02/08/2023 Code-C

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion
Chemistry : Classification of Elements and Periodicity, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter ;
Gases and Liquids
Mathemtics : Trigonometric Functions Part-I, Principle of Mathematical Induction, Quadratic Equations, Complex Number-I,
Linear Inequalities

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. Two guns A and B can fire bullets at speeds 2. A projectile has same range for two angles
1 km/s and 2 km/s respectively. From a point of projection. If time of flight in the two cases
on a horizontal ground, they are fired in all are t1 and t2 , then the range of the projectile
possible directions. The ratio of maximum is
areas covered by the bullets fired by the two (1) 1 gt1 t2
guns, on the ground is 2

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1
gt1 t2
4
(2) 1 : 8 (3) gt1 t2
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 gt1 t2
(4) 1 : 16 8

1
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

3. When a car is at rest, its driver sees rain 8. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 with
drops falling on it vertically. When driving the an initial velocity of 3.0ˆ
i m/s and moves in
car with speed ν, he sees that rain drops are the x-y plane with a constant acceleration
coming at an angle 60° from the horizontal.
ˆ ˆ
On further increasing the speed of the car to (6.0 i + 4.0 j ) m/s
2
The x-coordinate of
(1 + β)ν, this angle changes to 45°. The
the particle at the instant when its y-
value of β is close to
coordinate is 32 m is D meters. The value of
(1) 0.37 D is.
(2) 0.41 (1) 60
(3) 0.73 (2) 32
(4) 0.5 (3) 40
(4) 50
4. A physical quantity which has a direction
(1) Must be a vector 9. In the cube of side ‘a’ shown in the figure,
(2) May be a vector the vector from the central point of the face
(3) Must be a scalar ABOD to the central point of the face BEFO
will be
(4) None of the above

5. A force is resolved into components P and Q

equally inclined to it. Then
(1) P = 2Q
(2) 2P = Q

(3) P = Q

(4) None of these

6. Force 3N, 4N and 12N act at a point in

mutually perpendicular directions. The
magnitude of the resultant force is :–
(1) 19 N (1) 1 ˆ ˆ
a( j − i )
2
(2) 13 N
(2) 1 ˆ ˆ
(3) 11 N 2
a( i − k)

(4) 5 N (3) 1 ˆ ˆ
a( j − k)
2

(4) 1 ˆ ˆ
a( k − i )
7. A swimmer wishes to cross a river 600 m 2

wide flowing at 3 kmh–1 . The speed of

swimmer with respect to river is 6 kmh–1 . For 10. Find the maximum speed with which a car
this, he makes an angle θ with the can run on a bend without skidding, if radius
perpendicular as shown. To minimise drift, of bend is 20 m and coefficient of friction
the angle θ should be between road and the tyres is 0.4 ( g = 9.8
m/s2 )
(1) 7 ms–1
(2) –
8√5 ms
−1

(3) 8.85 ms–1

(4) 2√–5 ms
−1

(1) 30°
(2) 37°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

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Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

11. A block kept on a rough inclined plane, as 14. An insect is at the bottom of a hemispherical
shown in the figure, remains at rest upto a ditch of radius 1 m. It crawls up the ditch but
maximum force 2 N down the inclined plane. starts slipping after it is at height h from the
The maximum external force up the inclined bottom. If the coefficient of friction between
plane that does not move the block is 10 N. the ground and the insect is 0.75, then h is
The coefficient of static friction between the (g = 10 ms–2 ) .
block and the plane is (1) 0.45 m
[Take g = 10 m/s2 ]
(2) 0.80 m
(3) 0.20 m
(4) 0.60 m

15. Two blocks of masses M and 2M connected

to each other through a light spring as
shown. If we push the mass M with a force F,
which cause acceleration a in mass M, then
the acceleration of 2M is
(1) 1

