answer (3) Darwin's finches are great examples of adaptive

Hint: Mechanism of action is similar to radiation and founder's effect.
progestasert. The original ancestors of Darwin's finches were
Sol.: Hormone releasing IUDs like progestasert, seed eating.
LNG-20 increase phagocytosis of sperms, make 161. Answer (4)
the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the Hint: They develop from Pelycosaurs (extinct).
cervix hostile to the sperms.
Sol.:
Non-medicated IUDs like Lippes loop increase
phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
Copper releasing IUDs like CuT, Cu7 and
Multiload 375 release Cu ions which suppress
sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of
sperms.
158. Answer (3)
Hint: Natural method of contraception not included
Sol.: Complications associated with STIs due to
delay in treatment – infertility, ectopic pregnancy,
abortion, still birth, cancer of reproductive tract.
Periodic abstinence – It is a natural method of
contraception.
MTP (medical termination of pregnancy) – It is the
intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy
before full term.
159. Answer (2)
Hint: In this, fertilisation occurs in vivo.
Sol.: ZIFT (zygote intra fallopian transfer) – In this, 162. Answer (4)
the zygote or early embryos (up to 8 blastomeres) Hint: Neanderthal man lived around 1,00,000-
are transferred into the fallopian tube. 40,000 years ago
AI (artificial insemination) – In this, semen Sol.: Neanderthal man: Had a brain size of around
collected from husband or a healthy donor is 1400 cc, lived near east and central Asia between
artificially introduced in the vagina or uterus of 1,00,000 – 40,000 years back.
female and is used in infertility cases in which male Australopithecines: Probably lived in East African
has very low sperm count or inability of male grasslands, hunted with stone weapons, but
partner to inseminate female. essentially ate fruits.
ICSI (intra cytoplasmic sperm injection) – Sperm is 163. Answer (3)
directly injected into the ovum.
Hint: Ionizing radiations have enough energy to
IUT (intra uterine transfer) – Embryos with more remove an electron from an atom and can cause
than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus. chemical changes in cells.
160. Answer (2) Sol.: Carcinogens are physical, chemical or
Hint: Many varieties of finches were found on the biological agents that can cause transformation of
same island. normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells.
Sol.: The process of evolution of different species Physical carcinogens: Ionizing radiations like
in a given geographical area starting from a point X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionising
and literally radiating to other areas of geography radiations like UV rays.
(habitats) is called adaptive radiation. Biological carcinogens: Several genes called
The founder’s effect is the reduction in genetic oncogenes or proto-oncogenes in normal cells
variations that results when a small subset of a which, when activated under certain conditions,
large population establishes a new colony. could lead to oncogenic transformation of cells.
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164. Answer (4) 169. Answer (3)

Hint: HIV is a retrovirus. Hint: Insect gut pH is similar to human intestinal
Sol.: HIV is a retrovirus, having an envelope pH.
enclosing two identical molecules of ssRNA Sol.: Once the insect ingests, the plant containing
genome and two copies of enzyme reverse inactive Bt protoxins, the alkaline pH of insect gut
transcriptase. solubilises the crystals and convert inactive
protoxin to active toxin, which binds to midgut
HIV uses CD4 receptors to gain entry into helper epithelial cells. It creates pores that cause swelling
T–lymphocytes. HIV infection can spread from and lysis and eventually causes death of the
infected mother to the unborn child through insect.
placenta.
170. Answer (2)
165. Answer (3) Hint: Adenosine deaminase is crucial for the
Hint: They prefer larger, slow moving bodies of functioning of immune system.
freshwater, with soft muddy bottoms. Sol.: ADA deficiency is caused due to deletion of
Sol.: Freshwater fishes – Catla, Rohu and the gene for adenosine deaminase. In some
common carp. children, ADA deficiency can be cured by bone
Marine Fishes – Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel and marrow transplantation and in others it can be
treated by enzyme replacement therapy.
Pomfrets.
171. Answer (3)
166. Answer (2)
Hint: The enzyme convert the colourless substrate
Hint: Hormone FSH induces superovulation.
into coloured product.
Sol.: In MOET (multiple ovulation embryo transfer Sol.: RNase – It is a type of nuclease that
technology), female animal is administered degrades RNA.
hormones with FSH-like activity which induce
Ribozymes – They are nucleic acids that act as
superovulation and produce 6-8 eggs. The
enzymes.
fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are recovered
Alkaline phosphatase – It is an enzyme conjugated
non-surgically and transferred to surrogate
with antibody in ELISA, which yields a yellow
mothers.
product when p-nitrophenyl phosphate (most
167. Answer (3) common substrate for ALP) is added in the
Hint: A heterologous host is the organism in which microtitre plate.
such a gene is expressed that is not naturally 172. Answer (2)
present. Hint: Hemichordates have proboscis gland as
Sol.: Expressed sequence tags – It is an approach their excretory organ.
in which we focus on identifying all the genes that Sol.: Chelone (Turtle): Reptile; kidneys are
are expressed as RNA. excretory structures.
Gene expression – In this, a gene forms a copy of Ophiura: Echinoderm; excretory system is absent.
functional mRNA and then a functional protein. Dentalium: Mollusc; feather like gills perform
168. Answer (4) respiratory and excretory functions.
Hint: Inactivation of selectable marker Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus:
Hemichordates; proboscis gland acts as an
Sol.: Heat shock method – Bacterial cells are
excretory organ.
incubated with rDNA on ice, followed by placing
173. Answer (4)
them briefly at 42°C and then putting them back on
ice. This enables bacteria to take up the rDNA. Hint: Ammocoete larva undergoes
metamorphosis in freshwater.
Microinjection is mainly used in animal cells, and
Sol.: Cyclostomes are ectoparasites on some
gene gun method is mainly used for plant cells.
fishes, have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs
Insertional inactivation is a method to differentiate of gill slits for respiration. They are marine, but
recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis migrate for spawning to freshwater and die within
of their ability to produce colour in the presence of few days after spawning. Their larvae, after
a chromogenic substrate. metamorphosis, return to the ocean.
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174. Answer (2) Sol.:

