Chapter 1 – Introduction (Questions)

1. A project is:

A. A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system.

B. A revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving customer
satisfaction.
C. An ongoing endeavour undertaken to meet customer or market requirements.
D. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

2. Project management is:

A. The integration of the critical path method and the Earned Value Management system.
B. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements.
C. The application of knowledge, skills, wisdom, science, and art to organizational activities to
achieve operational excellence.
D. A subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines.

3. Portfolio management refers to:

A. Managing various contents of the project file.

B. Managing the levels of financial authority to facilitate project decision making.
C. The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.
D. Applying resource-levelling heuristics across all the organization's projects to achieve the
organization's strategic objectives.

4. All of the following are questions that the key stakeholders and project managers should answer
to develop the project success measures EXCEPT:

A. What does success look like for the project?

B. How will success be measured?
C. What are the communication requirements?
D. What factors may impact success?

5. A program is a:

A. Group of related tasks lasting one year or less.

B. Group of related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities managed in a
coordinated manner.
C. Large projects with significant cost and resource requirements.
D. Sequence of activities constituting a major project.

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6. All of the following are true about projects and operations EXCEPT:

A. Operations are ongoing endeavours that produce repetitive outputs, with resources
assigned to do basically the same set of tasks according to the standards institutionalized in
a product life cycle, whereas projects are temporary endeavours.
B. Projects require project management activities and skill sets, whereas operations require
business process management, operations management activities, and skill sets.
C. Projects can intersect with operations at various points during the product life cycle. At each
point, deliverables and knowledge are transferred between the project and operations for
implementation of the delivered work.
D. Because of their temporary nature, projects cannot help achieve an organization's long-term
goals. Therefore, strategic activities in the organization can be generally addressed within
the organization's normal operations.

7. Your job responsibility is to align components (projects, programs, or related operations) to the
organizational strategy, organized into portfolios or subsidiary portfolios to optimize project or
program objectives, dependencies, costs, timelines, benefits, resources, and risks. This is known as:

A. Components management.
B. Process management.
C. Program management.
D. Portfolio management.

8. The PMBOK® Guide is the standard for:

A. Managing all projects all of the time.

B. Managing all projects most of the time.
C. Managing most projects most of the time.
D. Managing some projects some of the time.

9. The collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases, whose name
and number are determined by the management and control needs of the organization or
organizations involved in the project, is known as the:

A. Project waterfall.
B. Project life cycle.
C. Project life stages.
D. Project Management Process Groups.

10. All of the following are true about project phases and the project life cycle EXCEPT:

A. Stakeholder influences, risk, and uncertainty are greatest at the start of the project. These
factors decrease over the life of the project.
B. The ability to influence the final characteristics of the project's product, without significantly
impacting cost, is highest at the start of the project and decreases as the project progresses
toward completion.
C. The cost of changes and correcting errors typically increases substantially as the project
approaches completion.
D. Cost and staffing levels are generally steady throughout the project life cycle.

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11. All of the following statements about the project life cycle and the product life cycle are true
EXCEPT:

A. In the project predictive life cycle, the project scope and the time and cost required to
deliver that scope are determined as early in the project life cycle as practically possible.
B. In the project iterative and incremental life cycles, project phases intentionally repeat one or
more project activities as the project team's understanding of the product increases.
C. The product life cycle is the series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from
concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.
D. The product life cycle is contained within the predictive project life cycle.

12. You are managing a project in which you intend to respond to high levels of change and ongoing
stakeholder involvement. The most suitable project life cycle for your project is the:

A. Predictive life cycle.

B. Adaptive life cycle.
C. Waterfall life cycle.
D. Configuration management life cycle.

13. The five Project Management Process Groups are:

A. Planning, Checking, Directing, Monitoring, and Recording.

B. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
C. Planning, Executing, Directing, Closing, and Commissioning.
D. Initiating, Executing, Monitoring, Evaluating, and Closing.

14. Project Management Processes:

A. May be overlapping activities that occur throughout the project.

B. May be overlapping activities that generally occur at the same level of intensity within each
phase of the project.
C. Are generally discrete, one-time events.
D. Are discrete, repetitive events that occur generally at the same level of intensity throughout
each phase of the project.

15. The linkages between project management processes are best described by the following:

A. The work breakdown structure links processes.

B. Processes are linked by their planned objectives—the summary objective of one often
becomes the detailed action plan for another within the project, subproject, or project
phase.
C. Processes are linked by the outputs that are produced—the output of one process generally
becomes an input to another process or is a deliverable of the project, subproject, or project
phase.
D. There are no significant links between discrete processes.

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16. For a project to be successful, the project should generally achieve all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Achieving stakeholder satisfaction.

B. Striving to obtain acceptable customer/end-user adoption.
C. Appling knowledge, skills, and processes within the Project Management Process Groups
uniformly to meet the project objectives.
D. Fulfilling other agreed-upon success measures or criteria.

17. The project business case is all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a
selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the
authorization of further project management activities.
B. A document that lists the objectives and reasons for project initiation.
C. A document that serves as an important input to the project initiation and is seldom used
after the project is approved.
D. An important document that may result in a go/no-go decision for the project.

18. The key elements of the benefits management plan are all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Work Breakdown Structure.

B. Benefits owner.
C. Assumptions.
D. Strategic alignment.

19. A significant amount of data is collected and analyzed throughout the project. All of the following
are examples of project data and information EXCEPT:

A. Work performance data.

B. Work performance analysis.
C. Work performance information.
D. Work performance reports.

20. Project tailoring is an important consideration for most projects. Which of the following is the
least likely project consideration?
A. Project manager's skills and competency.
B. Each project is unique.
C. Addressing competing constraints.
D. Level of project governance varies.