(2) √3

(3) √3

4
(1) F

(4) 2 2M

3
(2) F

3M

12. A particle of mass m is moving in a straight (3) a

line with momentum p. Starting at time t = 0, (4) F −M a
a force F = kt, (where t is time) acts in the 2M

same direction on the moving particle during

time interval T so that its momentum 16. → → →
changes from p to 3 p. Here k is a constant. Three vectors P , Q and R are such that
The value of T is ∣ →∣ ∣ →∣ ∣ →∣ – ∣
→∣
−− ∣P ∣ = ∣ Q ∣, ∣ R ∣ = √2 ∣ P ∣ and
(1) 2k ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣
√
p
→ → → →

(2)
−
−
p
P + Q + R = 0 . Angle between
2√ → →
k
P and R , will be
−−
(3) 2p
(1) 45°
√
k

−
−
(2) 90°
(4) k
2√
p
(3) 135°
(4) 60°

13. A mass of 10 kg is suspended vertically by a

rope from the roof. When a horizontal force
is applied on the rope at some point, the
rope deviated at an angle of 45° at the roof
point. If the suspended mass is at
equilibrium, the magnitude of the force
applied is (g = 10 ms–2 ).
(1) 100 N
(2) 200 N
(3) 70 N
(4) 140 N

3
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

17. A smooth wire of length 2πr is bent into a 19. A man weighing 60 kg jumps off a railway
circle and kept in a vertical plane. A bead train running on horizontal rails at 20 km/h
can slide smoothly on the wire. When the with a packet weighing 10 kg in his hand.
circle is rotating with angular speed ω about The thrust of the packet on his hand is
the vertical diameter AB, as shown in figure, (1) 0
the bead is at rest with respect to the circular
(2) 10 kg wt.
ring at position P as shown. Then the value
of ω2 is equal to. (3) 50 kg wt.
(4) 70 kg wt.

20. The system shown is in equilibrium. When

lower spring is cut, then what will be the
acceleration of block A just after cutting of
the lower spring?

(1) (g√3)

(2) 2g

(3) 2g
(1) 3g
(r √3)
, downward
2

(4) √3g
(2) 3g
2r , upward
2

(3) 2g
18. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another , downward
3
body of mass 12 kg. The combination is
being pulley by a string with an acceleration (4) 2g
, upward
of 2.2 m/s2 . The tension T1 and T2 will 3

respectively (Use g = 9.8 m/s2 )

(1) 200 N, 80 N
(2) 220 N, 90 N
(3) 240 N, 96 N
(4) 260 N, 96 N

Section-II

21. A car is moving on a circular road of radius r 22. →

The velocity ( v ) of a projectile varies with
= 150 m and its speed is increasing at a rate
of 8 ms–2 . At some instant its speed is 30 time t is
→
ˆ ˆ
v (t) = 3 i + (4 − 6t) j , the
ms–1 . Net acceleration (in m/s2 ) of car at this
instant is displacement along x-axis of projectile
(when displacement along y-axis will be
zero) would be______ unit

4
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

23. A particle has an initial velocity of 28. A 50 kg person stands in equilibrium on a 25

ˆ ˆ kg platform. If the pulleys are ideal, then the
(2 i + 3 j ) m/s and an acceleration of
force applied by man on rope is 10n N.
ˆ ˆ
( i + j)
2
m/s . Speed of particle at t = 1 s Value of n is [g = 10 m/s2 ]

(in m/s) will be

24. Ship A is moving towards south with a speed

of 10 km/h. Another ship B is moving
towards east with a speed of 10 km/h. At a
certain instant the ship B is due south of ship
A and is at a distance of 10 km from ship A.
Find the shortest distance (in km) between
–
the ships. (√2 = 1.414 )

25. The range of a projectile for a given initial

velocity is maximum when the angle of
projection is 45°. The range will be
minimum, if the angle of projection is _____ 29. The magnitude of the impulse of force as
degree shown in figure is 30n Ns. Value of n is