Hint: Air bladder is present in Osteichthyes.
Sol.: Pleurobrachia is a ctenophore which shows
the property of bioluminescence (property of a
living organism to emit light).
Obelia is a coelenterate which exhibits alternation
of generation (metagenesis). Metal ions act as co-factors for some enzymes.
Pila is a mollusc, whose body is unsegmented with Co-factors play a crucial role in the action of
a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump. enzymes, so enzymes loose catalytic activity
Carcharodon (great white shark) belongs to class when the co-factor is removed.
Chondrichthyes, having placoid scales and air 180. Answer (3)
bladder is absent. Hint: Nucleic acids are broken down by enzymes
175. Answer (3) present in the pancreatic juice.
Hint: These junctions help in keeping the Sol.: Nucleases are present in pancreatic juice
neighbouring cells together. and catalyse the following reaction:
Nucleases
Sol.: Tight junctions – Help to stop substances Nucleic acid 
→ Nucleotides → Nucleosides
from leaking across a tissue. Nucleotidases and nucleosidases are present in
Adhering junctions – Perform cementing to keep succus entericus which catalyze the following
neighbouring cells together. reaction:
Nucleotidases
Gap junctions – Facilitate the cells to communicate Nucleotides 
→ Nucleosides
with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of Nucleosidases
 → Sugars + Bases
adjoining cells.
181. Answer (2)
176. Answer (3)
Hint: They contain liver cells.
Hint: Majority of neural tissue is constituted by
Sol.: Hepatic lobules are the structural and
neuroglial cells.
functional units of liver containing hepatic cells
Sol.: Neuroglial cells constitute more than one half arranged in the form of cords. Glisson's capsule
the volume of neural tissue in human body. Their is a thin connective tissue sheath which cover
main function is to protect and support neurons. each lobule.
177. Answer (3) Kupffer cells are phagocytic cells present in the
Hint: Lectin liver.
Sol.: Primary metabolites have identifiable 182. Answer (2)
functions and play known roles in normal Hint: Succus entericus contains dipeptidases
physiological processes, e.g. glucose, tryptophan which acts on the product of reaction catalysed
(amino acid), glycerol etc. by carboxypeptidases
Secondary metabolites functions are not properly Sol.: Proteins, proteoses and peptones present in
known. Some of them are ecologically important chyme reaching the intestine are acted upon by
and some are useful to human welfare, e.g. the enzymes in pancreatic juice.
cellulose is a polymeric substance, concanavalin
A is a lectin.
178. Answer (1)
Hint: Only one type of helices are observed.
Enzymes in succus entericus digest dipeptides
Sol.: In proteins, only right handed helices are
into amino acids.
observed. Example – keratin protein present in
Dipeptidases
hair. Dipeptides  → Amino acids
179. Answer (2) 183. Answer (2)
Hint: Lectin Hint: It lifts up the ribs and sternum.
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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

Sol.: During inspiration: 188. Answer (2)

– Diaphragm contracts, leading to an increase in Hint: Aldosterone also acts on this segment for
the volume of thoracic chamber in reabsorption of Na+ and water.
antero-posterior axis. Sol.: Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
– External intercostal muscles contract, leading takes place in DCT. In PCT, nearly all essential
to an increase in the volume of thoracic nutrients and 70-80 percent of electrolytes are
chamber in dorso-ventral axis. reabsorbed. Reabsorption is minimum in the
184. Answer (1) ascending limb of Henle’s loop.