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Chapter 2 - The Environment in Which Projects Operate (Questions)

21. Enterprise environmental factors refer to both internal and external environmental factors that
surround or influence a project's success. All of the following are true about these factors EXCEPT:

A. Enterprise environmental factors include organizational culture, structure, and processes.

B. Enterprise environmental factors include government or industry standards, such as
regulatory agency regulations, codes of conduct, product standards, quality standards, and
workmanship standards.
C. Enterprise environmental factors include information technology software (e.g., an
automated tool, such as a scheduling software tool, a configuration management system, an
information collection and distribution system, or web interfaces to other online automated
systems).
D. Enterprise environmental factors exclude personnel administration functions (e.g., staffing
and retention guidelines, employee performance reviews and training records, and time
tracking) because these are considered to be functions of the human resources department.

22. The types of project management office (PMO) structures in organizations include all of the
following EXCEPT:

A. Supportive PMOs that provide a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best
practices, training, access to information, and lessons learned from other projects.
B. Controlling PMOs that provide support and require compliance through various means.
C. Harmonizing PMOs that strive to reduce conflict and improve harmony among project team
members.
D. Directive PMOs that take control of the projects by directly managing the projects.

23. A primary function of a project management office (PMO) is to support project managers in a
variety of ways, which may include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Intervening in project execution directly and without involving the project manager.
B. Managing shared resources across all projects administered by the PMO.
C. Identifying and developing project management methodology, best practices, and
standards.
D. Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight.

24. All of the following are potential information in organizational knowledge repositories EXCEPT:

A. Metrics used to collect and make available measurement data on processes and products.
B. Configuration management.
C. Tacit knowledge of previous projects such as project performance data and lessons learned.
D. Issue and defect management data.

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25. All of the following are external environmental factors EXCEPT:

A. Legal restrictions.
B. Organizational values and principles.
C. Competitive movements.
D. Economic conditions.

26. Organizational process assets (OPAs) influence the management of projects. Which one of the
following best describes the important categories of OPAs?

A. Organizational knowledge bases and processes.

B. Processes, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques.
C. Organizational knowledge bases, processes, policies, and procedures.
D. Organizational knowledge bases, tools, and techniques.

27. The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during project
initiation and planning include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Preapproved supplier list.

B. Traceability matrices.
C. Tailoring guidelines for project management processes and procedures.
D. Product and project life cycles, and methods and procedures.

28. The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during Executing,
Monitoring, and Controlling include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Change control procedure.

B. Issue and defect management procedures.
C. Resource availability control and assignment management.
D. Project closing guidelines.

29. Projects operate within the constraints imposed by the organization through their structure and
governance framework. The system factors include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Management elements.
B. Governance framework.
C. Organizational structure types.
D. Project management processes.

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30. The interaction of the various system components creates the organizational culture and
capabilities that are important for projects. Which role is typically responsible for establishing the
system?

A. Organization's management.
B. Project sponsor.
C. Project manager.
D. Project team.

31. Governance is the framework within which authority is exercised in organizations. This
framework includes all of the following components EXCEPT:

A. Rules.
B. Policies.
C. Techniques.
D. Relationships.

32. Which of the following best describe management elements?

A. Management elements are the components that comprise the key functions or principles of
general management in the organization.
B. Management elements are the project management principles that guide how projects are
executed in the organization.
C. Management elements are established by PMOs to guide project implementation.
D. Management elements are influenced by the governance framework, established for
effective implementation of projects.

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Chapter 3 - The Role of the Project Manager

33. All of the following are generally true about leadership in a project environment EXCEPT:

A. It involves focusing the efforts of a group of people toward a common goal and enabling
them to work as a team.
B. It is the ability to get things done through others.
C. Respect and trust, rather than fear and submission, are the key elements of effective
leadership.
D. Although important throughout all project phases, effective leadership is critical during the
Closing phase of a project when the emphasis is on stakeholder acceptance of the project.

34. Project managers spend the majority of their time communicating with team members and
other project stakeholders. To communicate effectively, the project manager should generally
perform all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Calculating the potential number of communication channels accurately.

B. Developing finely tuned skills using multiple methods of communication.
C. Incorporating feedback channels.
D. Seeking to understand project stakeholders’ communication needs.

35. All of the following are components of culture EXCEPT:

A. Values.
B. Norms.
C. Intelligence.
D. Beliefs.

36. When performing integration on the project, the role of the project manager is:

A. To work with the project sponsor to understand the strategic objectives and ensure the
alignment of the project objectives and results with those of the project and business area.
B. To perform all of the work that is required to get the project approved and baseline for
communication to the team.
C. To complete the project charter and seek formal approval from the sponsor of the project.
D. To involve the team in group activities to facilitate teamwork, which builds an integrated
project organizational structure.

37. Performing integration is a cornerstone skill for all project managers; the following describe the
three different levels of performing integration EXCEPT:
A. Cognitive level.
B. Process level.
C. Complexity level.
D. Context level.

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38. Complexity within projects is a result of much different organizational behaviour; the dimensions
of complexity include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. System behaviour.
B. Human behaviour.
C. Ambiguity.
D. Process behaviour.

39. Which of the following is least likely to be a project manager's role?

A. Evaluation and analysis of project-related activities prior to project initiation.

B. Consulting with business leaders on advancing strategic objectives.
C. Assisting in business analysis, business case development, and aspects of portfolio
management for a project.
D. Ensuring that organizations are operating efficiently.