26. A string passes over a smooth fixed pulley

as shown, the tension in the string is ____
newton.
30. Block B of mass 2 kg is placed on smooth
horizontal plane. Block A of mass 1 kg is
placed on block B. The coefficient of friction
between A and B is 0.4. The block A is
imparted a velocity 16 m/s. Find the time at
which momentum of the two blocks are
equal (in seconds) (g = 10 m/s2 )

27. In the arrangement shown, if block A has

velocity 3 m/s as shown, then velocity (in
m/s) of block B is

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Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. Hybridisation of ‘S’ in SO2 is 37. Symbol for the element with atomic number
(1) sp 116 is
(1) Uuq
(2) sp2
(2) Uun
(3) sp3
(3) Unn
(4) sp3 d2 (4) Uuh

32. The order of increasing sizes of atomic radii 38. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases
among the elements O, S, Se and As is in sequence
(1) As < S < O < Se (1) Ga < In < Al < TI
(2) O < S < As < Se (2) AI < Ga < In < TI
(3) Se < S < As < O (3) TI < In < Ga < AI
(4) O < S < Se < As (4) In < TI < Ga < AI

33. The electronic configurations of bivalent 39. Consider the following statements
europium and trivalent cerium are (atomic (i) I.E (I) of nitrogen atom is more than I.E(I)
number : Xe = 54; Ce = 58; Eu = 63) of oxygen atom.
(1) [Xe]4f7 and [Xe]4f1 (ii) Electron affinity of oxygen is less than
sulphur atom.
(2) [Xe]4f7 6s2 and [Xe]4f2 6s2
(iii) Electronegativity of an atom has no
(3) [Xe]4f2 and [Xe]4f7 relation with its ionization enthalpy and
electron gain enthalpy.
(4) [Xe]4f4 and [Xe]4f9
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (i)
34. In which of the following molecule back (2) (i) & (ii)
bonding is present? (3) (ii) & (iii)
(1) BF3
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) H2 O
(3) NH3 40. A gas sample has pressure of 1 atm at 27°C.
(4) HF What is the new pressure if the gas is heated
to a temperature of 54°C?
(1) 1.1 atm
35. In general the property that show an
opposite trend in comparison to others (2) 0.5 atm
across a period is (3) 0.9 atm
(1) Atomic radius (4) 27 atm
(2) Electron gain enthalpy
(3) Electronegativity 41. The compound which contains both ionic
(4) Ionisation enthalpy and covalent bonds is
(1) CH4
36. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy (2) H2
is (3) KCN
(1) O > S > Se > Te (4) KCl
(2) Te > Se > S > O
(3) S > O > Se > Te 42. Unpaired electron is present in
(4) S > Se > Te > O (1) KO and AlO−
2 2

(2) NO+ and BaO

2 2

(3) KO2 only

(4) BaO2 only

6
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

43. Following are the values of the electron gain 47. Statement : 1
enthalpy (in kJ mol–1 ) of the formation of O– Real gases do not obey the ideal gas
equation
and O2– from O atom
Statement : 2
(1) –142, –744 In the ideal gas equation, the volume
(2) –142, 744 occupied by the molecules as well as the
(3) 142, 744 inter molecular forces are ignored.
(4) –142, –142 (1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
statement-2 is a correct explanation for
statement-1
44. If 4 moles of an ideal gas at 300 K occupy (2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true,
volume of 89.6 L, then pressure of the gas statement-2 is NOT a correct
will be explanation for statement-1
(1) 2 atm (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(2) 1 atm
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true
(3) 1.099 atm
(4) 2.910 atm
48. Statement 1 : Both carbon-oxygen bonds are
of equal length in acetate ion.
45. For the process : Statement-2 : Bond length decreases with
A(g) + ē → A
−
; ΔH = xA
−
→ A(g) + ē ; ΔH = y
multiplicity of bond between two atoms
(g) (g)
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
Select the correct statement
statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(1) Ionization energy of A− is y statement-1
(g)