Hint: Partial pressure of O2 in alveoli is higher than 189. Answer (3)

that in oxygenated blood. Hint: Myosin filaments remain same in size.
Sol.: pO2 in alveoli – 104 mm Hg Sol.: During muscle contraction :
pO2 in oxygenated blood – 95 mm Hg – Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten.
pCO2 in deoxygenated blood – 45 mm Hg – A band contains myosin filaments, which do
not decrease in size, rather remain same.
pCO2 in oxygenated blood – 40 mm Hg
– H zone is the central part of thick filament, not
185. Answer (4)
overlapped by thin filaments, also decreases
Hint: Stroke volume is the volume of blood in size.
pumped by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle.
190. Answer (3)
Sol.: Stroke volume = End diastolic volume – End
Hint: They also play a role in breathing.
systolic volume Sol.: 1st-7th pairs of ribs – Vertebrosternal ribs,
SV = 130 – 80 = 50 mL dorsally attached to vertebrae and ventrally
Cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate attached to sternum.
(per minute) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs – Vertebrochondral
ribs, dorsally attached to vertebrae and ventrally
5500 = 50 × heart rate
attached to 7th pairs of ribs.
5500 11th and 12th pairs of ribs – Vertebral ribs or floating
Heart beat=
rate = 110 / minute.
50 ribs, only dorsally attached to vertebrae.
SECTION-B 191. Answer (1)
186. Answer (3) Hint: They do not have dendrites.
Hint: Individuals with blood group B would have Sol.: Unipolar neurons: Cell body with one axon
antigen B on his/her RBCs. only and are usually found in embryonic stages.
Sol.: Pseudounipolar neurons: Usually found in dorsal
root ganglia of spinal nerves.
Individual with Can donate blood to
Bipolar neurons: Commonly found in the retina of
blood group individuals with
eye.
blood group (s)
Multipolar neurons: Commonly found in the
A A, AB cerebral cortex.
B B, AB 192. Answer (3)
AB AB Hint: Midbrain consists of more than 2 but less
O A, B, O and AB than 6 optic lobes.
Sol.: The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists of
187. Answer (4)
mainly four round swellings (lobes) called corpora
Hint: Frog is ureotelic. quadrigemina.
Sol.: Ammonotelic: Bony fishes, aquatic Association areas are present in cerebral cortex
amphibians and aquatic insects. and are responsible for complex functions like
Ureotelic: Mammals, terrestrial amphibians and intersensory associations, memory and
marine fishes. communication.
Uricotelic: Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects. Cerebral aqueduct is a canal present in midbrain.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

193. Answer (2) Phosphodiester bond connects two nucleotides on

Hint: During darkness, Na +
channels in the same strand of a dsDNA molecule.
photoreceptor cells remain open. 197. Answer (1)
Sol.: Hint: This layer also forms crypts of Lieberkuhn.
During darkness During light stimulus Sol.: Serosa- Outermost layer, made up of thin
↓ ↓ mesothelium.
Na+ channels in Na+ channels in Muscularis- Formed by smooth muscles.
photoreceptor cells photoreceptor cells Sub-mucosa- Formed by loose connective tissue
remain open close containing nerves, blood vessels and lymph
↓ ↓ vessels.
Continuous influx of No influx of Na+ and 198. Answer (3)
Na+ into K+ ions are
photoreceptor cells continuously coming Hint: It is the chief neurotransmitter of para
↓ out via K+ channels sympathetic nervous system.
Depolarisation of ↓ Sol.: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter essential
cells Leading to for memory and learning. It is decreased in
hyperpolarisation of concentration in patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
cells
Parkinson’s disease is due to low dopamine.
194. Answer (2) Schizophrenia is due to increase in dopamine.
Hint: It is a fat soluble hormone. 199. Answer (1)
Sol.: Steroid hormones like cortisol, testosterone, Hint: Disease caused by alteration in
estrogen can easily pass through the cell
carbohydrate metabolism.
membrane and interact with intracellular
receptors. Sol.: Addison’s disease is caused by under
production of hormones by adrenal cortex that
Protein, peptide or polypeptide hormones like
alters carbohydrate metabolism causing acute
insulin, glucagon, pituitary hormone (ACTH) and
amino acid derivatives (epinephrine) interact with weakness and fatigue.
membrane bound receptors. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes
195. Answer (3) defective development and maturation of growing
baby leading to stunted growth that is, cretinism.
Hint: It is one of the functions of aldosterone.
Hyperthyroidism causes Graves’ disease.
Sol.: Mineralocorticoids regulate the balance of
water & electrolytes in our body, e.g. aldosterone Excessive secretion of GH in adults result in
is the main mineralocorticoid in our body. severe disfigurement called acromegaly.
Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions and 200. Answer (2)
suppresses the immune response. Hint: Syphillis is caused by a bacteria.
196. Answer (3) Sol.:
Hint: It is also present in most polysaccharides. Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
Sol.: H-bond is present between nitrogenous Trichomoniasis – Trichomonas vaginalis
bases of two nucleotides of opposite strands. The
nucleoside combines with a phosphate group by Chancroid – Haemophilus ducreyi
an phosphoester bond to form a nucleotide. Genital warts – Human Papilloma virus

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