40. Which of the following is least likely to be within the project manager's sphere of influence?

A. Government.
B. Project team.
C. Sponsors.
D. Customers.

41. The following are all key competencies of a project manager EXCEPT:

A. Technical project management.

B. Operational management.
C. Leadership.
D. Strategic management.

42. The following are all key differences between management and leadership EXCEPT:

A. Directing vs. influencing.

B. Focus on systems vs. focus on relationships.
C. Accept status quo vs. challenge status quo.
D. Concentrate on project activities vs. emphasis on results.

43. Leadership and management are ultimately about being able to get things done, and power
plays an important part. Which of the following best describe the various forms of power?

A. Positional, referent, personal, cultural, and relational.

B. Positional, personal, relational, guilt-based, informational, and expertise.
C. Referent, personal, expertise, and cultural.
D. Positional and pressure-based.

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44. Personality refers to the individual differences in characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and
behaving. Which of the following are the least appropriate characteristics for project managers?

A. Authentic, courteous, creative, cultural, and emotional.

B. Intellectual, managerial, political, service-oriented, and social.
C. Authentic, managerial, service-oriented, social, and system.
D. Complexity, courteous, intellectual, cultural, and managerial.

45. Project managers exhibit different leadership styles. Which of the following is NOT a leadership
style?

A. Laissez-faire.
B. Motivational.
C. Charismatic.
D. Servant.

46 .Complexity exhibits all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Containing multiple parts.

B. Containing high-risk parts.
C. Exhibiting dynamic interactions between the parts.
D. Exhibiting emergent behaviour, this cannot be easily explained as the simple sum of parts.

47. Project managers are similar to conductors of a large orchestra, EXCEPT:

A. They are responsible for the final result of the team.

B. They communicate with the team.
C. They need to integrate multiple disciplines.
D. They need to be an expert or knowledgeable of all aspects of their endeavour.

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Chapter 4 - Project Integration Management

48. Which of the following processes is included in Project Integration Management?

A. Develop project management plan.

B. Control scope definition.
C. Review scope validation.
D. Conduct procurement surveillance.

49. All of the following are characteristics of the project charter EXCEPT:

A. It formally authorizes the existence of a project.

B. Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project. The project initiator or sponsor
should be at the level that is appropriate to procure funding and commit resources to the
project.
C. It is used primarily to request bids for a project or a specific phase of a project.
D. It provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to
project activities.

50. All of the following are characteristics of the Project Management Information System (PMIS)
EXCEPT:

A. Automated gathering and reporting on key performance indicators (KPIs) can be part of this
system.
B. It provides access to information technology (IT) software tools, such as scheduling software
tools, work authorization systems, and configuration management systems.
C. It is used as part of the Direct and Manage Project Work.
D. It is used by the project manager and the project management team primarily to generate
presentations to key stakeholders.

51. Which of the following is NOT true about tools and techniques of Perform Integrated Change
Control?

A. They include expert judgment.

B. They include change control meetings.
C. A change control board (CCB) is responsible for meeting and reviewing the change requests
and approving, rejecting, or other disposition of those changes.
D. They include project plan updates.

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52. You are managing a $10 million project. Which of the following is an acceptable cause for “re-
base lining” this project?

A. The client has approved an addition to the scope of the project with a $150,000 budget
increase and a two-week extension of the scheduled completion.
B. The contractor's company has instituted a quality assurance program in which it has pledged
to spend $1 million during the next year.
C. The productivity in the design department is lower than estimated, which has resulted in
1,000 additional hours over what was budgeted and a forecasted two-week delay of the
scheduled completion.
D. The engineering department of the performing organization has converted to a new
$250,000 CAD system.

53. Configuration management is focused on:

A. The identification and correction of problems arising in functional areas of project

implementation.
B. The specification of both the deliverables and the processes, while change control is focused
on identifying, documenting, and approving or rejecting changes to the project documents,
deliverables, or baselines.
C. Testing new systems.
D. Identifying, documenting, and controlling changes to the project and the product baselines,
while change control is focused on the specifications of both the deliverables and the
processes.

54. A change control board (CCB) is:

A. A formally chartered group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a minimal
amount of changes occurs on the project.
B. A formal or an informal group of stakeholders that has oversight of project execution.
C. A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or
rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.
D. A dashboard that provides integrated information to help control changes to cost, schedule,
and specifications throughout the life of the project.

55. Some of the configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change
Control process include all of the following activities EXCEPT:

A. Identification and selection of a configuration item to provide the basis for which the
product configuration is defined and verified, products and documents are labelled, changes
are managed, and accountability is maintained.
B. Monitoring changes in resource-levelling heuristics to ensure efficient resource utilization
throughout the life cycle of the project.
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 C. Configuration status accounting, in which information is recorded and reported as to when
appropriate data about the configuration item should be provided.
D. Configuration verification and configuration audits that ensure that the composition of a
project's configuration items is correct and that corresponding changes are registered,
assessed, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented.

56. Actions and activities necessary to transfer the project's products, services, or results to the next
phase or to production and/or operations are addressed:

A. As part of the Close Project or Phase process.

B. Following the plan outlined in the Quality Management process.
C. As requested by senior executives.
D. As the last step in project management.

57. Outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Change requests.
B. Project management plan updates.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Final product, service, or result transition.

58. All of the following are inputs to Manage Project Knowledge EXCEPT:

A. Deliverables.
B. Knowledge management.
C. Lessons learned register.
D. Project management plan.

59. All of the following are Knowledge Management tools and techniques EXCEPT:

A. Discussion forums.
B. Storytelling.
C. Work shadowing and reverse shadowing.
D. Regression analysis.

60. Lessons learned documentation generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. The causes of issues.

B. Updates of the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements.
C. Reasoning behind the corrective action chosen.
D. Other types of lessons learned about communications management.