(2) Electron affinity of A(g) is x (2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true,

statement-2 is NOT a correct
(3) Electron affinity of A(g) is –y explanation for statement-1
(4) All are correct statement (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true
46. 250 mL of nitrogen gas maintained at 720
mm Hg pressure and 380 mL of oxygen gas 49. Which of the following pairs of compounds
maintained at 650 mm Hg pressure are put have central atom with identical
together in 1L flask. If temperature is kept hybridization?
constant, what will be the final pressure of
the mixture? (1) SO2 and SOCl2
(1) 67 mm (2) XeO3 and XeO2 F2
(2) 427 mm (3) XeF4 and XeOF4
(3) 213 mm (4) SF4 and XeF4
(4) 134 mm
50. Identify the pair of compounds among the
following in which S does not obey the octet
rule.
(1) H2 S & SF4
(2) SF2 & SF6
(3) SF4 & SF6
(4) SCl2 & SF2

Section-II

51. The difference between bond order of NO 53. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds
−1 x formed by H2 O & CH3 OH is x and y
and O2 is , where x = ______.
4 respectively, then x + y is______.

52. According to VSEPR theory, the X3 is linear

−
54. The number of electrons in 4f subshell of
compound (X = halogen). The number of Ce+2 (Z = 58) is _____
lone pair in central atom is ____.

7
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

55. The van der Waal’s equation for a real gas is 58. 2.5 L of a sample of a gas at 27°C and 1 bar
9.61 a pressure is compressed to a volume of 500
represented as (P + 2
) + (V – 3.1b) = mL keeping the temperature constant, the
V
percentage increase in the pressure is 10x
3.1RT. The number of moles of gas is _____. %, then x is___.

56. The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons 59. The density of gas A is twice that of B at the
on each central atom in following species is same temperature the molecular weight of
_____. gas B is thrice that of A. The ratio of pressure
XeOF4 , SO2 , ClF3 of gas A and gas B will be x : y; find 2x + 3y.

57. A container with a movable piston initially 60. 20 mL of a mixture of CO and H2 were mixed
holds 1.5 mol of gas at a pressure of 4 atm with excess of O2 and exploded in
and a volume of 2.5 L. If the piston is moved
eudiometer and cooled. There was a volume
to make volume 5 L, while simultaneously
contraction of 18 mL. All volume
withdrawing 0.75 moles of gas, the final
measurements corresponds to room
pressure in atm is ____.
temperature and one atmospheric pressure,
then the volume of CO and H2 in original
mixture is x and y respectively then (x – y) is

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Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. If (a2 – 4) x + (a + 2) x + a2 – a – 6 = 0 is an 66. Let f(x) = sin6 x + cos6 x + K(sin4 x + cos4 x)

identity in x, then the set of value(s) of a is where K ∈ R, then value of K such that f(x) is
(1) {–2, 2, 3} a constant is equal to
(2) {–2, 2} (1) 3
2

(3) {–2} (2) 2

(4) {– 2, 3} 3

(3) −
3

62. If −4 ≤ 5
3−x
≤ 6, then x belongs to the (4) −
2

interval
(1) [–23, 27]
67. If n is a positive integer then 4n > n4 is true
(2) [–27, 23] for all
(3) [23, 27] (1) n > 2
(4) [–27, 28] (2) n ≤ 4
(3) n > 4
63. 1
If tanA=− 2 and tanB = − 3 then A + B =
1
(4) n ≤ 3
π
(1)
4
68. If tan
A 4
, then
1+cos A
is equal to
(2) π
2
=
3 1−cos A

(3) 3π
(1) 4
4 3

(4) 5π
(2) 3
4
4

(3) 9

16
64. ∣ ∣
∣ √3+i
∣ (4) 16

The value of ∣
2
∣ is (where 9

∣ 1 ∣
[1+ ]
∣ (1−i) ∣
−−
−
i = √−1 )
69. If the equations ax2 + bx + c = 0 and x2 + 2x
+ 5 = 0 have at least one common root
(1) 4
where a, b, c ∈ R; then a : b : c is equal to
5