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Chapter 5 - Project Scope Management (Questions)

61. All of the following are true about the project scope management plan EXCEPT:

A. It enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement.
B. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.
C. It can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed, based on the needs of the
project.
D. It is not related to the project management plan.

62. Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder
needs and requirements to meet project objectives. All of the following are true about this process
EXCEPT:

A. The project's success is directly influenced by active stakeholder involvement in the

discovery and decomposition of needs into requirements and by the care taken in
determining, documenting, and managing the requirements of the product, service, or result
of the project.
B. Requirements become the foundation of the WBS. Cost, schedule, quality planning, and
sometimes procurement are all based upon these requirements.
C. The development of requirements begins with an analysis of the information contained in
the project charter, the risk register, and the stakeholder engagement plan.
D. Requirements need to be elicited, analyzed, and recorded in enough detail to be included in
the scope baseline and to be measured once project execution begins.

63. You are involved in collecting requirements for your project. You are likely to use the stakeholder
register for all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Identifying stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements.

B. Capturing major requirements that stakeholders may have for the project.
C. Capturing main expectations that stakeholders may have for the project.
D. Evaluating the product breakdown structure (PBS) associated with each of the key
stakeholders.

64. You are developing a document that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them to help ensure that each requirement adds business value and to
manage changes to the product scope. This is known as the:

A. Configuration management system.

B. Business case.
C. New product development matrix.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.

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65. An output of the Define Scope process is:

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
C. Project scope statement.
D. Scope and schedule delays control plan.

66. All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT:

A. It is an output of the Validate Scope process.

B. It describes, in detail, the project's deliverables and the work required to create those
deliverables.
C. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders.
D. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder
expectations.

67. Which of the following statements is true about the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the
project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
B. The WBS is a simple list of project activities in chart form.
C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure (OBS).
D. The WBS is the bill of materials (BOM) needed to accomplish the project objectives and
create the required deliverables.

68. The following is an example of a constraint associated with the project scope that limits the
team's options in scope definition:

A. A predefined budget or any imposed dates or schedule milestones that are issued by the
customer or performing organization.
B. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor.
C. Existing relationships with sellers, suppliers, or others in the supply chain.
D. The method used to measure project performance.

69. An input to the Define Scope process is:

A. The type of contract detail language.

B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. Decomposition.

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70. What is the WBS typically used for?

A. To organize and define the total scope of the project.

B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor.
C. To define the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer.
D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals.

71. The following is true about the WBS:

A. The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart.

B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the
project work.
C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project.
D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities.

72. Which of the following is true about the Validate Scope process?

A. It is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B. It is not necessary if the project completes on time and within budget.
C. It occurs primarily when revisions or changes are made to project scope.
D. Scope validation is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables, whereas quality
control is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables and meeting the quality
requirements specified for the deliverables.

73. You are managing a global project that involves stakeholders in several international locations.
You are likely to consult the WBS dictionary to find:

A. The language translation of technical terms used in the project.

B. Detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the
WBS.
C. Information relating the legal constraints of relevant international locations to the
development of the WBS.
D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of key stakeholders and their
impact on the WBS.

74. Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Scope process?

A. Work performance information.

B. Change requests.
C. Project documents updates.
D. Accepted deliverables.

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75. All of the following are true about the Control Scope process EXCEPT:

A. Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and
managing changes to the scope baseline.
B. Control Scope is used to manage the actual changes when they occur and is integrated with
the other control processes.
C. Scope changes can be avoided by developing clear and concise specifications and enforcing
strict adherence to them.
D. Controlling the project scope ensures that all requested changes and recommended
corrective or preventive actions are processed through the Perform Integrated Change
Control process.

76. describe capabilities that are temporary and are no longer needed after the new
product/service/result is ready.

A. Business requirements
B. Solution requirements
C. Quality requirements
D. Transition requirements

77. Agile scope planning is especially useful when:

A. Solution requirements are emerging all the time.

B. Quality requirements are not stable.
C. Business requirements are not stable.
D. Scope is well understood at the beginning.

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Chapter 6 - Project Schedule Management (Questions)

78. In rolling wave planning:

A. Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out

as part of the ongoing wave of activities.
B. The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, whereas the work in the
future is planned at a higher level.
C. The work far in the future is planned in detail for work packages that are at a low level of the
WBS.
D. A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that WBS
deliverables and project milestones are achieved.

79. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A. A technique in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or
more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.
B. A method that uses a probabilistic approach to scheduling project activities.
C. A time-phased graphical representation of the arrow diagramming method (ADM), and
shows durations of project activities as well as their dependencies.
D. More accurate than the critical path method for scheduling when there are uncertainties
about the durations of project activities.

80. The duration of the activity is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. The estimated activity resource requirements.

B. The types of resources assigned to the activity.
C. The availability of the resources assigned to the activity.
D. Using the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for scheduling activities instead of using
the critical path method (CPM).

81. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources is called:

A. Crashing.
B. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
C. Precedence diagramming method (PDM).
D. Fast tracking.

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82.The “fast tracking” method of schedule compression involves:
A. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the
project earlier than originally planned.
B. Performing in parallel for at least a portion of their duration activities or phases that are
normally done in sequence, which may result in rework and increased risk.
C. Going on a “mandatory overtime schedule” to complete the project on schedule or earlier if
possible.
D. Assigning “dedicated teams” to critical path activities to achieve project schedule objectives.