(2) 4 −− (1) 1 : 1 : 1
√10
5
(2) 1 : 2 : 5
(3) 1
(3) 2 : 1 : 5
5

(4) 2√10 (4) 1 : 5 : 2

5

70. The value of the expression (4cos2 9° – 3)

65. Let y = cosx(cosx – cos3x), then y is (4cos2 27° – 3) will be
(1) ≥ 0 only when x ≥ 0 (1) 1
(2) ≤ 0 for all real x (2) cos9°
(3) ≥ 0 for all real x (3) tan9°
(4) ≤ 0 only when x ≤ 0 (4) cot9°

9
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

71. The argument of complex number ‘z’ 76. If one of the root of x2 + bx + c = 0 (where b,
satisfying the equation z + z̄ = 2 and –
c are rational numbers) is 2 − √3, then b + c
– −−
z– z̄ = 2√3i is equal to (where, i = √– 1 )
is equal to
π
(1) (1) –5
6

(2) 3π (2) –3
4
π
(3) 2
(3)
4 (4) 5
π
(4)
3

77. If ∣4x − 3∣
∣ ∣ ≤
1
, then solution set for x is
6

72. If sin θ = −
3
and θ lies in IV quadrant, then (1) 17 19
5
(−∞, ] ∪ [ , ∞)
cosθ + cotθ equals 24 24

(1) 32 (2) 17
[ , ∞)
15 24

(2) 8
(3) 19
15 (−∞, ]
24
(3) −
32

15 (4) 17 19
[ , ]
(4) −
8 24 24

15

78. The region represented by

73. The coordinates of point R dividing the join {z = x + iy ∈ C : Re (z) ≤ 1, x, y ∈ R}
of P(3 + 5i) and Q(–4 – 3i) internally in the is also given by the inequality: (where,
−−
ratio 1 : 3 is (where, i = √– 1 ) −−
i = √– 1 )
(1) 5−12i
4
(1) x < 1
(2) −5+12i (2) x ≤ 1
4
(3) x > 1
(3) 5+12i

4 (4) x ≥ 1

(4) −5−12i

4
79. If x be real, then the least value of x2 – 3x +
5, is
74. Range of the function
(1) 11
) is (x ∈ R)
2 4 2 4
f(x) = sin ( x ) + cos ( x 2

(1) (−∞, ∞)
(2) 11

(2) {1} (3) 3

2
(3) (–1, 1)
(4) 3

(4) (0, 1) 4

75. If z = 3 – 6i, then zz̄ is equal to (where 80. If

−−
−
f(x) = a cos(bx + c) + d (x ∈ R, a > 0)
i = √−1 )

(1) – 27 , then range of f(x) is

(1) [d + a, d + 2a]
(2) 27
(3) – 45 (2) [a − d, a + d]

(4) 45 (3) [d + a, a − d]

(4) [d − a, d + a]

Section-II

81. If the equations x2 + ax + b = 0 and x2 + bx + 83. The modulus of i1 + 3 + 5 + .....+(2n + 1), where
a = 0 (where a ≠ b) have a common root n is even natural number, is (where
−−
−
then a + b + 1 equals i = √−1 )

82. Number of integers in the solution set of x

satisfying inequation 6 < x – 5 < 9 is

10
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-C)

84. If z1 = 1 + 3i and z2 = 2 + i, then 88. Number of values of a for which the equation
Re (
z̄ 2 z1
) is (where,
−−
)
i = √– 1
x2 – 5x + a = 0 has two distinct roots lying in
z2
the interval (1, 2) is

85. Least value of |z – 1 + i|2 + |z – 2 + 3i|2 + |z + 89. If α and β are roots of equation x2 + 4x + 1 =
−−
2i|2 is (where, i = √– 1 ) 0, then α2 + β2 is

86. The number of integral values of x satisfying 90. 1+i

8
1−i
8

the inequation |x| ≤ 2 is equal to Value of z = (

4
) +(
4
) in
1
k
simplified form is ( ) , then k equals
87. 2 2
If cosx = 1, then 1 + sin x is −−
(where, i = √– 1 )

11