83. An example of a mandatory dependency is:

A. A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular

application area.
B. A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific
sequence is desired.
C. On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been
built.
D. On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all
project requirements.

84. Inputs to the Define Activities process are:

A. Schedule management plan, work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network
diagram.
B. Project schedule, resource estimates, progress reports, and change requests.
C. Scope management plan, project network diagram, constraints, and assumptions.
D. Schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and
organizational process assets.

85. For project scheduling, bar charts show:

A. The level of effort for an activity.

B. Availability of resources assigned to perform project activities.
C. Activity start and end dates, as well as expected durations.
D. Relative priority of activities.

86. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) shows:

A. Various levels of the work breakdown structure.

B. Activities likely to be involved in project integration and resource allocation processes.
C. The logical relationships that exist between activities.
D. The project completion date based on normal resource availability.
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87. The critical path is established by calculating the following dates:

A. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to-start.

B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish.
C. Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor.
D. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to-secondary, finish-to-finish.

88. All of the following are true about resource levelling EXCEPT:

A. It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level during certain time periods.
B. It can often cause the original critical path to change.
C. It is used to develop a resource-based WBS.
D. It is a resource optimization technique that can be used to adjust the schedule model due to
demand and supply of resources.

89. As one of the tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process, a lead:

A. Directs a delay in the successor activity.

B. Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time.
C. Means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed.
D. Is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be started before the previous
activity is completed.

90. Three-point estimating uses:

A. An optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimate to calculate the estimate.

B. The weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate the
expected duration of the activity.
C. Dummy activities to represent logic links among three or more activities.
D. Free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.

91. Analogous duration estimating is:

A. Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed
information about the project.
B. A bottom-up estimating technique.
C. Based on multiple duration estimating.
D. Generally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgment is
used.

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92. Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:

Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks

Most likely (tM) = 5 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 9 weeks

Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the calculated Expected activity
duration (tE) is:

A. 4.0 weeks.
B. 4.5 weeks.
C. 5.5 weeks.
D. 6.5 weeks.

93. Consider the following information about the duration of an activity:

Calculated expected (tE) = 5 weeks

Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 8 weeks

Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the Most likely (tM) activity
duration is:

A. 4.0 weeks.
B. 4.5 weeks.
C. 5.0 weeks.
D. 6.0 weeks.

94. Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:

Optimistic (tO) = 6 weeks

Most likely (tM) = 9 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 15 weeks

Using the triangular distribution, the calculated Expected activity duration (tE) is:

A. 10.0 weeks.
B. 10.5 weeks.
C. 11.5 weeks.
D. 12.0 weeks.

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95. An activity in a project network has the following characteristics: ES = 5, EF = 10, and LF = 14.
Therefore, LS = .

A. 9.0 weeks.
B. 10.0 weeks.
C. 11.0 weeks.
D. 12.0 weeks.

96. An activity in a network has the following characteristics: ES = 12, EF = 22, and LS = 14. ES and LS
relate to the beginning of the week, whereas EF relates to the end of the week. The duration of the
activity is:

A. 8.0 weeks.
B. 11.0 weeks.
C. 12.0 weeks.
D. 14.0 weeks.

97. “Crashing” in schedule management is:

A. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources.
B. A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that are normally done in
sequence are performed in parallel.
C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path.
D. Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.

Consider the following schedule network that shows the activities in your project and their
associated durations in days for questions 98–99:

98. The critical path in this network is:

A. A-B-C.
B. A-B-D.
C. A-C-D.
D. A-B-C-D.

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99. The free float for activity C is:

A. 14.
B. 12.
C. 0.
D. –2.

100. The Control Schedule process for a project:

A. Focuses on starting the project earlier than scheduled to help mitigate schedule risk and to
achieve the approved schedule baseline.
B. Is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and
managing changes to the schedule baseline.
C. Is concerned mainly with activities that are on the critical path.
D. Should focus primarily on activities that are difficult to carry out.

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Chapter 7 – Project Cost Management (Questions)

101. Project Cost Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT:

A. Plan cost management.

B. Level resources.
C. Determine budget.
D. Control costs.

102. The cost management plan has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is based on project cost estimates and is separate from the project management plan.
B. It may specify variance thresholds for monitoring cost performance to indicate an agreed-
upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken.
C. It may specify the level of precision, which is the degree to which activity cost estimates, will
be rounded up or down.
D. It describes how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

103. All of the following are true about cost estimates EXCEPT:

A. Cost estimates are generally expressed in units of some currency (i.e., dollars, euros, yen,
etc.), although in some instances other units of measure, such as staff hours or staff days,
are used to facilitate comparisons by eliminating the effects of currency fluctuations.
B. Costs are estimated for all resources that will be charged to the project.
C. Information in the risk register should not be considered in cost estimates, because risks can
be either threats or opportunities and their impacts tend to balance out.
D. A cost estimate is a quantitative assessment of the likely costs for resources required to
complete the activity. Cost estimates may be presented at the activity level or in summary
form.

104. An activity cost estimate includes all of the following resource categories EXCEPT:

A. Labour.
B. Materials.
C. Equipment.
D. Time shortages.

105. Parametric estimating involves:

A. Defining cost or duration parameters of the project life cycle.

B. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package and integrating them to obtain
the total cost of the project.
C. Using a statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables to
calculate a cost estimate for project work.
D. Using the actual cost of a previous similar project to estimate the cost of the current project.

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106. Analogous cost estimating:

A. Integrates bottom-up estimating techniques with relevant statistical relationships to

estimate the cost of the current project.
B. Relies on the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of
the current project.
C. Is used most frequently in the later phases of a project.
D. Summarizes estimates for individual work packages to estimate the cost of the current
project.

107. Which of the following represents processes concerned with establishing and controlling the
cost baseline?

A. Plan Resource Management and Control Costs.

B. Estimate Costs, Develop Budget, and Adhere to Baseline.
C. Determine Budget and Control Costs.
D. Plan Resource Management, Cost Estimating, and Cost Control.

108. The cost performance baseline has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management
reserves, and is used as a basis for comparison with actual results.
B. It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the project life cycle.
C. It is developed as a summation of the approved budgets for the different schedule activities.
D. It is typically displayed in the form of an S-curve.

109. Project cost control includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated costs.

B. Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost
baseline.
C. Influencing the factors that create changes to the authorized cost baseline.
D. Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages to establish a cost baseline.

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110. You have been promoted to the position of project manager for a large project, due to the
abrupt transfer of the previous project manager. On the first day in your new, exciting position, you
find a folder on your desk entitled: Earned Value Management. In that folder, you find only the
following chart related to your project with the Data Date of a few days ago:

Based on this chart, you conclude that:

A. The project is below budget and probably ahead of schedule.

B. The project is over budget and probably behind schedule.
C. The project is below budget but probably behind schedule.
D. The performance on this project compared to budget and schedule cannot be determined
because this chart does not show any values.

Cumulative data for questions 111–116:

BAC = 200

PV = 100

AC = 120

EV = 80

111. Assuming that all future work will be performed at the budgeted rate, the estimate at
completion (EAC) is:

A. 200.
B. 220.
C. 240.
D. 260.

112. Assuming that what the project has experienced to date can be expected to continue in the
future, the estimate at completion (EAC) is:

A. 300.
B. 325.
C. 350.
D. 375.

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113. Assuming that future work will be performed at an efficiency rate that considers both the cost
and schedule performance indices because project schedule is a factor that impacts future effort,
the estimate at completion (EAC) is:
A. 250.
B. 300.
C. 350.
D. 345.

114. Assuming that what the project has experienced to date can be expected to continue in the
future, the variance at completion (VAC) is:

A. –80.
B. –100.
C. +100.
D. +200.

115. Assuming that all future work will be performed at the budgeted rate, the estimate to complete
(ETC) is:

A. 120.
B. 140.
C. 180.
D. 200.

116. Your sponsor specifies that there is no additional money in the budget for your project and asks
you to complete the project at the original budget at completion (BAC). To achieve that goal, you
and your team must complete the remaining work at the to-complete performance index (TCPI) of:

A. 0.67.
B. 1.00.
C. 1.50.
D. 2.00.

117. The estimate at completion (EAC) is typically based on:

A. The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC), and the estimate to complete (ETC) the
remaining work.
B. The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC) and the cumulative cost performance
index (CPI).
C. The earned value (EV) and the actual cost for work completed (AC).
D. The cost performance index (CPI) and the cost variance (CV).

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118. Your earned value management analysis indicates that your project is falling behind its baseline
schedule. You know this because the cumulative EV is much:

A. Higher than the cumulative AC.

B. Higher than the cumulative PV.
C. Lower than the cumulative PV.
D. Lower than the cumulative CPI.

119. Which of the following cumulative measures indicates that your project is about 9% under
budget?

A. The cumulative AC was 100, and the cumulative EV was 110.

B. The cumulative PV was 100, and the cumulative AC was 110.
C. The cumulative AC was 110, and the cumulative EV was 100.
D. The cumulative EV was 100, and the cumulative PV was 110.

120. Earned value management (EVM) is a commonly used:

A. Analysis of the value of the equipment that has been installed in the project as of the status
date.
B. Analysis of the sum of the labour costs that have been incurred on the project to date.
C. Method of performance measurement for projects.
D. Method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent on the project to date.

121. During the sixth monthly update on a 10-month, $300,000 project, analysis of the earned value
management data shows that the cumulative PV is $190,000, the cumulative AC is $120,000, and the
cumulative EV is $150,000. In planning its action, the project management team can conclude all of
the following from these measures EXCEPT:

A. Less has been accomplished than was planned.

B. Less has been spent than was planned.
C. Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no management intervention, the
project will probably be completed behind schedule and under budget.
D. Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no management intervention, the
project will probably be completed ahead of schedule and over budget.

122. In earned value management, the cost variance is equal to:

A. EV minus PV.
B. EV minus AC.
C. AC minus EV.
D. PV minus EV.

123. Earned value (EV) involves all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Value of the work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.
B. Actual cost for an activity or work breakdown structure (WBS) component.
C. Progress measurement criteria, which should be established for each WBS component to
measure work in progress.
D. Budget associated with the authorized work that has been completed.

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124. If cumulative PV = 100, cumulative EV = 98 and cumulative AC = 104, the project is likely to be:

A. Ahead of schedule.
B. Headed for a cost overrun.
C. Operating at project cost projections.
D. Under budget at completion.

Cumulative data for questions 125–126:

125. Which item is MOST over budget?

A. Item 1.
B. Item 2.
C. Item 3.
D. Item 4.

126. Which item has the LOWEST SPI?

A. Item 1.
B. Item 2.
C. Item 3.
D. Item 4.

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Chapter 9 - Project Resource Management (Questions)

145. The major processes of Project Resource Management are:

A. Leadership, Management, Team Building, and Negotiation.

B. Develop Project Staffing Plan, Recruit Project Team, Administer Personnel Actions, and
Manage Labour Relations.
C. Plan Organizational Structure, Build Project Team, Develop Communications Plan, and
Manage Team Conflicts.
D. Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop Team,
Manage Team, and Control Resources.

146. The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is:

A. Used for development of the project budget and network diagrams.

B. Developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to
project network activities.
C. Used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team
members. It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task to avoid
confusion of responsibility.
D. Used to identify accountabilities and responsibilities in individual performance appraisals of
project team members.

147. Plan Resource Management should generally include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Roles and responsibilities.

B. Identification of resources.
C. Acquiring resources.
D. Project interfaces.

148. Questions that arise when planning the acquisition of team members generally include all of
the following EXCEPT:

A. Whether the resources come from within the organization or from external, contracted
sources.
B. The costs associated with each level of expertise needed for the project.
C. The compensation of senior executives.
D. The level of assistance that the organization's human resource department and functional
managers are able to provide to the project management team.

149. Acquire resources is the process of confirming resource availability and obtaining the team
necessary to complete project activities. The enterprise environmental factors that can influence this
process generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Organizational structure.
B. Political philosophy.
C. Competency levels, prior experience, and cost rate.
D. Personnel administration policies, such as those that affect outsourcing.

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150. It is important that the resource management plan addresses how team members will be
released when they are no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

A. To reduce project costs.

B. To improve morale when smooth transitions to upcoming projects are already planned.
C. To optimize the utilization of human and material resources.
D. To help mitigate resource risks that may occur during or at the end of a project.

151. To be effective, recognition and rewards systems should have the following characteristics
EXCEPT:

A. Clear criteria for rewards and a planned system for their use to help promote and reinforce
desired behaviours.
B. Being based on activities and performance under a person's control.
C. Cultural differences should be considered when determining recognition and rewards.
D. The required performance for rewards should be made unachievable for most team
members, to ensure that all team members strive for excellence throughout the project.

152. Tools and techniques to acquire resources include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Decision making.
B. Acquisition.
C. Interpersonal and team skills.
D. Pre-assignment.

153. All of the following are true about conflict management EXCEPT:

A. It is inevitable in a project environment and should be addressed early.

B. It should usually be addressed in private.
C. It should be addressed only when it becomes disruptive, and at an official team meeting.
D. It should be addressed using a direct, collaborative approach.

154. Team building has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Team-building activities can vary from a five-minute agenda item in a status review meeting
to an off-site, professionally facilitated experience designed to improve interpersonal
relationships.
B. Team building should be primarily considered after major conflicts within the project team,
because they generally waste precious resource time and cause schedule delays.
C. Team-building strategies are particularly valuable when team members operate from
remote locations without the benefit of face-to-face contact.
D. Team building is essential during the front end of a project and is an ongoing process. To
effectively manage inevitable changes in the project environment, a continued or renewed
team-building effort is required.

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155. Training has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It includes all activities designed to enhance the competencies of the project team members.
B. It can be formal or informal. Examples of training methods include classroom, online,
computer-based, on-the-job training from another project team member, mentoring, and
coaching.
C. If project team members lack necessary management or technical skills, the project should
be deemed outside the core competencies of the performing organization, outsourced, or
abandoned.
D. If project team members lack the necessary management or technical skills, such skills can
be developed as part of the project work.

156. Effective team development strategies and activities are expected to increase the team's
performance, which increases the likelihood of meeting project objectives. The evaluation of a
team's effectiveness may include all of the following indicators EXCEPT:

A. Improvements in skills that allow individuals to perform assignments more effectively.

B. Improvements in competencies that help the team perform better as a unit.
C. Improvements in the overall project performance as a result of increased intensity of conflict
among project team members.
D. Reduced staff turnover rate.

157. Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict include:

A. Smooth, compromise, collaborate, and co-locating.

B. Accept, compromise, attack, and separate.
C. Accommodate, compromise, force, and collaborate.
D. Withdraw, force, elaborate, and provide sensitivity training.

158. Managing and leading the project team includes:

A. The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues,
and optimizing project performance.
B. Subscribing to the code of professional conduct, but does not involve ensuring that all team
members follow professional and ethical behaviours.
C. Influencing the project team to achieve the triple constraints of the project. However,
professional and ethical behaviours of project team members are outside the domain of the
project management team.
D. Instructing the project team to avoid being caught in repetitive violations of the norms of
professional and ethical behaviours specified by the performing organization.

159. Team development stages include:

A. Starting, Organizing, Preparing, Executing, and Closing.

B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.
C. Acquiring, Managing, Leading, Decision Making, and Releasing.
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

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160. All of the following choices represent inputs to the Estimate Activity Resources process EXCEPT:

A. Activity list.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. The deliverable-oriented WBS of a previous, similar project.
D. Resource management plan.

161. Outputs from the Estimate Activity Resources process include:

A. Job descriptions of resources required for the project.

B. Salary schedules for various project resources.
C. Identification of the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work
package.
D. Analogous estimates of resource requirements for each work package and each work period.

162. Team building has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is the process of helping a group of individuals to build a collaborative and cooperative

working environment.
B. It requires handling project team problems decisively and removing the individual(s)
responsible for these problems from the team promptly to ensure a productive, smooth
project environment.
C. It can help individual team members work together effectively.
D. It can be particularly valuable when team members operate from remote locations without
the benefit of face-to-face contact.

163. Motivating involves creating an environment to meet project objectives while providing
satisfaction related to what people value most. All of the following are reasons of motivation
EXCEPT:

A. Encouraging someone to act.

B. Participating in decision making.
C. Providing accurate criticism in the annual performance review or after the project is
completed.
D. Encouraging people to work independently.

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Chapter 11 - Project Risk Management (Questions)

176. The key processes of Project Risk Management are:

A. Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Assess Risks, Mitigate Risks, Transfer Risks, and
Document Outcomes.
B. Identify Risks, Plan Risk Management, Evaluate Risks, Develop Risk Responses, Mitigate Risks
and Document Results.
C. Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Validation, Perform Quantitative Impact Assessment,
Develop Risk Response Strategies, Document Response Strategies, and Monitor Risk
Responses.
D. Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform
Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, Implement Risk Responses, and Monitor
Risks.

177. Strategies typically used to deal with threats or risks that may have negative impacts on project
objectives if they occur include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Interpreting.
B. Avoiding.
C. Transferring.
D. Mitigating.

178. Risk transference nearly always involves:

A. Eliminating risk through beta testing.

B. Policies and procedures for a response system.
C. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun their budget.
D. Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.

179. In the Plan Risk Responses process, an accept strategy for a negative risk or threat indicates
that the project team has decided:

A. To agree with the project manager.

B. To eliminate a specific risk or threat, to reduce the probability and/or impact of an adverse
risk event to be within acceptable threshold limits, or to pursue an opportunity actively.
C. Not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or it is unable to identify any
other suitable response strategy.
D. To purchase insurance, or to require performance bonds, warranties, and guarantees.

180. The primary output of the Identify Risks process is the:

A. Risk register.
B. Expected monetary value of the risk events.
C. List of corrective actions.
D. Risk mitigation plan.

181. A thorough analysis of the will help identify potential risks to the project.
35
 A. Risk identification checklist based on historical information and knowledge
B. Project's change control system
C. Project's mission statement
D. Project's schedule and budget

182. All of the following are inputs to the Identify Risks process EXCEPT:

A. Risk management plan.

B. Scope baseline.
C. Risk mitigation plan.
D. Quality management plan.

183. Outputs from the Plan Risk Responses process include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Change requests.
B. Corrective actions.
C. Project documents updates.
D. Project management plan updates.

184. Tools and techniques of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process include:

A. Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance.

B. Interviewing, historical results, workarounds, and response development.
C. Checklists, damage control reports, standard allowances, and inspection.
D. Expert judgment, data gathering, simulations, and decision tree analysis.

185. As an output of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, the risk register is updated.
These updates generally include:

A. Prioritized list of quantified risks.

B. Qualitative analysis of the threats to ignore and opportunities to accept.
C. Checklists, corrective actions, and qualified decision trees.
D. Direction, resources, and contingency costs.

186. A risk impact assessment to investigate the potential effect on a project objective such as
schedule, cost, quality, or performance has the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Evaluation of each risk can be conducted using a probability and impact matrix that leads to
rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority.
B. Approaches used in evaluating risk impacts related to project objectives could be relative,
numerical, or nonlinear.
C. Usually, risk-rating rules are specified by the organization in advance of the project and can
be tailored to the specific project.
D. The impact on project objectives should be assessed primarily at the end of the project, as
part of the lessons learned.

36
187. The outputs from the Monitor Risks process include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Project documents updates.

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
C. Change requests.
D. Project management plan updates.

188. The risk rating:

A. Is calculated by multiplying the probability of the occurrence of a risk times its impact
(numerical scale) on an objective (e.g., cost, time, scope, or quality) if it were to occur.
B. Is the sum of squares of the scale values assigned to the estimates of probability and impact.
C. Cannot be used to determine whether a risk is considered low, moderate, or high.
D. Is a commonly used technique for risk avoidance.

189. Which one of the following choices is the BEST description of sensitivity analysis?

A. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of project objectives affects each project
element simultaneously.
B. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective
being studied when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values.
C. It is a method for assessing stakeholders’ tolerance to risk.
D. It cannot be used to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project.

190. All of the following are characteristics of a decision tree EXCEPT:

A. A decision tree is a diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of
a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.
B. Decision tree analysis is a risk analysis tool that can be used to choose the most appropriate
responses.
C. A decision tree is primarily a graphical, qualitative risk analysis technique and is not generally
used in quantitative risk analysis.
D. Decision tree analysis uses the expected monetary value (EMV) analysis to calculate the
average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.

191. The risk management plan generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Methodology.
B. Risk strategy.
C. Responses to individual risks.
D. Risk categories.

37
192. The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process assesses the priority of identified risks using all of
the following EXCEPT:

A. Relative probability or likelihood of occurrence of identified risks.

B. Impact on project objectives if the identified risks occur.
C. A mathematical technique, such as the expected monetary value (EMV), to create the
impression of precision and accuracy.
D. The organization's risk tolerance associated with the project constraints of cost, schedule,
scope, and quality.

193. As an output of the Monitor Risks process, an updated risk register generally includes some or
all of the following EXCEPT:

A. The work breakdown structure (WBS).

B. Outcomes of risk reassessments, risk audits, and periodic risk reviews.
C. Identification of new risks, updates to probability, impact, priority, response plans,
ownership, and other elements of the risk register.
D. Actual outcomes of the project's risks and of the risk responses.

194. SWOT analysis has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is a technique that examines the project from each of the strengths, weaknesses,
opportunities, and threats (SWOT) perspectives to increase the breadth of identified risks by
including internally generated risks.
B. It identifies strengths and weaknesses of the organization, regardless of the specific project
or the general business area.
C. It identifies any opportunities for the project that arise from organizational strengths, and
any threats arising from organizational weaknesses.
D. It examines the degree to which organizational strengths offset threats, as well as identifies
opportunities that may serve to overcome weaknesses.

195. All of the following are inputs to the Implement Risk Response process EXCEPT:

A. Project documents.
B. Project risk management plan.
C. Organizational project assets.
D. Expert judgment.

38